General Defences Flashcards

1
Q

How may D escape liability in general?

A
  1. Denying an offence element such as intention or voluntariness (i.e. defences of mistake/intoxication).
  2. Confessing elements but pleading to a defence (i.e. private defence, duress, provocation)

Can argue as alternative defences even if they are inconsistent with one another [Mas Swan bin Adnan].

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2
Q

3 exculpatory defences?

A
  1. D denies personal responsibility for what had occurred: Mistake of fact, accident, sane automatism.
  2. Defences of compulsion: Offence elements proven, but broader context in which the conduct had transpired in, offers a justification or an excuse which negates criminal responsibility: Consent, private defence, duress necessity, provocation, sudden fight.
  3. Mental impairment: Unsoundness of mind, intoxication, insane automatism, diminished responsibility.
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3
Q

Generally, justifications focus on the act, while excuses focus on the actor.

A

Justification: D acknowledges his responsibility for the harmful conduct but contends that it was done in circumstances which made the conduct rightful in the eyes of society.

Excuses: D admits that the conduct is wrong, but a characteristic of the actor which is tested by the threatened danger makes it inappropriate for society to punish him.

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4
Q

S 6 read with S 40(2) PC

A

General defences apply to all offences both within PC and under other statutes unless specifically excluded by a statute.

Excludes Arms and Offences Act (s4A), Penal Code (commercial sex) and Women’s Charter (s140(4)): exclusion of defence of mistake of fact (s79 PC) for adults.

Mistake of fact defence not available to any person above 21, and only available to persons below 21 if charged for first time.

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5
Q

5 defences to allegation of crime?

A
  1. Bare denial: D says he didn’t do it.
  2. Alibi Defence: D says that he is somewhere else at the time the defence is committed; to which he must give notice of his alibi defence and produce sufficient evidence.
  3. Procedural Defence: e.g. Double jeopardy, violation of constitutional rights, diplomatic immunity.
  4. Deny the AR or MR of the offence: trial geared towards showing that the ingredients of the offence do not exist
    - i.e. Witnesses do not measure up to proof; inconsistency in testimony; or insufficient evidence.
  5. Raise defences provided in a statute: This includes defences under Chapter IV PC or the special defences in s300 PC.
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6
Q

S 107 EA: D only needs to prove defence on a balance of probabilities -
Eu Lim Hok Lai v PP [2011] 3 SLR 167, SGCA

A

D convicted of murder under s300(c) PC. V had knife in hand and was dead. D was found with 9 stab wounds, survived. PP said D strangled V with no struggle. TJ did not rule out that D’s wounds were caused by V, but based decision on D’s confession that he strangled V.

D argued the following defences:

  1. Private defence under s96 PC and under Exception 2 of s300 PC;
  2. Sudden fight under Exception 4 of s300 PC; or
  3. Provocation under Exception 1 of s300 PC.

Held: PP had also not proved beyond reasonable doubt that D’s wounds were self-inflicted.

BOD must be given to D. D’s conviction for murder was set aside, and found guilty of CHNM s299 PC.

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7
Q

S 107 EA: D only needs to prove defence on a balance of probabilities -
Jayasena v Queen [1970] AC 618, PC

A

D, convicted of murder, contended on appeal that the TJ had wrongly directed jury on burden of proof. D admitted that V died of wounds deliberately inflicted by D, defence was that he was acting in self-defence.

Held: The defence bears the legal burden of proof for a general or specific exception of the PC.

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8
Q

S 103 EA: PP must prove beyond reasonable doubt -

J.A.H.N Gamini and Anor v PP [2011] 3 SLR 689

A

Starting point for TJ: D is presumed innocent until PP has discharged its Burden of Proof (as per Jagatheesan).

Reasonable doubt can also arise by virtue of the lack of evidence submitted.

In a criminal case, the court may find V’s story to be more probable than D’s, and, yet, be convinced that there is a reasonable possibility that D’s story could be true. If so, the court’s duty is to acquit. Note that focus is not in determining which of the two stories is more plausible.

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9
Q

Gen Defences in Strict Liability vs Absolute Liability?

A

SL: Can plead general defence.

AL: Cannot plead general defence.

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10
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR)

[2019 Amendment:
Deleted “without any criminal intention or knowledge”.
Added definition of “lawful act”.]

A

Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner, by lawful means, and with proper care and caution.

Lawful act: any act which is not an offence under this Code or any written law.

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11
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):
Stephen’s definition of Accident?

(Stephen, Digest of Criminal Law, 3rd Ed, 1883)

A

“an effect is said to be accidental when

  1. “the act by which it is caused is not done with the intention of causing it, and
  2. “when its occurrence as a consequence of such act is not so probable that a person of ordinary prudence ought, under the circumstances in which it is done, to take reasonable precautions against it”.

