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42 and 72 > General + Limitations > Flashcards

General + Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Length and width

A

22.670m x 24.572m (72 - 27m x 27m)

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2
Q

Flaps position

A

0, 15, 25, 35 (72 - 0, 15, 30)

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3
Q

FLAPS UNLK

A

untimely retraction 3 deg or more (72 - 4 deg)

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4
Q

VMO clacker operates when VFE exceeds

A

15 deg - 180 kt
25 deg - 160 kt
35 deg - 150 kt

(72 - 15 deg - 185 kt
- 30 deg - 150 kt)

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5
Q

Max fuel quantity

A

4500 kg (72 - 5000 kg)

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6
Q

Max fuel quantity per wing

A

2250 kg (72 - 2500 kg)

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7
Q

Electric pump off and on, when ?

A

over 8.5 PSI - off
under 5 PSI - on
(72 - the same)

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8
Q

Fuel LO LVL

A

160 kg (72 - the same)

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9
Q

Hyd normal level

A

9.35 L / max 9.6 L - min 8.5 L

72 - the same

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10
Q

Hyd low level

A

under 2.5 L (72 - the same)

!!! In case of LO LEVEL alert the cross feed valve is inhibited or closes automatically if it was open !!!

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11
Q

Hyd level for each system (blue/green)

A

4 L (72 - the same)

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12
Q

Take off rating

A 
2160 SHP (72 - 2475 SHP)
!!! 0.9 x max take off rating !!!
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13
Q

Reserve take off rating (RTO)

A

2400 SHP (72 - 2750)

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14
Q

Blade angle operating range

A
  • 14 deg (reverse) and + 78.5 deg (feather)

72 - the same

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15
Q

Power corresponding to the mode selected (PWR MGT)

A 
42
TO = 2160 SHP          
MCT = 2400 SHP                              
RTO = 2400 SHP
CLB = 2160 SHP                    
CRZ = 2132 SHP
72
TO = 2475 SHP
MCT = 2500 SHP
RTO = 2750 SHP
CLB = 2192 SHP
CRZ = 2132 SHP
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16
Q

PAX

A

48 (72 - 68 PAX)

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17
Q

Weight

A 
RAMP = 18770 KG (72 - 22970 KG)
TAKE-OFF = 18600 KG (72 - 22800 KG)
LANDING = 18300 KG (72 - 22350 KG)
ZFW = 16700 KG (72 - 20800 KG)
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18
Q

VMO/MMO

A

250 KT/ 0.55M (72 - same)

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19
Q

VA

A

160 kt (72 - 175 kt)

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20
Q

VFE

A

42 - 15 deg - 180 kt
25 deg - 160 kt
35 deg - 150 kt

72 - 15 deg - 185 kt
30 deg - 150 kt

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21
Q

VLE

A

VLO - 180 kt 72 - VLO - 185 kt
VLO RET - 160 kt same
VLO LOW - 170 kt same

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22
Q

VRA

A

180 kt (72 - same)

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23
Q

VWO

A

160 kt (72 - same)

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24
Q

Max tyre speed

A

165 kt (72 - same) GS

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25
Q

RTO TQ

A

100% (72 - same)

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26
Q

TO TQ

A

90% (72 - same)

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27
Q

MCT TQ

A

100% (72 - 90.9%)

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28
Q

Max fuel unbalance

A

550 kg (72 - 730 kg)

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29
Q

Max speed CRZ

A

304 kt (72 - 275 kt)

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30
Q

Compared with the 72, which items are not inhibited on the CAP

A

FLT CTRL and ENG

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31
Q

Trim green band

A

+4.5 to -1.5 (72 - +2.5 to 0)

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32
Q

Speed at which the extension of the flaps is inhibited

A

195 kt (72 - the same)

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33
Q

Refueling

A

Leading edge right wing (72 - LG bay, right side)

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34
Q

Brakes

A

Steel (72 - carbon)

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35
Q

Wind limitations

A

15 kt tail, 30 kt cross

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36
Q

Wind limitations (LVO)

A

10 kt tail/ 15 kt cross/ 15 kt head

72 - 10 kt tail/ 15 kt cross/ 30 kt head

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37
Q

ATPCS conditions

A

the same as 72 (PWR MGT TO, PL > 49 deg, TQ > 46%, ATPCS pb ON), except TQ > 53 %

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38
Q

Climb speed

A

160 kt (72 - 170 kt)

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39
Q

In GA, when is flaps 15 selected?

A

VGA + 15 or white bug, whichever is less

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40
Q

TQ =…

A

P/NP

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41
Q

ATPCS triggering condition

A

One TQ under 18% - 72

One TQ under 21% - 42

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42
Q

Fuel temperature dial values

A 
Red lines: -54, 57 deg
Yellow sectors: 
-54 to 0 deg
50 to 57 deg
Green sector: 
0 to 50 deg
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43
Q

Fuel tank temperature. Where is the probe located?

A

Left feeder tank

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44
Q

Lights and electricity
Beacon,NAV,logo /
Taxi and TO,Land,strobe/
Wing

A
  • SVCE BUS
  • ACW BUS
  • DC BUS
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45
Q

DSPL knob, activation and light for….

A

All digit lighting

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46
Q

PNL rotary selector, lighting and intensity for…

A

Glareshield, pedestal and overhead panels instrument

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47
Q

TLU

A

180/185kt 72

190/195kt 42

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48
Q

High speed climb speed

A

190kt - both

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49
Q

GND HNDLG BUS is disconnected when…

A

Airborne

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50
Q

DC UNDV

A

STBY BUS under 19.5V

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51
Q

BAT OVRD toggle switch

A

Overrides all protection, ensuring the busses are supplied from their respective battery

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52
Q

OVRD P/B

A

Transfers DC STBY BUS and AC STBY BUS from HOT MAIN BAT BUS to HOT EMER BAT BUS

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53
Q

O2 PAX supply on. How many PAX

A

25% - both

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54
Q

If cockpit O2 bottle is under …PSI use table

A

1400 PSI

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55
Q

PITCH TRIM ASYM

A

Pitch tabs desynchronization greater than 0.7 deg

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56
Q

RA between

A

-20 and 2500ft

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57
Q

“Five hundred” callout

A

During a non-precision approach or if the aircraft is outside the +/- 2 dots GS deviation

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58
Q

“Minimum” callout

A

If the aicraft has the LG extended when passing through the selected decision height

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59
Q

In what mode is the radar on ground?

A

STBY and can be activated by pressing STAB 4 times in 3 seconds

60
Q

Vapp=…

A

Vref+wind factor

61
Q

Taxi fuel, 14kg corresponds in average to…

A

2 min taxi

62
Q

Hotel mode consumption is…

A

110 kg/hr

63
Q

DOI..

A

0 - at 25% MAC
negative - in front of MAC
positive - after MAC

64
Q

Cargo

A

Front right - 480kg
Front left - 448kg
Aft - 466kg aft + 300kg fwd

65
Q

Which are the only doors monitored through the MFC?

A

FWD COMPT, CARGO and EMER

66
Q

NAV lights….

A

Right - green

Left - red

67
Q

NAV lights coverage

A

Wings 110 deg, tail 140 deg

68
Q

EMER EXIT LIGHTS…

A
  • ON when DC STBY BUS under 18v or both generators lost

- OFF when DC STBY BUS above 20v and at least one generator is running

69
Q

The packs supply…

A

Lef pack - cabin and cockpit
Right pack - cabin only
! If one pack is inoperative, the other one supplies both compartments through the mixing chamber !

70
Q

Landing elevation on AUTO PRESS is from…

A

-1500ft to 10000ft

71
Q

AUTO PRESS DESCENT RATE…

A

Normal - 400ft/min

Fast - 500ft/min

72
Q

GUIDANCE (left side)…

A

Illuminates amber if CAT II conditions are lost or if an excessive deviation is detected

73
Q

VHF communications is between 118.00 and 136.975 MHz and has a spacing of…

A

8.33KHz

74
Q

Batteries

A

Main Ni-Cd 24V and 43Ah

Emer Ni-Cd 24V and 15Ah

75
Q

How many buses are there in the electrical network?

A

11

  • DC BUS 1 and 2
  • HOT MAIN BAT and HOT EMER BAT
  • UTLY BUS 1 and 2
  • DC SVCE BUS
  • GND HDLG BUS
76
Q

O2 cylinder capacity…

A

2180 l

77
Q

ADC sw allows…

A

To feed both EEC, TAT/SAT/TAS indicator and GPS from ADC 1 or 2

78
Q

ADC FAULT illuminates if…

A

The switch doesn’t match the selection

79
Q

RMI

A

CAPT - DC BUS 2

FO - DC STBY BUS

80
Q

Complete refueling in about…

A

16 min

81
Q

The LP VALVE is controlled by the associated….

A

Fire handle

82
Q

ICING AOA LT illuminates as soon as …

A

One horn is activated

83
Q

Wipers speed …

A
  • slow 80/min

- fast 130/min

84
Q

Exciters

A
  • 2, A and B for each engine powered by the DC ESS BUS

- each has two spark igniters (first 25s 5-6 sparks/s, then 1 spark/s)

85
Q

Maximum runway slope and minimum width

A
  • +/-2 deg

- 30m

86
Q

ONLY AT75:

  • PL in RAMP, the TQ may go up to…
  • PL in WALL, TQ may go up to…
A
  • 100% and exceed, but not above 106.3%

- 115%

87
Q

In ICING conditions NP must not go below…

A

82%

88
Q

Starter limitations

A

3 starts in 1min and 30 sec, total combined time, followed by 4 min off

89
Q

Maximum value for TQ, time limit and when…

A
  • AT 75: 120%, for 20s, in transient

- AT 45: 137.5% for 20s, in transient

90
Q

BRK TEMP

A

150 deg - 72

160 deg - 42

91
Q

NAC OVHT

A

Over 170 deg

92
Q

DUMP function is only available in …

A

AUTO MODE

93
Q

Maximum bank angle with AP on is….

A
  • LO 15deg

- HI 27deg

94
Q

GND HDLG BUS is active and the battery discharges, even if it’s not selected on, when…

A
  • the passenger door is open or,
  • cargo control door is open or,
  • refueling control door is open
95
Q

ITT

A
  • 715 Hotel Mode ENG 2
  • 765 Take Off (5 MIN)
  • 800 MCT, RTO (10 MIN) - UPTRIM CONDITION
  • 800 - 840 (MAX 20 SEC)
  • 840 - 950 (START, MAX 5 SEC)
96
Q

Aviation electricity

A

115V / 400Hz

97
Q

Gust lock on when speed is….

A

40KT

98
Q

When does the TOD distance appears on the GNSS?

A

When you are 200NM inbound of the airport

99
Q

What happens with the flood light in the glareshield region when the storm light is on?

A

It stays off

100
Q

When putting the battery sw ON, MFC 1A and 2A will flash if….

A

The cargo door is closed, otherwise, only MFC 1B and 2B will flash

101
Q

Engine fire handle pulled, activates the following:

A
  • propeller on feather
  • fuel: LP valve closed
  • air: BLEED and HP VALVE closed
  • electric: DC and ACW GEN OFF
  • deice: deice and shut off valve closed
  • SQUIBS armed, light illuminates
    + HUD PROP BRAKE closed on ENG NO 2
102
Q

PROP BREAK READY light conditions:

A
  • A/C on ground
  • fire handle not pulled
  • gust lock engaged
  • CL on FTR or FUEL S/O
  • BLUE HYD pressure over 2100 PSI
103
Q

Comparing AHRS FAIL and EFIS COMP, in which case will the AP disconnect:

A

EFIS COMP

104
Q

How to recognize SGU FAIL

A

“X” appears on one screen, or both screens fail. We must move the SGU on the other side.

  • “X” HDG and ATT
  • FAIL flag on RMI
  • AHRS 1 - EFIS 1, RMI 2
  • AHRS 2 - EFIS 2, RMI 1
105
Q

How to recognize CRT FAIL

A

Only ONE (!!!) screen fails

106
Q

In case of EEC FAULT on ground, the PL’s must be above GI position because …

A

If the NP drops below 66% we will lose ACW

107
Q

“DISCHARGE” will light up when …

A

The fire extinguisher bottle is empty

108
Q

The fire is considered extinguished when …

A

The FIRE HANDLE turns off

109
Q

“SQUIB” appears and are armed when …

A

The FIRE HANDLE is pulled

110
Q

DRIFT DOWN procedure, in case of SE OPS …

A
  • descend till the SE GROSS CEILING (normal or icing conditions)
  • OBSTACLE: descend with white bug + flaps 15 deg
  • NO OBSTACLE: descend with 200 kt until we reach a VS of 500 FT/MIN and stop the descent at approximately FL 80
111
Q

Use of a weak GPU

A

If we have a voltage under 28 V we verify if it’s above 26 V. If it’s not above 26 V, we must SHED the consumers, if it’s still under 26 V, we remove the GPU and start the engine on BATTERIES.

112
Q

GREEN HYD FAULT “LO PR”

A
  • LG
  • normal braking
  • after take off, T/O INHI won’t cancel by itself, we must press RCL pushbutton
113
Q

RAPID and EXPLOSIVE DECOMPRESSION descent speeds:

A
  • RAPID: VMO - 10 kt

- EXPLOSIVE: our current speed

114
Q

TQ percentage in procedure (horizontal flight) and during approach:

A 
In procedure
- 45% (2 ENG)
- 75% - 80% (1 ENG)
Approach
- 25% (2 ENG)
- 50% (1 ENG)
115
Q

At MINIMUMS during a NON PRECISION approach the ADU must be put on …

A

“STBY” (FD bars OFF), because it is considered that we have the runway in sight.

116
Q

Emergency battery duration …

A

30 min

117
Q

AUX HYD PUMP activation

A
  • one engine running
  • PROP BRAKE OFF
  • BLUE HYD SYSTEM pressure under 1500 PSI
  • LDG down
118
Q

VLO (185 kt/ 180 kt) is larger than V retraction (160 kt) and V lowering (170 kt) because …

A

After the LDG is down, the doors will close, which means we can fly at a higher speed compared to V retraction and V lowering

119
Q

The buttons on the overhead panel that have a yellow contour are used in case of ….

A

SMOKE

120
Q

PROP DE-ICE, mode of operation …

A

The blades are heated in sequence:
- 1-3-5
- 2-4-6
!!! “FAULT” sign will alternate ON and OFF only if one of the series doesn’t work, if “FAULT” stays ON it means that the heating isn’t working on any of the blades !!!

121
Q

TCAS RA …

A
  • CLIMB: MCT, CL 100% OVRD

- RADIO: “TCAS RA” and when it’s the case, “CLEAR OF CONFLICT”

122
Q

APM

  • “CRUISE SPEED”
  • “DEGRADED PERFORMANCE”
  • “INCREASE SPEED”
A
  • No action
  • Checklist
  • Severe icing
123
Q

DADC …

A

Digital Air Data Computer

124
Q
  • LO BANK

- HI BANK

A
  • 15 deg

- 27 deg

125
Q

Manual AP disengaged can be done by:

  • force on the pedals
  • force on the control wheel
A
  • over 10 daN

- over 30 daN

126
Q

The altitude alert signals consist of a visual alert (amber light located on each of the two altimeters) which illuminates when the altitude is between … and and aural “C” chord signal of … duration which appears …

A
  • H + 250 FT and H + 1000 FT AND;
    H - 250 FT and H - 1000 FT
  • 0.75 s; every time the aircraft pases through one of those zone
127
Q

RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR (RMI)

A

Is coupled to the opposite AHRS with a compass rose, showing magnetic heading, two pointers.

128
Q

Minimum height for AP engagement after take off is …

A

100 FT

129
Q

Minimum height for use of either AP or FD:

  • except during take off or executing an approach …
  • VS or IAS mode during approach …
  • CAT I approach …
  • CAT II approach …
A
  • 1000 FT
  • 160 FT
  • 160 FT
  • 80 FT
130
Q

NON PRECISION APPROACH - use of AP is recommended with:

  • NAV mode …
  • HDG mode …
  • VS or IAS mode …
A
  • VOR
  • NDB
  • descent
131
Q

Avoid PROP BRAKE immobilization when the temperature is below … for a prolonged period of time.

A
  • 20 deg
132
Q

Avoid PARKING BRAKE engagement in wet conditions, when the temperature is below …

A
  • 5 deg
133
Q

Maximum fuel unbalance during single engine operation is …

A

200 kg

134
Q

EXCESSIVE ITT DURING STARTALERTA hot start may be recognized by :

A
    • Rapid ITT increase,
    • NH slow increase,
    • Exhaust flames may be reported by ground crew.
135
Q

An engine flame out may be recognized by:

A
    • sudden dissymmetry
    • TQ decrease
    • rapid ITT decrease
136
Q

ENG OIL LO PR ALERT

A

Oil pressure drops below 40 PSI

137
Q

FUEL ABNORMAL TEMP

  • too high (>50_C)
  • too low (<0_C)
A
    • Fuel is heated through a FUEL/OIL heat exchanger. Increasing fuel flow may reduce the fuel temperature.
    • Rapid throttle movement with high temperature fuel may cause surge or flame out.
    • In case of too low temperature, anti icing additive is needed to prevent ice formation in the fuel supply system. Record it in the maintenance book.
138
Q

FUEL LO LVL

A
    • After fuel pump is selected ON, feeder tank is full within 10 minutes.
    • The LO LVL alert for each side will be triggered by: the fuel remaining indicated on FQI, when it is less than 160 kg / 352 lb.. the secondary low level detection system, when feeder tank is not completely full.
    • In case of feeder jet pump malfunction, fuel quantity unusable in each fueltank is raised from 20 kg / 44 lb to 130 kg / 287 lb.
139
Q

EFIS COMP

A

When the two AHRS disagree (6 degrees or more) on:

  • pitch information, amber PIT message is displayed on both EADI
  • roll information, amber ROL message is displayed on both EADI
  • both pitch and roll information, amber ATT message is displayed on both EADI
  • heading information, amber HDG message is displayed on both EADI

!!! EFIS COMP can be triggered on ground by local magnetic perturbations. When the aircraft moves away from the magnetic perturbations source, the fault should disappear quickly !!!

140
Q

ADC FAULT

A
    • When ADC 1 is lost, ADC 2 is automatically selected to supply the pressurization digital controller. The baro correction is no longer available (ref 1013 mb) and landing field elevation must be set in terms of pressure altitude.
    • If both ADC are lost, only standby instruments are available: air data instruments have a red flag and AHRS have lost their TAS inputs. Pressurization has to be performed manually.
    • If the selected ADC is lost, FDAU does not receive inputs; bugs are not available on TQ indicators. Each engine uses their own source (if ADC 1 is the faulty selected ADC).
    • Ten seconds are necessary to recover bugs on TQ indicator after selection of the valid ADC.
141
Q

FINAL APPROACH SPEED

A

VAPP = VmHB + WIND FACTOR
Wind factor :The highest of
-1/3 of the reported head wind velocity – or
-the gust in full

142
Q

A few faults appear only on the CAP (not locally), these are …

A

PRKG BRK, GPWS FAULT, MAINT PNL

143
Q

Some alerts are not processed by the MFCs, they are processed locally. These systems are …

A
  • ENG FIRE
  • EXCESS CABIN DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE
  • EXCESS CABIN ALTITUDE
  • NACELLE OVERHEAT (2)
  • SMOKE
144
Q

TAT/SAT information are valid only when …

A

the engine (propeller unfeathered) corresponding to the selected ADC is running.

145
Q

A standing takeoff shall be performed under any of the following conditions:

A
  • TOW is near limiting RTOW for RWY length or obstacle;
  • Visibility / RVR at or close to takeoff minimum;
  • Contaminated RWY.
    The aircraft must be lined up and brought to a stop. Before releasing the brakes, the engines must be accelerated by setting the PL’s just above FI detent.
146
Q

PROP BRAKE unlock/ lock time …

A
  • 5 sec. to unlock

- 10 sec. to lock

42 and 72 (3 decks)

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