General - Lower GI Flashcards

1
Q

Where does an epigastric hernia occur?

A

In the upper midline, through the fibres of the linea alba

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2
Q

Where does a paraumbilical hernia occur?

A

Through the linea alba, around the umbilical region

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3
Q

Where does an obturator hernia occur?

A

A hernia of the pelvic floor, through the obturator foramen into the obturator canal

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4
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Angiodysplasia?

A

The formation of ateriovenous malformations between previously healthy blood vessels.

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5
Q

In which areas of the GI tract is angiodysplasia most common?

A

Caecum & Ascending colon

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6
Q

Clinical features of angiodysplasia?

A

Painless PR bleed
Acute haemorrhage
Anaemia
Melena

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7
Q

How would you investigate angiodysplasia?

A

Blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFT, Clotting, G&S)
Upper GI endoscopy
Colonoscopy
Wireless capsule endoscopy

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8
Q

Management of angiodysplasia?

A

IV fluid support
Tranexamic acid
Endoscopy + argon plasma coagulation
Mesenteric angiography
Bowel resection

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9
Q

Indications for bowel resection in patients with angiodysplasia?

A

Continuation of severe bleeding despite angiographic & endoscopic management
Severe acute life-threatening GI bleeding
Multiple angiodysplastic lesions that cannot be treated medically

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10
Q

Risks of mesenteric angiography as a treatment for angiodysplasia?

A

Haematoma formation
Arterial dissection
Thrombosis
Bowel ischaemia

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11
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

The abdominal viscera/omentum passes through the femoral ring into the femoral canal

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12
Q

What are the borders of the femoral canal?

A

Anterior border - Inguinal ligament
Posterior border - Pectineus
Lateral border - Femoral vein
Medial border - Lacunar ligament

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13
Q

Risk factors for femoral hernia?

A

Female
Pregnancy
Raised intra-abdominal pressure
Increasing age

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14
Q

Features of femoral hernia?

A

Small lump in groin
Infero-lateral to the pubic tubercle
Unlikely to be reducible

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15
Q

Differential diagnoses of femoral hernia/

A

Inguinal hernia
Femoral canal lipoma
Lymph node
Saphena varix

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16
Q

Investigations for femoral hernia?

A

US abdo-pelvis

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17
Q

Management for femoral hernia?

A

Always surgical due to high strangulation risk

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18
Q

Emergency presentations of femoral hernias that require urgent intervention?

A

Irreducible
Bowel Obstruction
Strangulation

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19
Q

What is an inguinal hernia?

A

Abdominal cavity contents enter into the inguinal canal.

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20
Q

What is a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Bowel enters the inguinal canal through a weakness in the posterior wall of the canal.

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21
Q

What is an indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Bowel enters the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring

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22
Q

Which is the most common type of inguinal hernia?

A

Indirect inguinal hernia (80%)

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23
Q

Risk factors for inguinal hernia?

A

Male
Increasing age
Raised intra-abdominal pressure
Obesity

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24
Q

Management of symptomatic inguinal hernia?

A

Laparoscopic repair
Open mesh repair

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25
Q

Where are the majority of gastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumours located?

A

Small intestine

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26
Q

Risk factors for neuroendocrine tumours?

A

MEN1/2
Neurofibromatosis type 1
von Hippel-Lindau
Female
Family history

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27
Q

Clinical features of GEP-NETs?

A

Vague abdominal pain
Nausea & vomiting
Abdominal distension
Carcinoid syndrome

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28
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

Metastatic carcinoid tumour cells oversecrete serotonin, prostaglandin and gastrin into the circulation. Presents with flushing, palpitations, intermittent abdominal pain, diarrhoea.

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29
Q

Which markers are useful for identifying GEP-NETs?

A

Chromogranin A
Pancreatic polypeptide
5-HIAA

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30
Q

What imaging tests should be used in a patient with suspected GEP-NET?

A

Endoscopy
CT CAP

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31
Q

What is the management of a Gastric NET?

A

Endoscopic resection of tumour
Gastrectomy with regional lymph node clearance

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32
Q

What is the management of Small intestinal NETs?

A

Tumour resection with mesenteric lymph node clearance

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33
Q

What is the management of Appendiceal NETs?

A

Appendicectomy
Right hemicolectomy

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34
Q

What is the management of Colonic NETs?

A

Segmental colectomy with regional lymph node clearance

35
Q

Where do most small bowel tumours arise?

36
Q

Risk factors for small bowel adenocarcinoma/

A

Increasing age
Crohn’s disease
FAP
Smoking
Obesity
High dietary red meat
Alcohol excess

37
Q

Clinical features of small bowel tumour?

A

Small bowel obstruction
Fresh PR bleed / melena
Hepatomegaly
Ascites

38
Q

What tumour marker for small bowel adenocarcinoma?

A

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen)

39
Q

What is the surgical management of small bowel cancer?

A

Segmental resection
Whipple’s procedure (pancreaticduodenectomy)
Adjuvant chemotherapy

40
Q

What age group is most commonly affected with appendicitis?

41
Q

Clinical features of acute appendicitis?

