General Assessment and management Flashcards

1
Q

Apyrexial/afebrile definition

A

35-37C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperthermia/pyrexia/febrile definition

A

> 37.5C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypothermia definition

A

<35C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyper pyrexia definition

A

> 41C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Temperature is regulated by the …

A

Autonomic nervous system from the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the max and min temps and what can each result in

A

Max >41C result in convulsions

Min <32C result in cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What direction does pyrexia shift the oxygen dissociation curve? And why does this occur?

A

To the right. As increased temperature results in a higher oxygen demand due to the increase in metabolic activity. This causes haemoglobin to have a lower affinity for oxygen meaning more oxygen is unloaded at the tissue cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What direction does hypothermia cause the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to? And why does this occur?

A

Shift to the left. Cells are less metabolically active. Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Symptoms of pyrexia. Why they occur.

A
>37.5C
sweating 
shivering 
feeling cold
high HR 
high RR 
Due to increase cellular metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal urine output

A

0.5-1ml/kg/hr.

UO usually = to input with a degree of insensible loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Oliguria definition

A

UO <0.5ml/kg/hr = <30ml/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Positive fluid balance means

A

Fluid intake > fluid output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Negative fluid balance means

A

Fluid output > fluid input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anuria definition

A

No urine output or a UO <100ml/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does NEWS stand for

A

National Early Warning Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How fast should NaCl 0.9% be administered?

A

1L/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are factors that may lead to the insertion of an NG tube?

A

Reduced oral intake
Diarrhoea
Vomiting

18
Q

What are risk factors associated with having an NG tube present?

A

Feed going into lung
Chocking
Perforation of the oesophagus

19
Q

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of a critically ill adult despite the cause

A
Tachypnoea 
Reduced arterial BP 
Tachycardia 
Hypotension 
Reduced/ fluctuating GCS 
Reduced urine output
20
Q

What are the 5 stages of the ABCDE approach?

A
  1. Initial assessment
  2. Treat life threatening problems
  3. Regular reassessment
  4. Assess the effects of treatments/interventions
  5. Escalate/refer if necessary
21
Q

What does diuresis mean?

A

Increased or excessive urine production

22
Q

What three factors should be taken into account when prescribing opioids such as morphine?

A

Patients: age, body mass and pain response.

23
Q

Which low values on two blood related tests would indicate blood loss?

A

Low haemoglobin and haematocrit

24
Q

How many mls per degree of elevated temperature should fluid resuscitation be increased by?

25
What percentage of total adult body weight is fluid?
60%
26
What is the ratio of fluid distribution between the ECF and ICF?
ICF 2: ECF 1
27
How frequent should one be with a NEWS of 0-1?
12hrly
28
What are the 11 different types of venous blood test and what can they indicate?
``` Full blood count- anaemia, infection Urea and electrolytes- renal function Thyroid function test Liver function test Cholesterol Glucose Microbial- CRP, cultures, viral titres Clotting factors- on anticoagulants Creatinine CBG ABG ```
29
What are the 3 types of microbial blood test done to detect infection?
CRP Cultures Viral titres
30
Before ABCDE what should always be observed?
Danger and Risks of approaching to you or pt
31
What are the different factors to be assessed to see if Airway is at risk?
``` Consciousness- low GCS unable to maintain airway require mechanical ventilation Vomiting/nausea Talking Choking Seesaw breathing Flail chest Surgical emphysema SOB Noise: wheeze, stridor, croaking Volume of breathing Sputum production Cough Equal lung expansion Chest percussion: ?fluid Central trachea ```
32
What are the different areas of assessment in Breathing?
``` Effort: ?dyspnoea Pyrexial- increased O2 demand Rate, rhythm, depth: bradypnoea, tachypnoea, chyne-stokes respiration Kussmal breathing- metabolic acidosis Low GCS Damage to cervicale spine- C1-2 innerviates lungs, damage=inability to breathe SaO2 Sputum Pain- ineffective breathing= broken rib, pneumothorax, infection, deflated lobe/lung Chest percussion Noisy breathing COPD ```
33
What are the potential causes of breathing compromise?
``` Airway obstruction COPD Asthma Infection Cardiac failure Chest trauma Shock ```
34
What are the different areas of assessment in Circulation?
Skin assessment: warm? colour? dry or moist? CRT BP: normotensive, hypotensive, hypertensive Pulse pressure UO: decreased kindey perfusion- oliguria, anuria Chest pain: decreased cardiac perfusion Consciousness: cerebral perfusion Nausea: GI perfusion Stool output: large bowel perfusion ECG ABG: indicated at <95% sats MAP? Blood tests: FBC, U+E, Cultures, CRP, viral titre, liver/thyroid function test, cholesterol, glucose, clotting factors, creatinine test, cross match. Raised jugular venous pressure Manually palpate pulses for rate, rhythm, strength: bradycardia, tachycardia
35
Potential causes of cardiac compromise?
ACS Heart failure Shock- tachycardia with reduced BP PE
36
What are the different areas of assessment in Disability?
``` CBG: hypo/hyperglycaemia Scans: CT scan, X-Ray Distress AVPU -> GCS Drugs Pain ```
37
What are the potential causes of altered GCS?
``` Hypoxia Reduced CPP Cerebral pathology Hypercapnia Uraemia Hypovolaemia Cardiac arthythmia Pre/post cardiac arrest ```
38
What are the different areas of assessment in Exposure?
Full body exposure: feel for swelling, wetness, injury, pain, heat, coolness Look for rashes, injury, swelling, PMHX: allergies, surgery, drugs, medical conditions, illness PSHX: living circumstance, family, NOK, partner, dependants Case notes Documentation MDT involvement Care level Temperature: pyrexia, hypothermia SBAR: situation, background, assessment, recommendations
39
What does SBAR stand for?
Situation Background Assessments Recommendations
40
What is Base Excess?
The amount of an acid or base required to change 1L of blood to a pH of 7.4