Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHASE 3A > General Practise > Flashcards

General Practise Flashcards

1
Q

When should an urgent referral to endoscopy be made?

A
  • Age 55 or older with
  • weight loss and
  • upper abdominal pain, reflux or dyspepsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the 1st line tx for cellulitis

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary cause of primary Hyperparathyroidism

A

Solitary adenoma (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Sx and signs of low calcium?

A

CATS go NUMB (convulsions, arrhythmias, tetany, spasms, numbness)
Chvostek and troseaus sign
ECG- long QT intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What medication is recommended by NICE to be given for prophylaxis of SBP?

A

Oral ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for ascites in liver cirrhosis?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the classical triad associated with ascending cholangitis?

A

Fever
Jaundice
RUQ abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What tx can be given to prevent hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose (gets rid of ammonia)

Rifaximin- recommended by NICE as option to reduce the recurrence of overt HE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What tx is the first line therapy to maintain remission in chrons disease?

A

Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What antibody is prominent in Hashimotos?

A

Anti TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the genetic mutation responsible for Wilson’s disease?

A

ATP7B gene defect on chromosome 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a se of levothyroxine?

A

Osteoporosis
Hyperthyroidism
Worsening of angina
AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What histological findings are associated with coeliac disease?

A

Crypt hyperplasia
Villous atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What rash is coincides with coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is pellagra?

A

Vitamin b3 (niacin or nicotinic acid) deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of pellagra?

A

Dermatitis
Diarrhoea
Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is triple therapy for ulcers?

A

Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
Omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What endoscopic findings are found in UC?

A

Erythemous mucosa
Loss of hasutral markings
Pseudopolyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the biopsy findings in UC?

A

Loss of goblet cells
Crypt abscess
Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anaemia

A

Thalassemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
IDA
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What murmur is associated with aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur
- Radiates to the carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ,murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation?

A

Pansystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiating into the axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When should infective endocarditis be suspected in a patient?

A

Fever + new murmur (no hx of valvular pathology)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List 4 symptoms and signs of infective endocarditis?

A

Sx- fever, new murmur, SOB, malaise, weight loss, night sweats, fatigue

Signs- Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots and splinter haemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose IE?

A

Dukes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is stable angina and list 3 sx?

A

Stable angina is reversibel myocardial ischaemia on exertion and relieved by rest or GTN

Chest pain on exertion
Dyspnoea
Diaphoresis
Fatigue
Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the 1st line and GS ix of stable angina?

A

1st line- ECG
GS- CT coronary angiogrpahy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

WHta is the medical management and secondary prevention for stable angina?

A

Medical mx:
- Immediate relief- GTN spray
-Long term sx rleief- BB/CCB daily

secondary prevention:
-Aspirin 75mg
-ACEI
-Statin
-BB (already on one for long term relief)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is unstable angina

A

reversible myocardial ischaemia at rest or on minimal exertion in the absence of acute cardiomyocyte injury/necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What ix are indicated in unstable angina and list their results?

A

ECG- ST depression, Transiet ST elevations, T wave changes

Troponin- Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List 3 Non-modifiable and 5 modifiable RF for ACS

A

Diabetes
HTN
Smoking
Obesity
Hyperlipidaemia
Physical inactivity

Age, Male, FHx, Ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the mx of prinzmetal’s angina?

A

CCB- verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a STEMI?

A

Myocardial infarction caused by a complete occlusion of a coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What ix would be done in a STEMI?

A

1st line- ECG (ST elevations)
also
Troponin levels- Raised
Coronary angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

acute Mx of STEMI

A

MONA
Sx- PCI if within 2 hours of medical contact and within 12 hours of sx onset if not Thrombolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What investigation results would represent NSTEMI?

A

ECG- (ST depression, Transient ST elevations, T wave changes, pathological Q waves)

Troponin levels- Raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the GRACE score and what is it used for?

A

This scoring system gives 6 month risk of death after having NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mx of unsatble angina and NSTEMI

A

Oxygen
Aspirin
Ticagrelor
Morphine
Antithrobin therapy with Fondaparinux
Nitrate (GTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the post MI mx

A

Apsirin 75mg
Antiplatelet therapy
ACEI
BB
Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the definition of HF?

