General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What is the type of budget used for the continuous operation of an organization, and the primary budget employed by lab managers?

A

Operational budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a purchase order that requests that certain supplies be delivered automatically in the number and frequency requested?

A

standing order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A system of diagnostic codes which identifies a patient’s illness, injury or complaint

A

ICD-10 codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Federal reimbursement plan that benefits people over age 65.

A

Medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of budget includes items such as salaries and benefits which are increased or decreased on the basis of the previous year’s budget?

A

Forecast budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which costs change with production volume?

A

Variable costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a list of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services performed by a physician?

A

CPT codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of error influences values consistently in one direction?

A

Systematic error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long must OSHA training records of employees be maintained in the laboratory?

A

3 years from the date of each training session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to OSHA, what is the frequency with which gloves should be changed?

A

When they have been penetrated by blood or other potentially infectious materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How soon must Hepatitis B vaccines be offered to new employees?

A

Within 10 days of employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How soon must gloves be replaced after contamination

A

As soon as practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to OSHA, who is responsible for writing and monitoring an exposure control plan for the laboratory?

A

Laboratory safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are universal precautions in the laboratory?

A

Assumes all blood and body fluids are contaminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is employee training on blood-borne pathogens required?

A

At the time of initial employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of budget is associated with government bodies where a fixed amount of money is granted for a fixed amount of time?

A

Appropriation budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Budget designed for purchase of equipment, building or remodeling?

A

Capital budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a flexible budget?

A

Fixed (overhead) and variable (reagents) are itemized, allowing for changes in test volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of budget is developed completely new from scratch. Historical info is disregarded. Only the highest ranked items are funded. Used to get rid of dead weight.

A

Zero-base budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of budget is prepared quarterly, more accurate than an annual budget

A

Rolling-Quarter budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a financial tool prepared monthly to anticipate cash flow, rates money is received and spent?

A

Cash budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Costs assigned to the production of a product; i.e., a billable test. Reagents, consumables, QC and technical labor.

A

Direct costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Costs not directly involved with the billable test. Non-technical labor: phlebotemists, admins, billing, couriers

A

Indirect costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between cash and revenue?

A

Revenue is the total amount of income generated. (gross)
Cash flow tracks the amount of cash in hand and the cash flowing in and out of the company. (net?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Useful for external review, looks at costs in aggregate, uses double entry bookkeeping and generally accepted accounting principles.

A

Financial Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This type of accounting is useful for internal purposes, less formal rules. Identifies cost on a UNIT basis. Assigns costs to a revenue generating activity.

A

Cash accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which type of costs are reagents and supplies?

A

Direct/Variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which type of costs are associated with Supervisor time to review QC

A

Indirect/Variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Costs that don’t change with test volume; equipment lease, techs needed for coverage, admin overhead

A

Fixed costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Direct labor and direct material costs required to produce a billable result. Used to compare different methodologies.

A

Prime costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Direct labor and section overhead to produce a billable result. Used to compare cost to measure the same reagent and test volume on two different analyzers.

A

Conversion costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Costs required just to keep the laboratory operational. Section and admin overhead, cost to collect and report results.

A

Ready to serve costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cost to produce a billable result, excluding indirect and ready to serve costs.

A

Full production costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Formula for full production costs

A

Prime + Conversion costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fully loaded cost formula

A

Full Production + Ready to serve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fully loaded cost components

A
  1. Prime costs (direct labor and materials)
  2. Conversion costs (direct labor and section overhead)
  3. Full production cost (direct labor, direct material, section overhead)
  4. Ready to serve costs (section OH, collect and report, gen lab OH)
  5. Fully loaded costs (Prime and ready to serve)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Fringe Benefits and how much to they cost?

A

25-35% of salary
Health insurance
Life and Disability insurance
Retirement
Vacation, sick and maternity leave
Social security tax

37
Q

How to compute salary costs?

A

Employee compensation (salary) + Fringe benefits + recruitment + orientation, training and development

38
Q

50% decrease in workload is what % reduction in FTE?

39
Q

What are limitations of laboratory cost reduction?

A

Fully loaded costs have a high percentage of fixed costs. Ex. A 50% decrease in workload results in only a 14% rection in FTE.

40
Q

Formula for cost to break even

A

Fixed costs/(test price - variable costs)

41
Q

Formula for charge to break even

A

(Fixed costs/test volume) + variable cost

42
Q

Minimum to break even formula

A

Fixed cost/(Test price - variable cost) all per unit

43
Q

Contribution Margin %

A

(Test Price - Variable cost)/Test Price all per unit

44
Q

Request to make purchase

A

Requisition

45
Q

Order to purchase items at a given price over a given amount of time

A

Purchase Order

46
Q

A certain amount of material or total dollar amount that can be ordered within a certain amount of time at a fixed price

A

Blanket PO

47
Q

Westgard Rules

A

Detects both random and systematic errors.
Multi-rule QC
Decision tree shorthand 1 2S (1 control measurement exceeding 2SD of the mean

48
Q

Levey Jennings Plot

A

Results on Y axis vs. Time on X axis
Detects trend, shift, dispersion

49
Q

Sudden failure

50
Q

Causes of dispersion

A

Random errors
Fluctuations
New Tech
Poor mixing

51
Q

Cumulative Sum Plot

A

Cusum Plot
Cumulative sum difference from expected values
Determines systematic errors

52
Q

Gradual loss of reliability
Increase or decrease in one direction

A

Trend
Reasons could be deterioration of light, materials, accumulation of debris.

53
Q

Accuracy

A

Closeness of measured value to true value

54
Q

Precision

A

Closeness of repeated measurements
(Repeatability)

55
Q

Formula for Positive Predictive Value

A

True Positive/(True Positive + False Positive) x100

56
Q

Negative Predictive Value Formula

A

True Negative/(True Negative + False Negative) x100

57
Q

Sensitivity

A

True positive rate
(#Diseased Patients with Positive result/Total # Diseased) x100
or
TP/TP+FN x100

58
Q

False Negative Rate

A

FN/Total # Diseased

or
1-Sensitivity

59
Q

False Positive Rate

A

(FP/Total # Non-diseased) x 100
1-Specificity

60
Q

Specificity

A

True Negative Rate
Probability of classifying non-diseased person as non-diseased
(# Non-diseased patients with Negative Result/Total Non-diseased Patients) x100
or
(TN/TN+FP) x100

61
Q

SNOMED codes

A

Systemized Nomenclature of Medicine Clinical Terminology
developed by CAP
Used by UK

62
Q

LOINC codes

A

Logical Observation Identifier Names and codes
Alternative to CPT
Universal Lab language
7 digit codes

63
Q

HCPC codes

A

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System
Assigned by CMS (not AMA)
Cat II codes - Letter A-V followed by 4 digits
Fill gaps in CPT (where no CPT exists)
CAT III - Temporary set for emerging technologies.

64
Q

Program administered by states for low-income families

65
Q

What does Medicare Part A cover?

A

Hospital inpatient, skilled nursing care, hospice care, home health care

66
Q

What does Medicare Part B cover?

A

Laboratory tests, other outpatient services and devices
Used by private insurance to set reimbursement rates.

67
Q

What does Medicare Part D cover?

A

Prescription drugs

68
Q

CPT Modifier 91

A

Repeat Testing

69
Q

What is Medicare Part C?

A

Managed Care Plan (HMO)
Alternative to Part B

70
Q

CPT Modifier 90

A

Procedure referred to reference lab

71
Q

CPT Modifier 59

A

Distinct procedural services on same day not reported together

72
Q

CPT Modifier 26

A

Procedure is a combination of physician and technical component

73
Q

70-30 Rule

A

No more than 30% of total testing can be referred out

74
Q

Room temperature in Celcius

A

20-24 degrees

75
Q

Molarity

A

Moles/Liter
1 mole = gram molecular weight

76
Q

DOT Hazardous Materials Regulation (HMR)
Category A Substance

A

Infectious substance capable of causing permanent disability or death to humans or animals
High Risk

77
Q

DOT Hazardous Materials Regulation (HMR)
Category B Substance

A

Not capable of causing permanent disability or death

78
Q

Acronym explaining Six Sigma

A

DMAC
Define, measure, analyze, improve, control

79
Q

Formula for Celsius

A

5/9( F-32)

80
Q

Formula for Fahrenheit

81
Q

Formula for Kelvin

82
Q

Standard Deviation

A

Square root of variance:
SD=square root of sum(x-mean)squared/n-1

83
Q

z score

A

Standard deviation Index (SDI)
Tells you how many SD a control result is from the mean
Z=(control result - expected mean)/SD

84
Q

Coefficient of variation

A

SD divided by mean x 100

85
Q

UN2814

A

Category A - affecting humans

86
Q

UN2900

A

Category A affecting animals only

87
Q

UN3373

A

Category B

88
Q

95% confidence interval

A

Within 2SD of mean based on normal distribution

89
Q

Six Sigma

A

Quality improvement process
Reducing errors to 3.4 defects per million tests
Six Sigma = 6 SD from the mean in normal distribution
99.9997% confidence interval