Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATR 600-72 By Florida Pilot > General OM-12 Revision > Flashcards

General OM-12 Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Va limit Load factors : Gear and Flap retract

A

-1 g to 2.5g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

25,000 FT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Va limit load factor : Gear and Flap Extended

A

0g to 2.5g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum Cargo door operation X wind component

A

No more than 45 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do you refer for distachatbility items

A

MEL/CDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maximum silver airways seat capacity on all ATR76 pax aircraft

A

70 seats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the max ramp weight

A

51,080 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the max takeoff weight

A

50,705 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the max Landing weight

A

49,273 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the max Zero fuel weight

A

46,296 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do you refer for cargo loading limitations

A

Refered to company document E096

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vmo/Mmo

A

250 Kias / 0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Va

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many flaps position we have on the ATR 600 72

A

3 position

0°
15° - 185 KIAS
30° - 150 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

VLE

landing gear extended speed

A

185 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

VLO

Landing gear extention speed

A

170 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

VLO

Landing gear retraction

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vwo

Wiper operating speed

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Max tire speed

A

165 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vmcl

Minimum control landing speed for Flaps 15 and 30

A

Flap 15 98 knots

Flap 30 98 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum tailwind limit for takeoff and landing

A

15 knots

but silver is 10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum demostrated X Wind for To or landing flap 30

A

35 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum demostrated X Wind for To or landing flap 30 with braking action reported on the runway

A

10 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Reserve Takeoff TQ and time limitation

A

100% TQ / 10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reserve takeoff NP and Time limitation

A

101% NP / 10 Min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Main battery voltage

A

24 volts 43 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ACW system power

A

The green and blue hydraulic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Emergency battery voltage

A

24 volts 17 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

inviter 1 powers

A

AC bus 1 and AC standby bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inverter 2 power

A

Only AC bus 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the 3-emergency power source in case of a full loss of DC power

A

Main battery
Emergency battery
Transpor Forner rectifier unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the purpose of the GCU

A

to provide protection to the DC power system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many batteries we have in the our ART 72-600

A

2 Ni DC batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DC systems loads

A

28 volts 400 amps system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

inverters voltage

A

Max load
500 KVA NONE
575 KVA 30 MINUTES
750 KVA 5 MINUTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ACW voltage

A

20 KVA NONE
30 KVA 5 MINUTES
40 KVA 5 SECONDS
system 341 to 488 HZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ACW system is driven by

A

propeller reduction gear box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

AC Wild system produces electrical power after

A

66 % NP - propeller rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ACW system provide 3000 psi to the hydraulic system

true or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The blue hydraulic system powers

A

Flaps, Spoilers, Emergency break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The green hydraulic system powers

A

normal break and landing gear and anti skips

43
Q

what is the engine manufacture?

A

Pratt and Whitney

44
Q

what is the name of the propeller manufacture?

A

Hamilton

45
Q

how many blades each engine has

A

6 Hamilton blades per engine

46
Q

reduction gear box

A 
It drives the ACW generator
the propeller HP pump and the speed governor 
the auxiliary feather pump
the properller break 
the fuel / oil cooler
47
Q

what is in the Accessory gear box

A

DC starter / generator
the High-Pressure fuel pumps
the engine oil pump

48
Q

Engine rating limiting

A 
reserved takeoff              2750 HP
maximum continuous      2500 HP
Takeoff Power                  2475 HP
Climb power                     2192 HP
cruise power                     2132 HP
49
Q

ATPCS in case of an engine failed during takeoff

A

the system will provide 10% up trim to the live engine and auto feather to the failed engine

50
Q

ATPCS during flight

A

if arming conditions are meet it will only provide auto feather no up trim

51
Q

ATPCS up trim and feather conditions

A

PWR MGT TO
ATPCS push bottom on
PLs more than 49 degrees
TQ more than 46%

52
Q

ATPCS auto feather condition on flight

A

PWR MGT TO
ATPCS push bottom on
BOTH PLS more than 49 degrees
BOTH TQ more than 46%

53
Q

How much hydraulic fluids does the reservoir has on the tank

A

4 liters

54
Q

The low pressure will come on the Hydraulic green and blue system

A

at 1500 PSI

55
Q

Low pressure will come on on the Auxiliary pump at

A

less than 1500 psi

56
Q

wiper max operating speed

A

160 knots

57
Q

what are the two de-icing boots

A

Chordwise boot

Annular boots

58
Q

maximun fuel capacity

A

11,025 pounds

59
Q

maximum steering angel

A

60 degrees

60
Q

how many emergencies exit

A

5

61
Q

minimum pavement width

A

70.2 for 180 degrees turn

62
Q

aircraft dimension

A

89.1 feet fuselage
24 feet horizontal stabilizer
88.7 wingspam

63
Q

maximum range with maximum payload

A

830 NM

64
Q

Total portable water on board

A

4 gallons

65
Q

Emergency equipment in the cockpit

A 
3 quick donning masks 
3 smokes google 
3 life vests 
2 flashlights 
1 set of fire gloves 
1 fire extinguisher 
smoke PBE
escape rope 
1 crash axe
66
Q

How many PBE are in the aircraft

A

4 PBE in total

67
Q

How many oxygen bottles are on board?

A

2 bottles
but Minimum 1 bottle is required to cover a cabin depressurization at middle of the flight from FL250 to 13,000 feet with less than 4 minutes.

68
Q

what does the storm light does

A

It helps when flying at night operations in the ON position it overrides and prevent blinding the pilot in case of lighting.

69
Q

how long does the integral emergency battery is good for

A

10 minutes and has 6 volts

70
Q

starter limitation

A

3 starts within 1 minute 30 second maximum combined, followed by 4 minutes off

71
Q

Approved lubricating oil

A

PWA 521

72
Q

maximum pressure refueling

A

50 PSI

73
Q

Total useable fuel in each tank

A

5510 pounds

74
Q

Maximum fuel unbalanced

A

1609 pounds

75
Q

Maximum differential pressure

A

6.35 PSI

76
Q

maximum negative differential pressure

A

-.5 PSI

77
Q

Maximum differential pressure for landing

A

.35 PSI

78
Q

maximum differential pressure for landing

A

.35 psi

79
Q

Maximum differentials pressure for OVBD valve full open selection

A

1 PSI

80
Q

Maximum altitude for one single bleed operation

A

20,000 feet

81
Q

Max load and time limit for DC Gen

A

400 A none time
600 A 2 minutes
800 A 8 seconds

82
Q

max load and time limit for Inverter

A

500 none
575 30 minutes
750 5 minutes

83
Q

Max load and time limit for ACW GEN

A

20 KVA none
30 KVA 5 minutes
40 KVA 5 second

84
Q

MAX load and time limit for TRU

A

60 A time none

90 A 5 minutes

85
Q

single DC Gen operation

A

flight level must be limited to FL200

86
Q

maximum tire speed

A

165 Knots

87
Q 
takeoff with more than one failed MFC module is prohibited 
true or false
A

false

88
Q

Tail stands missing or not availed procedures

A

The captain will tell the flight attend to hold row 1-9 and the remaining rows can we deplane.

89
Q

Max X-wind normal conditions Dry RWY/Good braking Action

A

35 knows

90
Q

maximum tail wind for silver limitation

A

10 knots

91
Q

Minimum height for auto pilot engagement on takeoff

A

100 feet

92
Q

Minimum height for use the auto pilot or flight director

A
  1. 1,000 feet except during takeoff or approach
  2. VS or IAS approach mode 160 feet
  3. CAT 1 APP mode 160 feet
93
Q

Cabin light illumination system

A

Must be on for not less than 15 minutes before each flight

94
Q

(TCAS) Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

limitation

A
  1. TCAS must be turned to (TA) traffic adversity ONLY in Engine out Operation
  2. Stick pusher/shaker failure
  3. Flight with the landing gear down
95
Q

How many FMS / Flights management System we have on the ATR 72-600

A

2

96
Q

How many FMS / Flights management system we need for an Approach

A

1

97
Q

How many GPS on the aircraft?

A

2

98
Q

maximum differential pressure for OVBD valve fully open position

A

1 PSI

99
Q

Maximum negative Differential Pressure

A

-0.5

100
Q

Max differential Pressure for Landing

A

.35 PSI

101
Q

Max differential Pressure

A

6.35

102
Q

Prohibited fuels

A

JP4 and JETB

103
Q

MAXIMUM ALTITUDE WITH ONE BLEED OFF OPERATION

A

20,000 FEET

ATR 600-72 By Florida Pilot (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions