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Comp-TIA 1102 > General Knowledge > Flashcards

General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

How many years of support do servers and work-stations get?

A

10 Years for servers and 5 years for workstations

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2
Q

What is the oldest Windows model that we are going to support?

A

Windows 8.1

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3
Q

Is Linux open or closed source?

A

Open Source

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4
Q

What is Unix?

A

A different type of operating system

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5
Q

Is Ubuntu free?

A

Yes

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6
Q

Does Fedora, Debbie, Mint, Arch, and Cent OS get support?

A

No, because they are supported by the community instead.

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7
Q

How are standard release models supported?

A

Even numbers get 5 years of support and Odd numbers get 9 months of support

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8
Q

What are rolling release models?

A

Model will receive constant updates instead of new models being introduced.

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9
Q

How long are android operating system supported for?

A

2-3 years

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10
Q

What operating system is android based on?

A

Linux

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11
Q

What is IOS and IPAD IOS originated from?

A

Apple

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11
Q

What was MAC OS previously called?

A

OSX

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12
Q

Is IOS closed or open sourced?

A

Closed source

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13
Q

What are the three file types that operated on Windows?

A

NTFS, FAT32, and exFAT

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14
Q

What are the three file types that operated on Linux?

A

ext3, ext4, or exFAT

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15
Q

What is the one file type that operates on MAC OS?

A

APFS

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16
Q

What are the benefits of NTFS?

A

journaling, snapshots, security, POSIX compliance, indexing, and dynamic discsjournaling.

64 bit filesystem that allows for large volumes and very large file sizes.

not case sensitive

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17
Q

What are the main features of FAT32?

A

total drive size of 2 TB, and maximum file size is 4 GB

Supported by all three operating systems

Usually used on removable drives like external drives or USB flash drives

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18
Q

What are the main features of ext3 and ext4?

A

mainly used by linux

ext3 has maximum volume size of 32 tb and maximum file size of 2 tb
ext4 has maximum volume size of 1 EB and maximum file size of 16 tb

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19
Q

What are the main features of APFS?

A

use the same journaling benefits of NTFS

has a higher level of performance when dealing with SSDs compared to HDD

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20
Q

What are the main features of exFAT?

A

considered cross platform and can be used on Windows, Linux, and macOS

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21
Q

How do most computers deal with compatibility concerns when it comes to file systems?

A

by talking through TCP/IP

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22
Q

Main features of 32 bit operating system?

A

Lower memory and these are commonly associated with windows 10

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23
Q

Main features of 64 bit operating system?

A

More memory often found in windows 10 or 11

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24
Q

Main features of Windows Home?

A

basic edition of the windows operating system

not designed to be used in business environment

it utilizes an OEM or Retail license
OEM – used by original manufacturer and cannot move systems
Retail– can move unto different systems

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25
Q

Main feature of Windows Pro?

A

windows operating system that focuses on business operations

can also be used as a domain system

can utilize BitLocker for encryption

can also used the Group Policy Editor

can use Remote Desktop Protocol

can also be upgraded to Windows Pro for Workstations– provides additional hardware and support four way multiprocessing

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26
Q

Main feature of Windows Enterprise and Education?

A

uses volume licensing

App-V protects the system from malware

allows multiple people to use the same machine, but separates their settings

direct access is used to allow for connectivity for remote users without the use of a VPN

Credential guarding allows for virtualization based security and only grants access to privileged systems.

Windows to go creates an image of the corporate windows 10 environment that can be run on a user’s personal computer.

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27
Q

Difference between edition and version upgrade?

A

Edition upgrade- same set

Volume upgrade- different set

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28
Q

What is image deployment?

A

copies an image of a hard drive onto a new system

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29
Q

What are the considerations when upgrading system?

A
  1. Hardware compatibility
  2. Application support
  3. Backup files and user preferences
  4. Third party drivers

make sure the processor, chipset, and memory can support the new OS.

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30
Q

What are the three product lifecycles?

A
  1. Mainstream- support for at least 5 years
  2. Extended support- additional period for some products that can extend an additional 3-5 years
  3. End of life- product is no longer supported
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31
Q

What are the update policies for a Legacy system?

A

feature updates occur every 6-12 months
feature updates are not going to change the requirement of the OS

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32
Q

What are the two styles of partitioning?

A

MBR and GUID Partition Table

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33
Q

What are the main features of MBR?

A

traditional style of partitioning

the first 512 byte sector on a disk contains the MBR which has the info about the physical disk on it

divides the physical disk in to 4 partitions

one drive for operating system and one for the data in two different partitions.

only able to run 4 partitions and supports disk size of 2 TB

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34
Q

Main features of GUID?

A

supports up to 128 partitions

system must support UEFI, in order to run GPT

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35
Q

How can a factory reset only work?

A

only if you have the original hard drive

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36
Q

What percentage of profit can be found in the app store?

A

15-30%

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37
Q

How can backup tools affect system performance?

A

By stealing a lot of network resources, often overwhelms the connection

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38
Q

What is a WWAN connection?

A

connects a wide area network over a wireless connection, and is most commonly seen with cellular modems or cellular hotspots

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39
Q

What four basic items are needed for network client configuration?

A
  1. IP Address
  2. Subnet Mask
  3. Gateway
  4. DNS Server
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40
Q

What does media streaming do?

A

media streaming allows the user to send videos, music, and other media types to other devices and computers in the network. This is found in the network and sharing center

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41
Q

What is the main purpose of a task manager?

A

monitors the computer’s key resources, like processing, memory, storage, and network capacity

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42
Q

What is the main purpose of the device manager?

A

investigating and troubleshooting system hardware, components, and peripherals

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43
Q

What is the main purpose of a disk management console?

A

formats disk drives, creates partitions, shrinks volumes, creates RAIDS and more.

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44
Q

What are the three disk maintenance tools?

A

Disk fragmentation

Capacity

Damage

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45
Q

What is the main purpose of fragmentation?

A

cleans up files, empties caches, and speeds up systems. keep note that fragmentation is only affecting hard drives due to the way data is written.

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46
Q

What is the data capacity?

A

it is the cap of data that you are able to have on your disk

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47
Q

What is data damage?

A

data is damaged– often happens when power is cut off or the device is dropped.

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48
Q

What is the main purpose of a task scheduler?

A

used to run commands and scripts automatically in the background at any given interval

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49
Q

What is the main purpose of the event viewer?

A

allows the user to go through log files and see what has happened on a given windows system

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50
Q

What is the event viewer hierarchy? from least to greatest

A

information
warning
verbose
error
critical

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51
Q

What is the main purpose of the performance monitor?

A

Real time information about system resources by keeping track of what things are happening in the operating system.

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52
Q

What is the main purpose of the group policy editor?

A

it provides a way of configuring different windows settings across all machines in the network

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53
Q

What is the main purpose of the certificate manager?

A

looks at the different digital certificates in the system and provides a way of requesting and importing new certificates

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54
Q

What is the main purpose of the resource monitor?

A

enhanced version of the task manager.

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55
Q

What is the main purpose of the registry editor?

A

a database which has all the different settings and configurations across the entire operating systems

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56
Q

What is the main difference between the administrative command prompt vs regular prompt?

A

creates new user accounts and access files and folders

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57
Q

what are the navigation command?

A

cd– change directory

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58
Q

what is the directory command?

A

dir– directory

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59
Q

what do the dots mean in the directory command?

A

. means here

.. means take me to the parent directory

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60
Q

what is the command for clearing screen?

A

cls

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61
Q

what is the command to see inside the text file?

A

type

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62
Q

what is the command for creating a directory?

A

md

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63
Q

what is the purpose of using quotations?

A

to group a command together, if not; it will create a separate entity

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64
Q

what is the command for removing directory?

A

rmdir

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65
Q

how does a user access a drive directly in command prompt?

A

drive and colon

ex. D drive= d:

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66
Q

how does a user move up 2 directories

A

cd ../..

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67
Q

how does a user navigate to the root of the drive instantly?

A

/

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68
Q

what is the command for copy?

A

copy

ex.
copy Afile1.txt f:\File1.txt

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69
Q

what is the command for move?

A

move
ex.
move Afile1.txt f:\File1.txt

user is able to rename file while moving it

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70
Q

what is the command for copying directories

A

xcopy

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71
Q

what is the command for copying in to network drives?

A

robocopy

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72
Q

what is the command for disk partitioning?

A

diskpart

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73
Q

how does a user see a disk in the system in command prompt?

A

list disk

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74
Q

how do you select a disk in dispart?

A

select disk 0

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75
Q

how do view a detail info on a disk?

A

detail volume 1

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76
Q

how do you change the letter of a disk?

A

assign letter=p

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77
Q

how do you view commands in disk part?

A

help

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78
Q

what is the format command?

A

format p: /fs:ntfs
ex.
last command contains the file system used

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79
Q

what is the command for scanning file systems?

A

chksdk

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80
Q

what is the command for repair in chkdsk?

A

/f to fix or /r to fix and recover

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81
Q

what is the shutdown command?

A

shutdown /? opens help menu

/s computer shutdown
/l log off
/t able to set a timeout period in seconds
/a aborts the shutdown
/h sleep mode
/r shutdown and restart computer

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82
Q

what is the command for system file checker?

A

sfc / scannow– runs immediately one time
sfc/ ?– opens help menu
sfc/ scanfile– single files at a time

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83
Q

what is the command for finding windows version?

A

winver
systeminfo |more– more information

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84
Q

what are the commands for networking?

A

ipconfig– ip configuration
ipconfig /all- more details of the network adapters
ipconfig /renew– renews DHCP lease
ipconfig /release– gets rid of ip information
ipconfic /displaydns– what is in DNS cache
ipconfig /flushdns– flushes resolver cache

ping– connectivity
ping localhost– test connection to one’s self
ping 192.168.1.60- pings ip address
ping 8.8.8.8– pings dns server
ping google.com– pings domain name

tracert– trace route
tracert facebook.com– tests hops of domain name

pathping– performs traces, more detailed than normal trace route

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85
Q

what are the name resolution commands?

A

hostname– device name
nslookup– looks up information about a hostname
nslookup help– how to use nslookup
server 8.8.4.4– changes server in cmd
set doman=diontraining.com– sets domain to dointraining
set domain=diontraining.com
set type A– sets type A in diontraining

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86
Q

what is the command that checks for open ports?

A

netstat
netstat /?- see different options
netstat -a–displays all connections
netstat -n– listed using ip address
netstat -o– shows process ids
netstat -ano– sees all of the above

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87
Q

what is the group policy commands?

A

gpupdate /force– forces
gpresult /r– policies that are in effect for that user
gpresult /?– see all the available commands

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88
Q

main difference between workgroups and domains

A

domain– centralized architecture, larger environments
workgroup- decentralized model, 15-20 computers,

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89
Q

What is the definition of inheritance?

A

the instructions on the parent folder is shared on the child folder.

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90
Q

What is the main difference between a shared permission vs an NTFS permission?

A

Shared permission is more granular and through the network, while NTFS permission is through a local file and has a lot more options when it comes to changes. NTFS also has inheritance by default.

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91
Q

what is the net command?

A

net /?

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92
Q

what is the main purpose of net use?

A

connect to things using the network, like mapping and viewing users.

93
Q

what is the command for deleting drives?

A

net use i: /delete

drive replace i

94
Q

what is the command for mapping?

A

net use t: \diontrainingwin\SharedFolder /persistent:yes

need persistent command to stay after reboot

95
Q

what is the difference between the shared and security folder?

A

shared uses shared permissions and security uses NTFS permissions

96
Q

What is the main purpose of mission control?

A

enables the user to create multiple Virtual desktops on the MACOS.

97
Q

what is the terminal of the macOS?

A

it is the command prompt

98
Q

What is file vault?

A

disk encryption for the macOS

99
Q

what is the CIA triad?

A

integrity, confidentiality, and availability

100
Q

what is hashing?

A

unique fingerprint of file

101
Q

what is a checksum?

A

moved to data transits, and make sures that file is the same.

102
Q

what is a noncompliant system?

A

a system that is not on the baseline of what is approved by the organization

103
Q

what is the configuration baseline?

A

set of recommendations for deploying a computer in a hardened configuration

104
Q

what is a zero day attack?

A

vulnerability that is discovered before it was patched

105
Q

what is a denial of service attack?

A

used to describe an attack that attempts to render the computer or resources unavailable

106
Q

what is a flood attack?

A

attacks by packets, overloading the server

107
Q

what is a ping flood?

A

happens when too many ping packets have been sent

108
Q

what is a syn flood?

A

initiates the tcp sessions, but never completes the 3 way response.

109
Q

what are the main purpose of flood guards?

A

detect syn floods

110
Q

what is a PDOS?

A

exploits a security and permanently destroys the system by reflashing the firmware

111
Q

what is a fork bomb?

A

uses a large number of processes to overload the computer

112
Q

what is a ddos?

A

uses a lot of machines to attack a server

113
Q

what is a dns amplification?

A

sent packets to flood the victims website to initiate DNS requests

114
Q

what is black holing?

A

routes attack to a nonexistent server

115
Q

can a cloud infrastructure prevent a ddos attack?

A

yes, by scaling out to the demands of the attack

116
Q

what are spoofing attacks?

A

attacker falsifies information and acts as another machine

117
Q

what is ip spoofing?

A

modifies the source address to hide the identity of the sender

118
Q

what is ip spoofing focuses om?

A

layer 3 of the OSI model

119
Q

what is mac address spoofing?

A

changing the mac address to pretend

120
Q

what is ip spoofing focusing on?

A

layer 2 of the OSI model

121
Q

what is ARP spoofing?

A

sending falsified ARP messages over the network

ARP attacks often acts as a precursor for other attacks

122
Q

what is an on path attack?

A

attacker puts themselves between the victim and the intended destination

ARP poisoning
DNS poisoning
rouge WAP
rouge hub or switch

123
Q

what is a replay on an ARP attack?

A

valid data is captured by the attacker and is then repeated immediately, or delayed, and then repeated.

124
Q

what is a relay on an ARP attack?

A

between two hosts, being able to monitor

125
Q

what is SSL scripting?

A

occurs when attack tricks the encryption application into thinking the HTTP is HTTPs

126
Q

what is a downgrade attack?

A

attacker attempts a client or server abandon a higher security mode in favor of a lower security mode

downgrade attacks do not only affect TLS or SSL

127
Q

what is an SQL injection?

A

structure query language.

insertion of SQL query via input data from a client to an application

SQL, HTML, XML, and LDAP

128
Q

what is XSS?

A

attacker embeds malicious scripting commands on a trusted website

stored/persistent- attempts to get data provided by the attacker to be saved on the webserver

reflected- non persistent

DOM based- exploit victims webserver

129
Q

what is XSRF?

A

attacker forces the user to execute actions on a web server for which they are already authenticated.

prevent XSRF with tokens, encryption, XML file scanning and cookie verification.

130
Q

what is a dictionary attack?

A

programs attempts to use a dictionary to attack the password

131
Q

what is a bruteforce attack?

A

programs attack by using every single password combination

132
Q

what is a cryptaanalysis attack?

A

comparing a precomputed password to a value in the lookup table

133
Q

what are the 10 types of viruses

A

boot sector- first sector of harddrive

macro- in document

program- seeks out executables

multipartite- combines boot and program

encryption- uses cipher to encrypt contents to avoid detection

polymorphic- changes code each time it is executed

metamorphic- rewrite itself before attempting to infect a file

stealth- polymorphic, encryption, and metamorphic

armored- layer of protection

hoax- trick a user into infecting own machine.

134
Q

what is a worm?

A

malicious software replicating itself without user interaction

135
Q

what is a trojan?

A

virus hiding behind a entity that bypasses a firewall

RAT- provides the attacker with remote control of a victim computer

136
Q

what is ransomware?

A

malware the restricts access to a victims computer until a ransom is received

137
Q

what is spyware?

A

gathers info without user consent

138
Q

what is adware?

A

displays advertisements based upon its spying on you

139
Q

what is grayware?

A

software that isnt benign nor malicious and tends to behave improperly without serious consequences.

140
Q

what is a rootkit?

A

designed to gain administrative level control over a system without detection.

141
Q

what is a DLL injection?

A

code that is inserted into a running process on a windows machine by taking advantage of DLL that are loaded at runtime

142
Q

what is a driver manipulation?

A

attack that relies on compromising the kernel mode device drivers that operate at a privileged or system level. rootkit

143
Q

what is a shim?

A

a piece of software code that is placed between two components that intercepts a call and redirect them.rootkit

144
Q

what is botnet or zombies?

A

collection of compromised computers under a mater node.

often used in DDOS attacks

145
Q

what are the steps on removing malware? 7 steps

A
  1. identify symptoms
  2. quarantine affected systems
  3. disable system restore
  4. remediate the infected system
  5. schedule automatic updates and scans
  6. re enable system restore
  7. provide end user security awareness training
146
Q

what is a phish and its different types?

A

phish- luring user into divulging sensitive information

spear phishing- targeted version of phishing

whaling- targets key executives

SMS- using texting

MMS- using texting with videos,pictures.

Vishing- using voice

Business Email Compromise- attacker gets a hold of executive email

147
Q

What is an evil twin?

A

fraudulent wifi access points that acts as legitimate

karma attack- exploits the behavior of wifi, due to lack of authorization.

148
Q

what are the three os software firewalls?

A

windows firewall, pF and ipfw, and iptables

149
Q

what is dac, mac and rbac

A

dac- access is determined by the owner

mac- computer system decides

rbac- computer that focuses on a set of permissions instead of an individuals permission.

150
Q

what is a power user?

A

user who is not a user and also not a normal administrator

151
Q

what is zero trust?

A

security framework that requires the users to be authenticated, authorized, and validated

  1. reexamine all default access controls
  2. employ of prevention techniques and defense in depth
  3. realtime monitoring and controls to identify and prevent issues
  4. architecture aligns with broader security.
152
Q

what is emm and mdm?

A

emm- policies and tools
mdm- technical controls

153
Q

what are the 3 older wire less security encryption?

A

WEP- original standard that claims to be as secured as wired. uses initialization vector

WPA- replacement for wep uses tkip and rc4

WPA2 uses CCMP and AES

154
Q

What is the most recent version of wireless encryption?

A

WPA3- updated cryptographic key uses enterprise 192 bit or personal 192 and 128 bit

uses GCMP. faster and more secure than wpa2

155
Q

what is forward secrecy?

A

session keys will not be compromised even if the long term secrets used in the session key exchange have

156
Q

what are the 7 wireless authentication method?

A

radius- cross platform protocol that authenticates, and authorizes users to services, and accounts for their usage.

tacacs+- cisco protocol

diameter- next generation version of radius

ldap- cross platform protocol, centralizes info about clients and objects on the network

single sign on- sign on once to authenticate

Kerberos- uses symmetric encryption and the key distribution centerto conduct authentication and authorization functions.

802.1x- port based authentication

EAP- framework of a series of protocols

157
Q

what are the 4 mobile device deployments?

A

COBO- most secured, most restrictive, and most expensive

COPE- relaxed version of COBO, can cause privacy concerns

BYOD- bring own devices, most difficult to secure

CYOD- choose device from an approved list of vendors

158
Q

what is windows hello?

A

another way of authenticating the user of the system, more secured than a standard username and password

159
Q

are guest accounts disabled or enabled in windows 10 or 11?

A

they are disabled.

160
Q

what is the SAM?

A

security account manager

161
Q

what is a power user?

A

permission level the same as the standard group,often works as a backwards compatibility method. not elevated permissions.

162
Q

what is the UAC?

A

security feature used to protect the system against malicious programs, scripts, and attacks

change the setting in the control panel

163
Q

what does data at rest mean?

A

data that is not being utilized

164
Q

what does data in use?

A

data that is used

165
Q

what does data in transit?

A

data that is being used in the network

166
Q

difference between EFS and bitlocker

A

EFS- file or folder
Bitlocker- internal drive
Bitlocker to go- external drives

167
Q

what is autorun and autoplay?

A

autorun- it would read the contents of disc and dvd automatically

autoplay-

168
Q

what are the best practices for passwords?

A

complexity requirements

expiration requirements

use of passwords

169
Q

what are the 3 ways of data are destroyed?

A

degaussing- exposes hard drive to magnetic field. doesnt work well with solid state drives.

Purging- removes data in a way that it cannot be reconstructed

clearing- removal of data with a certain amount of assurance that it cannot be reconstructed

170
Q

what is erasing/wiping?

A

process of destroying old data by writing over the location on the hard drive or solid state drive with new data. this doesnt work well with SSD

you can also use the format cmd from the command prompt to erase the contents of the drive, better than erasing.

171
Q

what is a low level format?

A

reset disk to factory conditions, including partitions

secure erase- marking every block as empty. has to let everything and finishing might take awhile

crypto erase- deleting the key of the encryption, makes the content un readable.

172
Q

what is the main difference between extentions and plugins?

A

extensions are designed to extend the functionality of a website while plugins perform a particular task or set of tasks.

173
Q

what is better for website encryption SSL or TLS.

A

TLS makes SSL obsolete, especially 1.2

174
Q

difference between incidences or problems?

A

incidences happens one time, while problems are occurring continually

175
Q

what are the two types of knowledge based articles?

A

internal- used by staff

external- used by end user

176
Q

what is asset management?

A

detailed management and configuration of assets, allows the user the attach an asset to the problem

177
Q

what is the unique asset tag?

A

labeled to a particular device

178
Q

what are the change management procedures

A
  1. change request- verifies the impact
  2. procurement- determines the budget for item
  3. deployment- implements procedure
  4. maintenance- monitoring and support
  5. disposal- sanitizing data remnants
179
Q

how long is the warranty for an asset?

A

usually 90 days

180
Q

what are the three types of changes?

A

standard changes- preauthorized without any additional authorization

normal change- authorization is gained.

emergency changes- changes that need to be expedited, requires an ECAB

ECAB is a board of admins that accepts of denies a change

181
Q

what is pair programming>?

A

one person codes and the other person reads it and approve it

182
Q

when working with larger systems, what kind of changes do we use?

A

use normal changes

183
Q

how do we conduct change management?

A
  1. fault to be fixed
  2. new business need
  3. planned improvement
  4. write changes to be made and justify
  5. end user acceptance- makes sure that end user knows how to operate change.
184
Q

what are acceptable use policies?

A

what the employees are allowed to use on the asset

185
Q

what are SOPS?

A

standard operating procedure. makes sure that procedures are complying with policy

186
Q

what are the SOP checklist?

A
  1. verify system requirements
  2. validate download source
  3. verify files
  4. verify software license
  5. ensure proper installation
  6. provide training and support
187
Q

what are AARs?

A

after action reports. figures out the cause of the accident.

write up based on what happened, the cause, and how to prevent it in the future.

188
Q

what are network topology diagrams?

A

one diagram of logical connections and another one for physical connections

189
Q

what are incremental backups?

A

will only back up things that have changed since last backup

190
Q

what are differential backups?

A

backs up all the that has changed since the last FULL backup

191
Q

what are synthetic backups?

A

creates full backups with lower data transfer requirements.

offline mode and assembled from other backup servers

192
Q

what are archive attribute flags?

A

set to on anytime you modify a file.

anytime we do an incremental back we clear the flag, the opposite is the case with differential backups

193
Q

define frequency

A

the period between back up jobs

how much data could you afford to lose

194
Q

define the GFS backup scheme

A

son- daily backups
father- weekly backups
grandfather- monthly backups

195
Q

what is the 321 backup rule?

A

three copies of data, two different types of media, and one copy being held offline

196
Q

differences between spikes and surges?

A

spike increase of the amount of voltage, a surge is a big spike.

197
Q

sags, brownout, and blackout

A

sag- low decrease of voltage
brownout- lights dim
blackout- total loss of power for an amount of time

198
Q

types of power supplies

A

UPS- last short amount of time. uninterruptible power supply

backup generator

portable gas engine- specialized systems, least expensive

permanently installed- building, much more expensive ran on fuel

battery inverter- short power outages only, minimal user interaction

199
Q

proper equipment grounding

A

never disconnect the ground wire

200
Q

what is ESD?

A

electrostatic discharge- path that allows electrons to rush from a statically charged body to a component that has not charge

  1. work in a room that is setup properly to reduce ESD
  2. take out anything that can help create static electrically
  3. always handle components by using ESD safe equipment
201
Q

What are the steps for incident response?

A
  1. prepartion
  2. identification
  3. containment
  4. eradication
  5. recovery
  6. lessons learned
202
Q

What is the chain of custody?

A

the record of evidence history from collection to count presentation to disposal

203
Q

How long can criminal cases take to reside?

A

from months to years

204
Q

What is a legal hold?

A

preserves all relevant information when litigation is expected to occur

205
Q

what is the order of volatility?

A

collecting evidence that could be easily tempered or destroyed first.

  1. collect data only when the computer is powered on
  2. contents of ram will be lost when turned off
206
Q

what is the proprietary software?

A

pay a fee for a license

207
Q

What is a DRM?

A

protection for music and video that is being used online

208
Q

Difference between private data, confidential data, and sensitive data.

A

sensitive= minimal impact
confidential= maximum impact
private= personal record

209
Q

what are the military classification of data?

A
  1. Unclassified
  2. CUI- medical records, personal files
  3. confidential- trade secrets
  4. secret- military deployment plans
  5. top secret- blueprints
210
Q

What are the different script files?

A

.bat- cmd batch file
.ps1- powershell
.vbs- visual basic
.sh- bash script
.js- java script
.py- python
pseudo code

211
Q

what is a bolean?

A

True or false

212
Q

what is an integer?

A

positives and negatives

213
Q

what is a character?

A

variable that can only store ASCIII characters

214
Q

what is a loop?

A

controls which order the code will be executed in a given program

215
Q

what is a for loop? a while loop?

A

for loop- used for when the number of ticks to repeat a block of code is known

while loop- not known, will only stop if something has happened

216
Q

what is a do loop?

A

will only stop until some condition is met at the end.

217
Q

how does a windos pc boot?

A

firmware will look through the storage device and identify where MBR is, should be located at the first sector of disk
it will then be able to identify which operating system is supposed to be booted from the MBR

218
Q

how to fix issues with GPT?

A

incorrect boot order
remove any external devices
use startup repair tool

219
Q

How to utilize Disk part command when booting issues?

A

safe mode ctrl shift b

chkdsk and sfc

220
Q

what can cause system instability?

A

hardware= overheating

software= corrupted kernel files

221
Q

What are the Linux navigation commands?

A

LS, PWD, and CD

222
Q

What are the disk usage commands? Linux

A

DF and DU

DU command shows disk usage and how the device is used

223
Q

What are the text manipulation commands? Linux

A

Nano and Pico- visual editors and easy to use

VI and VIM- more difficult to use but have more difficulties

Cat- displays content of file to screen

224
Q

What are the search commands? Linux

A

Find- search for a file

Grep-search for content within file

225
Q

What are the resource management commands? Linux

A

PS and top

226
Q

what are the copy and remove commands? Linux

A

cp and mv and rm

227
Q

what are the switch user commands? Linux

A

su- switch user

sudo- switch to root user

228
Q

What are the commands to modify accounts? Linux

A

usermod- modify account

userdel- delete account

passwd- change password

groupadd- modify agroup

groupmod- modify group

groupdel- delete a group

229
Q

what are the commands to change permissions? Linux

A

chmod- access permissions

chown- change the owner

230
Q

what are the network commands? Linux

A

ip- configuring network interfaces

traceroute- route and transmit time

dig- DNS information

man- online reference manuals

231
Q
A

Comp-TIA 1102 (1 decks)

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