Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Pharmacology > General Pharmacology > Flashcards

General Pharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

Zidovudine

A

HIV therapy

Nucleoside analog of thymidine that acts as potent inhibitor of viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Oseltamivir

A

Influenza therapy

Inhibitor of influenza A and B neuraminidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ribavirin

A

Hepatitis C therapy

Viral RNA polymerase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Trifluridine

A

Antiherpes virus agent: tx of HSK

DNA polymerase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, Famciclovir

A

Antiherpes agents: HSV-1, HSV-2, Zoster, HZO, active HSV keratitis, prophylactic for HSV keratitis

DNA polymerase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ganciclovir

A

Antiherpes agent: topical use for HSV keratitis, intraocular sustained release for CMV retinitis

DNA polymerase inhibitor, improved efficacy and less toxicity vs Trifluridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Foscarnet

A

Antiherpes agent: IV tx of CMV retinitis when ganciclovir fails; tx acyclovir-resistant HSV infections in AIDS pts

DNA polymerase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Natamycin

A

Antifungal: fungal blepharitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis

Binds ergosterol of fungi and forms pores leading to cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Antifungal: fungal keratitis in topical; systemic and intraocular infections with IV

Binds ergosterol of fungi and forms pores leading to cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nystatin

A

Antifungal: Candida oral (thrush) and vaginal (yeast) infections; not for ophthalmic use

Binds ergosterol of fungi and forms pores leading to cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ketoconazole

A

First oral azole antifungal

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fluconazole

A

Antifungal: oral, topical, subconj

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Miconazole

A

Antifungal agent

Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Griseofulvin

A

Antifungal agent for scalp and skin

Inhibits fungal mitosis by interacting with microtubule formation during cell wall development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Kwell

A

Antiparasitic: tx of lice and scabies

Lipophilic structure absorbed through exoskeleton of insects, resulting in seizure and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Triamcinolone

A

Steroid; ocular formulation for diffuse diabetic macular edema, Graves orbitopathy, posterior uveitis, chalazion, CME after cataract surgery; systemic: dermatoses, asthma, MS, arthritis

Inhibit phospholipase A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aspirin

A

NSAID

Salicylate that inhibits prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis by acting as an irreversible COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Indomethacin

A

NSAID

Reversible COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Naproxen

A

NSAID

Reversible COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Naproxen Sodium

A

NSAID

Reversible COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Misoprostol

A

Synthetic prostaglandin E1- chemically similar to PGE2 (stomach protection from NSAIDS ulcers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Celecoxib

A

NSAID

Selective COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

Cold medication for nasal congestion sxs

Nonspecific alpha and beta adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

First generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): sedation & anticholinergic effects

Blocks the histamine-H1 receptor interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chlorpheniramine maleate

A

First generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): sedation & anticholinergic effects

Blocks the histamine-H1 receptor interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Brompheniramine

A

First generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): sedation & anticholinergic effects

Blocks the histamine-H1 receptor interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Promethazine

A

First generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): sedation & anticholinergic effects

Recall added SEs due to similar structure as Phenothiazine

Blocks the histamine-H1 receptor interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Loratidine

A

Second generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): chronic uticaria & rhinitis

H1 receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fexofenadine

A

Second generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): chronic uticaria & rhinitis

H1 receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cetirizine

A

Second generation antihistamine (H1 blocker): chronic uticaria & rhinitis

Added SE of oculogyric crisis

H1 receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cimetidine

A

GI med

Binds H2 receptor on gastric parietal cells preventing histamine stimulation of gastric acid (HCl) secretion

SEs: gynecomastia & loss of libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ranitidine

A

GI med

Binds H2 receptor on gastric parietal cells preventing histamine stimulation of gastric acid (HCl) secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Famotidine

A

GI med

Binds H2 receptor on gastric parietal cells preventing histamine stimulation of gastric acid (HCl) secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Omeprazole

A

GI med: proton pump inhibitor

Inhibit H+/K+ ATPase (proton) pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Esomeprazole

A

GI med: proton pump inhibitor

Inhibit H+/K+ ATPase (proton) pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Sucralfate

A

GI med: gastric lining protector

Forms paste-like substance by binding positively charged proteins in stomach and adheres to damaged ulcer tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sulfonamides

A

Inhibitors of folate synthesis

Inhibitor dihydropteroate synthase, an enzyme used in the first step of folic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Inhibitor of folate synthesis

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme used in the second step of folic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pyrimethamine

A

Inhibitor of folate synthesis

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme used in the second step of folic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bacitracin

A

Cell wall synthesis blocker

Stops bacterial cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transfer of mucopeptides (peptidoglycans) into growing cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Penicillins

A

Cell wall synthesis blockers

Transpeptidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Cell wall synthesis blockers

Transpeptidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Blockers of protein synthesis at 30S subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tetracyclines

A

Blockers of protein synthesis at 30S subunit

Prevent access of aminoacyl tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Blockers of protein synthesis at 50S subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Macrolides

A

Blockers of protein synthesis at 50S subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lincomycin

Clindamycin

A

Blockers of protein synthesis at 50S subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Rifampin

A

TB med

Prevents mRNA synthesis (transcription) by binding to the beta subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Isoniazid

A

TB med

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and thereby prevents cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ethambutol

A

TB med

Inhibits arabinosyl transferase, thereby inhibiting sybergs is of mycobacterial cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Piroxicam

A

NSAIDS

Reversible COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Salmeterol

A

Bronchodilator for COPD and asthma maintenance therapy

Long-acting B2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Albuterol

A

Bronchodilator for asthma and COPD rescue inhaler

Short-acting B2 agonist

53
Q

Levalbuterol

A

Bronchodilator for asthma and COPD rescue inhaler

Short-acting B2 agonist

54
Q

Terbutaline

A

Bronchodilator for asthma and COPD rescue inhaler

Short-acting B2 agonist

55
Q

Metaproterenol

A

Bronchodilator: No longer recommended for asthma therapy due to excessive cardiovascular effects from B1 stimulation

Short-acting B2 agonist

56
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Bronchodilator for tx of arrhythmias via B1 stimulation

Nonspecific beta agonist

57
Q

Ipratropium

A

Blocks muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, thereby inhibiting bronchoconstriction

58
Q

Zafirlukast

A

Respiratory agent approved for asthma and bronchoconstriction

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

59
Q

Montelukast

A

Respiratory agent approved for asthma and bronchoconstriction (& rhinitis)

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

60
Q

Theophylline

A

Respiratory agent

Inhibits phosphodiesterase, leading to increased cAMP and increases epinephrine release

61
Q

Acetylcysteine

A

Mucolytic agent that breaks disulfide bonds in proteins of mucous to reduce viscosity

Topical: filamentary keratitis, DE, corneal burns

62
Q

Methotrexate

A

Immunosuppressant medication

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (like Trimethoprim) which inhibits DNA synthesis

63
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Immunosuppressant: Prevents rejection of organ transplants

Inhibits release and production of interleukin-2 (IL-2), which is responsible for T lymphocyte activation

64
Q

Azathioprine

A

Immunosuppressant: RA and prevention of kidney transplant rejection

Purine analog that inserts into DNA and RNA and stops replication

65
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Treatment of breast cancer

A competitive partial agonist inhibitor of estradiol which inhibits estrogen effects at the breast

66
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Non-opiate analgesic; also antipyretic

MOA not completely understood

67
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

Non-opiate analgesic; tx muscle spasms

Decreases somatic (voluntary) motor activity through inhibiting tonic activity of alpha and gamma motor neurons

68
Q

Tramadol

A

Non-opiate analgesic

Agonist at Mu opiate receptor; inhibits serotonin and norepinephrine uptake within ascending pain pathways

69
Q

Meperidine

A

Opiate analgesic, addictive properties

Agonist at Mu, Kappa and Delta (opiate) receptors

70
Q

Oxycodone

A

Opiate analgesic, addictive properties

Agonist at Mu, Kappa and Delta (opiate) receptors

71
Q

Naloxone

A

Opioid antagonist used to reverse effects of opiates

72
Q

Sumatriptan

A

Migraine therapy

5-HT 1B and 1D (serotonin subtype 1B and 1D) receptor agonist; causes vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

