General Orders Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

(1) The Office of the sheriff is divided organizationally by function into ____ primary parts.

A

six

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2
Q

(1) The Office of the sheriff is divided organizationally by function into six primary parts. These parts are the:

A

Administration;
Department of Patrol and Enforcement;
Department of Investigations and Homeland Security;
Department of Police Services;
Department of Personnel and Professional Standards; and
Department of Corrections.

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3
Q

(1) The Sheriff plans, organizes, staffs, directs, and controls the personnel and resources of the Sheriff’s Office and administers the Sheriff’s Office in a manner consistent with Chapter ___ of the Jacksonville Ordinance Code and the laws of the State of Florida.

A

37

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4
Q

(1) The following organizational components report directly to the Sheriff and/or Undersheriff:

A

Legal Unit
Public Information Unit
Integrity/Special Investigations Unit
Internal Audit Unit

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5
Q

(1) The _______________ is responsible for carrying out the primary police functions of responding to calls for service, traffic control, investigations, community relations activities, and related areas.

A

Department of Patrol and Enforcement

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6
Q

(15) Any of the substances named in Schedules I. through V. of Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 893.03 and any “designer drugs” that may hereafter be proscribed by law and which are subject to manufacturing, distribution, preparation, dispensation and administrative controls.

A

Controlled Substance

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7
Q

(15) A confidential program designed to assist employees and their families with a wide variety of problems that may affect the employee’s work performance. Employees may volunteer for the program or be referred by their supervisors.

A

Employee Assistance Program

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8
Q

(15) Any drug or substance, including controlled substances, the possession of which without a prescription is defined as a violation of state or federal statutes; or any prescription drug that was not prescribed to the affected employee by a person licensed to issue such prescription.

A

Illegal Drugs

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9
Q

(15) Any prescribed or over-the-counter medication that has some medicinal value/purpose and is being used by the person for whom it was prescribed.

A

Legal Drugs

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10
Q

(15) The excessive or erratic ingestion, consumption, inhalation, or injection of an illegal drug or of a legally obtained drug or medicine not in prescribed amounts or at proper time intervals to the extent that an employee’s work performance is adversely affected.

A

Substance Abuse

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11
Q

(15) The injection, inhalation, ingestion, or consumption of any drug, whether prescription or non-prescription, or any controlled substance as defined under Florida Law.

A

Use of Drugs

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12
Q

(15) Employees are unable to appropriately perform their duties because of the use of any drug, alcohol, or controlled substance. Employees shall be deemed to be under the influence if employees: are physically or mentally impaired, are unable to perform their duties in an acceptable manner, and/or have a breath test result of over .000 from the approved chemical test for intoxication.

A

Under the influence

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13
Q

(38) A structured process utilized by the Sheriff’s Office to provide opportunities and incentives for individual growth and development. It fosters the improvement of personal skills, knowledge, and abilities so that Sheriff’s Office tasks can be performed successfully.

A

Career Development

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14
Q

(38) A process by which a trained counselor and an employee are able to guide the employee’s career choice, facilitate understanding of career goals, and promote the achievement of career goals through meaningful, well-informed choices.

A

Career Counseling

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15
Q

(38) Training, in addition to recruit training, which may include periodic retraining or refresher training, specialized training, promotional training, advanced training, and/or roll-call training.

A

In-Service Training

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16
Q

(38) Training which maintains or provides the additional skills, knowledge, and abilities which are needed to remain competent in performing the duties and responsibilities of a job. Employees are usually required to participate.

A

Proficiency In-Service Training

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17
Q

(38) Training designed to stimulate personnel to compete for new areas of interest and specialization. This is also known as Career Development Training. The nature and scope of such training is determined by the skills, knowledge, and abilities required of the specialized assignment. Employees usually submit a request to attend such training.

A

Career Specialty In-Service Training

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18
Q

(38) Training often held outside the agency and designed to impart higher level supervisory and management skills to participants. Employees are usually selected for such training because they have demonstrated leadership skills.

A

Advanced (Executive) Training

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19
Q

(38) An entry-level assignment within the organization usually after training

A

Basic Assignment

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20
Q

(38) Assignments, other than basic assignments, requiring specialized skills and additional training. Skills and training required for a specialized assignment are in addition to requirements which must be maintained for a basic assignment.

A

Specialized Assignments

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21
Q

(38) Movement between a basic assignment and a specialized assignment, between two specialized assignments, or from one correctional institution to another. It involves no change in rank or base pay and may occur at the initiative of the Sheriff’s Office or at the request of an employee.

A

Lateral Movement

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22
Q

(40) A lateral movement of an employee in which the assignment’s expected duration is more than three months.

A

Transfer

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23
Q

(40) A lateral movement of an employee for training purposes or to fill a position on a temporary or emergency basis, except specialized assignments which require specialized training.

A

Temporary Assignment

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24
Q

(42) The employee’s immediate supervisor.

A

Rater

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25
Q

(42) The rater’s immediate supervisor.

A

Reviewer

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26
Q

(42) (Electronic) Employee Performance Mastery System.

A

ePMS

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27
Q

(42) Key behaviors/outcomes and bodies of knowledge required for all jobs within JSO.

A

Universal Responsibilities

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28
Q

(42) Provide clarity between management and the employee about the purpose of the job and its importance to JSO, and what behaviors/outcomes employees will be held accountable for based on their position in JSO.

A

Positional Responsibilities

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29
Q

(42) Individual employee goals which support higher departmental objectivity. They are both consistent for a position and unique to that employee’s role.

A

Individual Responsibilities

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30
Q

(43) A program designed to assist in identification and resolution of job performance problems associated with employees impaired by personal issues and concerns.

A

EAP - Employee Assistance Program

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31
Q

(44) In order to accomplish the goal of victim/witness support, the objectives of the Sheriff’s Office are to maintain membership in:

A
  1. The Mayor’s Victim Assistance Advisory Council (VAAC); and
  2. The 4th Judicial Circuit Chief Judge’s Committee of Crime Victims Rights.
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32
Q

(45) Refers to all documents, papers, letters, maps, books, tapes, photographs, films, sound recordings, electronic data, or other material, regardless of physical form, characteristics, or means of transmission, made or received pursuant to law or ordinance in connection with the transaction of official business by any agency.

A

Public Records

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33
Q

(45) Defined as any court or governmental agency, which performs law enforcement, prosecution, rehabilitation, or judicial functions in the administration of criminal justice pursuant to a statute or executive order. This includes traditional police and correctional agencies as well as sub-units of a non- criminal justice agency performing a function of the administration of criminal justice.

A

Criminal Justice Agencies

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34
Q

(45) Defined as private security companies, private investigators, private attorneys, businesses operating for a profit, general public, news media, etc.

A

Non-Criminal Justice Agencies

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35
Q

(45) The performance of any of the following activities: detention, process, apprehension, pre-trial release, adjudication, correctional supervision, or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders. The administration of criminal justice shall include criminal identification activities and the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history information.

A

Administration of Criminal Justice

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36
Q

(45) Compiled without regard to individual names and report incidents collectively, usually on a geographic or demographic basis, and include Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) and crime analysis information.

A

Aggregated Crime Statistics

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37
Q

(52) Time authorized by a supervisor to work in addition to an employee’s scheduled regular hours. Overtime compensation is governed by the applicable bargaining unit contract or employment plan.

A

Overtime

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38
Q

(52) Time engaged in a court appearance; deposition; direct filing criminal cases; and other times resulting from the employee’s Sheriff’s Office function when required by subpoena, a judge, or the State Attorney, etc. and compensation is governed by the applicable bargaining unit contract or employment plan.

A

Court Overtime

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39
Q

(53) Refers to any external employment that is done outside of an employee’s primary position. This includes the production or sale of goods, the provision of services, the performance of intellectual or creative work for pay either in an employer/employee relationship or in a self-employment capacity such as independent contractor or consultant.

A

Secondary Employment

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40
Q

(53) Secondary employment that is conditioned on the actual or potential use of real or implied law enforcement powers or involving jobs for which the police officer is hired as a result of his training, background, and/or affiliation as a sworn law enforcement police officer.

A

Enforcement Related Secondary Employment

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41
Q

(53) Employment that is not of a law enforcement nature, in which vested police powers are not a condition of employment, requiring no real or implied law enforcement service to the secondary employment employer (i.e., any teaching, lawn maintenance, security consulting, etc.).

A

Non-Enforcement Related Secondary Employment

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42
Q

(53) City of Jacksonville Secondary Employment Venues - All secondary employment offered through the COJ shall be coordinated through the Secondary Employment Unit. The lead supervisor of any COJ venue shall complete and forward to the Secondary Employment Unit an After-Action Report within three working days. These venues include, but are not limited to events at the following locations:

A
Veteran’s Memorial Arena, EverBank Stadium
Times Union Center for Performing Arts
Prime Osborn Convention Center
Jacksonville Equestrian Center
Metropolitan Park.
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43
Q

(53) Any person, government entity, or private business that hires an agency member for secondary employment for any period.

A

Employer

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44
Q

(53) Secondary employment involving the request for a police officer to provide dignitary protection or related services such as; escorting or chauffeuring individuals who are considered public figures, senior corporate executives, foreign nationals, celebrities, or government officials not under the protection of another State or Federal Law Enforcement agency. All dignitary protection services assignments will be coordinated and scheduled by the Special Events Coordinator and approved through the Assistant Chief of Special Events or higher authority.

A

Dignitary Protection Services

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45
Q

(53) Any full-time or part-time salaried member of the agency whether corrections, civilian or sworn.

A

Employee

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46
Q

(53) A jobsite is any person, government entity, or private business that hires an agency member for enforcement related secondary employment for any period and upon approval via a job number. This is also known as a vendor. The jobsite number is the main identifying characteristic for any approved secondary employment vendor. A sub-site identifies a specific location for a specific vendor. This jobsite number does not apply to non- enforcement related secondary employment.

A

Jobsite and Subsite Number

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47
Q

(53) Maximum Monthly Hours - Enforcement related secondary employment is limited to a maximum of _________________. This limitation may be supplemented on an hour for hour basis using approved leave. Maximum working hours are limited to 16 hours in any and every calculable 24 hour period including on and off duty employment.

A

120 hours per month

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48
Q

(56) The officer responsible and ultimately accountable for all the property and equipment utilized by the Office of the Sheriff, City of Jacksonville.

A

Accountable Officer - The Accountable Officer for the Sheriff’s Office is the Sheriff.

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49
Q

(56) An individual designated by the Sheriff to be answerable for property and equipment within his subdivisions of the Sheriff’s Office.

A

Property Officer - This individual is generally a ranking officer such as a Chief.

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50
Q

(56) The central clearing function of inventoried property and equipment transactions conducted by the Office of the Sheriff.

A

Inventory Management Function - It is under the supervision of the Chief of Support Services.

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51
Q

(58) A difference in treatment based on race, color, religion, sex, ancestry, national origin, place of birth, age, or handicap where the difference is not justified by business necessity or is not job-related.

A

Discrimination

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52
Q

(59) Any microorganism that is spread by droplet nuclei through the air by coughing, sneezing, or talking.

A

Airborne Pathogens - These pathogens fall into three categories:

  1. Viral;
  2. Bacterial; and
  3. Fungal.
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53
Q

(59) Pathogenic micro-organisms that may be present in blood or other body fluids from infected individuals and can spread to others through direct or indirect contact with those fluids or infected materials, such as:
1. Hepatitis B Virus (HBV);
2. Hepatitis C (HBC);
3. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV); and
4. Syphilis.

A

Bloodborne Pathogens

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54
Q

(59) An infectious disease capable of being passed to another by direct or indirect contact with an infected person, their body fluids, or infected materials.

A

Communicable Disease

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55
Q

(59) The presence, or the reasonably anticipated presence, of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item or surface.

A

Contaminated

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56
Q

(59) The use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy blood borne pathogens on a surface or item to the point where they are no longer capable of transmitting infectious materials. The surface or item is then rendered safe for handling, use, or disposal.

A

Decontamination

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57
Q

(59) Specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, or skin, or parenteral (piercing) contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials including sprayed and/or splattered infectious materials.

A

Exposure Incident

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58
Q

(59) Human body fluids including: blood, urine, vomitus, semen, vaginal secretions, tears, saliva, feces, amniotic fluid, and/or any other body fluid that is visibly contaminated with blood. Also all body fluids in situations where it is difficult or impossible to differentiate between body fluids.

A

Infectious Materials

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59
Q

(59) Specialized clothing or equipment worn by personnel for protection against a potential hazard.

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

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60
Q

(59) Items that could release potentially infectious or contaminated materials (liquid or semi-liquid) when handled; such as sharps or blood soaked clothing.

A

Regulated Waste

61
Q

(59) Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or any other potentially infectious body fluids or materials may be a source of occupational exposure to another individual. Examples include, but are not limited to, inmates, visitors, hospital and clinic patients, or human remains.

A

Source Individual

62
Q

(59) A set of precautionary practices to support infection control.

A

Universal Precautions - According to the concept of universal precautions, all human blood and body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, hepatitis, and other blood borne pathogens.

63
Q

(61) A file composed of records, each containing fields together with a set of operations for searching, sorting, recombining, and other functions.

A

Database

64
Q

(61) Information created or received on an electronic mail system including any text messages and computer files transmitted over a communications network. This includes any attachments, such as word processing and other electronic documents, which may be transmitted with messages.

A

Electronic Mail (e-mail) - also includes messages sent from one person to one or more individuals or groups (including mailing list addresses) via electronic media, usually over an internal or external network (e.g., On-line services or the Intranet or Internet).

65
Q

(61) A computer application used to create, receive, and transmit messages and other documents. Excluded from this definition are file transfer protocols (software that transmits files between users but does not retain any transmission data, FTP), data systems used to collect and process data that have been organized into data files or data bases on computers, and word processing documents not transmitted on an e-mail system.

A

Electronic Mail System

66
Q

(61) Is the top-level World Wide Web (www) page document that often resembles a table of contents with electronic links to other resources or files on www sites. It is commonly the first page displayed when connecting to an intranet or internet server, but may also refer to the introductory page for any particular set of information on that server.

A

Home Page

67
Q

(61) A commercial entity offering the transmission of, routing of, or providing of connections for digital communications, online services (site hosting, electronic mail, etc., or network access to the Internet).

A

Internet Service Provider (ISP)

68
Q

(61) The worldwide collection of networks and gateways that use the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) set of protocols to communicate with one another. At the heart is a backbone of high-speed data communication lines between major host computers, consisting of thousands of commercial, government, educational, and other computer systems that route data and messages.

A

Internet

69
Q

(61) A network designed for information processing within an organization. Its uses include such services as document distribution, software distribution, access to databases, and training. It usually employs applications associated with the Intranet, such as Web Pages, Web browsers, FTP sites, e-mail, newsgroups, mailing lists and is only accessible to those within the Sheriff’s Office.

A

Intranet

70
Q

(61) All JSO operating units, offices, divisions, independent units, or other comparable elements that comprise the Sheriff’s Office.

A

JSO Organizations

71
Q

(61) A specific computer application on the laptop designed to communicate call priority and officer status to the Communications Center, other officers, and supervisors and conduct other routine police business.