Note the higher the foreseeability of the consequence occurring, the greater the precautions that will be expected of the actor to avoid the consequence.

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12
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):

Accident vs Mistake?

A

Accident requires ‘proper care and attention’.

Mistake requires ‘in good faith’.

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13
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):

Cannot apply to offences with subjective mental states or negligence, BUT

A
  1. Can apply to offences of strict liability: Where PP is not required to prove subjective mental state or negligence.
  2. Can apply to status offence: Criminalises persons for being in a state of affairs rather than for conduct.
    i. e. Possession of drugs under MDA (a person who had a drug planted on him can rely on s80 PC defence to show that he had come to have the drug by accident).
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14
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):

Can be combined with another general defence (but uncommonly applied)

A
  1. Accident and private defence: When force was applied accidentally
  2. Accident and consent
  3. Accident and mistake of fact: Circumstances which caused accused person to misconceive the facts and to act in a certain way (as per Leu Xing-Long v PP (commercial sex with under 18yo))
  4. Accident and sane automatism
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15
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):
Elements -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008] 4 SLR 306, SGCA

A

Held D had no lawful excuse for carrying the gun and entering V’s house. D’s actions were done without proper care and caution, as it could not have been the case that 6 shots misfired.

4 conditions (from s80 PC) had to be fulfilled. The act done by D must be-

  1. Act done by D must be the result of “accident or misfortune”;
  2. Said act must be done “without any criminal intention or knowledge”;
  3. Said act must be lawful, and must be performed “in a lawful manner, by lawful means”; and
  4. Said act must be done “with proper care and caution”.
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16
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):
Elements - Accident and Misfortune -
Leu Xing-Long v PP [2014]

A

D’s act is intentional, done with reasonable precautions but without criminal intent or knowledge.

Must be the unexpected or unforeseen effect or result of the act that is the accident or misfortune.

** S80 not meant to negate elements in alleged offence.

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17
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):
Elements - Lawful Act/Manner/Means -
Kong Poh Ing v PP [1977] 2 MLJ 199, FC(M)

A

D told V she intended to commit suicide and showed V a knife. V hugged D and told her not to go ahead with the suicide and tried to wrench the knife away. V lost his balance and accidentally fell onto the knife. PP argued that since suicide was a felonious offence, D’s act of stabbing V in the course of committing suicide, even if accidental, could not bring the offence within s80 PC.

Held: s80 PC defence was applicable since D had been performing the lawful act of showing V the knife. There was no criminal intention or knowledge.

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18
Q

Accident (S 80 PC) (No MR):
Elements - Lawful Act/Manner/Means -
Ismail Bin Abdul Rahman v PP [2004] 2 SLR 74, SGCA

A

D discharged 3 bullets, intending to cause injury, at V, a CISCO officer on duty at the material time. V was hit by all 3 rounds and died as a result. A was a former CISCO officer known to V.

Held (CA): Defence not available since D did not possess a valid licence for the revolver at the material time and instantly failed the “lawful act” requirement.

Also distinguish between Accident and doing something accidentally (no defence raised).

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19
Q

Mistake of fact:
S 76 PC

S 79 PC

S 52 PC

A

S 76: Act done where he is bound by law to do it.

S 79: Act done by mistake of fact believing himself justified or bound by law to do it.

S 52: Nothing is done or believed in good faith if done or believed without due care and attention.

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20
Q

Mistake of fact:

Can serve as justification for the act?

A

Yes, where D believes that he was bound or justified by law to commit the act.

NOT meant to negate MR as mistake is considered after the offence is established (i.e. effect of negating MR is merely a side effect of the defence).

Mistake applies to strict liability offences [Tan Khee Wah Iris v PP].

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21
Q

Mistake of fact:

Elements?

A
  1. Must be by mistake of fact,
  2. Believes himself justified or bound by law to do it, and
  3. Mistake was believed in by him in good faith.

Established maxim: Ignorance of law is no excuse (S79A).

Fact is something that can be perceived by the senses.

Exception: Not considered mistake of law if D could not possibly with reasonably diligence know of the existence of the adverse law.

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22
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Must be in good faith” and “Due care and attention” -
Iris Tan Khee Wan v PP [1995] 2 SLR 63

A

D convicted for providing public entertainment without a license (offence under s18(1)(a) of the Public Entertainments Act). Issue was whether she could rely on s79 PC, and whether s18 PEA was a strict liability offence.

Held: Whether mistake was made in good faith ≠ if the mistake was an easy one to make or whether a reasonable person could make the mistake. Rather, whether there was due care and attention.

Even if reasonable person would naturally make the mistake that the night of NYE includes the early hours of NY’s Day, it’s not the mistake they will make if he exercises due diligence and attention.

On the facts, if D had read the whole licence and had given any thought to all of the matter, would have discovered that licence expired. Unfortunate but irrelevant that the licensing officer made the same mistake.

