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Radiation Oncology Residency > General CNS > Flashcards

General CNS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the estimated annual incidence of primary CNS tumors in the United States?

A

∼80,000 cases/yr of CNS tumors (∼1/3 of cases are malignant, 2/3 are nonmalignant tumors)

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2
Q

What is the most common intracranial tumor?

A

Brain mets (20%–40% of all cancer pts develop brain mets)

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3
Q

What are the most common primary histologies associated with brain mets?

A

Most common: lung, breast, melanoma

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4
Q

Which primary histologies are associated with hemorrhagic mets?

A

RCC, melanoma, and choriocarcinoma are associated with hemorrhagic mets.

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5
Q

Which primaries tend to metastasize to the PF?

A

GU/Pelvic primaries tend to go to the PF, where they are more likely to have a mass effect.

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6
Q

What is the most common type of primary CNS tumor in adults?

A

Meningioma (36%) > Glioma (25% of all primary cases, 80% of all malignant tumors)

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7
Q

What % of CNS tumors are mets vs. glioma vs. other?

A

Of all CNS tumors, roughly one-third are mets, one-third are gliomas, and one-third are other (meningioma, schwannoma, pituitary, lymphoma, etc.)

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8
Q

What % of adult astrocytomas are low grade vs. high grade?

A

25% low grade vs. 75% high grade

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9
Q

What is the most common histologic type of malignant CNS tumor inchildren? In adults?

A

Children: juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma (JPA) (20% <14 yo vs. 12% >14 yo)
Adults: GBM

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10
Q

What is the most common benign intracranial tumor in adults?

A

Meningioma

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11
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for developing CNS tumors?

A

Ionizing RT in children (no threshold—glioma, meningioma, nerve sheath)

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12
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to NF-1? NF-2?

A

NF-1: Optic glioma, JPA

NF-2: Bilateral acoustic neuroma, spinal ependymoma

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13
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Tuberous sclerosis?

A

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, retinal hamartoma

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14
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Von Hippel–Lindau?

A

Hemangioblastoma

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15
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Li Fraumeni syndrome?

A

Glioma

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16
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Cowden syndrome?

A

Meningioma

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17
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Gorlin syndrome?

A

MB

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18
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Turcot syndrome?

A

MB, GBM

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19
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to RB?

A

Pineoblastoma

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20
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to Ataxia telangiectasia?

A

CNS lymphoma

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21
Q

What CNS tumors are linked to MEN-1?

A

Pituitary adenoma

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22
Q

What are the 4 factors used for grading in the WHO brain tumor grading system?

A

Nuclear Atypia
Cellularity and Mitosis
Endothelial proliferation
Necrosis

(Mnemonic: AMEN)
WHO grade I = no factors present
WHO grade II = atypia
WHO grade III = atypia, mitoses
WHO grade IV = endothelial proliferation or necrosis
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23
Q

Which CNS entities/pathologies are known to cross midline?

A

GBM, RT necrosis, meningioma (extra-axial can spread along meninges to contralat side), epidermoid cyst, multiple sclerosis

24
Q

What CNS tumors tend to have CSF spread?

A

MBs and other blastomas (except astroblastoma/GBM), CNS lymphoma, choroid plexus carcinomas, germ cell tumors, and mets

25
Q

What is the pathway in which CSF flows?

A

CSF is produced by the choroid plexus → lat ventricles → foramen of Monroe → 3rd ventricle → cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius → 4th ventricle → foramen of Magendie, and 2 lat foramina of Lushka

26
Q

What CNS tumors have Flexner–Wintersteiner rosettes

A

Pineoblastoma and RB (any PNET)

27
Q

What CNS tumors have psammoma bodies?

A

Meningioma and pituitary tumors (uncommon)

28
Q

What CNS tumor type exhibits Verocay bodies? Schiller–Duval bodies?

A

Schwannomas exhibit Verocay bodies, and yolk sac tumors exhibit Schiller–Duval bodies.

29
Q

Which CNS tumors have Homer Wright rosettes?

A

NB, MB, pinealoblastoma, and PNET

30
Q

What CNS tumor has pseudorosettes?

A

Ependymoma

31
Q

What receptors are commonly overexpressed in gliomas?

A

EGFR (30%–50% in GBM tumors) and PDGFR (non-GBM tumors)

32
Q

Neural stem cells express which marker? Why are they important?

A

CD133. Neural stem cells are thought to be precursors for astrocytomas.

33
Q

What gene on chromosome 17 is frequently lost in both low- and high grade gliomas?

A

The p53 gene is frequently lost in low- and high-grade gliomas.

34
Q

What is the genetic mutation in NF-1, and for which sites does it predispose to gliomas?

A

In NF-1, the genetic mutation is 17q11.2/neurofibromin. It predisposes to optic/intracranial gliomas.

35
Q

Which structures enhance on the MRI sequences, T1, T2, and FLAIR?

A

T1 enhances fat and ST, does not enhance fluid. T1 with contrast is generally the best way to visualize intracranial tumors. T2 enhances fluid (CSF, edema) and does not enhance fat. FLAIR removes the increased CSF signal on T2 and shows abnl fluid (masses and edema).

36
Q

Which structures enhance with contrast?

A

Mets, Abscess, GBM, Lymphoma, +/– AA or AO [anaplastic astrocytoma/anaplastic oligodendroglioma]) (Mnemonic: MAGLA), meningioma, pilocytic astrocytoma, gliosis, cerebritis

37
Q

Which structures do not enhance with contrast?

A

Grade 2 low-grade gliomas, +/– AA or AO, rare for GBM to not enhance.

38
Q

Which gyri contain the sensory and motor area?

A

The precentral gyrus contains the motor area, and the postcentral gyrus contains the somatosensory area. Medial = body, LEs, feet. Lat = trunk, arms, head.

39
Q

What brain region is associated with expressive aphasia?

A

The Broca motor area (dominant/left frontal lobe) is associated with expressive aphasia.

40
Q

What brain region is associated with receptive aphasia?

A

The dominant/left temporal lobe at the post end of the lat sulcus (Wernicke area) is associated with receptive aphasia.

41
Q

Which CN exits on the dorsal side of the brain (midbrain)?

A

CN IV exits on the dorsal side of the brain.

42
Q

What structures are in the cavernous sinus?

A

CNs III, IV, VI, V1, and V2; internal carotid artery

43
Q

What common defect does tumor involving the cavernous sinus produce?

A

CN VI palsy (no abduction of the lat rectus)

44
Q

What components traverse the sup orbital fissure?

A

CNs III, IV, VI, and V1

45
Q

What nerve passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

V2 passes through the foramen rotundum.

46
Q

What nerve passes through the foramen ovale?

A

V3 passes through the foramen ovale.

47
Q

What structures pass through the foramen spinosum?

A

The middle meningeal artery and vein as well as the nervus spinosus (branch of CN V3), pass through the foramen spinosum.

48
Q

Through what structure do CNs VII–VIII traverse?

A

CNs VII–VIII traverse through the internal auditory meatus.

49
Q

Through which foramen does CN VII traverse the skull base?

A

CN VII emerges through the stylomastoid foramen.

50
Q

What passes through the jugular foramen?

A

CNs IX–XI pass through the jugular foramen

51
Q

How many spinal nerves are there in the SC?

A

There are 31 spinal nerves in the SC (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal).

52
Q

Where does the cord end? Where does the thecal sac end?

A

The cord ends at L3–4 in children and L1–2 in adults. The thecal sac ends at S2–3 in both children and adults

53
Q

What tumors present with a dural tail sign?

A

Meningioma (60%), also chloroma, lymphoma, and sarcoidosis

54
Q

Name some acute RT complications in pts receiving RT for CNS tumors.

A

Alopecia, dermatitis, fatigue, transient worsening of neurologic Sx, n/v, otitis externa, seizures, and edema

55
Q

What is the timing and mechanism of somnolence syndrome?

A

6–12 wks post-RT, due to transient demyelination of axons

56
Q

What are some common late complications of RT to the CNS? What is the timing for these?

A

Radionecrosis, leukoencephalopathy, retinopathy, cataracts, endocrine deficits, memory loss, learning deficits, and hearing loss; 3 mos to 3 yrs

Radiation Oncology Residency (44 decks)

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