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General Paramedicine > General Paramedicine III > Flashcards

General Paramedicine III Flashcards

1
Q

Crush Injury Syndrome (CIS) can also be called ___.

A
  1. Traumatic Rhabdomyolysis (TR);
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2
Q

The opposite of ___ (toward the tail) is ___ (toward the head).

A
  1. Caudal;
  2. Cephalad;
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3
Q

What is the AHA recommended weight-based NS fluid bolus to deliver to a pediatric patient in cardiogenic shock?

A
  1. 5-10 mL/kg;
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4
Q

The most common form of distributive shock is ___. The next most common form of distributive shock is ___.

A
  1. Sepsis (or septic shock);
  2. Anaphylaxis (or anaphylactic shock);
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5
Q

A ___, colloquially called a blood clot, is the final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis.

A
  1. Thrombus;
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6
Q

Discomfort from false labor (aka ___) commonly presents in the ___ abdomen, while discomfort from true labor presents in the ___ abdomen.

A
  1. Braxton-Hicks contractions;
  2. Lower;
  3. Upper;
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7
Q

Erectile dysfunction medications are ___ inhibitors.

A
  1. Phosphodiesterase;
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8
Q

A ___ is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. There are ___ cervical nerves, ___ thoracic nerves, ___ lumbar nerves and ___ sacral nerves. Each of these nerves relays sensation from a particular region of skin to the brain.

A
  1. Dermatome;
  2. 8;
  3. 12;
  4. 5;
  5. 5;
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9
Q

___ is a discomfort below the rib and above the ilium, generally beginning at the back or in the midaxillary line and resulting from the stimulation of specialized nerve endings upon distention of the ureter or renal capsule.

A
  1. Flank pain;
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10
Q

What process can be used in the field to determine whether nasal secretions contain CSF?

A
  1. Test the fluid with a glucometer (CSF should have glucose in it, whereas this is unlikely in normal nasal secretions);
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11
Q

The presence of moist crackles along with tachycardia, poor perfusion and increased liver size are typical findings in patients with ___ shock.

A
  1. Cardiogenic;
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12
Q

The two most-commonly injured organs due to blunt force trauma.

A
  1. Spleen;
  2. Liver;
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13
Q

Le Fort ___ fracture (horizontal), otherwise known as a floating palate, may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim, or upper dental row, in a downward direction.

A
  1. I;
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14
Q

___ is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly. Breakdown products of damaged muscle cells are released into the bloodstream. Some of these, such as the protein ___, are harmful to the ___ and may lead to ___ failure.

A
  1. Rhabdomyolysis;
  2. Myoglobin;
  3. Kidneys;
  4. Kidney;
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15
Q

Common causes of ___ shock include congenital heart disease, myocarditis, cardiomyopathy.

A
  1. Cardiogenic;
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16
Q

___ occurs when a blood clot develops in a blood vessel and reduces the flow of blood through the vessel.

A
  1. Thrombosis;
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17
Q

A ___ is an incision into the pleural space of the chest. It is performed by surgeons to gain access to the thoracic organs, most commonly the heart, the lungs, or the esophagus, or for access to the thoracic aorta or the anterior spine

A
  1. Thoracotomy;
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18
Q

What are the four types of distributive shock?

A
  1. Neurogenic shock;
  2. Psychogenic shock;
  3. Septic shock;
  4. Anaphylactic shock;
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19
Q

What are the three major categories of shock?

A
  1. Hypovolemic shock;
  2. Distributive shock;
  3. Cardiogenic shock;
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20
Q

What is the definition of a “flail chest”? What type of movement may it exhibit with relation to the chest wall?

A
  1. Two or more adjacent ribs which are fractured in more than one place along their length;
  2. Paradoxical movement;
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21
Q

A raised level in the blood of urea and other nitrogenous waste compounds that are normally eliminated by the kidneys.

A
  1. Uremia;
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22
Q

What does tPA stand for?

A
  1. Tissue plasminogen activator;
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23
Q

What does PETCO2 stand for?

A
  1. Postapneic End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Pressure;
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24
Q

A woman’s blood pressure commonly ___ during pregnancy due to the hormone ___ relaxing the walls of blood vessels. This blood pressure change is most often seen during the ___ and ___ trimesters.

A
  1. Decreases;
  2. Progesterone;
  3. First;
  4. Second;
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25
Q

The AHA states that for patient’s suffering from acute ischemic stroke and for whom the risks of fibrinolytic therapy are unacceptable, healthcare providers may administer ___ and continue further stroke management.

A
  1. Aspirin;
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26
Q

___ shock exists when there is inadequate blood flow to some tissue beds, while there is too much blood flow to others. It is typically associated with vaso___, some capillary leak, and decreased heart function.

