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IPC Revision (Instrument Proficiency Check CASA Australia)) > General Knowledge. > Flashcards

General Knowledge. Flashcards

1
Q

What effects does an NDB suffer from?

Nemonic

A 
M- Mountain effect
I  - Interference
N - Night effect
T - Turbulence
C - Coastal refraction
H - Hight
A - Adjacent frequency
T - Thunderstorms
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2
Q

VOR Errors?

A 
Ground Station Error
Site effect error 
Vertical Polarisation (Attitude Effects)
Airborne Equipment Error
Aggregate Error
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3
Q

What are the 3 Hold entry types and the Sectors called?

A

Sector 1 Parallel
Sector 2 Offset (teardrop)
Sector 3 Direct

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4
Q
  1. What is the standard timing for a hold?
  2. When are you able to make this time shorter?
  3. When can you make this time longer?
A
  1. 1min for all legs = 4min total
  2. Only shorten the holding time or to make an over head time or with ATC approval
  3. ATC approval is required to extend the hold time.
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5
Q

What is the standard rate Climb &/or Descent?

A

A climb or descent that is at no less than 500ft/min

until the last 1000ft at which it must be 500ft/min.

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6
Q

When are you allowed to enter a no circling area?

A

Day VMC
Night VFR
Published App. or Arrival procedure.

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7
Q
  1. What are the acceptable ways to obtain QNH in flight for the approach.
  2. What is the validity period?
A

ATIS
AWIS
ATC
CASA approved meteorological observer.

  1. Accuracy only valid for an approach within 15min.
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8
Q
  1. If no TAF is currently available for that aerodrome and the area forecast QNH is used instead what must be done to the approach minima?
  2. On a 3D approach (ILS) if the flight manual does not have an altimeter adjustment factor (pressure error correction chart) what must be done to the approach minima?
A
  1. When using area forecast 50ft must be added to the approach minima. (JEPPS)
    Air services charts will add this 50ft automatically to the approach minima when the aerodrome does not have a TAF displayed on the aerodrome FaC sheet.
  2. An additional 50ft must be added
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9
Q
  1. What is the Cat A and B Circling Area?
  2. What is the obstacle clearance requirement?
    Give a description (definition) of the circling area.
  3. Extra: Cat C and D?
A 
CAT, Distance, Obstacle clearance:
CAT A - 1.68nm (300ft)
CAT B - 2.66nm (300ft) 
CAT C - 4.2nm (400ft)
CAT D - 5.28nm (400ft)

Circling area :
The distance measured as a semi-circle from the runway threshold ends and is joined by tangential lines to create a circling area from which the
no-circling area must be subtracted.

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10
Q

MEIR Privileges and Limitations, recency?

A

Privileges and Limitations:

IFR - IPC &/or 3xIAP in <90days (1 in Cat. of aircraft)

NVFR - 1x TO/LDG in 6mths (Pax= 3TO/LDG in <90days or dual check b QFI)

Approaches - Azimuth, CDI, 3D in <90days (GPS = 1App in configuration(G430) in <6months)

Single pilot - 1hr + 1 app. <6monts in cert. aircraft under IFR

3D - IPC

Circling approach - IPC

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11
Q

IFR:
What is the take of minima requirement for Departure?
What is the alternate weather minima for arrival at the destination?

A

IFR:

Dep - 300ft , 2km vis (non qualifying Multi)
Consider weather for a 1 engine out return.

Destination - better than alternate minima or LSALT +500ft and 8km vis

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12
Q

NVFR:
What is the VMC requirement for Departure and Enroute?
What is the alternate weather minima for arrival at the destination?
Any requirement for navigational aids?

A

NVFR:

Dep - normal airspace VMC apply.
Consider the weather to be good enough in the event of a return to the departure runway due to emergency or unplanned weather deterioration.

Enroute - normal airspace VMC apply.
(5kmvis, LSALT + 1000ft ceiling, 1500m horizontal cloud separation)

Destination -

(a) Cloud > SCT below 1500 ft;
(b) Visibility < 8 km;
(c) Crosswind > max for aircraft?

Provide an alternate aerodrome within a one hour flight time of the destination unless:

the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, or
the aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS receiver, and the pilot and aircraft are authorised for its operation (see AIP GEN 1.5).

Descent from route LSALT only within 3nm of the aerodrome.

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13
Q

What constitutes having a positive fix?

A

1 - Pass over a radio Nav Aid (station passage)
2- Aid + DME
3- 2 Aids within rated coverage at an intersection of greater than 45deg.
4- 2x NDBs within 30nm and at and angle greater than 45deg.
5- Radar position
6- GPS waypoint
7- Visual

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14
Q

How would you calculate your LSALT for obstacles that are:

  1. > 360ft?
  2. <360ft?
  3. Terrain less than 500ft?
A
  1. 1,000ft must be added to obstacles >360ft
  2. <360ft above terrain or no charted obstacles, LSALT must be 1,360ft above the elevation determined for terrain.
  3. Where the elevation or obstacle is not above 500ft the LSALT must be 1,500ft.
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15
Q

When calculating LSALT for routes defined by radio navigational aids or navigated by DR what is the area that must be considered for calculating the LSALT?

A

The area is defined by lines drawn from departure out at 10.3 degrees for tracks were radio navigation is provided or 15 degrees where track guidance is not provided, up to 50nm each side of track then paralleling track and converging by a semi circle around the destination. If at any point the aircraft is in coverage of an enroute or destination radio aid the aircraft is equipped to use the lines converging to the destination shall be no less than 10.3 degrees.
Additional a 5nm buffer must be added.

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16
Q

What is the area used to calculate LSALT for routes operated under the RNP2 navigation specification?

A

Area must be within 5nm surrounding and including the departure and destination point on each side of the nominal track.

(note: Applies only for routes using published waypoints and not user waypoints)

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17
Q

How is the area for LSALT calculated for:
RNP4 navigation specifications?
RNAV specification with GPS input?
Non-GNSS area Nav specification?

A

The area to be considered must be within an area of 5nm surrounding and including an area defined by lines drawn from the departure point not less than 15 degrees each side of the nominal track to a maximum of:
8nm (RNP4)
7nm (RNAV with GNSS input)
30nm (Non-GNSS)

Note: The interpretation here is that when a GPS such as a GARMIN 430 is used in VLOC mode it is functioning in a ‘non-GNSS area navigation” mode. the decrease in range is due to the increase capability and effectiveness of the digital VOR contained in the GPS. Unlike older and more conventional VORs the GPS VOR does not consist of cogs, springs, etc. and therefore is less prone to errors.

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18
Q

What are the reasons for commencing a missed approach procedure?

A 
Nav aid failure (RAIM Failure)
Nav aid suspect 
out of track tolerance
Not visual at missed approach point
Visual but unable to maintain vis &/or cloud separation
Circling app but loose visual reference
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19
Q

When must you conduct a missed approach when flying using GNSS and what do you use for missed approach tracking?

A

Must be commenced if there is RAIM failure or warning.
If RAIM is regained in the missed approach it may be used to conduct the missed approach
If RAIM warning remains or is suspect then alternate means of Nav should be used or DR (dead reckoning) for the missed approach.

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20
Q

OLD rules. USE CAO 48.1 for up to date info
new appendix out

Roster period limitations:
Shall not be rosterd for more than…..(flight,duty,consec. days)

Flight roster:
Shall not be rostered for more than….

Time free of duty?

Rest period for duty extensions?

Exceeded duty time rest period required?

A

11hrs ext. to 12 once duty has commenced.
8hrs of flying ext. to 9 once commenced
6 consecutive days
90 hrs duty per fortnight (14 nights, 2weeks)

900hrs per year
100hrs in 30days
30hrs in 7days

Rest must be 10hrs or 9hrs encompassing 10pm-6am

Each 15min exceeded to duty or flight time 1hr must be added to the period free of duty.

9hrs of flight time or 12hrs of duty are exceeded the time free of duty must be at least 24hrs.

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21
Q

Is an extension to 15hrs applicable for duty time?

A

Duty time may only be extended to 15hrs after a 4hr rest period but this is NOT Applicable to IFR.

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22
Q

The order of precision in which the pilot must use an aid to navigate to provide the most accurate track guidance is?

A

Localiser
GNSS
VOR
NDB

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23
Q

When can you do a visual approach by day?

A

Within 30nm not below LSALT,GPS arrival, DME steps, MSA or MDA for that procedure.
1. Clear of cloud
2. Insight of ground & water
3. Vis >5km
And must maintain this not below the alt for VFR

24
Q

When can you do a visual approach by night?

A

Not below LSALT, GPS arrival, DME steps, MSA or MDA for that procedure
1. Clear of cloud
2 Insight of ground & water
3. Vis >5km
4. In circling area or within 5nm on centreline and established on T Vasis or Papi lights
(7nm ILS Equipped, not functioning)
(10nm on ILS glide path)
(14nm at Sydney on ILS)
And must maintain this not below the alt for VFR

25
Q

How is an aircraft category derived?

Cat A , Cat B ……

A 
Measured at Vat (threshold)
Vso x1.3 or Vs1G x1.23
Cat A = <90kts
Cat B = 91-120
Cat C = 121-140
Cat D = 141-165
Cat E 166-210
26
Q

Descent is not allowed below MSA or LSALT unless complying with?

A 
Visual approach VMC by day
Published DME or GPS arrival 
Identified and assigned an ALT by ATC (vectors)
Instrument Approach 
Climb after take-off
27
Q

What is the obstacle clearance required when flying within the circling area?

A

Aircraft must be flown not below obstacle clearance altitude by day only.
Cat A & B = 300ft
Cat C & D = 400ft
Cat E = 500ft

By nigh not below MDA until downwind, base or final.

28
Q

When visually circling when can you descend below MDA?

A
  1. Maintain in the circling area
  2. maintain prescribed visibility along flight path
  3. maintain visual with runway environment (threshold, app lights)
  4. By Day not below the obstacle clearance altitude.
  5. By Night:
    While from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg, complete a continuous descent from MDA to the threshold using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal to the
    aircraft type.
29
Q

When can you descend below MDA or DA

A

Visual can be maintained
Met minima are equal or better than prescribed
Descent and landing is achieved with normal manoeuvres

30
Q

What are the Aircraft Category Procedural speeds.

A

Initial & Intermediate Final Circling Missed App.
A 90 – 150 (110) 70 – 100 100 110
B 120 – 180 (140) 85 – 130 135 150
C 160 – 240 115 – 160 180 240
D 185 – 250 130 – 185 205 265
E 185 – 250 155 – 230 240 275

*Max speed for reversal procedure.

31
Q

What should your bank angle be during turns?

A

25degrees or rate one which ever is the lesser

32
Q

When do you start the timer in the hold?

A

Wings level (outbound heading is achieved) or abeam the station which ever is the later

33
Q

How much obstacle clearance is provided by MSA ?
What is MSA used for?
What if the 10nm MSA is Greater than the 25nmMSA?

A

1000ft

Can be used to go of track when within the 25nm

25nm MSA apply within that sector when the 10nm MSA is higher.

34
Q

What must the TAF and GAF validity be for a flight?

A

TAF - 30min before departure
60min after arrival
GAF - must be valid for the duration of flight.

35
Q

RAIM loss procedures?
When must ATC be advised?
RAIM reestablishment?

A
  1. Aircraft tracking must be monitored against other onboard navigation systems.
  2. ATC must be advised in controlled airspace when:
    a. RAIM is lost for more than 5min
    b. RAIM is not available when ATC request or clearance regarding GPS distance is given
    c. GPS receiver is in DR or experiences loss of Nav for more than 1min
    d. Indicated track displacement exceeds 2nm
  3. If DR time or RAIM loss time is exceeded GPS info. is considered unreliable and should not be used until RAIM is regained
  4. RAIM reestablishment requires AC notification before using GPS information
  5. Phrases “RAIM failure” and “RAIM restored” must be used
Monitor tracking
RAIM loss 5min
DR/loss of Nav 1min
Time exceeded info unreliable
Track out 2nm
ATC request clearance regarding distance
RAIM failure/restored
36
Q

Recency requirements for approaches and circling?

A

3xIAP in 90 days (1 in the Category)
1x 2D,3D,azi,CDI in 90days
Circling in the last 12months(IPC)
Single pilot 1hr + 1IAP every 6months (aircraft or sim)

37
Q

Privileges of the IPC?

A

Operate IFR and NVFR

38
Q

Limitations on the IPC?

A

Must be in an aircraft capable for the operation.
Single pilot only if previously tested.
Circling only if done in last IPC (12months)

39
Q

Night VFR Alternate Requirements?

Aids and weather.

A

Night VFR aircraft must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome within one
hour flight time of the destination unless:
a. the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the
aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of
using the aid, or
b. the aircraft is fitted with a GNSS receiver, appropriate for an aircraft
operated at night under the VFR (as summarised in AIP GEN 1.5 Para 2),
and the pilot is appropriately qualified.

Alternate minima NVFR
ceiling of 1500ft and 8km visibility.

40
Q

Landing Minima

Airports without approved instrument approach procedures?

A

Airports without approved instrument approach procedures
IFR Day – visual approach requirements
IFR Night – VMC from LSALT within 3 NM

41
Q

Alternate requirement for aerodromes without an instrument approach?

A

Aerial Work and Private operations must provide for a suitable alternate
aerodrome unless the destination is served by a radio navigation aid for which an
instrument approach procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with
the radio navigation system capable of using the aid.
Notwithstanding the above, a flight may be planned under the IFR by day to a
destination aerodrome which is not served by a radio navigation aid without the
requirement to provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, provided that:
a. not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT
plus 500FT and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less
than 8KM; and
b. the aircraft can be navigated to the destination aerodrome in accordance
with AIP ENR 1.1 Para 4.1.

42
Q

Take-off minima?

A

The take-off minima for the aeroplane are:

a. Cloud not more than SCT below 300 feet AGL
b. Visibility of 2000 metres

43
Q

When planning for fuel requirements what consideration must be taken for inter/ tempo forecasts?

Effect of TAF3?

A

Carry holding fuel for inter 30min or tempo 60min.

During the First 3 hrs of a TAF the following does not apply:
a. 30min buffers for FM and BECMG periods.

b. The ALTERNATE or HOLDING fuel required by:
1. visibility , for reduction in visibility due to fog, mist, dust, smoke…..
or
2. for any PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or associated severe turbulence.

44
Q

Cloud, Visibility and wind effect on alternate requirements?

A

Except when operating an aircraft under the VFR by day within 50NM of the point
of departure, the pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate
aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to
30 minutes prior to the TAF FM or BECMG forecast commencement of, the following weather
conditions:
cloud - more than SCT below the alternate minimum (see AIP ENR 1.1
Para 11.7.2.10 and Para 11.7.2.11 (Jepp ATC – Airports and Ground
Aids 3.2.10 and 3.2.11)); or
visibility - less than the alternate minimum; or
visibility - greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is
endorsed with a percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other
phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or
wind - a crosswind or tailwind component more than the maximum for the
aircraft.
Note: Wind gusts must be considered

45
Q

Take off minima for a qualifying Multi engine aircraft?
What is considered a qualifying Multi engine Aircraft?
Climb gradients?

A

The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane are:

a. A ceiling of zero feet; and
b. Visibility of 800M

A qualifying multi-engine aeroplane is one that meets the following requirements:
a. The aeroplane is:
(1) 2 pilot operated; or
(2) A single pilot operated jet aeroplane; or
(3) A single pilot operated propeller aeroplane with operative auto feather;
and

b. For an aeroplane with a MTOW exceeding 5,700KG – the aeroplane is
able to meet the relevant obstacle requirements of CAO 20.7.1B; and

c. For an aeroplane with a MTOW not exceeding 5,700KG:
(1) The gross climb gradient performance is at least 1.9% under ambient
conditions with the loss of the most critical engine; and
(2) The aeroplane engine-out climb gradient under ambient conditions
specified in the manufacturer’s data is at least 0.3% greater than the
obstacle free gradient for the runway length required; and
(3) The pilot in command uses published obstacle free gradients only if
such gradients are surveyed to at least a distance of 7,500M from
end of TODA; and
(4) An operator-established obstacle free gradient is used only if:
- The gradient (having a 150M baseline at the end of
TODA), 12.5% splays, and 7,500M distance) is
established not more than 30° from runway heading;
and
- The procedures involve not more than 15° of bank to
track within the splay; and

d. For a two pilot operation – each pilot is:
(1) Endorsed on type; and
(2) Multi-crew trained on type; and
(3) Multi-crew proficiency checked within the previous 12 months; and
(4) Instrument rated

It is a condition of the use of the minima that:
a. If a return to land at the departure aerodrome will be necessary in the
event of an engine failure, the meteorological conditions must be at or
above instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodromes or
such as to allow a visual approach; and

b. If an engine failure occurs at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering
non-visual conditions terrain clearance is assured until reaching either en
route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA; and

c. If a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible – the aeroplane’s
performance and fuel availability must each be adequate to enable the
aeroplane to proceed to a suitable aerodrome, having regard to terrain,
obstacles and route distance limitations.

46
Q

Radio Failure

A

Squawk 7600
listen to ATIS and trouble shoot.

In VMC stay VMC.
Glass G find a place to land.
Class D follow special radio failure instructions.

If IMC or controlled airspace:
Maintain last assigned level or MSA for 3min
Hold at nominated location 3min
Proceed with route acknowledged and climb to planned level.
Maintain last assigned vector for 2min
If holding complete the holding pattern then proceed as cleared.

47
Q

Take off distance Required?

A

Using charts for short dry grass, achieve TOSS at 50 ft at the achievable distance
multiplied by:
(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
(b) 1.25 for MTOW of 3,500 kg or greater
(c) Between 2,000 kg and 3,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Author’s Note: If using an approved foreign flight manual or a manufacturer’s data manual, the above
factors may already be included in the data. CAO 20.7.4 Para 6.3 refers.

48
Q

Enroute Climb performance required?

A

Multi-engine aeroplanes engaged in charter operations under the IFR or aerial
work operations under the IFR:
1% at all heights up to 5,000 ft in the standard atmosphere in the following
configuration:
(a) Critical engine failure
(b) Propeller of inoperative engine stopped
(c) Undercarriage and flaps retracted
(d) Remaining engine at maximum continuous power
(e) Airspeed not less than 1.2 VS
Author’s Note: Missed approaches are designed to a climb gradient of 2.5% and adjusting an MDA or
DA should be considered to ensure terrain clearance in the missed approach. Refer to the
Approaches section of this IFR Cheat Sheet.

Multi-engine aeroplanes engaged in all other operations:
Must have ability to maintain height at all heights up to 5,000 feet in the standard
atmosphere in the following configuration:
(a) Critical engine failure
(b) Propeller of inoperative engine stopped
(c) Undercarriage and flaps retracted
(d) Remaining engine at maximum

49
Q

Landing Distance required?

A

Landing Distance Required
Using charts for short dry grass, and approaching at a speed not less than 1.3 VS
maintained to 50 ft, come to a complete stop from 50 ft within the achievable
distance multiplied by:
(a) 1.15 for MTOW of 2,000 kg or less;
(b) 1.43 for MTOW of 4,500 kg or greater;
(c) Between 2,000 kg and 4,500 kg, use linear interpolation
Author’s Note: If using an approved foreign flight manual or a manufacturer’s data manual, the above
factors may already be included in the data. CAO 20.7.4 Para 10.3 refers.

50
Q

Landing Climb performance required?

A

For all aircraft types, must have the ability to climb at a gradient of 3.2% in
standard atmospheric conditions in the following configuration:
(a) Aircraft in landing configuration
(b) All engines at take-off power
(c) Speed not exceeding 1.3 VS

51
Q

Flight level QNH and standard hand over for climb and descent with change in QNH?

A

Always 1013.2hpa on the climb through 10,000ft

Set local QNH or Area QNH when descending through:
FL110 
FL115 with QNH less than 1013
FL120 with QNH less than 997
FL125 with QNH less than 963
52
Q

Max Holding speed at different altitudes?
Holding time adjustment for Altitude variation?
Enroute holding exit speed limit?

A 
Up to and including FL140:
230kts max (170kts max for Cat A and B only approaches)

ABV FL140: 240kts

ABV FL200: 265kts

1min holds up to FL140
1.5min holds ABV FL140

Enroute holding exit speed must be 250kts or notify ATC

53
Q

Visual approach requirements both issued by ATC and Pilot Visual approaches.

A 
Issued by ATC 
within 30nm
Visual reference to ground and water
Vis 5k
Day - within 5nm or Night- in circling area
Remain not less than 500ft above LL of CTA (night not less than LSALT/MSA, DGA)
Night: within circling area 
or 5nm Papi 
or 7nm Papi ILS RWY (not working is ok) 
or 10nm on glideslope

Pilot

within 30nm (dayonly)
Clear of Cloud 
insight of ground or water
5km vis (day aerodrome in sight)
Night: within circling area 
or 5nm Papi 
or 7nm Papi ILS RWY (not working is ok) 
or 10nm on glideslope

Very similar key differences:

ATC: stay 500ft above LL
Pilot: 30nm does NOT apply night only

54
Q

Approved non precision approach LOC HIAL out consideration?

CAT 1 ILS minimum vis required?

A

unless stated otherwise VIS must be increased by 900m

ILS
HIALS out = 1.5k vis

normal operations 1.2k vis unless:
If flying with Autopilot engaged or flight director and aircraft is equipped with failure warning systems and high intensity RWY edge lights are available

without threshold RVR 0.8k vis is required.

55
Q

IFR flight Cruising levels for Flight levels?

Non RVSM aircraft (approved to fly in RVSM airspace)

A

East Odd numbers up to FL290
West even numbers up to FL280

East FL330 , FL370 , FL410
West FL310 , FL350 , FL390

56
Q

Cat C track reversal procedure angles and timing?

A

45’ /180’ outbound 1min 15sec

57
Q

What wake turbulance Cat are you?

A

L - Light bellow 7,000kg
M - Medium above 7,000kg - 136,000kg
H - Heavy above 136,000kg

IPC Revision (Instrument Proficiency Check CASA Australia)) (1 decks)

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