General Knowledge Flashcards

Should Know

1
Q

How much faster does water conduct heat compared to air?

A

24 times faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much faster does helium conduct heat compared to air?

A

6 times faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does light travel faster in air or in water?

A

Light travels faster in air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much faster does sound travel in water compared to air?

A

4 times faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Body fat absorbs nitrogen compared to blood cells by how much?

A

5 times more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the affinity of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin compared to oxygen?

A

200 times higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What visual phenomenon occurs in clear water compared to turbid water?

A

Objects appear larger and closer in clear water and far and small in turbid water (visual reversal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the formula for fluid pressure in a gas?

A

FGV = FV × P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

At constant temperature, pressure is inversely proportional to volume (P × V = K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Charles’s Law state about gas?

A

For a given mass of gas, either pressure or volume is directly proportional to absolute temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Dalton’s Law state about gas mixtures?

A

The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gas is equal to the sum of the pressures of each gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does Henry’s Law state?

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid at a given temperature is directly proportional to its partial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fill in the blank: The solubility of gases depends on temperature; lower temperature means _______.

A

more solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the density of fresh water?

A

1000 grams/litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the average blood volume in the human body?

A

5-6 litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the average breathing rate for a male?

A

12 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the vital capacity of the lungs?

A

5 litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of systemic circulation?

A

Supplies all the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the definition of pulmonary circulation?

A

Passes only through the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most reliable pulse point?

A

Carotid (neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does CNS stand for?

A

Central Nervous System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the primary function of the brainstem?

A

Controls the functions of heart and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the main cause of compression arthralgia?

A

Rapid (fast) compression causing pain in the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the term for air trapped in the thoracic cavity?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the average nitrogen dissolved in the human body at atmospheric pressure?

A

1.25 grams or 1 litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for decompression illness (DCI)?

A

Recompression and decompression using appropriate therapeutic table and high PPO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the definition of hypoxia?

A

Below 0.16 bar or 160 mb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the definition of hypercapnia?

A

Headache, sweating, increased respiration, dizziness, and nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maximum permissible partial pressure of CO2 in a chamber and bell?

A

10 mb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the term ‘anoxia’ refer to?

A

Instant collapse and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the average metabolic consumption in a chamber per day per diver?

A

0.72 m³

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the average metabolic consumption in a chamber per minute per diver?

A

0.5 litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the effect of rapid descent or rapid compression deeper than 100 feet?

A

Loss of coordination and tremors due to HPNS (High-Pressure Nervous Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the term ‘silent bubble’ refer to?

A

Micro bubbles that can be detected after decompression in the body with micro Doppler test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the symptoms of Type 1 decompression illness (DCI)?

A

Pain only and skin symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the symptoms of Type 2 decompression illness (DCI)?

A

Serious DCI affecting brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the treatment success rate for DCI treatment within 30 minutes?

A

90% success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the maximum PPO2 in nitrox diving?

A

1.4 bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the definition of arterial gas embolism?

A

Bubbles in the bloodstream causing paralysis, visual disturbance, and loss of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary danger of pulmonary overinflation?

A

Rupture of alveolar lining leading to serious complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the definition of aural barotrauma?

A

Pressure injury to the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the purpose of the Valsalva maneuver?

A

Clearing of the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the term ‘barotrauma’ refer to?

A

Pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the effect of acute oxygen poisoning in water at more than 1.6 bar PPO2?

A

Affects the brain directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the symptoms of acute oxygen poisoning?

A

Visual disturbance, tunnel vision, hearing problems, nausea, twitching, irritation, dizziness, convulsions, and coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does hypothermia refer to?

A

Body heating below certain depths, specifically below 50 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the symptoms of hydrogen sulfide exposure?

A

Symptoms include cherry red complexion, headache, dizziness, nausea, confusion, shortness of breath, and unconsciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a characteristic smell of hydrogen sulfide at lower concentrations?

A

Bad egg smell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens to the sense of smell at higher concentrations of hydrogen sulfide?

A

There is no smell as the sense organ gets damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

A condition where body temperature falls below normal levels.

52
Q

At what body core temperature is serious hypothermia considered?

A

A 2°C fall in body core temperature from 37°C.

53
Q

What are the critical temperature points for hypothermia?

A

Shivering at 36°C, collapse at 30°C, death at 25°C.

54
Q

True or False: Never assume a hypothermic victim is dead until they are warm and dead.

55
Q

What defines hyperthermia?

A

Body core temperature exceeds 39°C.

56
Q

How quickly can drowning lead to death?

A

Death can occur in 4-5 minutes.

57
Q

What is secondary drowning?

A

Occurs when fresh water causes hemodilution or sea water causes hemoconcentration in the lungs.

58
Q

What is the difference between dry drowning and wet drowning?

A

Dry drowning has no water in the lungs as the epiglottis closes, while wet drowning involves water in the lungs.

59
Q

What is the IMCA D 010 document about?

A

General diving procedures.

60
Q

What should the recording of diving activities be kept for?

A

For a minimum of 48 hours and until an investigation is complete after an incident.

61
Q

What are the minimum waiting times for flying after diving for no-stop dives?

A

2 hours for short flights, 8 hours for long flights, and 24 hours for deeper dives.

62
Q

What is the required safety factor for man riding systems?

63
Q

What should be done to diver umbilicals?

A

They should be tied to keep the diver 5 meters away from thrusters or suction.

64
Q

What should the thermal confusion diver be aware of?

A

The diver is unable to judge heating requirements.

65
Q

What is the maximum allowable temperature for gas cylinders?

A

Not more than 45°C.

66
Q

What are the color codes for gas cylinders?

A
  • He – Brown
  • O2 – White
  • N2 – Black
  • Ar – Dark Blue
  • CO2 – Grey
  • Cal Gas – Pink
67
Q

What should be avoided in oxygen systems to prevent fire?

A

Teflon tape.

68
Q

What is the maximum PPM of CO2 allowed in breathing air?

69
Q

What is the significance of the golden rule in gas analysis?

A

Analyze before putting online.

70
Q

What is the minimum team requirement for surface supplied diving?

A

5 members.

71
Q

What is the maximum depth for air and nitrox diving?

A

50 meters.

72
Q

What should be done in case of loss of communication during a dive?

A

Give line signals and terminate the dive.

73
Q

What is the primary role of a standby diver?

A

To assist the working diver and provide emergency support.

74
Q

What is the significance of the IMCA D 014 document?

A

Code of practice for diving.

75
Q

What is a necessary precaution when handling explosives?

A

One person should be responsible for handling.

76
Q

What should be done after a misfire with explosives?

A

Wait 30 minutes before approaching.

77
Q

What is the minimum safe distance from iridium IR 192?

78
Q

What is the required oxygen reserve for therapeutic use?

79
Q

What kind of valves should be used for oxygen supply?

A

Quarter turn valves only.

80
Q

How should single cylinders be stored?

A

In vertical position.

81
Q

What is the maximum bottom time for mixed gas below 50 meters?

A

30 minutes.

82
Q

What should be ensured during decompression?

A

The diver must ascend as planned and avoid hard physical work.

83
Q

What is the maximum depth for surface mix gas diving?

A

75 meters.

84
Q

What is the maximum treatment depth for a chamber in diving operations?

A

Sufficient air to pressurize both locks of DDC to max possible treatment depth and to complete three decompression cycles as reserve

DDC stands for Deep Diving Chamber.

85
Q

What are the three classes of loss of position for DP vessels?

A
  • Class I: Loss of position may occur in the event of single fault
  • Class II: Single fault of an active component, loss of position should not occur
  • Class III: Loss of position should not occur even during completely burnt or flooded single compartment
86
Q

True or False: All DSVs should be at least Class I.

A

False

All DSVs should be at least Class II.

87
Q

What is required for position reference systems in DP operations?

A

At least three position reference systems, with one on standby and two of different types

Position reference systems should have separate power supplies.

88
Q

What are some examples of position reference systems?

A
  • Taut Wire
  • Artemis
  • HPR – Hydro Acoustic Position Reference
  • DGPS – Digital Global Positioning System
  • Fan Beam
89
Q

What is the maximum angle for the taut wire in DP operations?

A

15 degrees

90
Q

What is the operating range for fan beam systems compared to the human eye?

A

35-50% better in poor visibility

91
Q

What should be done to avoid errors with the Artemis system?

A

Artemis should be switched off during radio silence for wire line explosive work and should always be online.

92
Q

Fill in the blank: The air purity standard for breathing air is ______.

A

[BSEN 12021]

93
Q

What is the maximum bell run time for two-man bells?

A

Max 8 hours

94
Q

What is the minimum medical oxygen purity required?

A

99.5% minimum

95
Q

What is the safety factor for wire rope in diving operations?

96
Q

What should be done with cutting and grinding discs after use underwater?

A

Discard them after one use

97
Q

What is the maximum lock-out time for two-man bells?

A

Max 4 hours, with an extension of max 30 min with recorded agreement

98
Q

What is the requirement for the anemometer in diving operations?

A

There should be two anemometers at different locations with separate supply cables.

99
Q

What is the maximum movement of the vessel with a diver in the water?

A

10 meters with 5 meter stops

100
Q

What should be done with the breathing mixture before connecting online?

A

All gas must be analyzed on receipt and prior to connection online.

101
Q

What is the purpose of a bail-out bottle in diving operations?

A

To increase survival time with increased PPO2

102
Q

What is the requirement for video recording during diving operations?

A

Video recording to be kept for 48 hours.

103
Q

What is the maximum duration for decompression after diving at 2000 feet?

A

2 hours for no decompression

104
Q

What is the rule regarding diving after treatment?

A

24 hours after complete recovery

105
Q

What is the significance of the DMAC 1 report?

A

Recording and reporting of diving incidents

106
Q

What should be done with batteries while charging?

A

Good ventilation required while charging batteries.

107
Q

What is the maximum lockout time for DMAC 20?

A

Bell lockout time

Specific guidelines for lockout procedures

108
Q

What are the SAT rules as per DMAC 21?

A

SAT no more than 28 days

Guidelines for scheduling Saturation Tests

109
Q

What is the maximum time allowed for SAT in exceptional circumstances?

A

50% of SAT time or 10 days, whichever is less, max of 182 days a year

Regulations for SAT scheduling adjustments

110
Q

What is the proximity requirement to RCC as per DMAC 22?

A

Diver should be within 20 minutes up to 4 hours and 2 hours distance for 12 hours

Safety protocols for divers’ proximity to emergency services

111
Q

What is the use of HeO2 for treatment in diving?

A

Sufficient analyzers for continuous monitoring of the reclaim, bell, DDC, and divers

Importance of monitoring equipment in diving operations

112
Q

How is oxygen concentration treated when it exceeds 25%?

A

Treated as 100%

Safety measures for high oxygen levels in diving environments

113
Q

What is the requirement for a closed bell in terms of diver safety?

A

Need to be capable of sustaining trapped divers for 24 hours

Design specifications for emergency situations in diving

114
Q

What is the minimum height requirement for a basket used in diving operations?

A

More than 2 meters

Safety standards for equipment used in diving rescues

115
Q

What should a diver not approach during a dive?

A

Any pipeline which is pressurized and under test

Safety protocols regarding pressurized systems

116
Q

What is the minimum uninterrupted rest period required in SAT?

A

At least 12 hours

Regulations for diver rest during saturation diving

117
Q

What should be used when opening a flood valve?

A

Deflectors

Equipment handling procedures in diving operations

118
Q

What is the requirement for a wellhead in diving operations?

A

Double block and bleed

Safety measures for wellhead operations

119
Q

What may need to be switched off during diving operations?

A

ICCP

Considerations for electrical systems in underwater environments

120
Q

What factors should be considered when working near a flare?

A

Wind speed and direction

Safety assessments for operations near potential hazards

121
Q

How long should habitats keep divers alive?

A

48 hours

Life support requirements in underwater habitats

122
Q

What is the mandatory color scheme for safety signs?

A

Blue background with white symbols

Standardization of safety signage in diving operations

123
Q

What does a red border and cross on a black symbol indicate?

A

Prohibition sign

Signage for restricted areas in diving operations

124
Q

What do yellow and black colors indicate in diving safety?

A

Warning

Color coding for safety alerts in diving environments

125
Q

What is the maximum allowable CO2 concentration in diving operations?

A

5 MB, 0.5%, 5000 PPM, 500 ML

Limits for carbon dioxide exposure in diving

126
Q

True or False: Fire will take place if oxygen levels are below 8%.

A

False

Oxygen concentration thresholds for combustion