A

defined as the failure of the heart to generate sufficient cardiac output to meet the metabolic demands of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List 5 sx/signs of LHF

A

SOBOE
PND
Orthopnea
Pulmonary oedema
Nocturnal cough +/- pink frothy sputum
Fatigue
Cold peripheries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List 5 sx/signs of RHF

A

Hepatomegaly
Ankle oedema
Raised JVP
Ascites
Epistaxis
WG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What classification in used in HF and list the criteria

A

NYHA
Class I - no limitation in physical activity, and activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation or dyspnoea.

Class II - slight limitation of physical activity, and comfort at rest. Ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitation and/or dyspnoea.

Class III - marked limitation in physical activity, but comfort at rest. Minimal physical activity causes fatigue (less than ordinary).

Class IV - inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort, with symptoms occurring at rest. If any activity takes place, discomfort increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is HFrEF and HFpEF?

A

HFrEF- ejection fraction <40%
HFpEF- ejection fraction >40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the 1st line ix for HF?

A

BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List the conservative tx for HF

A

Weight loss if BMI >30.

Smoking cessation

Salt and fluid restriction - improves mortality

Supervised exercise-based group rehabilitation

Offer annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations for patients diagnosed with heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What rx is used for symptomatic mx and mortality mx HF?

A

symtpmatic- Furosemide

Mortality-
1st line- ACEI + BB
If sx get worse add
hydralazine, ivarbradine, spiranolactone, digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Signs of hypokalaemia on ECG

A

Prominent U waves
Small/Absent T waves
Prolonged PR interval
ST depression
Long QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Signs of hyperkaleamia on ECG

A

tall-tented T waves,
small P waves,
widened QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List the ECG changes seen in A-fib

A

Absent P waves
Narrow QRS complex
Irregularly Iregular Rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

List the causes of A-fib?

A

Mrs SMITH
Sepsis
Mitral valve pathology
IHD
Thyrotoxicosis
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is A-fib?

A

A supraventricular tachyarrythmia characterised by irregular, uncordianted atrial contractions at the rate of 300-600bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the mx of A-Fib
a) Rate control (when)
b) Rhythm control (when)

A

Rate control- reversible cause, onset >48 hours
- Beta Blockers (Bisoprolol)
- CCB (dialtezam)
- Digoxin

Rhythm control- new onset AF
2 methods
1) electrical cardioversion
2) Pharmacalogical cardioverison e.g. amiodarone, Flecanide (pill in pocket) or Sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What tool is used in AF to mitigate stroke risk?

A

CHADS2VASc Score
C: 1 point for congestive cardiac failure.
H: 1 point for hypertension.
A2: 2 points if the patient is aged 75 or over.
D: 1 point if the patient has diabetes mellitus.
S2: 2 points if the patient has previously had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
V: 1 point if the patient has known vascular disease.
A: 1 point if the patient is aged 65-74.
Sc: 1 point if the patient is female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What ECG fetures are seen in Atrial flutter

A

Regular rhythm
Saw tooth pattern
Narrow QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is V-Tac and what is its mx (pulseless and pulse)?

A

A regular broad complex tachycardia. It can occur with a pulse or it may be pulseless.

no pulse- Shock (x3) + IV adrenaline + IV amiodarone
-adrenaline every 3-5 minuets after

if pulse- IV amiadorone 300mg if not enough shock (X3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is V-Fib and list its management?

A

An irregular broad complex tachycardia. This is always a pulseless rhythm.

Shock(x3) + IV adrenaline + IV amiodarone

  • adrenaline every 3-5 minuets after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

List the causative agents in infective endocarditis for the folowing?
a) IVDU
b) Poor dental hygeine
c) Prosthetic valve
d) Colorectal cancer

A

a) staph aureus
b) strep viridans
c) Staph epidermidis
d) Strep bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

List 3 signs of infective endocarditis

A

Splinter haemorrhages

Osler’s nodes: painful pulp infarcts on end of fingers.

Roth spots: boat-shaped retinal haemorrhages with pale centres seen on fundoscopy.

Janeway leisons- painless haemorrhagic cutaneous lesions in the palms and soles

Septic emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which lung cancer most common in non-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gs investigation for bronchiectasis

A

HRCT- high resolution CT

Thickened dilated airways w or w/o fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A stony dull percussion indicates what

A

Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What lung cancer is strongly associated with smoking

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cancer can spread to the lungs from what areas

A 
Kidney 
Prostate 
Breast 
Bowel 
Bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Lung cancer can metastasise to which sites

A

Brain
Adrenals
Bone
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What ECG Changes may you see in COPD

A

Prominent P wave in inferior leads (II,III, aVF)
Right axis deviation
Low voltage QRS
RBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with small cell lung cancers

A

ACTH- Cushings
SIADH
Lambert Eaton myasthenia syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes is associated with non small cell lung cancer

A

Hyperparthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What would be seen on histology of an asthmatic

A

Charcot Leyden crystals and crushmann spirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What drug should be given for prophylaxis against the se of isoniazid

A

Pyridoxine hydrochloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the signs of TB on CXR

A 
Ghon focus
Dense homogenous opacity 
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Pleural effusions 
Tree in a bud sign- nodules w/ poorly defined margins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Differentials for bi-hilar lymphadenopathy

A 
Sarcoidosis 
Silicosis 
Hodgkin lymphoma 
Mycoplasma 
TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Signs and sx of bronchiectasis

A

Clubbing
Coarse inspiratory crepitations
Cough w/ sputum production
Intermittent haemoptysis
SOB
Wheeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Complications of COPD

A

Respiratory infections
Lung cancer
Pneumothorax
ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Differentials of COPD

A

Asthma
Bronchiectasis
TB
Congestive HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

COPD encompasses 2 types of chronic lung diseases, what are they?

A

1) Emphysema- enlargement of air spaces and destruction of alveolar walls
2) Chronic Bronchitis-hypertrophy and hyperplasia of mucus glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Signs of pneumoniae

A

Dull percussion
Increased vocal resonance/ tactile fremitus
Pleural rub
Bronchial breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the mx of COPD?

A
  1. SABA or SAMA
  2. if no astmathic- +LABA +LAMA
    if astmathic- +LABA +ICS
  3. +LABA +LAMA +ICS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Signs of COPD

A

Hyperinflation
Hyper-resonance on percussion
Reduced chest expansion
Decreased/quiet breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

List 3 RF for COPD?

A

Smoking
Alpha 1 antitrypsion deficiency
Occupation- coal/cotton/grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Abx to five according to CURB-65

A

0-1= amoxicillin po
2- amoxicillin and clarithromycin/doxycycline
3-5= iv co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Nitrofurnatoin
Amiadorone
Methotrexate
Bleomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If PE score is less than 4 what is next line management

A

D dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If PE score is more than or equal to 4 what’s the next step

A

CTPA and start on DOAC

85
Q

List 5 causes of finger clubbing

A 
Bronchiectasis 
Cystic fibrosis 
VSD 
IPF
Lung cancer
86
Q

List 5 differentials for dry cough

A 
Asthma 
Gord
Pulmonary fibrosis 
Ramipril induced
Sleep apnoea
87
Q

List t differentials for sputum/wet cough

A 
COPD
Bronchiectasis 
Acute bronchitis 
HF
Cystic fibrosis
88
Q

What prophylaxis abx is given in COPD

A

Azithromycin

89
Q

What is the mx of chronic asthma?

A
  1. SABA
  2. SABA + ICS
  3. SABA +ICS + LTRA
  4. SABA +ICS + LABA +/- LTRA
  5. MART(inc ICS) + LABA +/-LTRA
90
Q

What is the acute mx of asthma attack?

A

ABCDE approach
ensure o2 sats 94%-98%
Nebulisers (Salbutamol/Ipratropium)
Steroids (PO Pred/IV Hydro)
IV MgSO4
IV aminophylline

91
Q

What is the causative organism of TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid fast bacilli)

92
Q

What stain is required to diagnose TB, list the finding?