A
  1. Distribuitive;
  2. Dilation;
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27
Q

The skull, especially the part enclosing the brain.

A
  1. Cranium;
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28
Q

What does ARDS stand for?

A
  1. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (occurs when fluid builds up in the alveoli);
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29
Q

What process can be used in the field to determine whether bloody otorrhea contains CSF?

A
  1. Look for the Halo Sign (Dab some of the blood on a tissue. If there is CSF mixed with the blood, it will move by capillary action further away from the center than the blood will, forming a ring.);
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30
Q

IV ___ remains the first-line therapy for acute ischemic stroke.

A
  1. rTPA;
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31
Q

The third stage of labor begins right after ___ and ends with the ___.

A
  1. Birth of the baby;
  2. Delivery of the placenta;
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32
Q

A discharge of the internal ear.

A
  1. Otorrhea;
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33
Q

If ___ or more indicators from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal, probability of a stroke is 72%.

A
  1. One;
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34
Q

CSF otorrhoea results from a combination of a ruptured ___ membrane and nearby ___ fracture.

A
  1. Tympanic;
  2. Basilar skull;
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35
Q

What are the three phases of the progression of shock?

A
  1. Compensated Shock;
  2. Decompensated Shock;
  3. Irreversible (Terminal) Shock;
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36
Q

The first stage of labor begins when ___ and ends when ___.

A
  1. Contractions start;
  2. The cervix is fully dilated;
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37
Q

In ___ shock, cariac output is impaired by physical obstruction to blood flow into or out of the heart. Obstructions may be caused by air (e.g. tension pneumothorax), fluid (e.g. cardiac tamponade), blood clots (e.g. pulmonary embolus) or congenital heart defects (e.g. ductal dependent lesions).

A
  1. Obstructive;
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38
Q

Le Fort ___ fracture (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxillary​ area. The key component of these fractures beyond the pterygoid plate fractures is involvement of inferior orbital rim. When viewed from the front, the fracture is classically shaped like a pyramid.

A
  1. II;
39
Q

Name two (of three listed) signs of imminent delivery.

A
  1. Rectal pressure;
  2. Strong urge to push;
  3. Crowning;
40
Q

The term ___ is commonly used to indicate a nonnecrotizing inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, a process usually related to acute bacterial infection that does not involve the fascia or muscles. This disease is characterized by localized pain, swelling, tenderness, erythema, and warmth.

A
  1. Cellulitis;
41
Q

Raccoon eye(s) (panda eyes or periorbital ecchymosis) following trauma are a sign of ___. They may not appear until ___ after the injury.

A
  1. Basilar skull fracture (Bilateral raccoon eyes are highly suggestive of basilar skull fracture, with a positive predictive value of 85%. They are most often associated with fractures of the anterior cranial fossa.);
  2. 2-3 days;
42
Q

How many full turns are allowed when tightening a CAT tourniquet?

A
  1. Three;
43
Q

A(n) ___ is anything that travels through the blood vessels until it reaches a vessel that is too small to let it pass.

A
  1. Embolus;
44
Q

A sudden blocking of an artery.

A
  1. Embolism;

(An embolism is the lodging of an embolus, a blockage-causing piece of material, inside a blood vessel.)

45
Q

Where on the patient should needle chest decompression be performed in the field?

A
  1. Immediately superior to the third rib (between the second and third rib/second intercostal space) at the midclavicular line, on the affected side of the chest;
46
Q

Following trauma, Battle’s Sign (mastoid ecchymosis) is an indication of a(n) ___ fracture, and may suggest underlying brain trauma. Note that this sign will take at least ___ to appear after the initial fracture.

A
  1. Basilar skull (specifically the middle cranial fossa);
  2. One day;
47
Q

The ___ formula is used to estimate the amount of replacement fluid required for the first 24 hours in a burn patient so as to ensure they remain hemodynamically stable. The formula is: ___

A
  1. Parkland;
  2. V = 4 x m (A x 100) (where mass is in kg, area is a percentage of total body surface area with 2nd degree burns, and volume is in mL);
48
Q

Needle ___ is used to decompress the chest when a patient is deteriorating because of a tension pneumothorax.

A
  1. Thoracostomy;
49
Q

The second stage of labor begins when the ___ and ends with ___.

A
  1. Cervix is fully dilated;
  2. The birth of the baby;

(Sometimes referred to as the “pushing” stage.)

50
Q

Le Fort ___ fracture (transverse), otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation, may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. The salient feature of these fractures, beyond pterygoid plate involvement, is that they invariably involve the zygomatic arch, or cheek bone.

A
  1. III;
51
Q

A ___ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) and radial displacement of the wrist and hand. This fracture is sometimes referred to as a dinner fork or bayonet deformity due to the shape of the resultant forearm.

A
  1. Colles’;
52
Q

A ___ fracture of the skull is a classic transfacial fracture of the midface, involving the maxillary bone and surrounding structures in either a horizontal, pyramidal or transverse direction.

A
  1. Le Fort;
53
Q

Condition where both eyes move differently to each other.

A
  1. Dysconjugate gaze;
54
Q

The functional tissue of an organ as distinguished from the connective and supporting tissue

A
  1. Parenchyma;
55
Q

Epidemiological data for WA show that incidence of heart attack increases at this age.

A
  1. 55 years old (>= 55);
56
Q

The production of abnormally small amounts of urine.

A
  1. Oliguria;
57
Q

The progressive impairment of two or more organ systems from an uncontrolled inflammatory response to a severe illness or injury.

A
  1. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS);
58
Q

What does MODS stand for?

A
  1. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome;
59
Q

What does SIRS stand for?

A
  1. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome;
60
Q

An inflammatory state affecting the whole body. It can be the body’s response to an infectious or noninfectious insult.

A
  1. Systemic Inflammatory Responde Syndrome (SIRS);
61
Q

What are the six Rights of Medication Administration?

A
  1. Right patient;
  2. Right medication;
  3. Right dose;
  4. Right route;
  5. Right time;
  6. Right documentation;
62
Q

When an air bubble enters a vein, it’s called a(n) ___. When an air bubble enters an artery, it’s called a(n) ___. These air bubbles can travel to your brain, heart, or lungs and cause a heart attack, stroke, or respiratory failure.

A
  1. Venous air embolism;
  2. Arterial air embolism;

- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_embolism

63
Q

In what position should a patient suffering from a venous air embolism be placed?

A
  1. Immediately place the patient in the left lateral decubitus (Durant’s maneuver) and Trendelenburg position.
64
Q
  1. Human case reports suggest that injecting more than ___ of air into the venous system at rates greater than ___ can be fatal.
A
  1. 100 mL;
  2. 100 mL/s;

Note: Hence, it is nearly impossible to inject air through a peripheral IV at a dangerous rate.

- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air_embolism#cite_note-13

65
Q

What are the water flow rates of the following catheters:

  1. 14G
  2. 16G
  3. 18G
  4. 20G
A
  1. 240 mL/min;
  2. 180 mL/min;
  3. 90 mL/min;
  4. 60 mL/min;
    * - https://www.pedagogyeducation.com/Correctional-Healthcare-Campus/Resource-Library/Infusion/Peripheral-IV-Catheter-Chart.aspx*
66
Q

What does ODT stand for, with regards to medication administration?

A
  1. Orally disintegrating tablet;
67
Q

In what two general locations are chemoreceptors said to be found? In what two general locations are baroreceptors said to be found?

A
  1. Aortic arch (more specifically, the aortic bodies);
  2. Carotid arteries (more specifically, the carotid bodies);
  3. Aortic arch;
  4. Carotid arteries (more specifically, the carotid sinus);
68
Q

___ is the initial stretching of ___ prior to ___. It is related to ventricular filling. ___ is the force or load against which the heart has to contract to eject the blood.

A
  1. Preload;
  2. The cardiacmyocytes of the wall of a particular heart chamber (when speaking of preload in a general sense, the left ventricle is assumed);
  3. Contraction (systole);
  4. Afterload;
69
Q

In medical diagnosis, test ___ is the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate), whereas test ___ is the ability of the test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative rate).

A
  1. Sensitivity;
  2. Specificity;
70
Q

___ (and its indirect measurement ___) describes the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in arterial blood. The term “saturation” likens hemoglobin to a sponge that becomes saturated with oxygen. The measurement is given as a percentage. ___ describes the amount of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood plasma.

A
  1. SaO2;
  2. SpO2;
  3. PaO2;
71
Q

Name the indicated parts of a thoracic vertebra.

A
72
Q

___ consists of placing a patient in the left lateral decubitus position in order to prevent a ___ air embolism from lodging in the ___. The air will rise and stay in the ___ side of the heart until it slowly absorbs. Similarly, placing a patient in the Trendelenburg position (head down) helps prevent ___ air embolism from traveling to the ___.

A
  1. Durant’s maneuver;
  2. Venous;
  3. Lungs (causing “air lock”);
  4. Right;
  5. Arterial;
  6. Brain (causing a stroke);
    * - https://www.healio.com/cardiology/learn-the-heart/cardiology-review/topic-reviews/durants-maneuver*
73
Q

Chest pain while lying down.

A
  1. Angina decubitis;

- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lying_(position)

74
Q

What is the maximum size gastric sump tube that may be utilized with iGels size 3, 4 and 5?

A
  1. 12 French;
  2. 12 French;
  3. 14 French;
    * https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YuG6k6ndBpM*
75
Q

Bruises, contusions, ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae are all varieties of ___.

A
  1. Hematoma;

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hematoma

76
Q

A ___ is a variety of hematoma that measures < ___ mm and which may result from numerous and diverse etiologies such as adverse reactions from medications (e.g., warfarin), straining, asphyxiation, platelet disorders and diseases (e.g., cytomegalovirus).

A
  1. Petechia (plural: petechiae);
  2. 3;
    * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bruise*
    * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hematoma*
77
Q

A ___ is a variety of hematoma that measures ___-___ mm and indicates various pathologic conditions such as thrombocytopenia.

A
  1. Purpura;
  2. 3;
  3. 10;

Note: Purpura may be classified as palpable purpura or non-palpable purpura.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bruise

78
Q

An ___ is a varity of hematoma that measures > ___ cm and is caused by blood dissecting through tissue planes and settled in an area remote from the site of trauma or pathology.

A
  1. Ecchymosis;
  2. 1;
    * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bruise*
79
Q

The terms “bruise,” “contusion” and “ecchymosis” can often be used interchangeably. However, in careful usage, what differentiates a bruise or contusion from an ecchymosis?

A
  1. Bruises are always caused by trauma, while ecchymosis may be caused by disease;

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecchymosis

80
Q

An abscess is not the same thing as a cyst. Both are fluid-filled lumps, but an ___ is infected while a ___ is not.

A
  1. Abscess;
  2. Cyst;
    * https://www.emedicinehealth.com/abscess/article_em.htm*
81
Q

Although frequently described as a collapse of lung tissue, ___ is not synonymous with a pneumothorax, which is a more specific condition that features _(1.)_. It is a condition where the ___ are deflated down to little or no volume, and may occur as a post-operative complication or as a result of ___ deficiency.

A
  1. Atelectasis;
  2. Alveoli;
  3. Surfactant;
    * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atelectasis*
82
Q

The ___ of the eye are one of the first tissues to change color as bilirubin levels rise in _(condition)_. The yellowing of the “white of the eye” is properly termed ___, however it is also commonly refered to as ___.

A
  1. Conjunctiva;
  2. Jaundice;
  3. Conjunctival icterus;
  4. Scleral icterus;
    * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jaundice*
83
Q

An adjective for “occuring after a meal.”

A
  1. Postprandial;

https://www.lexico.com/en/definition/postprandial

84
Q

Bipolar disorder is a mood disorer in which episodes of ___ fluctuate with episodes of ___. For this reason, Bipolar disorder has also been called “___.”

A
  1. Mania
  2. Depression;
  3. Manic depression;
    * FireRescue1 Academy, Depression and Suicide, 2020*
85
Q

___ is one of the most widely used and studied medications for treating bipolar disorder.

A
  1. Lithium (Eskalith, Lithobid);

https://www.webmd.com/bipolar-disorder/guide/bipolar-disorder-lithium#1

86
Q

What temperature range constitutes mild hypthermia?

A
  1. 33-35 degrees C;

EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)

87
Q

What temperature range constitutes moderate hypthermia?

A
  1. 29-32 degrees Celsius;

EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)

88
Q

What temperature range constitutes severe hypthermia?

A
  1. 22-28 degrees Celsius;

EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)

89
Q

What condition is caused when active external rewarming of a hypothermic patient causes periperhal vasodilation, increased blood return to the heart, a decrease in core temperature and cardiac arrhythmias resulting from toxins generated by peripheral cell death?

A
  1. Rewarming Shock;

EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)

90
Q

Which classification(s) of hypothermia feature shivering?

A
  1. Mild hypothermia;

EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)

91
Q

Which classification(s) of hypothermia feature cardiac dysrhythmias?

A
  1. Moderate hypothermia (e.g., Atrial Fibrillation);
  2. Severe hypothermia (e.g., Ventricular Fibrillation);
    * EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)*
92
Q

Which classification(s) of hypothermia do(es) not feature shivering?

A
  1. Moderate hypothermia;
  2. Severe hypothermia;
    * EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)*
93
Q

With regard to traumatic hip injuries, an externally rotated and shortened lower extremity is indicative of a ___, while an internally rotated and flexed lower extremity is indicative of a ___.

A
  1. Fracture;
  2. Dislocation;
    * EMS Connect: Hypothermia / Falls & Anticoagulants (https://www.emsconnect.org/members/courses/95)*

General Paramedicine (4 decks)

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