A

Mobile Digital Computer (Premier M.D.C)

72
Q

(61) A group of computers and associated devices that are connected by communications facilities. It can involve permanent connections, such as cables, or temporary connections made through telephone or other communications links. It can be as small as a local area consisting of a few computers, and other devices, or it can consist of many small and large computers distributed over a vast geographical area.

A

Network

73
Q

(61) A security measure used to restrict access to a particular computer or system. Is a unique string of characters that an authorized user types in as a method of identification.

A

Password

74
Q

(61) In computing, a device such as a disk drive, printer, modem, or other hardware that is connected to a computer and is controlled by the computer’s microprocessor.

A

Peripheral

75
Q

(61) The act of placing information on a server connected to a network. Information may include mailings, handouts, brochures, faxes and press releases, and responses to inquiries, discussion of policy, and any other dissemination of information in any format.

A

Posting

76
Q

(61) A system in which records are collected, organized, and categorized to facilitate their preservation, retrieval, use, and disposition. Records under the control of City of Jacksonville (COJ) or JSO from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some other identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.

A

Record Keeping System

77
Q

(61) Includes all books, papers, maps, photographs, machine readable materials, or other documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics, made or received by JSO in connection with the transaction of public business and preserved or appropriate for preservation as evidence of the organization, its functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations, or other activities because of the informational value of data in them.

A

Record

78
Q

(61) The name by which an individual user is identified to a computer system or network. During the logon process, the user must enter individually assigned code and correct password to gain access.

A

Usercode

79
Q

(61) Individuals authorized to use e-mail, the Internet and Intranet, computers (desktop and laptop) and mainframe terminals as part of their assigned official duties at the JSO. This includes employees (full time and part- time), volunteers as well as contractor support personnel, consultants, etc.

A

Users

80
Q

(62) A designated employee who reports to the Chief of the Personnel Division to oversee safety programs targeted by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and implemented within the Sheriff’s Office.

A

Sheriff’s Office Safety Officer

81
Q

(67) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual.

A

Disability

82
Q

(67) Activities which may include: walking, speaking, breathing, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, learning, caring for oneself and working.

A

Major Life Activities

83
Q

(67) An interpreter certified by the National or Florida Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf.

A

Certified Interpreter

84
Q

(67) A qualified sign language or oral interpreter is defined as one who is able to effectively, accurately, and impartially interpret, both receptively and expressively, using any necessary specialized vocabulary.

A

Qualified Interpreter

85
Q

(67) Changes in policies, practices and procedures, the use of auxiliary aids and services, and the removal of architectural barriers, when necessary to provide individuals with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in or benefit from the programs, services or activities that are offered.

A

Reasonable Accommodation

86
Q

(67) A keypad device used to provide communication for the hearing impaired that utilizes basic telephone lines for transmitting and receiving. This equipment may also be referred to as a “text telephone” by the Federal Communication Commission.

A

Telecommunication Device for the Deaf (TDD/TTY)

87
Q

(67) A complete, complex language that employs signs made with the hands and other movements, including facial expressions and postures of the body.

A

American Sign Language (ASL)

88
Q

(67) Sign language that forms in the American deaf community as a result of interactions between people who are deaf and those who can hear. This form of signing exhibits features of both ASL and English.

A

Contact Language

89
Q

(67) A service which is available 24 hours a day seven days a week providing live on demand interpreting for people who are deaf and hard of hearing and who rely on ASL to communicate.

A

Video Remote Interpreting (VRI)

90
Q

(67) Any animal that is trained to perform tasks for an individual with a disability. The tasks may include, but are not limited to, guiding a person who is visually impaired or blind, alerting a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, pulling a wheelchair, assisting with mobility or balance, alerting and protecting a person who is having a seizure, retrieving objects, or performing other special tasks.

A

Service Animal

91
Q

(70) Directives issued by the President of the United States on matters pertaining to Homeland Security.

A

Homeland Security Presidential Directive (HSPD) / Presidential Policy Directive (PPD)

92
Q

(70) Is designed to reflect the policy established in the Homeland Security Act of 2002, and HSPD 5 to create a single comprehensive approach to domestic incident management. The HSPD 5 was designed to enhance the ability of the United States to manage domestic incidents including terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies by establishing a single comprehensive approach to domestic incident management.

A

National Response Framework (NRF)

93
Q

(70) Homeland Security led the federal, state, local, and tribal development and completion of the new NIMS, based in large part on the ICS. NIMS embraces the ICS and establishes a response structure that is scalable to meet the needs and complexity of a disaster event.

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

94
Q

(70) A component of NIMS and is a standard incident management organization with five functional areas – command, operations, planning, logistics, and finance/administration – for management of all major incidents. HSPD 5, PPD 8, and memorandums from the NIMS Integration Center controlled by Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), mandates training of the NIMS and its components (ICS).

A

Incident Command System (ICS)

95
Q

(70) Establishes the organizational and procedural framework, as authorized by Chapter 252, Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) to ensure that the City of Jacksonville/Duval County is prepared to deal with “all hazards.”

A

Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)

96
Q

(70) Are based on the Consolidated City of Jacksonville/Duval County’s vulnerability to specific hazards discussed in the situation section of the CEMP’s Basic Plan.

A

Hazard Specific Plan (HSP)

97
Q

(70) Details by name the lead, participating and coordinating entities and their roles and responsibilities in the four phases of an emergency or disaster. Each ICP outlines specific tasks or “functional” procedures that are generic to all agencies regardless of the hazard. These tasks utilize the ICS concept of NIMS.

A

Interagency Coordinating Procedure (ICP)

98
Q

(70) Are procedures or guidelines that are agency specific and utilized by that agency to accomplish the functions, missions or activities outlined by corresponding HSPs or ICPs.

A

Standardized Operating Guidelines (SOG)

99
Q

(70) The Commanding Officer of the Field Training Office/Emergency Preparedness Unit.

A

Emergency Preparedness Coordinator (EPC)

100
Q

(72) Force which is not likely to cause death or great bodily harm.

A

Non-deadly Force

101
Q

(72) Force which is intended to, or likely to, cause death or great bodily harm.

A

Deadly Force

102
Q

(72) Exists where the facts and circumstances within the officers’ knowledge are sufficient to warrant a reasonable officer to believe that an offense has been or is being committed by a particular individual or individuals.

A

Probable Cause

103
Q

(72) Exists where the facts or circumstances the officer knows or believes to exist are such as to cause an ordinary and prudent person to act or think in a similar way under similar circumstances.

A

Reasonable Belief

104
Q

(72) Bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death; causes serious, permanent disfigurement; or results in the long-term loss or impairment of the functioning of any bodily member or organ.

A

Great Bodily Harm

105
Q

(72) A subject refuses to comply or respond. He does not make an attempt physically to defeat the actions of the officer but forces the officer to employ physical maneuvers to establish control.

A

Passive Resistance

106
Q

(72) A subject makes physically evasive movements to defeat an officer’s attempt at control.

A

Active Physical Resistance

107
Q

(72) What are the six classifications of physical control?

A
  1. Restraint Devices
  2. Transporters
  3. Pain Compliance
  4. Conducted Electrical Weapon (CEW)
  5. Takedowns
  6. Counter Moves
108
Q

(72) Mechanical tools used to restrict a subject’s movement and facilitate searching, such as handcuffs, flex cuffs, leg irons, belly chains, or nylon restraints.

A

Restraint Devices

109
Q

(72) Techniques used to control and/or move a subject from one location to another with minimum effort by the officer in order to gain and retain control over the subject.

A

Transporters

110
Q

(72) Hand-held aerosol chemical munitions (Defense Technology MK-3) or techniques that force a subject to comply with an officer as a result of the officer deploying the chemical munitions or inflicting controlled pain upon specific points on the subject’s body, such as pressure point techniques.

A

Pain Compliance

111
Q

(72) Weapons designed to disrupt a subject’s motor and sensory nervous systems by means of deploying battery powered energy sufficient to cause uncontrolled muscle contractions and override an individual’s voluntary motor responses, thus allowing an officer to capture the person who is resisting being taken into custody.

A

Conducted Electrical Weapon [CEW] (TASER®)

112
Q

(72) Techniques that redirect a subject to the ground in a controlled manner in order to limit his physical resistance and to facilitate the application of a restraint device.

A

Takedowns

113
Q

(72) Techniques that impede a subject’s movement toward an officer or other individual, such as blocking, striking, distracting, kicking, dodging, weaving, redirecting, and/or avoiding, followed by appropriate controlling techniques .

A

Counter Moves

114
Q

(72) Weapons that are primarily used to control a subject, such as a baton or specialty impact weapons.

A

Intermediate Weapons

115
Q

(72) The device works by causing electro-muscular incapacitation on the appendage it is applied to. This device is activated by remote control.

A

R-E-A-C-T BAND-IT: Remote Electronically Activated Control Technology

116
Q

(72) This term is used to describe the officer whose sole responsibility is to observe the prisoner and his actions. This officer is also the one in possession of the remote activation button. The Control Officer shall be an officer who has been trained and successfully completed certification in the operation of the device.

A

R-E-A-C-T BAND-IT CONTROL OFFICER

117
Q

(73) CEW

A

Conducted Electrical Weapon

118
Q

(73) What handguns are authorized for primary carry while on-duty?

A

Glock Model 22
Glock Model 35
Glock Model 27
Glock Model 23

119
Q

(76) A self-published diary or commentary on a particular topic that may allow visitors to post responses, reactions, or comments. The term is short for “Web log.”

A

Blog

120
Q

(76) A website where users can actively send messages back and forth in a group setting. The term can mean any technology ranging from real-time online chat over instant messaging and online forums.

A

Chat Room

121
Q

(76) An online discussion group where users can post comments and thoughts either anonymously or as themselves, usually not in real-time.

A

Forum

122
Q

(76) The specific portion of a social media website where content is displayed, and managed by an individual or individuals with administrator rights.

A

Page

123
Q

(76) Content an individual shares on a social media site or the act of publishing content on a site.

A

Post

124
Q

(76) Information that a user provides about himself or herself on a social networking site.

A

Profile

125
Q

(76) A category of Internet-based resources that integrate user-generated content and user participation. This includes, but is not limited to, social networking sites (Facebook, MySpace, LinkedIn, etc.), micro-blogging sites (Twitter, Nile, etc.), photo and video-sharing sites (Flickr, YouTube, etc.), blogs, and news sites (Digg, Reddit, etc.).

A

Social Media

126
Q

(76) Online platforms where users can create profiles, share information, and socialize with others using a range of technologies.

A

Social Networks

127
Q

(76) Expression or communication of thoughts or opinions in spoken words, in writing, by expressive conduct, symbolism, photographs, videotape, or related forms of communication.

A

Speech

128
Q

(77) Permits an eligible employee to take up to 12 weeks FMLA for a qualifying condition to provide support for a covered military member (the employee’s spouse, son, daughter, parent, or next of kin of the employee) serving in the National Guard or Reserve to be used for any “qualifying exigency” arising out of the fact the covered military member is on active duty or called to active duty status in support of a contingency operation.

A

Active Duty (Qualifying Exigency) Leave

129
Q

(77) ADA

A

Americans with Disabilities Act

130
Q

(77) A military operation designated by the Secretary of Defense in which members of the Armed Forces (Active or Reserves) are or may become involved in military actions, operations, or hostilities against an enemy of the United States or against an opposing force; or a military operation that results in the call or order to, or retention of, active duty or reserve during war or national emergency as declared by the President or Congress.

A

Contingency Operation

131
Q

(77) A member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy, is otherwise in outpatient status, or is otherwise on the temporary disability retired list, for a serious injury or illness.

A

Covered Service Member

132
Q

(77) The individual employee who has been employed by the employer for at least 12 months, has been employed for at least 1,250 hours of service during the 12 months prior to the start of leave, and is employed at a worksite where 50 or more employees are employed by the employer within 75 miles of that worksite.

A

Eligible Employee

133
Q

(77) An individual (Civilian, Corrections or Sworn) employee of the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO).

A

Employee

134
Q

(77) Leave (up to 12 weeks/480 work hours or 26 weeks in the case of service member leave) that an employer is obligated to provide to an eligible employee under the terms of the federal FMLA.

A

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993

135
Q

(77) A doctor of medicine or osteopathy who is authorized to practice medicine or surgery (as appropriate) by the State in which the doctor practices; or any other person authorized to practice in the State and performing within the scope of his practice as defined under State Law.

A

Health Care Provider

136
Q

(77) Leave which is taken in separate periods of time due to a single illness or injury, rather than for one continuous period of time, and may include leave of periods from an hour or more to several weeks.

A

Intermittent Leave

137
Q

(77) A “key” employee is a salaried “eligible” employee who is among the highest paid ten percent of employees within 75 miles of the work site.

A

Key Employee

138
Q

(77) Was signed into law January 28, 2008. It amends (FMLA) to permit a “spouse, son, daughter, parent or next of kin” to take up to 26 work weeks of leave to care for a member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, who is undergoing medical treatment, recuperation, or therapy, is otherwise in outpatient status, or is otherwise on the temporary disability retired list, for a serious injury or illness.

A

National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)

139
Q

(77) When referred to in the NDAA; the nearest blood relative other than a spouse, parent or child.

A

Next of Kin

140
Q

(77) Permits an eligible employee to take up to 26 weeks FMLA “in a single 12 month period” to care for a covered service member with a serious illness or injury incurred in the line of duty on active duty.

A

Military Caregiver Leave

141
Q

(77) When referred to in the NDAA of 2008; means the status of a covered service member of the Armed Forces assigned to a military treatment facility as an outpatient or a unit established for the purpose of medical care to members of the Armed Forces as an outpatient.

A

Outpatient Status

142
Q

(77) The biological parent of an employee or an individual who stands or stood in loco parentis to an employee when the employee was a child.

A

Parent

143
Q

(77) A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities of an individual. Regulations at 29 CFR Part 1630.2(h), (i), and (j), issued by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), 42 USC 12101 et seq., define these terms.

A

Physical or Mental Disability

144
Q

(77) Refers to Active Duty FMLA Leave; (e.g., short notice deployment, military events and related activities, childcare and school activities, financial and legal requirements, counseling, rest and recuperation, and post- deployment activities.)

A

Qualifying Exigency

145
Q

(77) A leave schedule that reduces the usual number of hours or work per work week, or hours per workday, of an employee. An example of an employee taking leave on a reduced leave schedule is an employee who is recovering from a serious health condition and is not strong enough to work a full-time schedule.

A

Reduced Leave Schedule

146
Q

(77) In the case of a member of the Armed Forces, including a member of the National Guard or Reserves, means an injury or illness incurred by the member in line of duty while on active duty in the Armed Forces that may render the member medically unfit to perform the duties of the member’s office, grade, rank, or rating.

A

Serious Injury or Illness

147
Q

(77) A biological, adopted, or foster child, a stepchild, a legal ward, or a child of a person standing in loco parentis, who is under 18 years of age or is 18 years of age or older and incapable of self-care because of a mental or physical disability.

A

Son or Daughter

148
Q

(77) A husband or wife as defined or recognized under Florida State Law.

A

Spouse