73
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

Phenothiazine antipsychotic

Dopamine receptor antagonist

74
Q

Thioridazine

A

Phenothiazine antipsychotic

Dopamine receptor antagonist

75
Q

Amantadine

A

Antiparkinsonian med

Potentiates dopamine effects (either by blocking repute or augmenting release of dopamine) in the brain

76
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Antiparkinsonian med; also tx pituitary adenoma

Dopamine agonist

77
Q

Methylphenidate

A

ADHD med; tx narcolepsy and depression

Increase dopamine release

78
Q

Dextroamphetamine

A

ADHD med; tx narcolepsy and depression

Increase dopamine release

79
Q

Donepezil

A

Dementia med to tx Alzheimer’s

CNS acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

80
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI antidepressant

Inhibits serotonin repute from synaptic cleft in CNS

81
Q

Amitriptyline

A

Tricylic antidepressant

Inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake

82
Q

Imipramine

A

Tricylic antidepressant

Inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake

83
Q

Phenelzine

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant

Inhibits MAO, the enzyme responsible for breaking down norepinephrine and serotonin

84
Q

Diazepam

A

Anxiolytic; tx anxiety, panic attacks, alcohol withdrawal

Benzodiazepine that binds GABA receptors and causes hyperpolarization of neurons in the CNS by opening chloride channel

85
Q

Phenytoin

A

Anticonvulsant

Acts on multiple neurotransmitters including norepinephrine, acetylcholine and GABA

86
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Anticonvulsant; used for seizures and sedation

Reduces excitatory transmission (glutamatergic) through the AMPA receptor blockade

87
Q

Topiramate

A

Anticonvulsant; prevent seizures

Multiple CNS effects

88
Q

Insulin

A

Promotes formation and storage of glycogen, proteins, and triglycerides in liver, fat, muscle tissues

Cell surface receptor causes activation of tyrosine kinase receptors and a phosphorylation cascade

89
Q

Metformin

A

Biguanide oral agent for diabetes

Decreases gluconeogenesis (liver glucose production) and increases glucose uptake; NO hypoglycemia

90
Q

Glipizide

A

Sulfonylureas oral agent for diabetes

Increases secretion of insulin by beta cells, decreases glucagon release, increases sensitivity to insulin

91
Q

Glyburide

A

Sulfonylureas oral agent for diabetes

Increases secretion of insulin by beta cells, decreases glucagon release, increases sensitivity to insulin

92
Q

Chlorpropamide

A

Sulfonylureas oral agent for diabetes

Increases secretion of insulin by beta cells, decreases glucagon release, increases sensitivity to insulin

93
Q

Pioglitazone

A

Thiazolidinedione oral agent for diabetes

Activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) to increase glucose uptake in muscle and fat tissue

94
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Synthetic T4 hormone

95
Q

Sildenafil

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor ED drug

Inhibit PDE-5 so cGMP is not broken down, leading to relaxation of vascular smooth muscle in the penis

96
Q

Vardenafil

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor ED drug

Inhibit PDE-5 so cGMP is not broken down, leading to relaxation of vascular smooth muscle in the penis

97
Q

Prazosin

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy med (& HTN)

Alpha 1 blocker, relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate to decrease urinary outflow obstruction

98
Q

Terazosin

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy med (& HTN)

Alpha 1 blocker, relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate to decrease urinary outflow obstruction

99
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy med

Alpha 1 blocker, relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate to decrease urinary outflow obstruction

100
Q

Lisinopril

A

AntiHTN

Prevent formation of angiotensin II in inhibiting ACE, block metabolism of bradykinins (vasodilation)

101
Q

Benazepril

A

AntiHTN

Prevent formation of angiotensin II in inhibiting ACE, blocks metabolism of bradykinins (vasodilation)

102
Q

Enalapril

A

AntiHTN

Prevent formation of angiotensin II in inhibiting ACE, blocks metabolism of bradykinins (vasodilation)

103
Q

Captopril

A

AntiHTN

Prevent formation of angiotensin II in inhibiting ACE, blocks metabolism of bradykinins (vasodilation)

104
Q

Losartan

A

AntiHTN ( angiotensin II receptor antagonist)

Inhibits angiotensin II contraction of vascular smooth muscle and stimulation of aldosterone secretion

105
Q

Popranolol

A

AntiHTN

Nonselective Beta 1 and Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist; also block renin release from kidneys

106
Q

Labetalol

A

AntiHTN

Nonselective Beta 1 and Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist; also block renin release from kidneys

107
Q

Metoprolol

A

AntiHTN

Selective Beta 1 blocker

108
Q

Atenolol

A

AntiHTN

Selective Beta 1 blocker

109
Q

Nifedipine

A

AntiHTN calcium channel blocker

Block L-type calcium channels causing a marked decrease in intracellular free calcium

110
Q

Verapamil

A

AntiHTN calcium channel blocker

Block L-type calcium channels causing a marked decrease in intracellular free calcium

111
Q

Diltiazem

A

AntiHTN calcium channel blocker

Block L-type calcium channels causing a marked decrease in intracellular free calcium

112
Q

Furosemide

A

AntiHTN loop diuretic

Inhibits Na/2Cl-/K+ co-transport in the thick ascending LOH, also increases Ca2+ secretion and causes LOH to lose Ca2+

113
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

AntiHTN thiazide diuretic

Acts on early DCT and inhibits NaCl reabsorption and decreases Ca2+ excretion into the loop

114
Q

Chlorothiazide

A

AntiHTN thiazide diuretic

Acts on early DCT and inhibits NaCl reabsorption and decreases Ca2+ excretion into the loop

115
Q

Spironolactone

A

AntiHTN potassium-sparing diuretic

Blocks aldosterone’s action at the late DCT and collecting duct thereby increasing the excretion of sodium and water and decreasing the passive secretion of K+

116
Q

Triamterene

A

AntiHTN potassium-sparing diuretic

Directly blocks ENaCs (epithelial sodium channels) in the late DCT and the late collecting ducts

117
Q

Mannitol

A

AntiHTN osmotic diuretic

Increases plasma osmolarity, drawing water out of eye, brain, kidney (entire nephron)

118
Q

Clonidine

A

AntiHTN

CNS alpha 2 agonist

119
Q

Hydrazaline

A

AntiHTN

Increases cGMP which results in smooth muscle relaxation

120
Q

Digoxin

A

Agent for congestive heart failure

Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme which normally pumps Na+ out and K+ in, which leads to increased intracellular Ca2+

121
Q

Amiodarone

A

Antiarrhythmic med

Blocks K+ channels (some Na+ and Ca2+ channels as well)

122
Q

Warfarin

A

Anticoagulant

Vitamin K antagonist, interfering with clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X that depend on K for synthesis

123
Q

Clopidogret

A

Congestive heart failure agent

Inhibits ADP receptor on platelet cell membrane needed for platelet aggregation and clot formation

124
Q

Dipyridamole

A

Congestive heart failure agent

Inhibits adenosine deaminase and phosphodiesterase, causing accumulation of cAMP and adenosine, which inhibits platelet aggregation and may cause vasodilation

125
Q

Lovastatin

A

Antihyperlipidemic agent

Inhibits HMG CoA reductase, an enzyme used for the biosynthesis of cholesterol

126
Q

Simvastatin

A

Antihyperlipidemic agent

Inhibits HMG CoA reductase, an enzyme used for the biosynthesis of cholesterol

127
Q

Atorvastatin

A

Antihyperlipidemic agent

Inhibits HMG CoA reductase, an enzyme used for the biosynthesis of cholesterol

128
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Fibric acid antihyperlipidemic agent

Binds to peroxisome proliferator activated receptor (PPAR-alpha) and increases activity of lipoprotein lipase for breakdown of VLDL

129
Q

Cholestyramine

A

Bile acid binding resin antihyperlipidemic agent

Binds to bile acids in the intestine and prevents reabsorption

130
Q

Isotrentinoin

A

Dermatologic med

Reduces oil production from sebaceous glands and reduces size of the glands themselves

131
Q

Metronidazole

A

Dermatologic med for acne rosacea

Disrupts DNA and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

General Pharmacology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions