General Anesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

Monitored anesthetic care

Diagnostic/therapeutic

A
  1. Midazolam - mild sedation
  2. Propofol - deep sedation
  3. Ketamine - minimize discomfort
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2
Q

Conscious sedation

A
  1. Benzodiazepines

2. Fentanyl (opoid analgesia)

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3
Q

What reverse benzodiazepines effects?

A

Flumazenil

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4
Q

What reverses Fentanyl effects?

A

Naloxone

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5
Q

Deep sedation

A
  1. Propofol
  2. Midazolam
    In combo with Ketamine sometimes
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6
Q

What reverses Midazolam’s effects?

A

Flumazenil

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7
Q

Volatile inhaled anesthetics

A
  1. Halothane
  2. Enflurane
  3. Isoflurane
  4. Desflurane
  5. Sevoflurane
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8
Q

Gaseous inhaled anesthetics

A

NO

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9
Q

Low blood solubility - faster onset

A
  1. NO

2. Desflurane

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10
Q

High blood solubility - slower onset

A

Halothane

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11
Q

Low solubility –> High solubility

A

NO > Desflurane > Sevoflurane > Isoflurane > Halothane

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12
Q

Bradycardia

A

Halothane

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13
Q

Increase heart rate

A
  1. Desflurane

2. Isoflurane

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14
Q

What drug can cause hepatitis?

A

Halothane

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15
Q

What agents release Fl ions and cause renal toxicity?

A
  1. Enflurane

2. Sevoflurane

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16
Q

Inhaled volatile anesthetics + succinylcholine causes what?

A

Malignant hyperthermia

17
Q

What’s an antidote for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

18
Q

IV - Propofol

A
  • rapid onset/recovery
  • hypotension
  • short duration (locations outside surgery room)
  • poor solubility
  • GABAa Rc –> Cl
  • metabolized by liver; high plasma clearance = low hangover effect
19
Q

High context-sensitive (short infusion duration) –> low context-sensitive (long infusion duration)

A

Diazepam > Thiopental > Midezolam > Ketamine > Propofol > Etomidate

20
Q

Propofol - organ effects

A
  1. CNS - low CBF, low CMRO2, low IOP, low ICP
  2. Heart - low SBP: Vd, hypotension
  3. Resp - depression
  4. Pain - on injection
21
Q

IV- Fospropofol

A
  • prodrug of Propofol
  • water soluble
  • longer onset/recovery
  • metabolized by alkaline phosphatase (to make Propofol, phosphate, formaldehyde)
  • metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase (liver, erythrocytes)
22
Q

IV - Etomidate

A
  • GABAa Rc
  • hypnotic, no analgesic effects
  • minimal depression (better for use in people with an impaired heart)
  • rapid loss of consciousness/less rapid recovery
  • metabolized by liver and plasma
23
Q

Etomidate - effects

A
  1. CNS - Cerebral Vc, dec CBF, dec ICP
  2. Heart - minimal change in CO
  3. Resp - depression is less
  4. Endocrine - inhibits 11 b-hydroxylase (cholesterol –> cortisol)
24
Q

IV - Ketamine

A
  • NMDA Rc antagonist

- inc lacrimation, inc salivation

25
Q

Ketamine - effects

A
  1. CNS - inc CBF, inc CMRO2, euphoria = abuse potential, hallucinations etc.
  2. Heart - inc SBP, HR, CO, myocardial depressant
    * ** ONLY 1 to produce analgesia profoundly, stimulate SNS, bronchodilation, minimal resp depression! **
26
Q

IV - Dexmedetomidine

A
  • alpha 2 agonist
  • activation of sleep pathway
  • dec HR, dec R, dec SBP, bradycardia
  • short term sedation (ICU setting usually)
27
Q

Opioids

A
  1. Fentanyl
  2. Sufentanil
  3. Remifentanyl
  4. Morphine
28
Q

Barbiturates

A
  1. Thiopental

2. Methohexital

29
Q

Barbiturates - effects

A
  • Lipophilic
  • dose dep CNS depression
  • resp depression
  • GABAa Rc
  • short procedures: Methohexital (preferred) > Thiopental (slow recovery)
  • CYP450 enzymes
30
Q

Benzodiazepines

A
  1. Diazepam
  2. Lorazepam
  3. Midazolam (drug of choice cuz only 1 that is water soluble)
31
Q

Midazolam

A
  • rapid onset/short elimination
  • steeper dose-response curve
  • given BEFORE you enter your surgery
32
Q

Benzodiazepines - effects

A
  • GABAa Rc
  • anterograde amnesia (used in pre-operative period)
  • anticonvulsant
  • treatment for epilepticus, alcohol withdrawal, local-anesthetic induced seizures