A

Ziehl neelsen stain
bacteria turns red against blue background

93
Q

What drugs are indicated for TB. List their respective SE?

A

Rifampicin- SE- Red/orange wee
Isoniazid- SE- Peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide- SE- Gout/Hepatitis
Ethambutol- SE- Optic neuritis/colour desaturation

94
Q

What is the CF and its mode of inheritance?

A

CF is a genetic disease caused by mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane
conductance regulator (CFTR) gene

Autosomal Recessive

95
Q

GS Ix for CF?

A

Sweat test (cl- conc >60mmol/L)

96
Q

What is the most common causative organism of CAP?

A

Strep Pneumoniae

97
Q

What risk score is used CAP to assess disease severity?

A

CURB-65
Confusion- 1 point
Urea >7mmol- 1 point
RR >30- 1 point
BP (<90 systolic or <60 diastolic)- 1 Point
Age >65 years- 1 point

98
Q

What is the following CURB scores indicative of in terms of treatment?

A

0/1: home-based care, give oral amoxicillin for 5 days

2: hospital-based care, 7-10 day course of dual antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin (IV or oral) and a macrolide

3: Hospital/ITU-based care, 7-10 day course of dual antibiotic therapy with IV co-amoxiclav/ceftriaxone/tazocin and a macrolide.

99
Q

List 5 sx of Pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Cough
SOB
End expiratory basialr crackles
Clubbing
WL
Fatigue

100
Q

What is sarcoidosis and list 5 sx?

A

multisystem chronic granulomatous disorder of unknown cause commonly
affecting the lungs, skin and eyes.

Bilaterla hilar lymphadenopathy
Erythema nodosum (on shins)
Lupus pernio
Facial palsy
Non-productive cough
Hypercalcaemia
SOB
WL/Polyarthralgia

101
Q

List the spirometry results for onstructive lung disease?

A

TLC + RV- Increased
FEV1- Decreased
FEV1/FVC- Decreased (<0.7)

102
Q

List the spirometry results for restrictive lung disease?

A

TLC + RV- Decreased
FVC- Decreased
FEV1/FVC- increased (>0.7) or normal

103
Q

List the features of crohns disease

A

Diarrhoea- usaully non bloody
Weight loss
Upper GI symptoms, moth ulcers, perianal diseases
Abdomianl mass palpalble in right illiac fossa

104
Q

List the features of UC?

A

Bloody diarrhoea
Abdo pain in the LIF
Tenesmus

105
Q

List the histology for both UC and Crohns?

A

UC- decreased goblet cells, granulomas. Increased lymphocytes. Just submucosal inflammation

Crohns- Increased goblet cells, granulomas. Inflammation in all layers

106
Q

List the endoscopy findings for Crohns and UC?

A

UC- Loss of haustral markings, continous inflammation, Pseudopolyps

Crohns- Ulcers, Skip leisons, cobble stone appaerance

107
Q

List the acute and remission tx for both UC and Crohns

A

Crohns-
acute- Glucocorticoids (PO/IV)
Remission- 1st- azathioprine or mercaptopurine
2nd methotrexate

UC
acute- topical/oral 5ASA +/- corticosteroids
Remission- moderate- oral aminosalicylate
severe- oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine

108
Q

definition for the following?

a) Diverticular disease
b) diverticulosis
c)diverticulitis

A

a) presence of diverticula, which are small, bulging pouches most commonly in the sigmoid colon. sx constipation, LLQ pain, Posiible rectal bleeding

b) refers to the simple presence of diverticula. In many cases, diverticulosis is asymptomatic, and individuals may not even be aware that they have these diverticula as they are typically discovered incidentally during tests for other conditions.

c) subset of diverticular disease, occurs when these diverticula become inflamed or infected. This condition is typically characterized by severe abdominal pain, fever, and nausea.

109
Q

list 2 complications of diverticualr disease?

A

Abscess formation
perforation
fistula frmation
fibrosis

110
Q

What is acute cholecystitis and list 5 sx?