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23
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
Abdullah v R [1954] (SG CA)

A

D charged and convicted with statutory rape under s376 PC. D argued that he thought the girl was above 16, but she was in fact under 14. D claimed that he was “justified by law” because he believed “in good faith” that she was over 16 and appealed that he had reasonable grounds for believing, and did in fact believe that the girl was more than 14. Hence, he was entitled to be acquitted under s79 PC.

Held: Must ascertain if belief is true. If belief is correct, act will always be justified by law.

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24
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
Lim Chin Aik v Queen [1963] MLJ 50, PC

A

D resided in M’sia and commuted to and from SG and M’sia. Subsequently, SG Minister issued an order prohibiting D from entering SG. D then returned to SG and began to live there. 10 days after his return, he was arrested and duly charged and convicted of having entered SG without a valid permit (s6(1) of the Immigration Ordinance). The notice was not brought to D’s attention.

Held: Rejected argument that once the order was made by the minister, it became part of SG law of which ignorance could provide no excuse upon a charge of contravention of the section.

No practical or sensible way D could ascertain whether he was a prohibited person or not.

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25
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
PP v Koo Cheh Yew and Anor [1980] 2 MLJ 235

A

D charged with importing 6 pianos from South Africa in violation of Customs Act 1967. Products from South Africa were then prohibited goods.

Held: Exception to the rule against ignorance of law should not be extended beyond where D could not possibly have known of the existence of the law he had offended against.

Noted that mistake as to the ban on importation goods originating from South Africa is a mistake or ignorance of law and not of fact. Importers knew origin of the goods but admitted ignorance of the statutory ban on the importation of goods from South Africa.

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26
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
PP v Teo Eng Chan [1987] SLR(R) 567 (SG HC)

A

For cases of rape, the mistaken belief of D that the complainant had consented to sexual intercourse must be based on reasonable grounds.

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27
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
Param Nair v PP [2017] 2 SLR 1015, SGCA

A

Burden is on A to establish defence on a balance of probabilities [Teo Eng Chan] (at [110]).

Must show that ‘by reason of a mistake of fact’ A ‘in good faith’ believed A to be justified by law in doing what he did to V. In other words, in believing that V consented.

Nothing is believed ‘in good faith’ if it is believed ‘without due care and attention’ (s52 PC) (at [110]).

Inquiry under s79 PC: A must persuade Court that, having exercised due care and attention, he believed V consented. Has to be determined by having regard to all the circumstances.

On the facts, A had not attempted to show that he had exercised due care and attention in arriving at his belief that V was consenting (at [114]).

On the contrary, it was clear that A had tried to take advantage of V due to her intoxicated state (at [114]).

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28
Q

Mistake of fact:
“Belief that one is bound or justified by law” -
Chinpo Shipping Co Pte Ltd v PP [2017] 4 SLR 983, SGCA

A

A may avail itself through mistake of fact by a person who has acted in good faith having exercised due care and attention to avoid the mistake.

Mistake of fact is of general application to offences under all written laws in SG pursuant to s40(2) PC (at [55]).

On the facts, this defence was not applicable to Chinpo, which made no checks or queries in relation to the transfer.

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29
Q

Intoxication:
S 85 PC

Intoxication when a defence.

A

(1) Except as provided in this section and in section 86, intoxication shall not constitute a defence to any criminal charge.

(2) Defence if by intoxication D, at the time of the act or omission —
(a) did not know what he was doing; or
(b) did not know that such act or omission was wrong (whether wrong by the ordinary standards of reasonable and honest persons or wrong as contrary to law),

and the state of intoxication was caused without the knowledge or against the will of D.

(3) Defence if by intoxication D was of unsound mind per s 84.

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30
Q

Intoxication:
S 85 PC Change in 2019 Reform?

Intoxication when a defence.

A

(2) and (3) added.

Previously,
1. (2) just unawareness that an act/omission is wrong, not against reasonable person std or against law;

  1. (2)(a) Intoxication caused by another person maliciously or negligently turned into condition for defence;
  2. Removed (2)(b) - D was insane, temporarily or otherwise, at the time of such act or omission; and
  3. No reference to s 84.
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31
Q

Intoxication:
S 84 PC

Act of person of unsound mind.

A

No offence if, at the time of doing, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is —
(a) incapable of knowing the nature of the act;

(b) incapable of knowing that what he is doing is wrong (whether wrong by the ordinary standards of reasonable and honest persons or wrong as contrary to law); or
(c) completely deprived of any power to control his actions.

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32
Q

Intoxication:
S 84 PC Change in 2019 Reform?

Act of person of unsound mind.

A

Added:
1. “completely deprived of any power to control his actions”; and

  1. Comparison to reasonable man standards for what act is wrong.
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33
Q

Intoxication:
S 86 PC

Effect of defence of intoxication when established.

A

(1) Where s85 defence is established, then D must be acquitted, except s84 of this Code and ss 251 and 252 of CPC will apply.
(2) Intoxication shall be considered to determine whether D had formed any intention or had any knowledge or belief, specific or otherwise, needed for the offence.
(3) “Intoxication” shall be deemed to include a state produced by narcotics or drugs.

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34
Q

Intoxication:
S 86 PC Change in 2019 Reform?

Effect of defence of intoxication when established.

A

Clarity in (3).

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35
Q

Intoxication:
Meaning -
Jin Yugang v PP [2003] SGCA 22

A

D consumed half a bottle of wine, fought with V. Suddenly, D seen holding a knife and charging at V. D stabbed V who was lying on the ground floor several times. He threw the knife away, kicked V, walked away, then kicked V a few more times.

Held: Did not follow that he was so intoxicated that he didn’t know what he was doing.

On the facts:

  1. D admitted that he was a seasoned drinker;
  2. D stabbed and kicked V, walked away, and came back to kick V. Indicates utter spite and disgust for V; and
  3. D could recount his activities.

** Not fleeing the scene does not indicate intoxication. Although one might be ‘uncontrollable’ at the time of attack, it might be actions of someone who is incensed.

** If intoxication involuntary, but impairment is not that substantial, then s85(2)(a) PC absence of knowledge and s86(2) PC absence of intention is inapplicable.

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36
Q

Intoxication:

3 types?

A

Insane (did not know what he was doing): Ss 84(1)(c), 85(2)(a), 85(3).

Involuntary (another got him drunk): S85(2).

Negating intention: Ss 85(2)(b), 86(2).

37
Q

Intoxication:
Insane -
To prove?

A
  1. D did not know that the conduct was wrong or did not know what he was doing because of involuntary intox; or
  2. D was by reason of intoxication, unsound in mind.
38
Q

Intoxication:
Insane -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008] 4 SLR 306, SGCA

A

Expert witness found that D’s ability to form intention was not impaired and there was no evidence of any alcohol related psychotic processes.

After V was shot, D still had the presence of mind to dispose of the gun and escape to M’sia.

Must show that he had, under the influence of alcohol or other drugs, become so intoxicated that he became “legally” insane, albeit transiently.

39
Q

Intoxication:
Negating Intention -
General?

A

D must have been in such a complete and absolute state of intoxication as to make him incapable of forming the intention as charged [PP v Ong Teng Siew].

Includes voluntary intoxication.

Not applicable to situations of Dutch courage (i.e. where intention to commit is formed before intoxication and intoxication is for the purposes of providing “courage”).

40
Q

Intoxication:
Negating Intention -
Elements?

A

D must show:
1. evidence of his intoxication; and

  1. that the surrounding facts was that he so intoxicated that he could not form the requisite intention. [Unlike in Tan Chor Jin [2008]].
41
Q

Intoxication:
Negating Intention -
Only applicable to crimes of intention, not knowledge -
Balasubramanian Palaniappa Vaiyapuri v PP [2002] 1 SLR(R) 138

A

D charged with s300(d) PC murder. Intoxication negating intention as a defence only available crimes of intention and not available where the MR for the offence is knowledge, as was in the present case.

42
Q

Intoxication:
Negating Intention -
Only applicable to crimes of intention, not knowledge -
Kenneth Fook Mun Lee [2007] 2 MLJ 130

A

D charged with murder under s300(d) PC – “knows that it is so imminently dangerous that it must in all probability cause death…”

If knowledge in s300(d) PC is proved beyond reasonable doubt, intoxication is irrelevant.

Intoxication is only a circumstance to be taken account in proving intention where the mental element of an offence is one of intention, specific or otherwise.

43
Q

Intoxication:
Intoxication and provocation -
PP v Astro bin Jakaria [2010] 3 SLR 862

A

Charged with murder. D claimed that V (a transsexual) performed fellatio on him, then made advances. After D’s refusal and V’s incessant cajoling, a scuffle ensued. V fell off the bed and was lying face down. D tied him up. He intended to only tie V’s mouth, when he left the flat.

Held: Found guilty of CHNM. During cross-ex, D testified that max # of bottles of alcohol he could take “in one go” was 2-3 and that after two bottles, he would not be able to perform his normal functions (D drank 2.5 bottles within 3 hours on that night).

** Contrasted with Seah Kok Meng: D committed murder some 7 hours after drinking.

44
Q

Intoxication:
Intoxication and provocation -
A finding of intoxication does not automatically in itself warrant the operation of the defence of provocation. Need for the semi-objective test that has to be satisfied for this defence as a whole. [Astro bin Jakaria]

A

Exception 1 of s 300:
1. Whether D lost self-control is a finding of fact subjectively determined.