A

Peri-umbilical pain, migrating to RIF
Nausea & vomiting
Rebound tenderness
Percussion pain over McBurney’s point

42
Q

Investigations for acute appendicitis?

A

Routine bloods
Urinalysis
Pregnancy test
USS abdomen

43
Q

Management of acute appendicitis?

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

44
Q

Potential complications of acute appendicitis?

A

Perforation
Surgical site infection
Pelvic abscess

45
Q

What is the most common type of Colorectal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

46
Q

Which genetic mutations predispose an individual to colorectal cancer?

47
Q

Risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A

Increasing age
Family history
Inflammatory bowel disease
Low fibre diet
High processed meat intake
Smoking
Excess alcohol intake

48
Q

Clinical features of bowel cancer?

A

Change in bowel habit
Rectal bleeding
Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Anaemia

49
Q

Referral criteria for investigation of suspected bowel cancer?

A

> 40 with unexplained weight loss & abdominal pain
50 with unexplained rectal bleeding
60 with iron-deficiency anaemia or change in bowel habit

50
Q

When is colorectal cancer screening offered?

A

Every 2 years in those aged 60-75

51
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for colorectal cancer?

A

Colonoscopy with biopsy

52
Q

What staging system is used for colorectal cancer?

A

Duke’s Staging

53
Q

What is Duke’s stage A of colorectal cancer?

A

Confined beneath the muscularis propria

54
Q

What is Duke’s stage B of colorectal cancer?

A

Extension through the muscularis propria

55
Q

What is Duke’s stage C of colorectal cancer?

A

Involvement of regional lymph nodes

56
Q

What is Duke’s stage D of colorectal cancer?

A

Distant metastasis

57
Q

What is the surgical management for a caecal or ascending colon tumour?

A

Right hemicolectomy

58
Q

What is the surgical management for descending colon tumours?

A

Left hemicolectomy

59
Q

What is the surgical management of sigmoid colon tumours?

A

Sigmoidcolectomy

60
Q

What is the surgical management of high rectal tumours?

A

Anterior resection

61
Q

What is the surgical management of low rectal tumours?

A

Abdominoperineal resection

62
Q

What area of the GI tract does Crohn’s disease affect?

A

Any part of the GI tract

63
Q

What are the macroscopic changes in Crohn’s disease?

A

Skip lesions (discontinuous inflammation)
Cobblestone appearance
Fistula formation

64
Q

What are the microscopic changes in Crohn’s disease?

A

Non-caseating granulomas

65
Q

What type of inflammation is present in Crohn’s disease?

A

Transmural inflammation

66
Q

Risk factors for Crohn’s disease?

A

Family history
Smoking

67
Q

Clinical features of Crohn’s disease?

A

Episodic abdominal pain
Diarrhoea (blood/mucus)
Oral aphthous ulcers
Perianal abscess
Nail clubbing
Erythema nodosum
Weight loss
Malaise

68
Q

Gold standard investigation for Crohn’s disease?

A

Colonoscsopy

69
Q

Long term management of Crohn’s disease?

A

Smoking cessation
Azathioprine
Enteral nutrition support

70
Q

How to induce remission in an acute attack of Crohn’s disease?

A

Fluid resuscitation
Prophylactic heparin
Corticosteroid therapy

71
Q

Potential complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Fistula
Stricture formation
GI malignancy
Osteoporosis
Gallstones
Renal stones
Malabsorption

72
Q

Risk factors for formation of a diverticulum?

A

Increasing age
Low dietary fibre intake
Obesity
Smoking
Family history
NSAID use

73
Q

Clinical features of diverticular disease?

A

Intermittent lower abdominal pain
Pain relieved on defecation
Altered bowel habit
Nausea
Flatulence

74
Q

Clinical features of acute diverticulitis?

A

Acute abdominal pain (LIF)
Pain worse on movement
Localised tenderness
Decreased appetite
Pyrexia
Nausea

75
Q

Investigations for suspected diverticulosis?

A

Routine bloods
G&S
VBG
CT AP

76
Q

Management of uncomplicated diverticular disease?

A

Simple analgesia
Encourage oral fluid intake

77
Q

Management of acute diverticulitis?

A

Antibiotics
IV fluids
Analgesia

78
Q

Complications of diverticulitis?

A

Recurrence
Diverticular stricture
Fistula

79
Q

What is Pseudo-obstruction?

A

Dilatation of the colon due to adynamic bowel, in the absence of mechanical obstruction.

80
Q

Causes of pseudo-obstruction?

A

Hypercalcaemia
Hypothyroidism
Opioids
CCBs
Anti-depressants
Cardiac ischaemia
Parkinson’s disease
MS

81
Q

Clinical features of pseudo-obstruction?

A

Abdominal pain
Abdominal distension
Constipation
Vomiting

82
Q

Differential diagnoses of suspected pseudo-obstruction?

A

Mechanical obstruction
Paralytic ileus
Toxic megacolon

83
Q

Investigations for suspected pseudo-obstruction?

A

CT AP with IV contrast
Blood tests (U&E, bone profile, TFTs)
AXR

84
Q

Management of pseudo-obstruction/

A

Treat underlying cause
NBM
IV fluids
Endoscopic decompression (if no resolution within 24-48hrs)