General Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by radical treatment

A

Treatment given with curative intent.

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2
Q

What is meant by concurrent treatment

A

Giving two modes of treatment at the same time e.g. chemotherapy with radiotherapy.
Usually this is with radial (curative) intent.

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3
Q

What is adjuvant therapy

A

Treatment given following radical therapy, with the intention of reducing the risk of disease recurrence.
This may be given “Neo” adjuvantly i.e. prior to the radical treatment, rather than afterwards.

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4
Q

What is palliative treatment

A

Treatment given to ease symptoms and possibly to extend life, but with no intention of curing the disease.

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5
Q

What is XRT

A

Radiotherapy, usually external beams of ionising radiation directed to the tumour site,
Prescribed in Gray ( 1 Gy – 1 Joule /kg).

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6
Q

What is brachytherapy

A

When the source of radiation is implanted or inserted in the patient to deliver a dose of radiotherapy to local tumour.

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7
Q

What is performance status and how is it used

A

To express a patient’s level of fitness in relation to treatment options
Can be used to determine which treatments are suitable

If a patient is PS 0-1 they are usually fit for radical treatment.
If they are PS 0-2 they are usually fit for chemotherapy, be it palliative or radical.

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8
Q

List the Performance Status levels

A

0 – Fully active, no restrictions on activities

1 – Unable to do strenuous activities, but ambulatory and able to carry out light housework and sedentary activities

2 – Able to walk and manage self-care, but unable to work. Out of bed more than 50% of waking hours

3 – Confined to bed or a chair more than 50% of waking hours. Capable of limited self-care

4 – Completely disabled. Totally confined to a bed or chair. Unable to do any self-care

5 – Death

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9
Q

How does a PET scan work

A

A radioactive tracer is injected - radioactive isotope joined to a carrier molecule
Carrier molecules are designed to bind to specific proteins or sugars - commonly glucose for cancer
A CT scanner and gamma ray detector will together allow you
to identify areas of higher than expected metabolic activity.

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10
Q

What are PET-CT scans used for

A

They are good at identifying mets

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11
Q

If a superior vena cava obstruction is caused by an intrinsic clot, which treatments can be given

A

Anticogaulation and oxygen

Do not use a stent or steroids

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12
Q

Which type of back pain should alert you to possible malignant spinal cord compression

A

Radicular

Pain that radiates from your back and hip into your legs through the spine

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13
Q

In a patient with hypercalcaemia due to cancer what would the initial management be

A

IV fluids to start

Follow with bisphosphonates if fluids do not correct the calcium

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14
Q

Which type of lung cancer is most likely to cause hypercalcaemia

A

Squamous cell

Other cancers which commonly cause hypercalcemia include myeloma and breast

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15
Q

Which virus causes a significant proportion of oesophageal cancers

A

HPV

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16
Q

Which cancers are commonly screened for in the UK

A

Breast
Colorectal
Cervical

17
Q

Ovarian cancer usually presents early - true or false

A

It typically presents late

Often with abdominal discomfort

18
Q

Malignant spinal cord compression typically has better outcomes if treated surgically - true or false

19
Q

Cervical cancer can only be treated surgically - true or false

A

False

Whilst surgery is often used, non-surgical management includes external beam radiotherapy and brachytherapy

20
Q

Where does prostate cancer commonly metastasise to

21
Q

List treatment options for prostate cancer

A

Watchful waiting or active surveillance
Hormone therapy - androgen deprivation therapy
Brachytherapy - smaller tumour with less LUTS
Radical radiotherapy
Surgery - removal of prostate

22
Q

What is the most common cancer in females

A

Breast cancer

23
Q

List signs of opiate toxicity

A

Drowsiness

Pin point pupils

24
Q

Renal impairment increases risk of opiate toxicity - true or false

25
Q

List the different types of anaemia

A

Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia
Normocytic Normochromic Anaemia
Macrocytic Anaemia

Aplastic anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia

26
Q

What can cause microcytic anaemia

A

Haem deficeincy
Iron deficiency anaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic Anaemia

Globin deficiencey
Sickle cell disease
Thalasseamias

27
Q

What can cause normocytic anaemia

A

Acute blood loss
Early iron deficiency anaemia
Chronic inflammatory, infective or malignant disorders
Renal failure

28
Q

What can cause megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia

A

B12/Folate deficiency

29
Q

What can cause non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia

A

Liver Disease
Alcohol
Hypothyroidism

30
Q

What can cause spurious macrocytic anaemia

A

Cold agglutinins disease: Mycoplasma

Reticulocytosis

31
Q

What are the subtypes of macrocytic anaemia

A

True - induces megaloblastic and non-megaloblastic subgroups

Spurious

32
Q

Anaemia is a symptom not a diagnosis - true or false

A

True

Must investigate and find the underlying cause

33
Q

Which features of cancer can lead to anaemia

A

Chemotherapy
Bone marrow failure and invasion
Sepsis

34
Q

How can marrow infiltration by cancer lead to anaemia

A

It causes reduced erythropoiesis - have less red cells

35
Q

Which test is best for determining the major group of anaemia the patient has

A

MCV

Will tell you if it is micro-, normo- or macrocytic