General Information and rules (eigene Fragen) Flashcards

Question

Approach Lighting Systems? FALS IALS BALS NALS

Answer 1

Class of lighting facility = Length, configuration and intensity of approach lights FALS = CAT I lighting system (HIALS ≥720 m) distance coded centreline, Barrette centreline IALS = Simple approach lighting system (HIALS 420 – 719 m) single source, Barrette BALS = Any other approach lighting system (HIALS, MALS or ALS 210 – 419 m) NALS = Any other approach light system (HIALS, MALS or ALS ≤210 m) or no approach lights

Answer 2

min RVR 750m

Answer 3

minimum MDH: 600ft | minimum Visibility: 2400m

Answer 4

- At night, the maximum reported surface crosswind component for a circling approach is 20 kts. Gust values shall not exceed 40 kts. - At night, the ceiling required before commencing an approach shall be Circling Minimums +300’, - „New” Captains may not conduct Circling approached at night.

Answer 5

Malta Air will not use an RVR of less than 800 m for a visual approach.

Answer 6

Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV: HI approach and runway lights: 1.5 Day / 2.0 Night Any type of light installation other than above: 1.0 Day / 1.5 Night No lights: 1.0 Day / not applicable Night

Answer 7

1000ft and later

Answer 8

Malta Air only selects an aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima. The ceiling is taken into account when the only approach operations available are non-precision approaches (NPA) and/or circling operations. Any limitation related to OEI operations is also taken into account.

Answer 9

- the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows: i. RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110; and ii. for an NPA or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above MDH; or -two destination alternate aerodromes are selected.

Answer 10

APPROACH TYPE 1) For CAT II and CAT III approaches 2) CAT 1 Approaches 3) NPA (Non precision approaches) 4) APV BARO-LNAV/VNAV 5) Circling PLANNING MINIMA 1) CAT I RVR minima 2) Non precision RVR/Visibility and ceiling minima 3) NPA minima plus 1,000 m/200 ft 4) NPA or CAT I minima, depending on the DH/MDH 5) Circling minima

Answer 11

Taxi Fuel = Engine Start Fuel + ([Taxi FF × Taxi Time] + [APU FF × Taxi Time] + [Anti Ice OFF × Taxi Time] = 13 kgs/min for Malta Air 737-800 Taxi Fuel figure.

Answer 12

Trip fuel, which includes: i. fuel for take-off and climb from aerodrome elevation to initial cruising level/altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing; ii. fuel from top of climb to top of descent, including any step climb/descent; iii. fuel from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and iv. fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome.

Answer 13

The higher of: -EITHER: A. 5% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, 5% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight; B. not less than 3% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, 3% of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight, provided that an En-Route Alternate (ERA) aerodrome is available; -OR an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m), above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

Answer 14

fuel for a missed approach from the applicable DA/H or MDA/H at the destination aerodrome to missed approach altitude, taking into account the complete missed approach procedure; fuel for climb from missed approach altitude to cruising level/altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing; fuel for cruise from top of climb to top of descent, taking into account the expected routing; fuel for descent from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and fuel for executing an approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome; (where two destination alternate aerodromes are required, sufficient fuel to proceed to the alternate aerodrome that requires the greater amount of alternate fuel.)

Answer 15

fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome or the destination aerodrome, when no destination alternate aerodrome is required.

Answer 16

-the aeroplane to descend as necessary and proceed to an adequate alternate aerodrome in the event of engine failure or loss of pressurisation, whichever requires the greater amount of fuel based on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point along the route, and A. hold there for 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions; and B. make an approach and landing, except that additional fuel is only required if the minimum amount of fuel calculated in accordance with (1)(b) to (1)(f) is not sufficient for such an event; and -holding for 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above destination aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, when a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome.

Answer 17

The fuel ERA aerodrome is located within a circle having a radius equal to 20% of the total flight plan distance, the centre of which lies on the planned route at a distance from the destination aerodrome of 25% of the total flight plan distance, or at least 20% of the total flight plan distance plus 50 NM, whichever is greater. All distances will be calculated in still air conditions

Answer 18

The following guidelines will be used in helping to determine when to load PIC Extra Fuel: * Thunderstorms are forecast; * Operational landing limits are forecast or reported to be 2/3 or less of the forecast RVR, for example landing RVR 600 m and forecast is 900 m RVR or less. * An unscheduled runway closure, affecting the arrival rate, for example: Freezing precipitation (runway treatment) – Moderate to heavy intensity snowfall (snow removal); * Crosswinds in excess of 2/3 of limiting value; * Contaminated/Slippery runway limitations (it may be desirable to reduce landing weight and not increase by loading extra fuel in these conditions); * Forecast en-route adverse meteorological conditions.

Answer 19

The following formula may be used to calculate the additional Trip Fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors: 2.5% of the additional weight (fuel in this example) carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours. For the B737-NG, 2.5% of the additional fuel carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours, e.g. 1500 kg additional weight (fuel) carried for a 2 hr flight = 0.025 × 1500 × 2.0 = 75 kg.

Answer 20

ensure that: - any last minute change is entered on the loadsheet and entered in the FMC and is brought to the attention of the Commander - the maximum last minute change allowed is <=500kgs whether passengers cargo or fuel or any combination thereof; and - new mass and balance documentation is prepared if this maximum number is exceeded, i.e. for > = 501 Kg. (last minute changes are easily recorded on the LID and entered in the OPT W&B App. There is no maximum limit to the electronic LMC weight adjustment as any change will trigger an entirely new calculation within the App.)

Answer 21

1. Crew and crew baggage; 2. Catering and removable passenger service equipment; and 3. Tank water and lavatory chemicals.

Answer 22

- Malta Air uses standard masses, including hand baggage, of 85 kg for flight crew/technical crew members and 75 kg for cabin crew members to determine the dry operating mass. - Malta Air corrects the dry operating mass to account for any additional baggage. The position of this additional baggage is accounted for when establishing the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.

Answer 23

All flights except holiday charters: 84kg Holiday charters: 76kg Children: 35kg

Answer 24

Domestic: 11kg Within the European region: 13kg Intercontinental: 15kg All other: 13kg

Answer 25

If the actual fuel density is not known, Malta Air uses standard fuel density values for determining the mass of the fuel load. Such standard values are based on current fuel density measurements for the airports or areas concerned. For JET A1 (Jet fuel JP 1) Malta Air uses .79.

Answer 26

Theoretically there is no upper limit to the value but generally it will appear as a single digit. The wind shear value is calculated from wind speed and direction samples taken 2,000 ft above and 2,000 ft below the datum level. The lower the number the less the chance of turbulence. Moderate turbulence can be encountered whenever the shear value is equal to or greater than 3. Severe turbulence can be anticipated whenever the shear value is equal to or greater than 5.

Answer 27

a. the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM), or equivalent document(s);* b. the original certificate of registration; c. the original Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA); d. the noise certificate, including an English translation, where one has been provided by the TM CAD; e. a certified true copy of the Air Operator Certificate (AOC)*; f. the operations specifications relevant to the aircraft type, issued with the AOC*; g. the original aircraft radio licence, if applicable; h. the third party liability insurance certificate(s)*; i. the journey log for the aircraft*; j. the aircraft technical log, in accordance with Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014; k. details of the filed ATS flight plan, contained in the LIDO OFP*; l. current and suitable aeronautical charts for the route of the proposed flight and all routes along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted (Navtech)*; m. procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft (Navtech FSB);* n. information concerning search and rescue services for the area of the intended flight, which shall be easily accessible in the flight crew compartment (Navtech FSB);* o. the current parts of the operations manual that are relevant to the duties of the crew members, which shall be easily accessible to the crew members*; p. the MEL;* q. appropriate notices to airmen (NOTAMs) and Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) briefing documentation; r. appropriate meteorological information*; s. mass and balance documentation*; t. the operational flight plan; u. notification of Special Categories of Passenger (SCPs) and special loads; and v. any other documentation that may be pertinent to the flight or is required by the States concerned with the flight. Note: * Item so marked are carried in an electronic format.

Answer 28

- one flight crew member, will remain in the flight deck during fuelling operations with passengers on board. This flight crew member is capable of handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection and fire-fighting, handling communications and initiating and directing an evacuation; - two-way communication, (when available) will be established and will remain available by the aeroplane’s inter-communication system between the person on the ground supervising the refuelling and the qualified person on the flight deck. The person on the ground will remain within easy reach of the system of communication which implies that the person on the ground does not have to be on the headset all the time, except in states requiring this, (currently Spain and Italy). The person on the ground can complete other tasks providing he can see the refueller and remains within easy reach of the communications system, eg completing the walkaround; - When it is not possible to use the procedure above, other suitable means will be employed. ‘other suitable means’ is any procedure arranged between the flight deck and the refueller (or on his behalf), such that any situation warranting an evacuation is communicated unambiguously to the person on the flight deck. A refuelling supervisor shall be designated by the Commander for each refuelling event with passengers on board embarking or disembarking and shall be one of the following: 1. Any Malta Air pilot authorized by the Commander 2. A licensed engineer when in attendance. 3. A ground crew member who has completed the approved Malta Air Refuelling Supervisor training module. 4. Where the RFS is the PNF, if he/she is required to return to the flight deck during the refuelling process appoint and brief an engineer or suitably qualified ground crew member as supervisor. -crew, personnel and passengers will be briefed that refuelling is taking place; - ‚Fasten Seat Belts’ signs will be selected off; - ‚NO SMOKING’ signs will be on, together with interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified; - passengers will be instructed to unfasten their seat belts and refrain from smoking; - the minimum required number of cabin crew will be on board and will be prepared for an immediate emergency evacuation; - if the presence of fuel vapour is detected inside the aeroplane, or any other hazard arises during refuelling, fuelling will be stopped immediately; - the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas will be kept clear at doors where stairs are not in position for use in the event of evacuation; and - provision will be made for a safe and rapid evacuation.

Answer 29

Ensure no mobile phone usage within 3.5 m of a refuelling point (i.e. under the right wing).

Answer 30

The tolerance is ±200 kg for the Boeing 737 aircraft. If refuellers supply in excess of the fuel requested the Commander shall annotate the circumstances on the Voyage Report/Journey Log and ideally on the fuel docket. In this case include the fuel docket in the flight envelope returned. If the Commander has any reason to doubt the integrity of the fuel quantity on board or the FQIS, then the drip sticks must be used to confirm the quantity of fuel in the tanks. The acceptable tolerance between any tank gauge reading and the drip stick figure is ±200 kg for the Boeing 737-NG. Such a large figure is only acceptable due to the difficulty of reading the drip sticks and making the corrections for pitch and roll attitudes. Differences approaching this magnitude will be subject to further uplift checks on subsequent refuellings. In such circumstances, Commanders shall refer to MEL and consider taking additional fuel in excess of flight plan fuel for the sector.

Answer 31

When “Standard Airbridge Boarding” applies, anticipate the following sequence: • Priority passengers board first. • All other passengers. When “Adjusted Airbridge Boarding” applies, anticipate the following sequence: • Priority passengers board first. • Passengers seated in Rows 22–33. • All other passengers. “Adjusted Airbridge Boarding” applies after the dispatcher confirms: • Holds 3 and 4 empty. • Bags will not be loaded into Holds 3 or 4 during the boarding process. • Bags will only be loaded in Hold 3 AFTER loading of Hold 2 is complete (160 bags) and only towards end of boarding.

Answer 32

1. ‘adult’ means a person of an age of 12 years and above; 2. ‘child/children’ means persons who are of an age of two years and above but who are less than 12 years of age; 3. ‘infant’ means a person under the age of two years.

Answer 33

The following categories may not be allocated direct access seating: 1. Passengers with reduced mobility, which may include but not be limited to someone with a mobility or sensory impairment. 2. Passengers whose physical size would prevent them from being able to move quickly.

Answer 34

Wind Between 20 kt and 40 kt Confirm all ground/ramp equipment has been secured (i.e. parking brakes set or chocked). Do not use mobile steps unless the handling agency has equipment accepted by GOPS for use in excess of 20 kt windspeed – see above. The maximum windspeed for continuance of operations on the ground, including gusts, is an absolute value of 60 kts. Windspeed is calculated as the sum of the steady wind plus 1⁄2 the gust, e.g. wind 240/30 gusting 50 gives a total wind speed of 30 kt +10 kts (1⁄2 the gust of 20 kt); total wind = 40 kt. Operations Between 41 kt and 60 kt If winds are forecast to exceed 40 kts and aircraft are expected to be left unattended flight crew shall contact Maintrol for guidance on the protection of aircraft on the ground. All unnecessary ramp equipment will be removed to a sheltered location. The Parking Brake will be SET and wheels double chocked. The Aircraft will be fueled to at least 7000 kg. Aircraft must be parked tactically* to ensure door and air stairs are not operated when directly exposed to the wind (ref: Maintenance Manual). Operation of selected doors with winds greater than 40 kt may be approved by the Commander where positioning of the aircraft relative to prevailing wind or proximity to local buildings or the terminal affords obvious protection. The DO NOT DE-ICE placard shall be placed in the captains DV window. This procedure shall be applied even if there is no expectation that de-icing will be required. Wind at or above 60 kt There is an absolute value of 60 kts (including gusts) at which all operations on the ground shall be suspended, and shall remain suspended until winds have abated to below 60 kts for a period of more than 30 minutes, e.g. wind 240/30 gusting 60 – all operations on the ground shall be suspended.

Answer 35

Frost and Hoar Frost – Ice crystal deposits forming directly on cold surfaces with a temperature below freezing when the dew point is also below zero. Rime Ice – White or opaque deposits of crystalline and granular ice formed by supercooled water droplets impinging and freezing on impact with the exposed surfaces of the aircraft. Typical of freezing fog with the deposits generally thicker than frost. Clear Ice – Essentially transparent and adhering closely with almost 100% bonding to the aircraft surfaces, and formed by freezing of water caused by condensation or precipitation including freezing rain onto the surface, or by larger supercooled water droplets which do not freeze directly on impact. Also called glaze ice when it occurs in flight. Dry Snow – Small flakes of snow with no liquid moisture content at temperatures below freezing. As a consequence does not tend to stick to surfaces which are also below zero and can be removed blowing or brushing off. Wet Snow – Snow close to freezing point and composed of generally larger flakes with a higher water content than dry snow, some of which is in liquid form. Generally sticks to aircraft surfaces, engines and exposed system components and if the surfaces are below zero or temperatures drop below freezing point can freeze onto the surface greatly increasing the bonding to the surface. Snow Pellets – The snow column for all fluid types has been updated to include snow pellets. Recent testing has indicated that snow holdover times are appropriate for snow pellet conditions. Ice Pellet Allowance Times – During the winter of 2009-2010 wind tunnel research conducted with a newer generation type airfoil showed that propylene glycol (PG) and Ethylene Glycol (EG) fluids behave differently under certain temperature and ice pellet conditions Specifically, higher aircraft rotation speeds are required to effectively remove PG fluid contaminated with light or moderate ice pellets at temperatures less than -10°C. The range of B737-NG rotation speeds is above the minimum worst case rotation speed to remove fluid with Ice Pellets. Sleet – A mixture of rain and snow or hail which can adhere to aircraft surfaces as with wet snow.

Answer 36

a. 50 kts on a runway when backtracking to vacate or take-off b. 30 kts on a taxiway c. 15 kts on the apron d. 10 kts when executing a turn of 45 or greater e. 5 kts on contaminated runways or taxiways

Answer 37

A turning altitude is specified in a SID if this altitude is less than 398 ft. Crews shall comply with these turn instructions. Where no turning altitude is specified turns shall not commence below 400 AAL. The minimum altitude limitation for commencement of any turn is specified in FCOM Vol 1, limitations. Some departures have initial track up to 15° offset left or right from the runway track (Bezier). This is technically not a turning departure below 400 ft. The departure track published shall be followed, and requires selection of LNAV prior to 400 ft, or an appropriate HDG SEL prior to 400 ft.

Answer 38

NADP2: Bug UP at 1,000 ft AAL, N1 at 1,500 ft AAL, retract flaps on schedule, maintain UP speed to 3,000 ft AAL, then accelerate. When this Noise Abatement procedure does not provide adequate obstacle clearance an amended procedure shall be indicated in the RTOW charts in the same manner as ETs, and used by the crew. Some destinations still make reference to NADP A, or NADP B etc in the Navtech GEN charts or equivalent. The term NADP A or B no longer exists. The Noise Abatement reference literature currently used at many Malta Air destinations predate NPA 53. Therefore in the absences of a specific instruction to fly NAPD 1, Malta Air B737-NG aircraft will fly NADP 2. All other noise references are immaterial. NADP1: N1 @ 1,500 feet AAL, Bug up @ 3,000 AAL, flap retraction on schedule The THR RED Alt in the FMC may be preprogrammed to 3,000 ft AAL or may be manually programmed to 3,000 ft AAL, or as required. A turning altitude is specified in a SID if this altitude is less than 398 ft. Crews shall comply with these turn instructions. Where no turning altitude is specified turns shall not commence below 400 AAL. The minimum altitude limitation for commencement of any turn is specified in FCOM Vol 1, limitations.

Answer 39

The Malta Air fleet has a stuck mike modification programme completed. This modification means that after 35 seconds of continuous transmission the VHF comm. transceiver will revert to the receive mode. Malta Air aircraft radio comply with the requirements of CAT.IDE.A.330, CAT.IDE.A.335 and AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.325.

Answer 40

Crews shall anticipate a frequency change prior to reaching an FIR boundary. If none is forthcoming then a radio check with ATC shall be initiated. For extended routings between FIR boundaries crews shall (in the absence of any other RT instructions) ensure that radio contact is maintained by performing a radio check at intervals not exceeding 25 minutes and corresponding to a point identified along the route and highlighted on the ND from the FMC FIX page.

Answer 41

250kts below FL100 or if instructef to fly faster by ATC: -Maintain ATC instructed speed until FL60 or 6000ft AAL and advise ATC to reduce to standard speed.

Answer 42

1. Not less than 10nms remaining to touchdown 2. Descent to not below the MSA or 3,000 ft whichever is higher. 3. Max Flap 10, with speedbrake if operationally necessary. Not with landing gear extended! 4. Met conditions VMC. * If a visual approach has been requested and approved by ATC that is not straight in then consider extending the downwind or widening the base leg, subject to other traffic. * If required conduct a full published go-around to another approach. * It is not acceptable to join a visual circuit from an incomplete go-around.

Answer 43

ILS = 1,000 m, 300 ft AAL ``` NPA = 3,000 m, 1,000 ft AAL Exceptions: Circling approach Visual approach (no publ proc) ``` A DOUBLE BRIEF is required for MA and Crews shall be MA qualified. A MA shall be flown by the F/O (RHS), monitored by the Captain (LHS). A go-around shall be flown by the F/O (RHS). A Landing shall be flown by the Captain (LHS). When the Captain calls “CONTINUE” he shall take control of the aircraft. He shall call land at or before minima when he has the required visual references for landing. When the “CONTINUE” call is made during a NPA the F/O (RHS) shall select F/D OFF, set MAA, reselect F/D ON, monitor the remainder of the approach/landing with particular emphasis on vertical situational awareness. A go-around shall be executed by the PF (RHS) when instructed by the Commander, or if there is no instruction from the Captain at minimums. The autopilot if available shall be used.

Answer 44

1. Timely deceleration to final approach speed matched with configuration change so that the landing configuration is achieved at 500 ft above airfield level (AAL) in VMC and 1,000 ft AAL in IMC. The landing gate for a circling approach/sidestep is 300 ft AAL. The aircraft must be fully configured in the landing configuration by 500 ft AAL and manoeuvring completed by 300 ft AAL. 2. Adherence to a constant angle of descent/flight path angle, e.g. the ILS glide slope, a visually assessed path, VNAV path on non precision approaches with the current V/S proportional to the aircraft current GS. 3. Flying a constant final approach airspeed adjusted for wind from the MDA/DA. Crews are reminded that any aircraft that proceeds beyond the 500 ft VMC Landing Gate or 1000 ft IMC Landing Gate without being fully stabilised (parameters below) is required to submit a ASR detailing the circumstances behind the decision to continue the approach. 1. VREF to VREF+15. 2. On the glide path (±1 dot). 3. On centreline (±1 dot). 4. Appropriate thrust set. 5. Landing Checklist complete (with the exception of landing lights).

Answer 45

1. The commander may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR/VIS 2. If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued: a. below 1,000 ft above the aerodrome; or b. into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1,000 ft above the aerodrome. 3. Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility. OMA 8.1.3.4.9. 4. If, after passing 1,000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. 5. The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained. OMA 8.3.0.3.10. The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling. If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stop end RVR shall also be controlling. The minimum RVR value for the midpoint shall be 125 m or the RVR required for the touchdown zone if less, and 75 m for the stop end.

Answer 46

If a missed approach has been executed for meteorological reasons, another approach shall only be commenced if the Commander has reason to believe that a second approach will lead to a successful landing. In the event that two weather related missed approaches have been carried out, The Commander shall divert to his alternate unless he receives weather information which indicates that an improvement to double the previously given weather has occurred. In this context, visibility would need to be increased by a factor of 2 and ceiling to twice the previously reported height. The Company is aware that weather conditions are seldom stable and that a particular flight may encounter below limits weather where other flights approaching at the same time are able to land. Any economic penalty involved in complying this instruction is acceptable to the Company. Our primary operations objective is to conduct our air operations activity safely. It is not permitted to conduct a third approach following two abandoned approaches due to windshear.

Answer 47

1. If any of the Stabilised approach criteria will not be met by the landing gate refer to OMA . 2. Engine Failure on final approach when IMC and below 1,000 ft AAL. 3. If below 1,000 ft AAL, any significant departure from the normal approach path occurs and corrective action is not immediately effective. 4. If the approach aid in use or the respective aircraft installation is suspected to be malfunctioning, unless VMC 5. Upon instruction of ATC; or 6. At the discretion of the Captain. 7. Flap load relief activation after the applicable landing gate – 1,000 ft AAL IMC, 500 ft AAL VMC. 8. TOO LOW GEAR, TOO LOW FLAP in normal operations. All go-arounds shall be executed according to the procedures laid down for the aircraft. Once the decision has been made to go-around during final approach no decision to abandon this go-around shall be taken. A ASR shall be filed for all go-arounds initiated below 1,000 ft AAL. It is not necessary to file ASR for a go-around above 1,000 ft AAL unless there are additional reportable circumstances.

Answer 48

CAT I, NPA 1. Elements of the approach lighting system; 2. The threshold; 3. The threshold markings; 4. The threshold lights; 5. The threshold identification lights; 6. The visual glide slope indicator*; 7. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; 8. The touchdown zone lights; 9. FATO/runway edge lights; ort CAT II Operations At DH, the visual references specified below shall be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot in order to continue the approach: a. A segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these; b. This visual reference will include a lateral element of the ground pattern, such as an approach light crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lights. CAT III Operations For CAT IIIA operations at DH, a segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained by the pilot.

Answer 49

“Land After” clearances are authorised for Malta Air flight operations. Usually ATC will advise you prior to “MINIMUMS” to expect a late landing clearance. This is your cue to expect the actual landing clearance after “MINIMUMS”. Execution of this approved clearance requires completion of the “LANDING LIGHTS” item on the Landing Checklist after the “MINIMUMS” call. The issuance of a LAND AFTER clearance authorises the aircraft to “cross the runway threshold” (OM C, ATC 7.10) Crews shall be aware that Go-Around may be required after acceptance of the “land after” clearance up to a baulked landing.

Answer 50

a. Check frequency selection and volume controls. b. If frequency and volume are correctly set and no reply received, revert to previous frequency. c. If still unable to establish communications attempt to establish communications on 121.5. d. If no radio contact established or no signal received from the tower to land a go around shall be accomplished.

Answer 51

1. The target threshold height for all aircraft is 50 feet; 2. The maximum allowable target airspeed over the threshold is VREF +15 kt for the Boeing 737-NG; and 3. The fly speed which contains increments for wind speed and gust shall be flown accurately on the final approach and the additional speed increments reduced as the threshold is crossed so as to land at VREF plus gust increment. For a tail wind the fly speed shall be VREF +5 kt to touchdown at VREF. 4. With a 3 approach glide path and a target runway threshold height of 50 ft the touchdown aiming point is (305 m) 1,000 ft. This point can be identified from the standard runway markings The touchdown area should be within the range of 750 ft to 1,250 ft from the runway threshold and never outside the range of 500 ft to 1,500 ft. Electronic and visual glide slopes may intersect the runway surface beyond the 1,000 foot point and some runways may have a displaced threshold. These shall be taken into account when determining the target touchdown point. A shallower approach path of less than 3 and a down slope on the runway make an accurate touchdown progressively more difficult. If for any reason the approach path is not maintained and it is likely that the touchdown will occur too short or too far beyond the touchdown area, or the threshold speed is excessive then a go-around must be initiated.

Answer 52

a. A minimum of Idle Reverse Thrust shall be used for all landings along with Autobrake 0-1-2-3-Max as appropriate. Where the use of higher Autobrake brake settings causes turnaround brake cooling issues, Reverse Thrust settings greater than idle shall be used. Idle Reverse Thrust therefore shall be used in normal flight operations with braking action GOOD or better as follows: • On last flight of the day at all Malta Air bases. • On the last flight of a series of flights when there is at least a 60 minute turnaround. • Last landing prior to aircraft going out of service. • Any landing when the turnaround schedule will not be adversely affected by the sole use of Autobrake. The Commander is encouraged to use a combination of Flap/REV THR/AUTO BRK in order to exit the runway at a particular exit to minimise the taxi time to stand. b. Safety Our primary operations objective is to conduct our air transport activities safely. Use of idle reverse thrust as described in this section is not considered detrimental to safety. When required, up to and including MAX REV THR may be used. c. Reverse Thrust Detents and Max Reverse First detent reverse thrust is IDLE REV. Second detent reverse thrust is approx. 75% N1. MAX REV THR is approx. 82% N1.

Answer 53

Some stands require either electronic signalling or marshalling. It is not permitted to self position onto stands for which either electronic guidance or marshalling is required. Some stands require neither. It is permitted to self position onto stands which do not require electronic guidance or marshalling. Acknowledge all hand signals. Be aware that the “cut-throat” signal to shut down engines may be an urgent instruction rather than the last signal in a routine sequence of marshalling. If this is the case, do so even if you will be temporarily without AC power. Crews shall not turn off the beacon until N2 has fallen below 20% on both engines. Li

Answer 54

The pilot monitoring (PM) will accomplish the exterior inspection at the earliest opportunity following completion of the shutdown procedure/checks (full or transit). The PM will connect the RFS headset and confirm with the pilot flying (PF) that the chocks are in-place/properly fitted and that all ground servicing equipment is properly in position. The PF will then release the parking brake with caution and advise the PM when the parking brake is fully released. The PF and PM must monitor aircraft movement and pay particular attention during the walk around to ensure servicing equipment and aircraft (including air-stairs) has not been displaced and/or damaged. The confirmation of the proper placement of chocks/servicing equipment and release of the parking brake must be accomplished at the earliest opportunity to ensure optimum brake cooling. Report any abnormalities and damaged observed to the pilot flying, base engineers, and/or MAINTROL as appropriate.

Answer 55

It is Malta Air policy to maximise the use of Ground Power when available for all turnarounds. Ideally the APU shall be started just prior to closing the L1 door. Without prejudice to Airport bylaws/Directors Notices APU is not normally required between temperatures of 5°C and 25°C and may be used for air-conditioning outside these temperature ranges during turnarounds.

Answer 56

1. Ask “Is this a SAFA inspection”, if not establish and record nature of inspection. 2. Ask “Are there any level 1, 2 or 3 findings?” 3. Call Ops DUB if you disagree with inspector. 4. Ask for a copy of the report. 5. File a CSR at Base stating type of inspection. 6. If there is a SAFA inspection at a Malta Air base which has a technical finding, ensure engineering and/or MAINTROL is advised of the finding before departure. 7. The SAFA report shall be emailed to the Safety and Compliance Manager at fileareport@ryanairsun.com, and a CSR shall be filed on completion of duty. Place the SAFA report in the flight envelope.

Answer 57

i. two primary altitude measurement systems. • A cross-check between the two primary altimeters must be made and need to agree within ±60 m (±200 ft). Failure to meet this condition will require that the altimetry system is reported as defective and Air Traffic Control (ATC) notified; ii. one automatic altitude-control system; iii. one altitude-alerting device; and iv. operating transponder. Should any of the required equipment fail prior to the aircraft entering RVSM airspace, request a new clearance to avoid entering this airspace.

Answer 58

- the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel; or - the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required If an in-flight fuel check shows that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is less than: i. the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, the commander shall take into account the traffic and the operational conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate aerodrome in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel; or ii. the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required, the commander shall take appropriate action and proceed to an adequate aerodrome so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel. c. The commander shall declare an emergency when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

Answer 59

* an assured landing in the prevailing and immediate forecast conditions (including likely single equipment failures); * an allocated Expected Approach Time (EAT) or confirmation from ATC that maximum likely delay has been received Crew must submit an ASR when landing at destination with less than ALTN + FINRES to confirm that fuel originally allocated for a diversion to an alternate was converted into fuel to “continue to” or “divert to” the destination.

Answer 60

* At the initial TOC waypoint or at the nearest waypoint after TOC on the OFP. * At TOD or nearest waypoint prior to TOD. * On average at 30 minute intervals in the cruise

Answer 61

The Commander shall request delay information from ATC when unanticipated circumstances may result in landing at the destination aerodrome with less than the final reserve fuel plus any fuel required to proceed to an alternate aerodrome. “ATC, request EAT, RYR 123”. The pilot-in-command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “ATC, MINIMUM FUEL, RYR 123” when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel. Note 1: The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur. Note 2: It should be noted that Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling as a result of a “MINIMUM FUEL” declaration. ATC will, however, advise the flight crew of any additional expected delays as well as coordinate when transferring control of the aeroplane to ensure other ATC units are aware of the flight’s fuel state. It is important to note that a common element in every scenario is that each time MINIMUM FUEL is declared, the Commander has already committed to land at a specific aerodrome and is concerned that a landing may occur with less than final reserve fuel in the tanks. It is equally important to note that, although the coordinated escalation process (with ATC) related to the protection of final reserve typically occurs in 3 steps, each situation is different, and may be resolved at any stage in the process.

Answer 62

->Final Reserve Fuel! Declare Fuel Emergency using “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, RYR 123”. The last in a series of procedural steps to ensure the safe completion of a flight is the declaration of an emergency. The “MAYDAY” declaration is used when all opportunities to protect final reserve fuel have been exploited and in the judgment of the Commander the flight will now land with less than final reserve fuel remaining in the tanks. The word FUEL is used as part of the declaration simply to convey the nature of the emergency to ATC. It is also important to note an emergency declaration not only opens all options for pilots (e.g. available closed runways, military fields, etc.) but it also allows ATC added flexibility in handling an aeroplane.

Answer 63

* Two Separate Runways are available and usable at the time of intended landing at the destination aerodrome. They may overlay or cross only if this will not prevent the planned type of operation on the other runway, when one of the runways is blocked * Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid. The appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any combination thereof, indicate that for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome: * The ceiling will be at least 2000 ft or Circling height + 500 ft whichever is greater. * The visibility will be at least 5 km.

Answer 64

* To avoid a large storm, the flight crew should make decisions while still 40 nm from it; * Deviate upwind instead of downwind of a cell (less probability of turbulence or hail); • For storm-avoidance planning, consider the height of the storm: – Avoid all yellow, red, or magenta weather radar returns by at least 20 nm – Avoid all green, yellow, red, and magenta weather radar returns of cells taller than 28,000 ft by at least 20 nm – Cells exceeding 35,000 ft should be considered extremely hazardous and further separation (in addition to the 20 nm) should be used * If the top of cell is at or above 25,000 ft, do not overfly it to minimise the possibility of encountering turbulence; * Do not attempt to penetrate a cell or clear its top by less than 5000 ft vertically, otherwise the aircraft may encounter severe turbulence; * Avoid flying under a thunderstorm because of possible windshear, microbursts, severe turbulence, or hail.

Answer 65

* Ensure that Crew Members’ and passengers’ safety belts or harnesses are firmly fastened and any loose articles are secured. * One pilot shall control the aeroplane and the other monitor the flight instruments and electrical supplies continuously * Agree with ATC an altitude for penetration whilst ensuring adequate terrain clearance. * Check the operation of all Anti-icing and De-icing equipment and operate all these systems in accordance with Boeing and/or instructions. * Follow Boeing and/or Malta Air recommendations on the use of the flight director and autopilot. * Continue monitoring the weather radar in order to select the safest track for penetration. * Avoid flying in close proximity to a thunderstorm whenever possible

Answer 66

A pilot intending to detour around observed weather should obtain clearance from or notify ATC so that separation from other aircraft can be maintained. If for any reason the pilot is unable to contact ATC to inform the controller of his intended action, any manoeuvre shall be limited to the extent necessary to avoid immediate danger and ATC must be informed as soon as possible.

Answer 67

Maintain control of the aeroplane whilst concentrating on maintaining a constant pitch attitude appropriate to climb, cruise or descent, by reference to the attitude indicators and avoid harsh or excessive control movements. Do not be misled by conflicting indications on other instruments. Do not allow large attitude excursions in the rolling plane to persist. Attempt to maintain the original heading. Do not correct for altitude gained or lost through up and down draughts unless absolutely necessary. Maintain the trim settings and avoid changing the power setting except when necessary to restore margins from stall warning or high speed buffet. If trim variations due to the autopilot (auto-trim) are large, the autopilot shall be disengaged. Movement of the mach trim, where it occurs, is however necessary and desirable. Check that the yaw-damper remains engaged.

Answer 68

GOOD : 0.40orabove MEDIUM/GOOD : 0.36to039 MEDIUM : 0.30to0.35 MEDIUM/POOR: 0.26to0.29 POOR: 0.25 and below Several different types of equipment (Mu-Meter, Skiddometer) are used to measure friction. Guidance regarding “slippery runway landing performance” is presented in the Boeing FCTM, Chapter 4, and includes guidance on interpretation of coefficient of friction measurements. Maximum manoeuvring speed on the ground with braking action 0.35 or below shall be 5 kt.

Answer 69

Dispatch: If an airport is forecasting Sandstorms (SS) or Dust storms (DS) +/-1 hour of ETA, the aircraft may dispatch to the airport so long as two suitable alternates are available. Crew should select the furthest suitable ALTN for the OFP and uplift fuel accordingly. If conducting ground operations at an airport experiencing moderate to heavy DS/SS: i. Confirm local disembarkation/embarkation restrictions with dispatcher DO NOT commence boarding if boarding will necessitate the use of APU for Air conditioning. ii. Avoid APU usage if possible. If required, operate APU as per FCOM SP 16 Operation in a Sandy or Dusty Environment. iii. Do not start engines or attempt dispatch during active +DS/+SS or when visibilities reduce below 600 m. iv. Do not taxi on taxiways which are contaminated with drifting sand. v. Contact MAINTROL and the Duty Pilot for guidance. Enroute: It is prohibited to commence an approach at an airport under the following conditions: i. Active Heavy Sandstorms (+SS) or Heavy Dust storms (+DS) reported, or ii. Reported visibilities below 600m or as per approach visibility requirements, whichever is greater.

Answer 70

Arrivals Arriving B737-800, B737-700 (both outside 4 DME) if following a: • B747/B748/B787/A380 – 5 nm gap, 3 mins non radar; • B757–4nmgap; • B737 – No min wake turbulence gap. Departures Departing Criteria: • The same runway; • Parallel runways separated by less than 760 m (2,500 ft); • Crossing runways if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1,000 ft) below; • Parallel runways separated by 760 m (2,500 ft) or more, if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1,000 ft) below. ``` Departing B737-800 from same position on a runway if following a: • A380 – 3 mins; • B747/B748/B787 – 2 minutes; • B757 – No min wake turbulence gap; • B737 – No min wake turbulence gap. ``` Departing B737-800 from an intermediate holding point/intersection take-off if following; • B744/B748/B787 (from full length) – 3 mins; • B757 (from full length) – No min wake turbulence gap; • B737 – No min wake turbulence gap. A separation minimum of 4 minutes shall be applied for a B737-800 aircraft when taking off behind an A380 aircraft from: • An intermediate part of the same runway; or • An intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m (2,500 ft).

Answer 71

One qualified pilot shall be in the flight deck during fuelling operations with passengers on board. This pilot shall be capable of handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection and fire-fighting, handling communications and initiating and directing an evacuation. The following are the minimum egress requirements: 1. Aircraft equipped with automatic inflatable slides; 2. The main door normally used for passenger disembarkation open, clear of obstructions and manned; 3. Loading bridge, gangway, or passenger or internal aircraft steps in position at the aircraft door; 4. Rear exit doors closed or, if open, passenger steps positioned at the open door; 5. The areas beneath all exit doors clear of obstructions; and 6. Aisle to be kept clear, except for passengers embarking or disembarking with their carry-on luggage.

Answer 72

The Flight Director system shall not be switched off when serviceable during flight operations. Crews are reminded that Flight Directors are to be used in all phases of flight unless it is directed to be turned off by procedure or checklist, and that flight director OFF flying for the maintaining of pilot proficiency practice shall NOT be practiced during line operations. Procedures for re-engaging of AFDS automation is provided in FCOM Vol 1. The Flight Director system shall not be switched off when serviceable during flight operations.

Answer 73

It is also recognised that “hand flying” the aircraft is a required skill and Commanders, having due consideration to workload and environmental conditions, are authorised to allow pilots to hand fly the aircraft in controlled airspace below FL245. Practice hand flying is prohibited in the following circumstances: • Thunderstorm activity • Towering cumulus activity • Areas of known or forecast windshear • Areas affected by gale warning • TMAs • While any Non Normal procedure is in progress when the autopilot is available and it is appropriate to use it.

Answer 74

For an LVTO with a Runway Visual Range (RVR) below 400 m the criteria specified in Table 13 LVTO – aeroplanes; For an LVTO with an RVR below 150 m but not less than 125 m: * High intensity runway centre line lights spaced 15 m or less apart and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less apart that are in operation; * A 90 m visual segment that is available from the flight crew compartment at the start of the take-off run; and * The required RVR value is achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points; or

Answer 75

1. Multiple failures of runway lights other than indicated in Table 7 are not acceptable; 2. Deficiencies of approach and runway lights are treated separately; 3. For CAT II and CAT III operations, a combination of deficiencies in runway lights and RVR assessment equipment are not permitted; and 4. Failures other than ILS affect RVR only and not DH.

Answer 76

For operations to actual RVR values less than 300 m, in the event of an autopilot failure at or below DH a missed approach shall be executed.

Answer 77

Practice CAT II/III approaches are permitted to unprotected runways, with visibility 1,500 m or greater and ceiling 500 ft or higher, including at night. Verify all Landing Distance Required for all practice autolands. During a practice approach, system malfunction in itself does not require a Go-Around. In a practise CAT II/III approach the captain may decide to take over manually and land provided the approach can be continued safely.

Answer 78

Take-off: 125 m RVR Landing CAT II 100 ft RA/300 m RVR Landing CAT III 50 ft RA/200 m RVR

Answer 79

1. Malta Air has been approved for CAT II (100 ft DA, 300 m RVR) and CAT IIIA (50 ft DA, 200 m RVR). 2. Max. headwind component: 25 kts. 3. Max crosswind component: 20 kts. 4. Max tailwind component: 10 kts. 5. Dual Channel Approach. 6. Two engine approach, flaps 30/40. 7. No reported windshear. 8. Glideslope capture by 1500 ft AAL. 9. Mid-point RVR 125 m, and stop end RVR 75 m. 10. The Flight Crew consists of 2 qualified flight crew members (LHS/RHS).

Answer 80

The significant addition to CAT I systems are the supplementary approach lights on the inner 300 metres (red barrettes), and the touchdown zone lighting. The inner 300 m (1,000 ft) of the HIALS is supplemented with red approach barrettes. Their colour indicates clearly the pre-threshold area. The lateral dimensions of the red barrettes is the same as the white touchdown zone lights. Between the two there is a full width green bar marking the runway threshold. Stop-end lighting: To indicate that the aircraft is coming towards the end of the runway during the stopping roll, at 910 m (3,000 ft) from the stop-end, the centreline lights are alternatively red and white, and for the last 300 m (1,000 ft) they become red only. Approach lighting system patterns are shown in the reference of the Navtec Route Manual

Answer 81

...any decision to continue the flight is subject to pilot judgement and good airmanship. It is prudent for the commander to refer to the MEL before any decision to continue the flight is taken. It is prudent to review the MEL as unservicabilities arise to ensure the most expeditious access to Maintenance. This frequently includes interaction with Maintrol during flight, relayed by ATC or handling agents enroute

Answer 82

The commander shall ensure that flight crew members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft for a period of more than 30 minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13,000 ft.

Answer 83

All Malta Air aircraft are equipped with protective breathing equipment (PBE) to protect the eyes, nose and mouth and to provide oxygen for a period of at least 15 minutes and their locations are indicated in the SEP Manual. (e) Quick donning masks on Malta Air aircraft facilitate flight crew interphone system and radio communications (CAT.IDE.A.170, 330).

Answer 84

Malta Air shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 unless a public address system is installed. The public address system required by this paragraph must: 1. Operate independently of the interphone systems except for handsets, headsets, microphones, selector switches and signalling devices; 2. Be readily accessible for immediate use from each required Flight Crew member station; 3. For each required floor level passenger emergency exit which has an adjacent cabin crew seat, have a microphone which is readily accessible to the seated cabin crew member, except that one microphone may serve more than one exit, provided the proximity of the exits allows unassisted verbal communication between seated cabin crew members; 4. Be capable of operation within 10 seconds by a cabin crew member at each of those stations in the compartment from which its use is accessible; and 5. Be audible and intelligible at all passenger seats, toilets and cabin crew seats and work stations.

Answer 85

Having encountered birds, the question to be answered is “what is the damage to the aircraft and what effect will this have on the safe conduct of the flight?”. The full extent of any damage, to the engines and/or the control surfaces and landing gear, may not be apparent until applying power, configuring, or manoeuvring the aircraft. It might therefore be the case that, if a go-around is initiated, the pilot rapidly finds himself in a situation where the runway is disappearing beneath him but the aircraft cannot safely fly the missed approach procedure. Therefore, in the above scenario, it is advisable to continue the approach to land.

Answer 86

Having seen the birds, the question to be answered is “if a go-around is initiated, how likely is it that the aircraft will avoid a bird strike?” There are two matters to consider. Firstly, when a flock of birds perceives a threat, it typically moves upwards, potentially into the path of the aircraft initiating a go-around. Secondly, the greater the engine thrust, the greater the damage caused by ingesting birds – it is probable that less damage will be caused if the birds are hit while engines are at low speed or idle. Therefore, in the scenario described above, unless a go-around can be achieved with a responsible degree of confidence that the aircraft will not hit birds, it is less hazardous to continue that approach to land.

Answer 87

Radius of turn required for a controlled turn is 15nm at or below FL 190 and 22.5 nm at or above FL 200. 10 deg bank at or above FL 300 satisfies the 22.5 nm radius of turn requirement.

Answer 88

``` 1. Flight deck advised by Cabin Crew. Give: • Age. • Sex. • Chief complaint. • Level of consciousness. ``` Note: This allows medics to take the correct equipment to the passenger/patient and minimise any delay in the treatment or management of their condition once on the ground. 2. PAN × 3, inform ATC that “MEDICAL SERVICES” are required. ATC may assign a discrete frequency. In this case PM deals with discrete frequency, PF has control of the aircraft and operational ATC. 3. ATC will usually seek a report on the patient, this information may be passed to medical professionals, e.g. MEDAIRE. A VHF patch on discrete frequency may be established to enable crew to receive professional medical advice. 4. Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport. In this context the Malta Air/ Ryanair Group network in Europe is extensive and resourced to deal with these events. The most suitable airport is a Malta Air/Ryanair Group Base, followed by a Malta Air/Ryanair Group destination. If neither of these is in equivalent proximity to other suitable airports then consider the closest reasonably large airport. It is probably prudent to avoid very large airports especially those which the crews are fundamentally unfamiliar. 5. Consider the level of medical service likely to be available, estimated time to landing (including direct routings from ATC). Consider crew familiarity with the intended destination. It may be quicker to fly a little farther to a familiar destination than to take a short cut to an unfamiliar airport. 6. The flight shall continue to be conducted at all times in accordance with the terms of the OM(A) and FCOM Vol I. A Medical emergency shall not be considered a reason to rush an approach or deviate from Malta Air SOP. 7. When time and operational conditions permit, the Flight Crew shall, after landing, confirm with the Tower that the medical services have been alerted. 8. It is likely the patient has consumed oxygen and this may need to be replenished prior to next departure. 9. When the aircraft arrives at the stand CSS shall make a PA requiring all passengers to remain seated so that the paramedic can access the aircraft and commence treatment on the passenger/patient. Disembarkation can commence via exits not involving the medics/patient.

Answer 89

Where a passenger is pronounced dead on board (by a Doctor/Nurse) the decision for the crew is to return to departure point, divert or continue to destination. Operational experience shows that returning to departure point or continuing to destination provide the best level of support for family members. Diverting to an alternate will require the deceased passenger to be disembarked along with traveling companion at a location that was not part of any travel arrangements and can lead to additional stress at what will be inevitably a difficult time for passengers and crew.

Answer 90

1. The PIC will take a picture of the NOTOC using the company EFB. 2. The picture of the NOTOC will be emailed to dubops@ryanair.com If the journey is multi sector then a new NOTOC will be produced prior to the commencement of each sector detailing all new and transit loads. One copy must be left at the departure Station. Note: At non-scheduled stops a new NOTOC need not be issued if the Dangerous Goods on the aircraft has not been altered and the incoming Commander will command the outgoing flight. This information must include the following: a. The date of the flight; b. The air waybill number (when issued); c. The proper shipping name (the technical name(s) shown on the dangerous goods transport document is not required) and UN Number or ID number; d. The class or division, and subsidiary hazard(s) corresponding to the subsidiary hazard label(s) applied, by numerals, and (in the case of Class 1) the compatibility group; e. The packing group shown on the dangerous goods transport document; f. The number of packages and their exact loading location. For radioactive material see (g) below; g. The net quantity, or gross mass if applicable, of each package, except that this does not apply to radioactive material or other dangerous goods where the net quantity or gross mass is not required on the dangerous goods transport document. For a consignment consisting of multiple packages containing dangerous goods bearing the same proper shipping name and UN number, only the total quantity and an indication of the quantity of the largest and smallest package at each loading location need to be provided; h. For radioactive material, the number of packages, overpacks or freight containers, their category, their Transport Index (if applicable) and their exact loading location; i. Whether the package must be carried on cargo aircraft only; j. The aerodrome at which the package(s) is to be unloaded; k. Where applicable, an indication that the dangerous goods are being carried under a State exemption; and l. Signed confirmation, or some other indication, from the person responsible for loading the aircraft that there was no evidence of any damage to or leakage from the packages or any leakage from the unit load devices loaded on the aircraft. On the completion of the flight the commander will present the dangerous goods documentation to the dispatcher and confirm their location. Should the aircraft not be met on arrival by ground staff then the commander will place the dangerous goods paperwork with the dangerous goods. Where possible commanders should ensure that the dangerous goods are removed from the

Answer 91

If an in-flight emergency occurs and the situation permits, the commander must inform the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit of any dangerous goods on board. This information should include the proper shipping name, class/division, identified subsidiary hazard(s), compatibility group for explosives, quantity and location on board.

Answer 92

Dangerous goods accident: An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property or environmental damage. Dangerous goods incident: An occurrence other than a dangerous goods accident associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property or environmental damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants is also deemed to be a dangerous goods incident.

Answer 93

Malta Air espouses a ‘Just Culture’ in the interests of the ongoing development of flight safety. This means that Malta Air supports the development, within all areas of the organisation, of a culture in which: * Individuals are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience and training but which result in a reportable event; but * Where gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated. This position is in line with Regulation (EU) No 376/2014.

Answer 94

An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked in which: 1. A person fatally or seriously injured as a result of: • Being in the aircraft; or • Direct contact with any part of the aircraft including parts which have become detached from the aircraft; or • Direct exposure to jet blast. Except when the injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas available to the passengers and crew; or 2. The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which: • Adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and • Would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Except for engine failure or damage when the damage is limited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories, or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or punctures, holes in the aircraft skin; or 3. The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible. Note: For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death within thirty days of the date of the accident is classified as a fatal injury. An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been terminated and the wreckage has not been located.

Answer 95

An injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which: 1. Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days from the date the injury was received; or 2. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); or 3. Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage; or 4. Involves injury to any internal organ; or 5. Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface; or 6. Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation.

Answer 96

An occurrence, other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft or could affect the safety of operation.

Answer 97

An accident involving circumstances indicating that there was a high probability of an accident, and associated with the operation of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked. Note: The difference between an accident and a serious accident lies in the result.

Answer 98

An Occurrence means any safety-related event which endangers or which, if not corrected or addressed, could endanger an aircraft, its occupants or any other person and includes in particular an accident or serious incident. Malta Air/ Ryanair Group personnel are required to report any event (Occurrence) that happens while they are on duty.

Answer 99

1. Avoidance manoeuvres: a. ) Risk of collision with another aircraft, terrain or other object or an unsafe situation when avoidance action would have been appropriate; b. ) An avoidance manoeuvre required to avoid a collision with another aircraft, terrain or other object; c. ) An avoidance manoeuvre to avoid other unsafe situations. 2. Take-off or landing incidents, including precautionary or forced landings. Incidents such as under-shooting, overrunning or running off the side of runways. Take-offs, rejected take-offs, landings or attempted landings on a closed, occupied or incorrect runway, Runway incursions. 3. Inability to achieve predicted performance during take-off or initial climb. 4. Critically low fuel quantity or inability to transfer fuel or use total quantity of usable fuel. 5. Loss of control (including partial or temporary) regardless of cause. 6. Occurrences close to or above V1 resulting from or producing a hazardous or potentially hazardous situation (e.g. rejected take-off, tail strike, engine- power loss, etc.). 7. Go around producing a hazardous or potentially hazardous situation. 8. Unintentional significant deviation from airspeed, intended track or altitude (more than 300 ft) regardless of cause. 9. Descent below decision height/altitude or minimum descent height/altitude without the required visual reference. 10. Loss of position awareness relative to actual position or to other aircraft. 11. Breakdown in communication between flight crew “CRM” (crew resource management) or between flight crew and other parties (cabin crew, ATC [air traffic control] engineering). 12. Heavy landing – a landing deemed to require a “heavy landing check”. 13. Exceedance of fuel imbalance limits. 14. Incorrect setting of an “SSR” (Secondary Surveillance Radar) code or of an altimeter subscale. 15. Incorrect programming of, or erroneous entries into, equipment used for navigation or performance calculations, or use of incorrect data. 16. Incorrect receipt or interpretation of radio-telephony messages. 17. Fuel system malfunctions or defects, which had an effect on fuel supply and/or distribution. 18. Aircraft unintentionally departing from a paved surface. 19. Collision between an aircraft and any other aircraft, vehicle or other ground object. 20. Inadvertent and/or incorrect operation of any controls. 21. Inability to achieve the intended aircraft configuration for any flight phase (e.g. landing gear and gear doors, flaps, stabilisers, slats, etc.). 22. A hazard or potential hazard which arises as a consequence of any deliberate simulation of failure conditions for training, system checks or training purposes. 23. Abnormal vibration. 24. Operation of any primary warning system associated with manoeuvring the aircraft e.g. configuration warning, stall warning (stick shaker), over-speed warning etc. unless: a. The crew conclusively established that the indication was false and provided that the false warning did not result in difficulty or hazard arising from the crew response to the warning; or b. Operated for training or test purposes. 25. “GPWS” (Ground Proximity Warning System)/”TAWS” (Terrain Awareness and Warning System) “warning” when: a. The aircraft comes into closer proximity to the ground than had been planned or anticipated; or b. The warning is experienced in instrument meteorological conditions or at night and is established as having been triggered by a high rate of descent (mode 1); or c. The warning results from failure to select landing gear or landing flaps by the appropriate point on the approach (mode 4); or d. Any difficulty or hazard arises or might have arisen as a result of crew response to the “warning” e.g. possible reduced separation from other traffic. This could include warning of any mode or type i.e. genuine, nuisance or false. 26. EGPWS aural cautions TERRAIN, CAUTION TERRAIN and CAUTION OBSTACLE. 27. Pitch-up upset events/false glideslope capture. 28. An event leading to the declaration of “Minimum Fuel”. 29. PBN Operational events. Technical defects and the exceedance of technical limitations, including: a. significant navigation errors attributed to incorrect data or a database coding error; b. unexpected deviations in lateral/vertical flight path not caused by flight crew input or erroneous operation of equipment; c. significant misleading information without a failure warning; d. total loss or multiple navigation equipment failure; and e. loss of integrity, e.g. RAIM function, whereas integrity was predicted to be available during preflight planning. Emergencies 1. Fire, explosion, smoke or toxic or noxious fumes, even though fires were extinguished. 2. The use of any non-standard procedure by the flight or cabin crew to deal with an emergency when: a. The procedure exists but is not used; b. The procedure does not exist; c. The procedure exists but is incomplete or inappropriate; d. The procedure is incorrect; e. The incorrect procedure is used. 3. Inadequacy of any procedures designed to be used in an emergency, including when being used for maintenance, training or test purposes. 4. An event leading to an emergency evacuation. 5. Depressurisation. 6. The use of any emergency equipment or prescribed emergency procedures in order to deal with a situation. 7. An event leading to the declaration of an emergency (“Mayday” or “PAN”). 8. Failure of any emergency system or equipment, including all exit doors and lighting, to perform satisfactorily, including when being used for maintenance, training or test purposes. 9. Events requiring any use of emergency oxygen by any crew member. Crew Incapacitation Incapacitation of any member of the flight crew, including that which occurs prior to departure if it is considered that it could have resulted in incapacitation after take-off. Incapacitation of any member of the cabin crew which renders them unable to perform essential emergency duties. Injury Occurrences which have or could have led to significant injury to passengers or crew but which are not considered reportable as an accident. This applies from the point when the affected passenger or crew member (with the intention of flight) steps into the aircraft until the point where the passenger or crew member disembarks from the aircraft, and at all times in between whilst they are in the aircraft. It does not apply to passenger or crew injuries sustained outside of the aircraft, which shall be notified to the Health and Safety Officer in Malta Air, contact details available from Malta Air Operations. Severe Met Conditions 1. A lightning strike which resulted in damage to the aircraft or loss or malfunction of any essential service. 2. A hail strike which resulted in damage to the aircraft or loss or malfunction of any essential service. 3. Severe turbulence encounter, an encounter resulting in injury to occupants or deemed to require a “turbulence check” of the aircraft. 4. A windshear encounter. 5. Icing encounter resulting in handling difficulties, damage to the aircraft or loss or malfunction of any essential service. Security 1. Unlawful interference with the aircraft including a bomb threat or hijack. 2. Difficulty in controlling intoxicated, violent or unruly passengers. 3. Discovery of a stowaway. Other Occurrences 1. Repetitive instances of a specific type of occurrence which in isolation would not be considered “reportable” but which due to the frequency with which they arise, form a potential hazard. 2. A bird strike which resulted in damage to the aircraft or loss or malfunction of any essential service. 3. Wake-turbulence encounters, regardless of the effect on the aircraft, shall be reported. 4. Targeting of an aircraft with a laser or high-powered light. 5. Any other occurrence of any type considered to have endangered or which might have endangered the aircraft or its occupants on board the aircraft or persons on the ground. 6. A fire, explosion, smoke or toxic/noxious fumes. 7. Failure or defect of passenger address system resulting in loss of, or inaudible. 8. Passenger address system. 9. Loss of pilot seat control during flight. Propulsion and Auxiliary Power Units (APUs) 1. Flameout, shutdown or malfunction of any engine. 2. Overspeed or inability to control the speed of any high-speed rotating component (for example: APU, air starter, air cycle machine, air turbine motor). 3. Failure or malfunction of any part of an engine or powerplant resulting in any one or more of the following: a. Non-containment of components/debris; b. Uncontrolled internal or external fire, or hot gas breakout; c. Thrust in a direction different from that demanded by the pilot; d. Thrust-reversing system failing to operate or operating inadvertently; e. Inability to control power, thrust or revolutions per minute; f. Failure of the engine mount structure; g. Partial or complete loss of a major part of the powerplant; h. Dense visible fumes or concentrations of toxic products sufficient to incapacitate crew or passengers; i. Inability, by use of normal procedures to shutdown an engine; j. Inability to restart a serviceable engine. 4. An uncommanded thrust/power loss, change or oscillation which is classified as a Loss Of Thrust or power Control (LOTC). 5. Any defect in a life-controlled part causing its withdrawal before completion of its full life. (Safety and Security Manager/Engr function.) 6. Defects of common origin which could cause an in-flight shut-down rate so high that there is the possibility of more than one engine being shut down on the same flight. (Safety and Security Manager/Engr Function). 7. An engine limiter or control device failing to operate when required or operating inadvertently. 8. Exceedance of engine parameters. 9. Foreign Objects Damage (FOD). Human Factors Any incident where any feature or inadequacy of the aircraft design could have led to an error of use that could contribute to a hazardous or catastrophic effect. Ground Services and Facilities Aerodrome and Aerodrome Facilities 1. Significant spillage during fuelling operations. 2. Loading of incorrect fuel quantities likely to have a significant effect on aircraft endurance, performance, balance or structural strength. 3. Failure or significant deterioration of aerodrome aircraft operating surfaces. Handling of Passengers, Baggage and Cargo 1. Significant contamination of aircraft structure, systems and equipment arising from the carriage of baggage or cargo. 2. Incorrect loading of passengers, baggage or cargo, likely to have a significant effect on aircraft mass and/or balance. 3. Incorrect stowage of baggage or cargo (including hand baggage) likely in any way to endanger the aircraft, its equipment or occupants or to impede emergency evacuation. 4. Inadequate stowage of cargo containers or other substantial items of cargo. 5. Carriage or attempted carriage of dangerous goods in contravention of applicable regulations, including incorrect labelling and packaging of dangerous goods.

Answer 100

Windshear encountered on take-off or approach must be reported to ATC immediately by R/T if considered a hazard giving details of height and severity. Severe windshear is considered to be uncontrollable changes from normal steady flight conditions below 1000 AGL, in excess of the following: • 15 kts indicated airspeed. • 500 fpm vertical speed. • 5° pitch attitude. • 1 dot displacement from the glideslope/glidepath. • Unusual thrust levels for a significant period of time. Occasional – less than 1/3 of the time. Intermittent – 1/3 to 2/3 of the time. Continuous – more than 2/3 of the time.

Answer 101

Bird Strikes and Hazards The Commander shall immediately inform ATC whenever a potential bird hazard is observed. Bird strikes must be reported by completing a ASR ‘Bird Strike’ and there is no need to fill in any NAA or other national reporting forms.

Answer 102

Levels of turbulence are defined as: Light: Slight changes in attitude or altitude or changes in IAS of 5–15 kts. • ‘Light Chop’: Slight bumpiness without changes in attitude, altitude or IAS. Occupants may feel a slight strain against seat belts though no difficulty is encountered in walking. Moderate: Turbulence that is similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity, changes in attitude and or altitude occur, IAS fluctuates 16–25 kts but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. • ‘Moderate Chop’: Turbulence that is similar to light chop but of greater intensity causing rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude. Occupants feel definite strain against seat belts or shoulder harness. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. Severe: Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in attitude or altitude. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control. IAS fluctuates by more than 25 kts. Occupants are forced against seat belts or shoulder harness. Unsecured objects are tossed about. Food service and walking are impossible. Severe turbulence must be reported to ATC giving position, time (GMT), FL/ Altitude, A/C type, intensity, in or near cloud and duration. A ASR must be filed and a techlog entry made. The techlog page reference will be included in the ASR to facilitate Engr admin.

Answer 103

Malta Air operates a “NO BLAME” policy with regard to go-arounds. When a go-around has commenced above 1000 ft AGL a report is not needed unless deemed necessary by the commander. Where a go around commenced below 1000 ft AGL an ASR shall be completed by the commander and subsequently the First Officer will complete a report as well.

Answer 104

Diversion Malta Air requires operational reports to assess the nature of diversions, and the effectiveness of Malta Air SOPs and operations control in handling them. An ASR shall be filed by the commander following any diversion, providing comprehensive details on the circumstances and the decision making process. A specific report can be accessed by typing “diversion” into the event description box and then choosing the diversion category from the drop down menu. The information contained in your report is often required by our customer standards department when answering customer inquiry’s in relation to same. In the report, the cause of the diversion whether technical, operational, medical or weather related and the reasoning behind the PIC decision/action shall be documented in detail. The following should be included: • For weather related events, full details of the weather conditions (AIRMET, SIGMET, METAR, TAF, NOTAMs, etc.) including approach minima at the time of diversion. • For operational event the reason for the diversion should include any ops control inputs at the time that affected the decision to divert. • For medical events include whether the diversion was on the advice of a medical practitioner on board the aircraft. • For technical events include any QRH actions taken, or MEL reference if required, if Maintrol was contacted and if they instructed a diversion, if a tech log entry is made ensure you include the technical log page number in the ASR.

Answer 105

Malta Air shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which, with reference to a time scale, records: 1. Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio; 2. The aural environment of the flight deck, including without interruption, the audio signals received from each boom and mask microphone in use; 3. Voice communications of Flight Crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane’s interphone system; 4. Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker; and 5. Voice communications of Flight Crew members on the flight deck using the public address system. The cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last two hours of its operation. The cockpit voice recorder must start automatically to record prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power and continue to record until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power. In addition, depending on the availability of electrical power, the cockpit voice recorder must start to record as early as possible during the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight until the cockpit checks immediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight. The cockpit voice recorder must have a device to assist in locating that recorder in water. The CVR is selected ON in accordance with FCOM Vol 1 procedures for first flight and when the beacon light is switched OFF after ENG Shut Down on stand for the turnaround and subsequent sector. Note: Power interruptions, e.g. GPU to APU frequently causes the CVR to switch off. PF shall ensure the CVR is operating after power transfer prior to engine start.

Answer 106

1. Any flight where a MAYDAY is declared. 2. Emergency Descent declared. 3. Runway Incursion. 4. Aural EGPWS Warning after landing gate. 5. Altitude Bust (Pull CVR CB asap after next landing). 6. Take off Configuration Warning (TOC) for Flaps or STAB TRIM not in take-off position. 7. Engine failure or shutdown in flight. 8. Prolonged Loss of Communications (PLOC). 9. Controlled flight into terrain only marginally avoided including any aural EGPWS PULL UP Warning. 10. Aborted take-off on a closed runway or occupied runway. 11. Take-off on a closed or occupied runway (vehicle, aircraft or person). 12. Landing or attempted landing on a closed or occupied runway. 13. Gross failures to achieve predicted performance during take-off or initial climb. 14. Fire and smoke in passenger compartment, in cargo compartments or engine fires, even though such fires were extinguished by use of extinguishing agents. 15. Flight crew incapacitation in flight. 16. Events requiring the emergency use of oxygen by the Flight Crew. 17. Multiple malfunctions of one or more aircraft systems seriously affecting the operation of the aircraft. 18. Fuel quantity requiring the declaration of an emergency by the pilot. 19. Take-off or landing incidents. Incidents such as undershooting, overrunning or running of the side of the runways. 20. Aircraft structural failures or engine disintegrations not classified as an accident. 21. Failures of more than one system in a redundancy system mandatory for flight guidance and navigation. 22. System failures, weather phenomena, operations outside the approved flight envelope or other occurrences which could have caused difficulties controlling the aircraft. 23. Any other incident where a Commander believes that CVR data would be useful in any subsequent investigation. 24. Near collisions requiring an avoidance manoeuvre to avoid a collision or an unsafe situation or when an avoidance action would have been appropriate (it is not intended to pull the CVR CB for TCAS or RA in the normal use of these systems). 25. Stick shaker event. 26. Pitch-up upset events/false glideslope capture. 27. EGPWS aural cautions TERRAIN, CAUTION TERRAIN and CAUTION OBSTACLE. Note: Additionally, where take-off has commenced and a TOC warning is activated because of incorrectly configured flaps or stabiliser trim the aircraft will return and the CVR CB must be pulled. Maintrol must be contacted in the first instance and following their Instructions the CVR CB shall be pulled and an entry made in the Tech Log. Following any of the incidents above, the Commander shall pull the CVR circuit breaker and advise Operations Dublin of the incident and CVR action.

Answer 107

The decision to retain the CVR data or to dispatch following such incident can only be made following consultation with one of the FOPS personnel listed below: • NPFO or his nominated management pilots. • Safety and Security Manager. On the ground, the CVR CB shall be pulled following any of the incidents listed above when the following actions are completed: • The aircraft has come to a complete stop; • The parking brake set; • If appropriate, all Non-Normal checks complete; • Where the decision is made to leave the aircraft electrically powered during passenger evacuation; • Aircraft recovery is being effected.