A

sudden onset of inflammation in the gallbladder. It is often associated with the presence of gallstones, particularly when one of these stones obstructs the cystic duct

sx- Fever, RUQ pain/epigatsric pain that can radiate to shoulder tip, N+V, RUQ tenderness, Murphy’s sign

111
Q

WHat is the 1st line ix of acute cholecystitis and subsequent mx?

A

1st line- USS

mx- intravenous antibiotics +
cholecystectomy

112
Q

WHat is Murphy’s sign?

A

on examination: inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant

113
Q

What is charcots triad for ascending cholangitis?

A

Fever
RUQ pain
Jaundice

114
Q

What are the NICE refferal guidelines for colorectal cancer

A

> =40- unexplained WL and abdo pain
=50- unexplained wl
=60- with IDA or change in bowel habit
FIT test shows blood in faeces

115
Q

What is the screening programme for bowel cancer and who is elligible?

A

FIT (Faecal immunochemical test)
The NHS has a national screening programme offering screening every 2 years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England
- test sent through the post
- abnormal results are offered colonoscopy

116
Q

WHta is pyelonephritis and list its features?

A

Pyelonephritis is a urinary tract infection affecting the kidneys/renal pelvis.

Fever/rigors
Malaise
Loin/flank pain
Vomiting
dysuria/uyinary frequency

117
Q

what is the ixs and mx for pyelonehritis?

A

Ix- Urine dipstick, Urine MSU for microscopy, culture and sensitivities, FBC + U&Es

mx- For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered
local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available

118
Q

How is the diagnosis of diabetes made?

A

Fasting glucose- >7.0mmol/l
Random Blood Glucose- >11.1mmol/l
HbA1c >48mmol/l

119
Q

what is DKA and list its Causes?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a medical emergency that is characterised by hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia.

causes- infection, dehydration, fasting, or the first presentation of Type 1 diabetes

120
Q

What 3 features are required to make a diagnosis of DKA?

A

Hyperglycaemia, presence of blood or urine ketones, metabolic acidosis.

121
Q

What is the mx of DKA?

A

1) IV fluids- 0.9% NaCl
2) Replacemnt of potassium/elctrolytes
3) Insulin infuison
4) Long acting insulin should be continues, short acting insulin should be stopped

Monitor for signs of cerebral oedema- very common in 18-25yrs so give slower infusion to
reduce risk

122
Q

WHat are the blood gas results in DKA?

A

Glucose >11mmol/l
pH <7.3
blood ketones >3mmol/l
bicarbonate <15mmol/l

123
Q

List 3 complications of hyperthroidism ?

A

Thyroid storm
A fib
Osteopenia/osteoporosis
Corneal ulcers/visual loss in Graves’ eye disease

124
Q

What pattern of thyroid function tests would you expect with Grave’s disease?

A

Elevated T3 and T4,
low or suppressed TSH.

125
Q

WHta is the medical mx of hyperthyroidism?

A

Either ‘titration-block’ or ‘block and replace’ regimens

Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil

126
Q

List 2 primary and 2 secondary causes of hyperthyroidism?

A

Primary- Graves disease, Toxid adenoma, medications (amiadorone), Radiation exposure

Secondary Amiodorone, Lithium, pituitary addenoma, Gestational

127
Q

List 5 features of hypethyroidism

A

Heat intolerance
Tachycardia and arrhythmias
Weight loss
Diarrhoea
Sweaty skin
Insomnia and sleep disturbances
Restlessness and tremors

128
Q

List the fetures of graves disese

A

Exophthalmos/proptosis
Lid lag
Thyroid acropachy: Soft tissue swelling in extremities, nail clubbing, and periosteal new bone growth.
Pretibial myxoedema

129
Q

WHat antoboides are indicative of Graves disease?

A

Anti TSH

130
Q

WHat antoboides are indicative of Hashimotos disease?

A

Anti TPO

131
Q

What is the treatment for primary hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid homrone replacement with levothyroxine.

132
Q

What pattern of thyroid function tests would you expect with hypothyroidism?

A

low T3/4 and raised TSH.

