General Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Define general practice according to the Alma Alta (sections VI)

A

Essential health cares based on practical scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community by means acceptable to individuals and families in the community by means acceptable to them and at a cost that the community and the country can afford to maintain at every stage of their development in a spirit of self-reliance and self-determination. In forms an integral part of both the the country’s health system of which it is the central function and the main focus of the overall social and economic development of the community. It is the first level of contact of individuals, the family and the community with the national system, bringing health care as close as possible to where people live and work and constitutes the first element of a continuing health care process

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2
Q

What are McWhinneys 9 principles of primary care?

A

Is committed to the person rather than to a particular body of knowledge, group of disease or special technique
Seeks to understand the context of the illness
Sees every patient contact as an opportunity for prevention or health education
Views his or her practice as a’population at risk’
Sees himself or herself as part of a community network of supportive and health care agencies
Should ideally share the same habitat as their patients
Sees patients in their homes
Attaches importance to the subjective aspects of medicine
Is a manager of resources

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3
Q

What is Leewenhorsts definition of general practice?

A

The GP is a licensed medical graduate who gives persona. primary and continuing care to individuals, families and a practice population irrespective of age, sex and illness.
It is the synthesis of these functions that is unique

He will attend his patients in his counseling room and in their homes and sometimes in a clinic or hospital. His aim is to make early diagnoses. He will include and integrate physical, psychological and social factors in his considerations about health and illness. This will be expressed in the care of his patients. He will make an initial decision about every problem which is presented to him as a doctor. He will undertake the continuing management of his patients with chronic, recurrent or terminal illness. Prolongued contact means that he can use repeated opportunities to gather information at a pace appropriate to each patent, and build up a relationship of trust which he can use professionally. He will practice in co-operation with other colleagues, medical and non-medical. He will know how and when to intervene through treatment, prevention and education, to promote the health of his patients and their families. He will recognize that he also has a professional responsibility to the community.

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4
Q

What is the relationship between GPs and secondary care?

A

GPs are the ‘gatekeepers’ to the secondary healthcare system

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5
Q

What is the average length of time a patient stays registered with their GP in the UK?

A

12 years

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6
Q

What are directed enhanced services?

A

GPs that provide ‘extended hours’ = must provide 30 min extra for every 1000 patients registered at times agreed with the PCO (Primary Care Organisation) according to local need

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7
Q

What do the following abbreviations stand for in the UK medical GP system: GMS, PMS, APMS and PCTMS?

A
GMS  = general medical services
PMS = private medical services
APMS = alternative provider of medical services
PCTMS = Primary Care led medical services
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8
Q

How many GPs need to work in a practice to make it a prtnership?

A

2 or more

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9
Q

What are polyclinics?

A

Large practices housing up to 25 GPs and serving a population of up to 50,000 with other health services (dentists, physiotherapists) and extended opening hours (urgent care 18-24hrs a day

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10
Q

What are polyclinics also known as?

A

Darzi centres

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11
Q

What is the primary care performer list?

A

A list of all doctors deemed competent to priced primary medical care

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12
Q

What is a salaried GP?

A

A GP employed by a PCO (primary care organization), practice or alternative provider of medical services. PCOs and GMS have an agreed salary whereas PMS agree their own salary

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13
Q

What is a GPwSI?

A

A GP with a special interest

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14
Q

What is probity?

A

Behaving in a prier fashion ensuring honest and openness in all matters. Avoid conflict between personal and professional roles

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15
Q

What are the advantages of continuity of care?

A

Builds trust, creates a context for healing, increases patients and practitioners knowledge of each other, increases patient satisfaction, compliance and uptake of care

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16
Q

Why is continuity of care becoming less available?

A

Doctors careers are more flexible and they move more, become specialized and have more managerial responsibilities.
Patient factors: patients are busy and want to be seen when they’re free, not when the GP is - they don’t mind who sees them
System factors: changing roles - nurse practitioners and other healthcare professionals commonly take on tasks so patients are managed by lots of people.

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17
Q

List the members of the primary care team

A

Practice manager:staff appointments, supervision, training, and dismissals, rotas
Practice nurse.
Nurse practitioner: Specialist trained nurse.
District nurse: community nursing, home visits
Health visitor: works with the community for health promotion and education
Administrative and clerical staff
Receptionist
Community pharmacist
Social worker: adult specialists and child specialists

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18
Q

What act established the patients right to confidentiality?

A

The Human Rights Act 1998

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19
Q

What is the name of the person who outlined the principles for disclosure of patient confidentiality?

A

Caldicott

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20
Q

List Caldicotts 6 principles for disclosure of patient confidentiality

A
  1. Justify the purpose
  2. Don’t use patient identifiable information unless absolutely necessary
  3. Use the minimum patient information necessary
  4. Access to patient information should be on a strict need to know basis
  5. Everyone should be aware of their responsibilities
  6. Understand and comply with the law
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21
Q

List 3 scenarios where you can breech confidentiality

A

Children: disclosure can be authorized to parent or guardian.
Mentally incapacitated individuals: capacity must be assessed. People with incapacity can authorize or prohibit sharing of information if the broadly understand the implications.
The deceased: Can be disclosed where there is a claim arising from the death. Where there is no claim, there is no legal right of access.

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22
Q

List some situations where breach of confidentiality may be justified.

A

Emergencies
Statutory requirement - check the legislation under which it is sought
The public interest: not defined. Difficult
Public health: Reporting of notifiable diseases
Required by court or tribunal
Adverse drug reactions
Complaints against doctors

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23
Q

Define consent

A

Willingness of a patient to undergo examination, investigation or treatment.

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24
Q

What 3 criteria must be met for the consent to be valid?

A

Patients must:

  1. Be competent to make the decision
  2. Have received sufficient information to take it
  3. Not be acting under any duress
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25
Q

What criminal offense do you commit if you touch a patient without their consent?

A

Battery

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26
Q

What information must you include in seeking consent from a patient?

A

Reasons why you want to perform the procedure.
Nature, purpose and side-effects of the procedure.
The name of the doc with the responsibility.
Whether students or trainees are involved.
Reminder that the patients have the right to seek a second opinion.

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27
Q

Define absolute risk reduction/increase.

A

The absolute arithmetic difference in rates of bad outcomes between experimental and control participants in a trial, calculated as the difference between the experimental event rate (EER) and the control event rate (CER)

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28
Q

Define bias in the context of evidence-based medicine

A

Systematic disposition of certain trial designs to produce results consistently better or worse than other trial designs.

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29
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

Involves identifying patients who have the outcome of interest (cases) and control patients without the same outcome, and looking back to see if they had the same exposure

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30
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

involves identification of two groups (cohorts) of patients: on that received the exposure of interest and one that did not and following those cohorts forward for the outcome of interest

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31
Q

What is a confidence interval? What is 95% CI?

A

CI quantifies uncertainty in measurement. Usually reported as 95% CI, which is the range of values within which we can be 95% sure that the true value for the population lies

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32
Q

What is the control event rate?

A

The rate at which events occur in a control group. It may be represented by a percentage (e.g. 10%) or a proportion (0.1)

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33
Q

What is cost-benefit analysis?

A

Assessing whether the cost of an intervention is worth the benefit by measuring both in the same units (usually money)

34
Q

What is a cross-sectional study?

A

It is an observation of a defined population at a single point of time

35
Q

What is the experimental event rate (EER)?

A

It is the rate at which events occur in an experimental group. May be expressed as a percentage or proportion

36
Q

What is the likelihood ratio?

A

THe likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared with the likelihood that the same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.
Gives an indication of accuracy of a clinical test.
The higher the likelihood ratio the better the test at detecting the disorder.

37
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

Systematic review that uses quantitative methods to summarize the results.

38
Q

What is the ‘number needed to treat’?

A

NNT is a measure of the difference between active treatment and control treatment. An NNT of 1 describes a situation where an event occurs in every patient given the active treatment but no patient in the comparison group.

39
Q

How do you calculate number needed to treat (NNT)?

A
A = number who had successful outcome with the intervention divided by total who had the intervention
B = number who had successful outcome with control divided by oral number who had the control
NNT = 1/(A-B)
40
Q

Describe ‘number needed to harm’.

A

Compares the number having a side effect in the intervention group with the number having that side-effect in the comparison group.
If no one in the control group and no on on the comparison group has an unwanted effect, the NNH will be infinity therefore the NNH should be as large as possible

41
Q

What is the odds ratio?

A

Odds of an event are calculated as the number of events divided by the number of non-events.
The odds ratio is the ratio of he odds in the experimental group compared with the control group.

For epidemiological studies looking for factors causing harm, an odds ration >1 indicates that the factor the experimental group was exposed to caused harm.
for experimental studies looking for a decrease in events through treatment and odds ratio of >1 indicates a positive result.
Often expressed as a percentage.

42
Q

What is the relative risk also known as?

A

The risk ratio

43
Q

What is relative risk (RR)?

A

Ratio or risk in the treated group (EER) to risk in the control group (CER).
RR = ERR/CER.
If RR = 1 then there is no difference between the two groups

44
Q

In what studies would you use relative risk?

A

In randomized trials and cohort studies

45
Q

What is the relative risk reduction (RRR)?

A

Difference between the EER and CER divided by the CER

RR = (EER-CER)/CER, usually expressed as a percentage

46
Q

List some potential barriers to effective communication in the consultation.

A
Lack of time
Language problems
Differing gender
Age
Ethic or social background of doctor and patient
'sensitive' issues to address
'hidden' or differing agendas
Prior difficult meetings
Lack of trust
47
Q

Why is patient centerdness important?

A

Because it improves patient satisfaction and may improve health outcomes

48
Q

List the 6 interactive components of patient-centredness.

A
  1. Exploring the disease and illness components.
  2. Understanding the whole person in context
  3. Finding common ground regarding management
  4. Incorporating prevention and health promotion
  5. Enhancing the doctor patient relationship
  6. Being realistic
49
Q

What is the average consultation length in the UK?

A

7 minutes

50
Q

What are the 4 main points of the Scott and David model of the consultation?

A
  1. Management of presenting problem
  2. Management of continuing problems
  3. Modification of help-seeking behavior
  4. Opportunistic health promotion
51
Q

What is the title of Scott and Davis’s model of the consultation?

A

The exceptional potential of the consultation

52
Q

What is the title for Pendleton’s model of the consultation?

A

“The Doctors Tasks”

53
Q

What are the 7 tasks outlined in Pendletons model of the consultation?

A
  1. Define the reason for the patient’s attendance
  2. Consider other problems (continuing problems and at-risk factors)
  3. Choose appropriate action for each problem (negation between doc and patient
  4. Achieve a shared understanding of the problem (doctor and patient)
  5. Involve the patient in the management and encourage the patient to accept responsibility
  6. Use time and resources appropriately
  7. Establish and maintain a relationship
54
Q

What is the title for Neighbour’s model of the consultation?

A

The Inner Consultation

55
Q

What are the points outlined in Neighbours model of the consultation?

A
Connecting (doc establishes rapport with the patient)
Summarising (doc clarifies the patients reason for attending)
Handing over (doc/patient negotiate and agree a management plan
Safety netting (doc/patient plan for the unexpected)
Housekeeping (doc is aware of his/her own emotions)
56
Q

What proportion of patients take medication exactly as directed?

A

1:6

57
Q

What % of prescriptions are never filled?

A

20%

58
Q

What is ‘white-coat concordance’?

A

Phenomenon in which 90% of patients take regular medication as directed for a period before a check up - may mask effects of non-concordance

59
Q

List some causes of non-concordance.

A
  • patient beliefs: how natural it is, how addictive it might be or the belief that increased use may lead to decreased efficicy
  • lifestyle choices: unpleasant side effects, inconvenient, no perceived benefit
  • Information or instructions not understood
  • Practical: forgetfulness, inability to open containers
  • Professional: Strength of Dr./Patient relationship. Inappropriate prescribing
60
Q

Define primary prevention

A

Prevention of disease occurring

61
Q

Define secondary prevention

A

Controlling disease in early form e.g.) carcinoma in situ

62
Q

Define tertiary prevention

A

Prevention of complications once the disease is present (e.g.) DM

63
Q

List 3 barriers to prevention in the patient

A
Blinkering (won't happen to me)
Rebellion (doing something bad despite knowing its bad)
Poor motivation (path of least resistance)
64
Q

List 3 barriers to prevention from the doctors perspective

A

Time, money and health promotion is repetitive and boring

65
Q

What are the components of an ideal screening test?

A

High sensitivity
High specificity
High positive predictive value
High negative predictive value

66
Q

What are the 10 Wilson-Junger criteria for an ideal screening test

A
  1. The disease being screened for must be important in the target population
  2. Natural history of the disease must be understood
  3. There is a detectable early stage
  4. Treatment at early stage > treatment at a later stage
  5. There is a suitable test to detect the early stage
  6. the test is acceptable to the population
  7. Intervals for repeating the test have been determined
  8. Adequate health services provision has been made for the extra clinical workload resulting from screening
  9. Risks (physical and psychological) < benefit
  10. Costs are worthwhile in relation to benefits gained
67
Q

Draw a table for describing sensitivity, specificity, negative predictive value and positive predictive value

A

sensitivity = a/a+c
specificity = b/b+d
Negative predictive value = d/d+c
Positive predictive value = c/a+b

68
Q

List 4 benefits of screening programs

A
  1. Improved prognosis for those detected early
  2. Less radical treatment for some early cases
  3. Reassurance for those who are negative
  4. Increased information on natural history of disease and benefits of treatment at early stage
69
Q

List some disadvantages of screening for disease

A
  1. Longer morbidity in case where prognosis is unchanged
  2. Overtreatment of questionable abnormalities
  3. False reassurance for false-negatives
  4. Anxiety for those with false-positives
  5. Unnecessary intervention for those with false positives
  6. Hazards of the screening test
  7. Diversion of sources to the screening program
70
Q

Describe how to calculate BMI and what units its measured in.

A

BMI = weight in kg/(height in metres2)

Measured in kg/m2

71
Q

What are the classes of BMI

A
<18.5 = underweight
18.5-25 = healthy weight
25-29.9 = overweight
30-34.9 = Obesity I
35-39.9 = Obesity II
>40 = Obesity III
72
Q

What health conditions are associated with increased waist circumference?

A

Increased CHD risk
DM
Hyperlipidaemia
Increased BP

73
Q

Where is waist circumference measured in relation to surface anatomy?

A

Halfway between the superior iliac crest and the rib cage

74
Q

What are the waist circumference measurements (male and female) associated with excess risk (RR >3) of CHD and DM

A

Male caucasian >102cm (40”)
Male asian >90cm (36”)
Female caucasian >88cm (35”)
Female asian >80cm (32”)

75
Q

What is the mean weight gain after smoking cessation?

A

3-4kg

76
Q

List 10 causes of obesity

A

Physical inactivity
Smoking cessation
Pregnancy
Polygenetic genetic disposition
Drugs - steroids, antipsychotics (olanzapine), contraception (especially depot injections), sulfonylureas, insulin
Endocrine - hypothyroidism, Cushing’s, PCOS
Binge eating disorder

77
Q

List 7 greatly increased risks (RR >3) of obesity

A
  1. Mortality (BMI >30)
  2. Type 2 DM
  3. Gallbladder disease
  4. Dyslipidaemia
  5. Insulin resistance
  6. Breathlessness
  7. Sleep apnea
78
Q

In someone with a BMI >35, how increased is their risk of T2DM?

A

92x

79
Q

List 4 moderately increased risks (RR 2-3) of obestity

A

CHD
Increased BP
Osteoarthritis (knees)
Hyperuricaemia/gout

80
Q

List 4 moderately increased risks (RR 2-3) of obestity

A