Such finding of fact would only adhere to and reflect reality if D’s state of intoxication is taken into account.

  1. The provocation must have been objectively grave and sudden.

Application of the reasonable man test: Where an ordinary sober person of the same age, sex, characteristics, and situation would affect the gravity of the provocation to make D lose self-control.

45
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

S 84 PC

A

No offence if, at the time of doing, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is —
(a) incapable of knowing the nature of the act;

(b) incapable of knowing that what he is doing is wrong (whether wrong by the ordinary standards of reasonable and honest persons or wrong as contrary to law); or
(c) completely deprived of any power to control his actions.

46
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

Ss 251, 252 CPC

A

S251 CPC: If D acquitted bc of UoM, must state specifically whether he committed the act or not.

S252 CPC: Whenever the finding states that D committed the act, the court before which the trial has been held shall, if that act would but for the incapacity found have constituted an offence, order that person to be kept in safe custody in such place and manner as the court thinks fit.

Minister may order that person to be confined in a psychiatric institution, prison, or other suitable place.

47
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

Burden of proof?

A

On D to prove on balance of probabilities that he is unsound of mind since the law presumes that people are sane unless proven otherwise.

Narrow defence. Must show that D was incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that what he was doing was either wrong or contrary to law at the time of commission of offence.

48
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

Type of proof?

A

Requires expert psychiatric testimony, but ultimately left to the court to make the moral decision and judge whether D is responsible or not. [PP v Han John Han]

Opinion and evidence from doctors and psychiatrists cannot be the final word. [PP v Chia Moh Heng].

49
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

Lim Chwee Soon v PP [1997] 2 SLR 60

A

D committed armed robbery, shot a firearm, caused physical injury. Convicted under s4A of Arms Offences Act. Appeal on whether was either incapable of knowing the nature of his act, or that he was doing what was either wrong or contrary to law by reason of his unsoundness of mind under s84 PC.

Held: Expert psychiatric testimony for the defence was equivocal as to whether D was suffering from unsoundness of mind.

Use of expressions such as “appeared to be exhibiting”, “might be having”, “suggestive of”, “very likely”, “is not inconsistent” conveyed degree of inconclusiveness in the mind of the author.

50
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
YMC criticism on TJ decisions?

[Lim Chwee Soon v PP [1997] 2 SLR 60]

A

Some criticism that TJs do not often explain their pref for medical opinions. Their decisions can be said to be arbitrary.

Suggest to impose the compulsory use of neutral court-appointed clinical experts or creation of a clinical expert tribunal or education of TJ to become as close to being a clinical expert as possible.

51
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:

Elements?

A
  1. At the time of the offence, D was suffering from an unsoundness of mind;
  2. This unsoundness of mind rendered D incapable of knowing the nature of the act; and
  3. D did not know the act or nature of his act was either wrong or contrary to law.
52
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Unsoundness of Mind -
Definition?

A

Question is left to courts after consulting medical experts and clinical evidences.

Mental malfunctioning of such a nature and intensity as to render D completely incapable of knowing the nature of his act or that the act was either wrong or contrary to law.

53
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Unsoundness of Mind -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008]

A

Obiter: requires some degree of permanence.

54
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Unsoundness of Mind -
PP v Rozman bin Jusoh and Anor [1995] 2 SLR 317

A

D convicted of drug-trafficking and pleaded s84 PC on the ground that he was of subnormal intellect.

Held: Subnormal intellect is not UoM for s84 PC; an educationally subnormal person can be criminally culpable for his actions.

D was not “so intellectually disabled as to be incapable of knowing the nature of his act or of discerning that it was wrong or contrary to the law”.

55
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Unsoundness of Mind -
PP v Boon Yu Kai John [2004] 3 SLR 226, SGHC

A

A knowingly transmitted a false message to the police that a person driving a car bearing a specific licence plate was intending to kill one Mdm Tan who was wearing a yellow dress.

Held: Expert evidence held that A was of unsound mind from psychiatric illness that led him to think that it was not wrong or contrary to law to do what he did.

While A knew nature of the act, UoM eradicated the MR element.

56
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Incapable of Knowing -
Lim Chwee Soon v PP [1997]

A

Evidence of planning and execution of armed robbery showed that D was a rational thinking man (so no cognitive incapacity) who knew what he was doing and who knew that what he was doing was wrong.

Took steps to avoid detection before and after demonstrated his thinking.

57
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Incapable of Knowing -
Partial incapacity?

A

Insufficient. Need total cognitive incapacity to understand the nature of his act.

58
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
PP v Rozman bin Jusoh and Anor [1995] 2 SLR 317

A

Supposed to read it conjunctively. CA only required that A knew his act was contrary to law but didn’t explore the option of him knowing that act was wrong.

Effect was that if A knew his act was contrary to law meant total failure of s84.

59
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
PP v Boon Yu Kai John [2004] 3 SLR 226, SGHC

A

A made false police report. PP’s psychiatrist said that A knew the nature of act (i.e. false report), but was of unsound mind (delusional disorder) when he made report such that he believed that it wasn’t contrary to law. A didn’t dispute diagnosis.

Contrast with Rozman bin Jusoh - A did not know it was contrary to law at time of act.

60
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
Criticism of Rozman and Boon Yu Kai John?

A

Neither have thoroughly considered arguments for and against the approaches alluded to. Academics have preferred a disjunctive reading.

YMC: Disjunctive reading makes more logical sense (use of the word “or”).

Conjunctive requirement bound to create artificial distinctions. Counter-intuitive that D must show both since it’s a fictional assumption that normal people know that the act was contrary to the law despite the complexity of the law.

61
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
3 competing interpretations?

A
  1. Exegetical view: Wrong = Contrary To Law
  2. Conjunctive view: Wrong + Contrary To Law
  3. Disjunctive view: Wrong / Contrary To Law
62
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
Exegetical view: Wrong = Contrary To Law

A

If D does not know that it is wrong, he already satisfies both. Applied under the M’Naghten Rules as interpreted by the UK courts.

+es:
1. No scope for divergence between moral and legal aspects of wrong, and thus promotes certainty.

  1. Consistent with the positivistic approach of PC (don’t care what you deem to be morally wrong, as long as it is legally wrong, it is wrong).
  • es:
    1. Assumes that legal and moral aspects are coincidental.
  1. Requiring D to show that he was incapable of knowing that the act was legally wrong is premised on the assumption that normal people know their conduct is contrary to law.
63
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
Conjunctive view: Wrong + Contrary To Law

A

+es:
1. Allows for divergence between the legal and moral aspects

  1. Achieves the same results as exegetical view (ie. knowledge that act is a legal wrong will deprive accused of defence).
  • es:
    1. Much stricter in the absence of the knowledge that it is a legal wrong, D may be deprived of defence if he knows it is a moral wrong.
  1. Singapore courts seem to be advocating it: in Rozman bin Jusoh, the court found that D knew his act was contrary to law, and did not inquire as to whether D knew it was wrong.
64
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Did not know nature of the act, or that it was contrary to law -
Disjunctive view: Wrong / Contrary To Law

A

+es:
1. Follows the literal reading of the PC “either…or”.

  1. Deterrent effect of punishment is useless where either limb in itself is fulfilled.
    E.g., D knew his act was contrary to law but believed it was morally correct would not be deterred, and the better decision would be to require clinical intervention over criminal liability
  2. Counter-intuitive to require both limbs—difficult to meet 2nd limb, given complexity and proliferation of the law, it is a fictional assumption that normal people know that the act was contrary to the law.
  3. Conjunctive requirement bound to create artificial distinctions between legal and moral wrongs.
  • es:
    1. Inconsistent with positivist outlook of the PC —positivists believe that morality and legality are separated so the law should not take into acc individual’s morals (moral stds are subjective and could be pegged to a majority or significant minority).

Rebuttal:
1. Should bear in mind that in most cases, D’s charge is with respect to a crime that is morally wrong in the eyes of most reasonable members of society.

Also, the crux of it is that D was unable to reason about the rightness/wrongness of his conduct, and hence, no person should be convicted for a crime if his mental faculties were so disordered (Simester).

Applied in Aus and advocated by YMC.

65
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Interaction with MR -
Societal protection > Unqualified acquittal

A

If D is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, defence of UoM negates MR where crime requires subjective MR.
E.g. knowledge, intention.

Argued that for crimes which require subjective MR, if s84 defence is made out, D should be granted an unqualified acquittal.

Since UoM negated the MR of the crime (ie. crime not established), there is no need to procure a defence.

BUT submitted that evidence of mental impairment cannot support an argument for the lack of MR due to the need for societal protection. D is likely to repeat his offence since he is inherently insane, and therefore, clinical intervention is required.

66
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Interaction with MR -
Evidence of mental impairment cannot be permitted to support an argument for lack of MR

A

PP v Boon Yu Kai John: A was convicted for knowingly transmitting a false message to the police. Clinical evidence showed A suffered from mild retardation and a delusional disorder. TJ acquitted him on ground that he lacked MR.

Held: On appeal HC held that A should have been acquitted by reason of UoM (S84) because it was the disorder that negated the presence of MR on A’s part. BUT s84 does not operate primarily to negate MR.

Does not negate MR where the crime requires objective MR.
E.g. negligence (where A’s subjective knowledge is immaterial to fault for the offence).

67
Q

Unsoundness of Mind:
Interaction with MR -
So what does s84 operate primarily for?

A

S84 operates primarily by exculpating a person due to lack of capacity to know the nature of the act or that it was either wrong or contrary to law. (Possible for person to lack this capacity and yet possess the requisite fault element).