133
Q

List 5 features of hypothyroidism?

A

Cold intolerance
Weight gain
Dry skin
brittle hair
loss of oute 1/3 eyebrows
carpal tunnel syndorme
peripherla neuropathy
constipation
Macroglossia
puffy face

134
Q

What is the first line test for Acromegaly?

A

IGF-1

135
Q

What are the clincial features of acromegaly?

A

Large hands and feet
Outward growth of the jaw and head with increased inter dental spacing and macroglossia
Headaches
Erectile dysfunction
Voice change
Increased sweating
Mood disturbances
Fatigue.

136
Q

What is the best test to confirm the diagnosis of Acromegaly?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test

137
Q

What are the complications of Acromegaly?

A

Visual fields defect
Hypopituitarism
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Type two diabetes mellitus
Arthritis
Carpal tunnel syndrome
IHD/CVS/HTN

138
Q

What is the first line treatment for Acromegaly?

A

Transsphenoidal surgery.

139
Q

What are the other mx options other than sx for acromegaly?

A

Somatostatin receptor ligands- Octreotide
Pegvisomant (GH analogue)
Cabergoline (Dopamine agonist)
Radiotherapy

140
Q

What is acromegly

A

Acromegaly is a condition resulting from excessive growth hormone secretion, usually due to a secreting pituitary adenoma.

141
Q

WHta re the clinical features of cushings syndrome?

A

Striae
Obesity
Hypokalaemia
Moon face
Acne and hirsutism
Interscapular and supraclavicular fat pads
Centripetal obesity
Thin skin
Osteopenia or osteoporosis

142
Q

What are the causes of cushings?

A

ACTH Dependent- pituitary tumour, ectopic ACTH producing tumours

ACTH independent- adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas

143
Q

what is cushings syndrome and cushings disease?

A

Cushing syndrome is a chronic excessive and inappropriate
elevated levels of circulating cortisol whatever the cause.

Cushing’s disease- Specifically refers to excess glucocorticoids resulting from inappropriate
ACTH secretion from pituitary due to tumour

144
Q

what is the 1st line ix for cushings?

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

145
Q

What are the features of osteoarthritis on a XRAY?

A

remembered with the mnemonic LOSS:

Loss of joint space.
Osteophytes.
Subchondral cysts.
Subarticular sclerosis.

146
Q

How can osteoarthristis be distinguished form inflammtaory diseases?

A

Pain in OA is worse with movement and towards the end of the day, and morning stiffness is not prolonged (usually <20 minutes).

In contrast, pain in inflammatory arthritis tends to improve with movement, and morning stiffness is prolonged (>30 minutes).

147
Q

What are the differentials to consider in a presentation of an acute monoarthritis?

A

GHOST
Gout/Pseudogout
Haemarthrosis
OA
Septic arthritis

148
Q

What are the radiological signs of rheumatoid arthritis on an xray?

A

LOSE
loss of joint space,
osteopenia (peri-articular),
soft tissue swelling and subluxation,
erosions and deformities.

149
Q

What is the prophylactic management for gout?

A

allopurinol.

150
Q

What is the first line treatment for osteoarthritis

A

paracetamol and topical NSAIDs are first line

151
Q

What is a potential local complication of intra-articular corticosteroid injection?

A

Septic arthritis due to local immunosuppression

152
Q

What are the three main aspects of osteoarthritis management?

A

1) Conservative (Weight loss, aerobic exercise, and PT / OT input)
2) Pharmacological (Step up the WHO pain ladder, and steroid injections)
3) Surgery (joint arthroplasty)

153
Q

What are the key risk factors for osteoarthritis?

A

Age
Obesity
Previous trauma
Systemic disease including diabetes and other rare arthropathy

154
Q

Which signs in the hands are suggestive of osteoarthritis?

A

Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes on the distal and proximal interphalngeal joints respectively.

155
Q

WHta is the gold standard ix for gout and its respective results

A

Arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis showing
* Needle shaped urate crystals
* Negatively birefringent of polarised light

156
Q

What is the acute management of gout?

A

First line - NSAIDs.
Second line - colchicine.
Third line - steroids (systemic or intra-articular).

157
Q

What does polarised light microscopy of synovial fluid reveal in pseudogout?

A

Positively birefringent, rhomboid shaped crystals.

158
Q

list the differentials of monoarthropathy

A

The most important differentials of a monoarthropathy are:

1) Septic arthritis
2) Crystal arthropathy - gout/ psuedogout
3) Inflammatory arthritis - rheumatoid arthritis and seronegative arthritis

159
Q

The joint most commonly involved in acute gout is?

A

The first metatarsophalangeal joint

160
Q

What needs to be started alongside allpurinol in gout?

A

Allopurinol transiently raises urate levels and NSAID or colchicine cover has to be introduced for 3 months.

161
Q

symptoms of gout

A

Excruciating sudden burning pain in affected joint
Swelling, redness, warmth and stiffness in affected joint
Assymetric joint distribution
Mild fever

162
Q

Lifestyle changes for the prevention of gout

A

Reduction of alcohol consumption
Reduction of purine-based foods- meat and seafood

163
Q

what medictaions can casue hyperuricaemia and should thus be reviewed

A

Thiazides and loop diuretics
Low dose salicylates
Chemotherapy

164
Q

What monitoring do patients with methotrexate need?

A

Full blood count,
liver function tests and creatinine. These patients also need a chest x ray before starting methotrexate.

165
Q

WHta is RA?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis is a commonon chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease.

166
Q

How is disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis monitored?

A

DAS28 scoring system, consisting of:

CRP or ESR
Number of swollen or tender joints
Patient questionnaire.

167
Q

Which classical deformities of the hands occur in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Swan-neck finger deformity (MCP flexion, PIP hyperextension, DIP hyperflexion).

Boutonniere finger deformity (PIP flexion, DIP hyperextension).

Ulnar deviation of proximal phalanges.

Z-shaped thumb.

168
Q

What is the triad of Felty’s Syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia

169
Q

What joints affected in RA

A

MTP
MCP
PIP

170
Q

What scoring system is used to assess for the severity of RA

A

DAS28

171
Q

What are the signs/Sx of RA

A 
Early morning stiffness 
Pain eases with use 
Fatigue 
Extra-articular involvement- nodules, pleural effusions, episcleritis, amyloidosis, carpal tunnel 
Symmetrical, deforming polyartropathy
Joint swelling
172
Q

What is the tx for RA

A 
Regular NSAIDs
During flares- corticosteroids 
Remission- 1st line- DMARD monotherapy
			   2nd line- dual DMARD
				3rd line- methotrexate + TNF inhibitor 
4th- methotrexate and rituximab
173
Q

Se of methotrexate

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

Teratogenic

174
Q

5 sx of a ankylosing spondylitis

A 
Back pain 
Buttock pain 
Uveitis
Enthesis 
Weight loss
Fatigue 
Lower back stiffness
Sleep disturbances
175
Q

1st line Ix in ank spon

A

Pelvic/back X-ray

Other- Inflamma markers/Hal b27/ mri

176
Q

What X-ray changes can be seen in ank spon

A

Syndesmophytes (bamboo spine)

Sacroilitis

177
Q

Tx for ank spon

A

Encourage exercise
1st line- NSAIDs
Intra-articulate corticosteroid injection
DMARDs

178
Q

Sx and signs of psoriatic arthritis

A

Symmetrical
Dactylitis
History of Psoriasis- pink scaly patches
Onycholisis/ nail pitting
Pain swelling and stiffness of affected joints

179
Q

What joint is mostly affected in psoriatic arthritis

A

Dip

180
Q

What X-ray sing is seen in psoriatic arthritis

A

Pencil in cup

181
Q

Tx for psoriatic arthritis

A

Mild- NSAIDs
Severe cases- DMARDS
anti TNF
Ustekinumab and seckinimab

182
Q

What is reactive arthritis

A

An inflammatory seronegative spondylarthropathy that occurs after exposure to GI or GU infections

183
Q

What triad of Sx is seen in reactive arthritis

A

Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Arthritis

184
Q

What rash is commonly associated with reactive arthritis

A

Keratoderma blennorhagia- waxy Paiutes on palms and soles

185
Q

Sx for sjorgens

A 
Dry eyes
Dry mouth
Vaginal dryness
Burning mouth
Arthralgia 
Raynauds
186
Q

What antibodies associated with sjorgen

A

Anti ro and anti la

187
Q

what are the first line ix for RA?

A

Rheumatoid factor
Anti CCP antiboides (MORE SPECIFIC)
inflammatory markers- CRP/ESR (raised- can be used to monitor deisease severity)

188
Q

Which treatments for rheumatoid arthritis slow down progression of the disease?

A

DMARDs eg. Methotrexate, Sulfasalazine, Hydroxychloroquine, Leflunomide

Biologics eg. Anti-TNF’s such as infliximab

189
Q

what joints are typicalaly spared in RA?

A

DIP JOINTS

190
Q

SX of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Shoulder/hip girdle stiffness (usually in the mornings) for >1 hour

Low-grade fever
Reduced appetite
Weight loss
Malaise

191
Q

tx for polymyagial rheumatica?

A

Low-dose corticosteroids

192
Q

List 3 red flags for back pain?

A

New onset when aged ≤20 or ≥55 years

Pain is progressive or not relieved by rest – suggests infection or cancer

Spinal (rather than paraspinal) tenderness

Fevers, chills and weight loss – suggest infection or cancer

Early morning stiffness for >30 minutes – suggests inflammatory spondyloarthropathy

Abnormal lower limb neurology or bladder/bowel symptoms – suggests nerve root compression, spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome

193
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute tonsilitis?

A

Group A Streptococcus

194
Q

What is the scoring tool use to estimate the probability of a streptococcal cause of acute tonsiltis?

A

The CENTOR criteria

195
Q

What is the Pica symptoms seen in patients with IDA?

A

Cravings for non-food substances like ice, clay etc

196
Q

What are the steps for confirming a death?

A
  1. Confirm patient identity
  2. Check for obvious life signs
  3. Check response to verbal and painful stimuli
  4. Assess pupils - should be fixed and dilated
  5. Feel a central pulse
  6. Listen for heart and resp sounds for 5 minutes total
197
Q

What is the level of total cholesterol which indicates primary management and what is the Mx

A

> 5mmol/L

20mg Atorvastatin

198
Q

What are the side effects of Atorvostatin?

A

Muscle pain, Abdominal pain, Constipation and Headache

199
Q

What is atopic dermatitis?

A

Atopic dermatitis is a common inflammatory skin condition characterized by dry, itchy, and red patches on the skin.

200
Q

What are the environmental triggers for atopic dermatitis?

A

Triggers include stress, allergens, and irritants, such as perfumes, detergents, soap, clothes, hormones, and foods.

201
Q

What is atopy, and what conditions does it predispose individuals to?

A

Atopy is a predisposition to an exaggerated IgE response to allergen exposure. It predisposes individuals to atopic eczema, allergic rhinitis, and asthma.

202
Q

What are the management strategies for atopic dermatitis?

A

Identify triggers
Emollients (lotions, creams, gels, sprays, ointments)
Topical corticosteroids (mild to very potent)
Topical calcineurin inhibitors.

Treatment options vary based on severity.

203
Q

What are some signs of poor asthma control?

A
  • Reduced effectiveness of bronchodilator
  • Reduced exercise tolerance
  • Asthma attack within the last 2 years
  • History of waking up at night with wheeze/cough/chest pain
204
Q

What pathogen causes traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

205
Q

What does Otitis externa present as?

A

Discharge, itch and pain from inflammation of ski of the external auditory meatus

206
Q

What are the causative pathogens of otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas species
Staphylococcus aureus

207
Q

What is Mx of otitis externa?

A

Topic acetic acid and Corticosteroids

Antibiotics

Severe - Strip of ribbon gauze (pope wicks) for gentamicin deep penetration

208
Q

What is the Mx of ACUTE gout

A

NSAIDS

PHASE 3A (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions