General Knowledge Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What does Section 39 of the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 relate to?

A

Obligations of Persons Generally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who does the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 and the Coal Mining Safety and Health Regulation 2017 apply to?

A

All workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the obligations are contained under Section 39 of the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 (1)?

A

(1) A coal mine worker or other person at a coal mine or a person who may affect the safety and health of others at a coal mine or as a result of coal mining operations has the following obligations—
(a) to comply with this Act and procedures applying to the worker or person that are part of a safety and health management system for the mine;
(b) if the coal mine worker or other person has information that other persons need to know to fulfil their obligations or duties under this Act, or to protect themselves from the risk of injury or illness, to give the information to the other persons;
(c) to take any other reasonable and necessary course of action to ensure anyone is not exposed to an unacceptable level of risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the obligations are contained under Section 39 of the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 (2)

A

(2) A coal mine worker or other person at a coal mine has the following additional obligations—
(a) to work or carry out the worker’s or person’s activities in a way that does not expose the worker or person or someone else to an unacceptable level of risk;
(b) to ensure, to the extent of the responsibilities and duties allocated to the worker or person, that the work and activities under the worker’s or person’s control, supervision, or leadership is conducted in a way that does not expose the worker or person or someone else to an unacceptable level of risk;
(c) to the extent of the worker’s or person’s involvement, to participate in and conform to the risk management practices of the mine;
(d) to comply with instructions given for safety and health of persons by the coal mine operator or site senior executive for the mine or a supervisor at the mine;
(e) to work at the coal mine only if the worker or person is in a fit condition to carry out the work without affecting the safety and health of others;
(f) not to do anything willfully or recklessly that might adversely affect the safety and health of someone else at the mine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the Coal mining Safety and Health Regulation 2017 - Regulation 94 relate to?

A

Checking and examining work areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does Regulation 94 of the Safety and Health regulations 2017 entail?

A

Checking and examining work areas

(1) A coal mine must have a standard operating procedure for—
(a) checking the condition of a work area before coal mine workers proceed to the work area; and
(b) examining the area, before workers start work in the work area, to check for hazards.
(2) The procedure must provide for a check and examination of each coal mine worker’s specific work area to be carried out by the coal mine worker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does LEL stand for?

A

Lower Explosive Limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Can you take vape pens underground?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does a yellow dropper indicate?

A

Secondary egress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does a red dropper indicate?

A

Return airway/turn around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Can you take lighters underground?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can you take aluminium foil underground?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a green dropper indicate?

A

Primary escape way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does DPM stand for?

A

Diesel Particulate Matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can you take areosol cans underground?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the two principle pieces of Legislation that apply to all coal mines in Queensland?

A

Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999 and the Coal Mining Safety and Health Regulation 2017.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Take 5?

A

A Take 5 form is a safety tool purposely designed for workers to identify health and safety hazards before starting any work in worksites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should a Take 5 be completed?

A

Before any tasks are undergone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does SLAM stand for?

A

Stop. Look. Assess, Manage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a JSA?

A

Job Safety Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Should a JSA be completed prior to commencing any operational work task?

A

No, a Take 5 would be done instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Should a JSA be completed when a one off or non-routine where there is an exposure to an identified risk?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Should a JSA be completed when there is an introduction to new work methods?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Should a JSA be completed when the work to be undertaken is not covered by a procedure?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Should a JSA be completed when there is exposure to a critical risk>

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Should a JSA be completed when workers are performing high risk tasks with exposure to a critical risk for the first time?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Should a JSA be completed when workers are performing high risk tasks with exposure to a critical risk if there is a procedure available?

A

No, the SWP will cover the task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Should a JSA be conducted when the conduct of a Take 5 cannot control the risks to an acceptable level?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If you are involved in an incident, what are you immediate actions?

A

Without placing yourself or others in danger:
Follow the relevant Emergency Procedure in the event of an emergency.
Identify the immediate hazard/s and implement controls to manage (e.g. shut down equipment, and tag out or barricade / bund area).
Contact the relevant supervisor immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Emergency Procedure for this site?

A

All Emergencies must be reported immediately to Control Room Operator (CRO) and the shift supervisor.

When passing on relevant information to the CRO you will be asked the following information (do not hang up until you are instructed to):
Your name
Your location (if you know it)
What has happened
Any injuries that have been sustained
What assistance you require
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is number you call on an underground phone if there is an emergency?

A

555

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What details do you give to the CRO when there is an emergency?

A
Your name
Your location (if you know it)
What has happened
Any injuries that have been sustained
What assistance you require
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to you start non-verbal communication over a phone or DAC?

A

After making contact with the CRO, tap the receiver 5 times or DAC, press the Call Local button 5 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does two taps during non-verbal communication mean?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does three taps during non-verbal communication mean?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does four taps during non-verbal communication mean?

A

Please repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List three things found in a fire depot

A

Y-Piece, Spanner, hoses, Jet nozzle, Fog nozzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If you discover a fire underground, on which side should you stay?

A

Fresh air / Intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the first D in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Danger - Check for hazards to yourself and others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the R in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Response - if you happen on a person, check to see if they are conscious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does COWS stand for

A

Can you hear me?
Open your eyes
What’s your name?
Squeeze my hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the S in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Send for help - if there is more then one person discovering the scene, one should be sent for help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does the A in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Airway - Check the persons airway for obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does B the in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Breathing - Check to see if the person is breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the C in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Compressions - if the person is unconscious and not breathing start chest compressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the rate of chest compressions?

A

100-120 per min (to the beat of ‘Stayin Alive’ by the Bee Gees or ‘Another one bites the dust’ by Queen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the second D in DRSABCD stand for?

A

Defibrillation - if required and available, use a defibrillation device on the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why, on discovery of a fire underground, should you de-energise any ignition or energy sources?

A

To prevent the fire spreading or re-igniting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Should you attempt to fight a fire while wearing a self-rescuer? Why?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does ‘Sounding the roof” mean?

A

Striking the roof with a roof bolt or similar to hear if there are cavities or hollow sounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does TARP stand for?

A

Trigger Action Response Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are TARPS for?

A

A TARP defines the minimum set of actions required by workers in response to a deviation from normal working conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a No Go zone?

A

No Go Zones are established for underground equipment to manage the potential risk of pedestrian or equipment interaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a Restricted zone?

A

An area you can enter only after positive communication has been established with the operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the No Go and Restricted Zones around the continuous miner?

A

No Go: Starts 5m back from the tail, continues to the front of the miner.
Restricted: Bolting Platforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the No Go and Restricted Zones around the Shuttle car?

A

No Go: 5m front and back

Restricted: >5m front and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the No Go and Restricted Zones around the Dolly car?

A

No Go: 1m in front of cab and behind man-rider

Restricted: the coupling joining the dolly car and man-rider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does ‘Spin time’ for installing a roof bolt mean?

A

How long it takes to mix the chemical in the hole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does ‘Set time’ mean when installing a roof bolt?

A

How long to leave the bolt before tensioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a red isolation lock for and who uses it?

A

Personal isolation, everyone who needs to isolate equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a blue isolation lock for and who uses it?

A

Group Isolation, used with lockboxes and group isolators use them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When underground, what is the number to call control?

A

6381

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe 5 critical items on an ERZ district inspection board

A

Date and time of inspection, date and time of next inspection, gas levels, amount of ventilation, hazards in location, who inspected it, road conditions, environmental conditions, status of aux ventilation, status of VCDs in district, condition of emergency equipment, condition of first aid equipment, condition of fire fighting equipment, indications of fire, condition of roof or ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does VCD stand for?

A

Ventilation Control Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are red personal danger tags and locks for?

A

Personal Danger Locks are RED in colour.
No person shall attach or remove another person’s Personal Danger Lock or Tag.
Locks and tags will be placed on the Isolation Point for the Primary Energy Source.
If more than one person is working on a task which requires isolation, each person shall attach a Personal Danger lock to the isolation device and check for positive isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are yellow Out of Service tags for?

A

Out of Service tags are used as part of rendering defective equipment from being used by personnel
An Out of Service tag must be placed on equipment while ever that equipment is under repair or unsafe to operate.
An Out of Service tag may be placed by anyone who deems that equipment is out of service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Who can remove a red danger tag and personal lock?

A

The person that placed it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who can remove a yellow Out of Service tag?

A

An Out of Service tag can only be removed by the person who places it, a competent tradesman or supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is an Information tag used for?

A

Information tags are solely designed to be used to pass on information to personnel.
An Information tag must remain on the equipment while ever that information is relevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Who can remove an Information tag?

A

An Information tag may be removed by any person once it is deemed that the information is no longer relevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When do you have to move to a Lock box / Group isolation process?

A

When there are more then 6 people working on one isolation point, when it is a complex isolation (belts etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Can you enter a district if a tag board is full? Why?

A

No, you must contact the ERZ controller in charge of the district.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What action must be taken if you need to enter a panel and the diesel tag board is full?

A

Contact the ERZ controller, check if a vehicle can be stood down before entrance, if not, wait for one to come out or walk in if deemed safe to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When should you don your self-rescuer?

A

You should don your rescuer when you feel your health may be at risk or you could be in an oxygen deficient atmosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When should you remove your self-rescuer?

A

When instructed to do so by a mining official, when changing over self rescuers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where is the underground fire sub-station located?

A

At the top of the inseam drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When do you need to wear gloves underground?

A

When attempting any task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Your gas detector says there is 2% methane in your work area and is alarming. What do you do?

A

Remove yourself from the area, barricade, and report to supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does ERZ stand for?

A

Explosive Risk Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Can you operate a work basket with a broken door latch?

A

No, it must be tagged out of service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Can you enter an area that has crossed pogo sticks?

A

No. It is deemed no-roaded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which vehicle has right of way underground, Inbye or Outbuy?

A

Inbuy, except in case of an emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Who issues a Permit to Mine?

A

UMM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does UMM stand for?

A

Underground Mine Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where are the support plans kept at the mine?

A

Crib rooms, on the miner, CRO office and Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are three ways you can reduce dust in your work area?

A

Road works, Dust suppression (water the roads, install misting sprays) ventilation, salting roads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

At the end of the shift a piece of equipment is unserviceable. What are your actions?

A

Place an Out of Service tag on it detailing the problems/reasons, report to supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Where are the panel ERZ controller reports kept?

A

In the muster area breezeway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

In relation to mining, what does ATM stand for?

A

Authority to mine

90
Q

Who authorises the support plans at the mine?

A

Geotechnical department, UMM

91
Q

How do you respond in the event of a ventilation failure?

A

Retreat to known fresh air, report to ERZ controller

92
Q

What is the chemical symbol for methane?

A

CH4

93
Q

What is the chemical symbol for Carbon Dioxide?

A

CO2

94
Q

What is the chemical symbol for Carbon Monoxide?

A

CO

95
Q

What is the chemical symbol for Hydrogen Sulfide?

A

H2S

96
Q

What is the chemical symbol for Oxygen

A

O2

97
Q

Prior to going underground, where do you place your tag on the board?

A

On the underground section, relating to the area/panel and what shift you are on(Day/Night)

98
Q

Who do you notify when leaving a panel underground?

A

The ERZ controller in charge of the panel, the CRO

99
Q

You notice there is some coal with water droplets on it high up on the rib and there is a funny smell. Do you report it and to whom?

A

Yes, to the ERZC in control of the panel/district

100
Q

While bolting using a QDS, your offsider is sprayed with oil from the control bank and has a small red spot on their hand with clear fluid leaking out. What type of injury could this be? What do you do?

A

A hydraulic injection injury, Stop work, alert supervisor, get injured party to surface.

101
Q

When the shuttle car is being loaded, how far away from the shuttle car can a pedestrian be before entering a No Go zone?

A

5m

102
Q

You see someone moving their cap-lamp up and down. what does that mean?

A

An UP AND DOWN (vertical) motion means MOVE AWAY from the source of light.

103
Q

You see someone moving their cap-lamp from side to side. What does that mean?

A

Stop

104
Q

You see someone moving their cap-lamp in a circular motion. What does that mean?

A

A CIRCULAR motion means MOVE TOWARD the source of light

105
Q

When in a production panel, what is the standoff for the shuttle car from the tail of the miner?

A

5m

106
Q

The permit to mine is issued by the UMM. Name 3 items it covers in relation to principal hazards at the mine.

A

Inrush, Outburst, Strata, Spontaneous combustion, Ventilation, Flammable and toxic gasses

107
Q

You are on the miner and notice there is increased water-make on the floor and the face seems to be wet. What could this be an indicator of?

A

Imminent out-bust due to an unknown water area.

108
Q

You notice some of the roof has fallen onto the roadway and several cracks have developed from the area that has fallen out. What do you do?

A

Barricade area, alert ERZC.

109
Q

Where are the self rescuer caches underground and how many rescuers do they store?

A

50 at Pit Bottom, 50 @ 11ct south mains, 50 at 24ct south mains, 50 at 205 mains 1ct, 20 at 206 crib room

110
Q

What does 11CT SM mean?

A

11 cut-through south mains

111
Q

What do you look for when checking your lamp?

A

Make sure it is charged by checking the battery indicator, check the battery compartment for damage, check the connecting cable for cuts, nicks or squashed areas, check the cable is connected to the battery and the light, not loose or frayed, check the light for cracked or damage glass, check that both beams work.

112
Q

What do you check on the MSA SSR 30/100 self-rescuer at start of shift?

A

Check for damage, if cracked or broken, make sure it is still sealed, check the date on it, check if it has been opened, the seal is secure

113
Q

What do you check on the SR 100 prior to use?

A

Moisture and heat indicators, damaged or exposed seals, covers attached

114
Q

What colour should the moisture and heat indicators be on the SR100?

A

Moisture: Blue - OK, Pink - Withdraw from service
Heat: Blue/Yellow - OK, Pink - Withdraw from service

115
Q

What do you check on the ASR 100 prior to use?

A

Moisture and heat indicators, damaged or exposed seals, covers attached, no major dents

116
Q

What colour should the moisture and temperature indicators be on the ASR 100 ?

A

Moisture: Half blue, half white - OK, Full blue - Withdraw from service
Heat: White/Pink - OK, Red - Withdraw from service

117
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the first piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Your name

118
Q

How far apart are fire depots?

A

400m

119
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the second piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Your location

120
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the third piece of information you give the CRO?

A

The location of the emergency

121
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the forth piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Nature of the emergency

122
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the fifth piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Type of injuries

123
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the sixth piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Number of persons involved

124
Q

After dialing the emergency number, what is the seventh piece of information you give the CRO?

A

Type of assistance required and any hazards that exist.

125
Q

When do you hang up after calling the emergency number?

A

When told to do so by CRO or when it becomes too dangerous to stay.

126
Q

What is the legal limit of CO2 (Maximum Allowable Content in mine atmosphere)?

A

1.25%

127
Q

Is CO an inert gas?

A

Yes

128
Q

What does ‘Inert Gas’ mean?

A

They are stable and non-reactive

129
Q

What is the legal limit of CO in a mine?

A

30PPM

130
Q

What are the characteristics for CO?

A

Colourless
Odourless
Tasteless

131
Q

What is the most explosive mixture of CO?

A

29%

132
Q

What does PPM stand for?

A

Parts Per Million

133
Q

How is CO produced in a mine?

A

Explosion
diesel exhausts,
shot firing
early stages of heating of coal

134
Q

What does ‘Specific Gravity’ mean?

A

The ratio of the density of the gas to the density of air at 1 atmosphere of pressure.

135
Q

What is the specific gravity of CO?

A

0.97 - Meaning similar to air.

136
Q

What is the specific Gravity of O2 ?

A

1.11.

137
Q

What is the legal limit for O2 (Minimum Allowable Content in mine atmosphere)?

A

19%

138
Q

What is the normal amount of O2 in air?

A

20.93%

139
Q

What is the specific gravity of H2S?

A

1.19

140
Q

How is H2S is usually produced in mines?

A

Goaf fires in mines particularly where coal contains high Sulphur coal
Explosives
seam gas
decomposition of vegetable matter containing Sulphur
heating in coal containing pyrites

141
Q

What is a GOAF?

A

That part of a mine from which the coal has been worked away and the space more or less filled up with caved rock.

142
Q

What are the flammable limits of H2S?

A

4.5 to 45 %

143
Q

What detectors are the most common for H2S?

A

Smell,
Detector tubes
Electrochemical cells

144
Q

What are the characteristics for H2S?

A

Colourless
Sweet taste
Rotten egg odour

145
Q

What is the maximum exposure limit for H2S?

A

15PPM

146
Q

What is the Specific Gravity of SO2?

A

2.26

147
Q

What is the chemical symbol for Sulfur Dioxide?

A

SO2

148
Q

What are the Characteristics of SO2?

A

Colourless, Acidic taste, Pungent suffocating sulphurous taste

149
Q

Where is SO2 found or generated?

A

In mines where the coal has sulpher in it and it is on fire,rubber is burnt,and in diesel exhausts.

150
Q

How is SO2 detected?

A

Tube detectors

Electrochemical detectors

151
Q

What is a tube detector?

A

A graduated glass tube filled with a chemical reagent that will produce a color change, when exposed certain gasses.

152
Q

What is an Electrochemical detector?

A

Electrochemical gas sensors are gas detectors that measure the concentration of a target gas by oxidizing or reducing the target gas at an electrode and measuring the resulting current.

153
Q

What is an Outburst?

A

An outburst is a sudden release of coal and gas under pressure from a working face area.

154
Q

There are four main features associated with outbursts. What are they?

A

Higher then normal seam gas
higher than normal seam gas usually results in higher gas pressure and thus higher gas concentrations at the working face.
Geological structures
these may include intense jointing, fault zones, strike slip faults, cutters through the roof, changes in the angle of cleat.
Stress
increase or changes in the localised stresses in the strata.
Coal strength
the more cleats and bedding planes, the weaker the coal. weak coal may be ejected by higher gas pressure more easily than strong coal

155
Q

What is the purpose of mine ventilation?

A

Provide at least 0.3m/s (V)
A general body concentration of CO2 < 1.25%, CH4 < 2.5% and O2 > 19%
Intake airways provide clean uncontaminated air to work areas.
Return airways take heat, moisture, gas and dust away from the face and goaf areas.

156
Q

What is the minimum allowable velocity of air at a working face>

A

0.3m/s

157
Q

What heading is the main travel road in the Argo seam?

A

B heading

158
Q

What are the two main seams at the mine?

A

Castor and Argo

159
Q

What is an ERZ0?

A

Part of the mine has a general body concentration of CH4 >2%, identified by risk assessment

160
Q

What is a ERZ1?

A

Part of the mine has a general body concentration of CH4 range from 0.5% - 2%.

161
Q

What is a NERZ?

A

Part of the mine has general body concentration of CH4 <0.5%.

162
Q

What does NERZ stand for?

A

Negligible Explosion Risk Zone.

163
Q

List three types of gas monitoring?

A

Gas Chromatograph
Tube bundle
Trolex

164
Q

What is a Gas Chromatograph?

A

A Gas chromatograph is an analytical technique used to separate the chemical components of a sample and then measure the presence, absence and amount of gasses.

165
Q

What is a Tube Bundle?

A

A bundle of tubes is taken underground through a shaft, a borehole or a drift then distributed to the required monitoring points. The approach used is to pass nitrogen down the tube from the surface, then the flow is reversed up the tube and the gas analysed on an oxygen analyser.

166
Q

What are the characteristics of CO2?

A

Colourless
Pungent smell
Soda taste

167
Q

What are the effects of CO on humans?

A

Poisonous, acts as a chemical asphyxiant, 2000PPM possible fatal exposure

168
Q

What are the effects of CO2 on humans?

A

Increases respiration, possibly fatal at 500PPM, instant death at 1000ppm

169
Q

What is the effect of CH4 on humans?

A

Non-poisonous, slight narcotic effect at high concentrations

170
Q

What is the effect of H2S on people?

A

Poisonous, possibly fatal at 500PPM, instant death at 1000PPM

171
Q

What are the effects of SO2 on humans?

A

Poisonous fatal at 500PPM

172
Q

What hydrocarbons (unburnt fuel) are found in diesel exhausts of vehicles?

A

Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen dioxide
Nitric oxide
Aldehydes

173
Q

What is the recognised exposure limit for Diesel particulates underground?

A

0.2 mg / m3

174
Q

When shall DPM monitoring be carried out?

A

Before equipment goes underground for the first time
Monthly
When returning and having any work done that can affect the level of diesel exhaust emissions

175
Q

What is the Queensland mining industry standard for carbon?

A

0.1mg/m3

It is thought that carbon makes up to 50 % of diesel particulate

176
Q

Name some control strategies for diesel exposure.

A
Ventilation
Standards
Operating controls
Procedures
Work practices
Minimise engine idling
Limit kilowatt in work area tag board
177
Q

What is a Risk?

A

A risk is the chance of something happening that will have a negative effect.

178
Q

What is a Hazard?

A

A hazard is a source or a situation with the potential for harm

179
Q

How do you measure a Risk?

A

by the likelihood of the unwanted event and the potential consequences of the unwanted event

180
Q

What are Controls?

A

Controls are the measures put in place to decrease the likelihood or consequences from an unwanted event.

181
Q

What does LTI stand for?

A

Lost Time Injury

182
Q

What is the most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

Elimination

183
Q

What is the second most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

Substitution

184
Q

What is the third most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

Isolation

185
Q

What is the forth most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

Engineering

186
Q

What is the fifth most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

Administration

187
Q

What is the least most effective measure on the Hierarchy of controls?

A

PPE

188
Q

What does PPE stand for?

A

Personal Protective Equipment

189
Q

What is a Risk Assessment?

A

A systematic process of evaluating the potential risks that may be involved in a projected activity or undertaking.

190
Q

What is Fire Damp?

A

Flammable gas produced by the decomposition of coal or other carbonaceous matter generally methane but can include H2, CO, CO2 From mine strata including floor

191
Q

What is Black Damp?

A

Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen in an atmosphere depleted of oxygen

192
Q

How is Black Damp generated?

A

Oxidation of coal or timber oxygen is absorbed and carbon dioxide is given off

193
Q

What are Damps?

A

Any mixture of gases in an underground mine, especially oxygen-deficient or noxious gases.

194
Q

What is Choke Damp?

A

A mixture of several gasses that displace oxygen from the atmosphere.

195
Q

How is Choke Damp generated?

A

By large emissions of gas from the strata displacing the air

196
Q

What is After Damp?

A

Gas left in the atmosphere on the return side of a fire

197
Q

How is After Damp created?

A

An explosion of gas or coal dust and gas, Gas left in the atmosphere in the return side of a fire.

198
Q

What is White Damp?

A

Lethal quantities of carbon monoxide (2000PPM+)

199
Q

How is White Damp created?

A

Methane or coal dust explosions, mine fires, water gas

200
Q

What is Stink Damp?

A

Hydrogen Sulphide in the air

201
Q

What is the explosive range for CH4?

A

between 5-17%

202
Q

Where would methane would be found in an underground coal mine?

A

Seam gas, face areas, sealed areas, cut coal

203
Q

Name six signs and symptoms that would be associated with carbon monoxide poisoning.

A

Headache, nausea, unsteady gait, Giddiness, difficulty breathing, palpitations

204
Q

Name three ways in which carbon dioxide is produced in underground coal mines

A

Seam gas, oxidation, breathing

205
Q

Name three places where hydrogen may be found in underground coal mines.

A

Battery charging, behind seals, spontaneous combustion

206
Q

What is the formula for CO make?

A

CO make in Litres= 0.06 x PPM C0 x M3/sec ventilation flow

207
Q

At what percentage of oxygen does all flaming combustion cease?

A

12.50%

208
Q

How many obligations are contained under Section 39 of the Coal Mining Safety and Health Act 1999?

A

3 under part 1

6 under part 2

209
Q

At what percentage of oxygen does all combustion cease?

A

2%

210
Q

At what percentage of oxygen do all flammable liquids cease to burn?

A

16%

211
Q

What does STEL stand foe

A

Short Term Exposure Limit

212
Q

Where is the statutory board for mine entry?

A

At the entry point of the dolly car.

213
Q

When should you report an incident or injury?

A

Immediately.

214
Q

What does a blue dropper indicate?

A

Intake airway

215
Q

What are the first six steps in the isolation process?

A

Identify plant /equipment that requires isolation and all the energy sources.
Advise everyone who will be affected by the isolation.
Isolate and secure energy sources.
Apply Personal Danger Tags and Isolation Locks, if possible.
Verify the effectiveness of the isolation.
Commence the work.

216
Q

What are the last six steps of the isolation process?

A
Complete the work.
Check work.
Clear area and advise everyone who could be affected by the restart.
Remove Personal Danger Tags.
Restore Energy.
Check operation.
217
Q

What Tarp covers Strata Control?

A

TARP-005

218
Q

What are the four Codes contained in TARP-005 Strata Control?

A

Code Green
Code Yellow,
Code Blue
Code Red

219
Q

What tooling is contained in an emergency pod? Name 5 items.

A

Tooling:
1 Gopher, 1 Windy borer, 1 Air chainsaw, 2 shovel, 2 hammer, 2 pelican pick, 2 large hand bandsaw, 1 roll of brattice, 10 pogos, 6 Acro props, 6 timber props, 2 packs of wedges, 2 packs of caps, 1 ladder, 3 6ft drill steels, 3 4ft drill steels, 2 0.5m dollys, 1 bucket of drill bits, 8 1in FRAZ hoses, 1 oil turtle with fittings, 4 1in T pieces, 4 1in taps, 1 box of safety clips, 2 crowbar, 1 set bolt cutters.

220
Q

What First Aid equipment is contained in an emergency pod? Name 3 items.

A

1 stretcher - hard plastic, 1 Trauma kit, 1 First Aid kit, 1 Entonox kit, 1 Oxy-Viva kit, 1 set of stiff neck collars, 1 full body air splint, 1 leg air splint.

221
Q

What Air bag equipment is contained in an emergency pod?

A

1 set air bag controls, 1 blue control hose, 1 red control hose, 1 compressed air cylinder, 2 airbag relief valves, 1 10 tonne bag,
1 20 tonne bag, 1 68 tonne bag.