Rozman bin Jusoh: D had intention to traffic drugs BUT if he could show that he did not know it was wrong or contrary to law, then could be exculpated.

Better for judge to consider MR separate from s84.

68
Q

Duress:
S 94 PC

Unchanged by 2019 reform.

A

Except murder and offences against the State punishable with death, nothing is an offence if:
1. D compelled to do it by threats, which reasonably caused apprehension that instant death to that person or any other will otherwise result;

  1. Provided that D did not of his own accord, or from a reasonable apprehension of harm to himself short of instant death, place himself in the situation by which he became subject to such constraint.
69
Q

Duress:
Elements -
PP v Ng Pen Tine [2009] SGHC 230

A
  1. The harm that D threatened with was death;
  2. Threat was directed at D or other persons which would include any of his family members;
  3. The threat was of ‘instant’ death (note that there might be time afforded by law (i.e. ease to hire a killer));
  4. D reasonably apprehended that the threat would be carried out;
  5. D had not, voluntarily or from a reasonable apprehension of harm to himself short of death, placed himself in that situation.
  6. D has a duty to escape.
70
Q

Duress:
Threat of instant death -
Mohd Sairi bin Suri v PP [1997] SGCA 57, SGCA

A

D convicted and sentenced to death for having in his possession 124.38g of diamorphine for trafficking. D appealed with defence of duress, saying that Joe threatened to harm his family if he did not deliver the drugs.

Held: The defence would not succeed if the threat was that death would be caused at a later date or time. Duress must be imminent, extreme, and persistent.

71
Q

Duress:
Threat of instant death -
PP v Nagaenthran [2011] 4 SLR 1156, SGCA

A

D charged with bringing in 42.72g of diamorphine, punishable by death. D borrowed money from King to pay for his father’s operation, and had to deliver a bundle containing ‘spare parts’ or ‘company products’. D was allegedly slapped and punched when he refused. King said he would ‘finish’ and ‘kill’ D’s gf if D didn’t deliver. (Note that not much evidence of this was found.)

Held: Death must be instant death. Clarified that definition of imminent treated to be instant death.

Imminent (based on prior judicial usage): Period from when the threat was made to when the crime ordered was to be committed (could be an extended time interval).

Instant: Period between D’s refusal to comply with the coercer’s order, and the coercer carrying out the threat (very short interval).

72
Q

Duress:

Reasonably apprehended?

A

Personal characteristics can affect reasonableness of the apprehension (but only limited to characteristics found in a reasonable man). Hence, it is partially objective, partially subjective.

Coercer need not be present, focus is on whether D lacked real choice.

73
Q

Duress:
Reasonably apprehended -
PP v Ng Pen Tine [2009]

A

Although coercer was not present when D2 committed the offence, coercer’s men were watching over the D2 very closely. D2 found to have reasonable apprehension and the threat continued to operate on him.

74
Q

Duress:
Reasonably apprehended -
One of death -
Teo Hee Heng v PP [2000]

A

Plea for duress failed in relation to an offence of extortion as the threat was of assault and not death.

75
Q

Duress:
Cannot have placed himself in that situation -
Teo Hee Heng v PP [2000]

A

Court held that it was partly D’s own doing for having placed himself in such a position since he could have easily extricated himself out of the situation by seeking help from the police.

76
Q

Duress:
Cannot have placed himself in that situation -
PP v Ng Pen Tine [2009]

A

On the facts, D2 must have himself, reasonably believed that there was an opportunity to escape, but D2 did not because he believed the coercer to be “very influential and powerful”, thus having constant fear.

Held that whether there was a reasonable opportunity to escape is a subjective test.

77
Q

Private Defence:
General provisions -
S 96 PC

S 97 PC

S 98 PC

S 106A PC

A

S 96 PC: Full, general defence.

S 97 PC: Right of private defence of the body and of property (establishes defence).

S 98 PC: Extent to which right may be exercised (proportional harm + reasonable opp to get help from authorities).

S 100 PC: Right of private defence against deadly assault when there is risk of harm to innocent person.

S 106A PC: Acts against which no right of private defence (if no reasonable belief in death or grievous hurt from act by or directed by public servant).

78
Q

Private Defence:
Specific provisions -
S 99 PC

Ss 101, 102, 103

Ss 104, 105, 106

A

S 99 PC: Right of private defence against act of person of unsound mind, etc.

Ss 101, 102, 103: Defines right of private defence of body (Start and end + When can cause death + When can cause harm).

Ss 104, 105, 106: Defines right of private defence of property (Start and end + When can cause death (more specific from 2019 reform) + When can cause harm).

79
Q

Private Defence:
Preconditions -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008] 4 SLR 306, SGCA

A
  1. D must have been the subject of an offence (per s 97 PC - Existence of the offence is a matter of law and not determined by the defender; D must have reasonable belief to plead private defence).

Held in Wong Lai Fatt that D could defend another (his wife) from rape and was acquitted for successfully raising private defence.

  1. D must have attempted to seek recourse from public authorities if there was a reasonable opportunity to do so (per s 98 PC - Objective inquiry).
80
Q
Private Defence:
Preconditions -
2. Recourse from public authorities -
Concerned with existence of future threat -
PP v Seow Khoon Kwee [1988] SLR 871
A

D was threatened by V the day before. Stabbed V to death the next day. Claimed that V was about to assault him.

Held: No private defence, as D had time to have recourse to the protection of the prison officers, but did not seek it.

** This decision was criticised as too simplistic. Courts should have taken into account the environment D was in.

81
Q

Private Defence:
Preconditions -
2. Recourse from public authorities -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008]

A

D must assess the “reasonable opportunity of redress by recourse to the public authorities”.

D should not be expected to seek the protection of the public authorities if the time needed to do so would result in the mischief being completed.

82
Q

Private Defence:

Elements?

A
  1. Reasonable apprehension.
  2. Duration of defence must be consummate with the continuation of the danger.
  3. Use of necessary force.
83
Q

Private Defence:
Elements -
Reasonable apprehension -
Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008]

A

D must prove that, at the time of acting in private defence, he reasonably apprehended danger due to an attempt or a threat by V to commit an offence affecting the body.

SUBJECTIVE TEST (IN position is the same in this regard).

Arguable that it should be partially subj/obj – certain characteristics of D can be taken into account when reasonably apprehending.

84
Q
Private Defence:
Elements -
Use of necessary force -
Objective Test -
Roshdi v PP [1994] 3 SLR 282
A

Objective test concerned with a reasonably necessary response as opposed to a minimum response.

V assaulted D for failure to settle gambling debts, reached for the gun. D struck V’s head with a heavy mortar and killed him.

Held: Private defence failed. D had applied more force than necessary. Although the evidence was inconclusive as to whether D intended to cause more harm than necessary, striking with the mortar more than once was unnecessary.

85
Q
Private Defence:
Elements -
Use of necessary force -
Physiques of parties + First punch -
PP v Lim Twe Jeat [1994] 2 SLR 219

(Right of private defence less likely for initial attacker (Tan Chor Jin v PP [2008]))

A

2 men scuffled. V suffered various injuries, including laceration of lower lip and subluxation of 2 teeth. Magistrate held that since V had thrown the first punch, D had acted in exercise of his right of Private Defence, and he had not used more force than necessary.

Held: D had exceeded his right to private defence – he weighed 5.10 and was a rugby player and 91kg, V weighed 58kg.

D was also on home turf – could have protected himself with his staff members and not retaliated.

86
Q

Private Defence:

Defence for murder?

A

Only in circumstances outlined in ss 102, 105 PC.

Otherwise, look at Exception 2 of s 300 PC - partial defence, reduces it to CHNM. Requires good faith and lack of premeditation.

87
Q

Private Defence:
Defence for murder -
Soosay v PP [1993] 3 SLR 272, SGCA

A

S and K threatened with a knife by D. S kicked D, then took the knife. D rushed towards S. S stabbed D on the butt. D grabbed S’s arm. S inflicted 2 fatal wounds. D was unrelenting. Right to Private Defence had arisen. Issue was whether S had a reasonable apprehension of danger to his life.

Held: Test of reasonable apprehension is objective.

Any apprehension to S and K’s life ceased the moment the knife was dislodged from D’s hold and S had taken possession of it.

On the facts, defence was rejected as more force than necessary was used.

88
Q

Private Defence:
Defence for murder -
Elements for Exception 2?

A
  1. Whether the right to PD had arisen is determined objectively.
    Must be reasonable apprehension of danger to D’s life.
  2. Right was exercised in good faith: whether D acted honestly, or whether D used the opp to pursue a private grudge and to inflict injuries which he intended to be inflicted regardless of his rights.
  3. Death was caused without premeditation; and
  4. Death was caused w/o intention of doing more harm than was necessary for the purpose of such defence: subjective test.
89
Q

Private Defence:
Defence for murder -
Elements for Exception 2 -
Iskandar bin Rahmat v PP [2017] 1 SLR 505, SGCA

A

D lied to V1 to steal money from his safety deposit box. V1 discovered the ruse and attacked D with a knife. D wrestled the knife away and in the fight, stabbed V1 until his body “went soft”. V2 came home and saw what happened, and charged at D. D unaware that knife was still in his hand, stabbed V2; fight ensued, and D stabbed V2 more times. D charged with s300(a) PC murder. He argued inter alia that he fell under Exception 2 of s300 PC of private defence.

Held: Private defence not allowed.