General and Regional Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Anesthesia Types:

A

○ General anesthetic
■ Drug induced loss of consciousness that requires a controlled airway
○ Regional blockade
■ Spinal and epidural anesthesia, Peripheral nerve block
○ Local anesthesia
○ Conscious sedation

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2
Q

_____ : Reversibly blocking pain and awareness during surgical and
nonsurgical procedures. Greek origin meaning “without sensation”

A

Anesthesia:

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3
Q

______ of the preop evaluation
depends on degree of the planned
surgical invasiveness and urgency

A

Timing

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4
Q

Why is the timing of the preop evaluation important?

A

Time must be allowed to follow up on
conditions discovered during the
preoperative visit and to answer
questions (if possible).

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5
Q

When should preop evaluations be done based on surgery severity?

A

High surgical invasiveness ( eg. Colon
resection)
● Minimum the day before the
procedure.
Medium surgical invasiveness
● The day before or the day of the
surgery.
Low surgical invasiveness (eg. Carpal
Tunnel)
● The day of the surgery.

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6
Q

History of complications from surgery/anesthesia

A

○ Allergic reactions
○ Abnormal bleeding
○ Delayed emergence (hard to wake up, 30-60 min)
○ Prolonged paralysis
○ Difficult airway management
○ Awareness during surgery

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7
Q

Important Elements of Pt history in a preop assessment

A

■ Kidney or liver disease
■ Metabolic abnormalities (diabetes or thyroid disease)
■ Cardiac conditions
○ Adverse responses to anesthetics (malignant hyperthermia)

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8
Q

Physical Exam- Important Elements

A

○ Airway is king (one of the most common causes of adverse outcomes)
○ Heart and lung exam (include vital signs here)
○ Other components include:
■ Potential intravenous catheter sites/potential sites for regional anesthesia.
■ Range of motion of limbs must also be noted as this may affect positioning
in the operating room.
■ Any neurologic abnormalities must be noted. (Need to know their baseline
as post CVA is a potential complication).

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9
Q

Mallampati score

A

Examination and classification of the upper airway based
on the size of patient’s tongue and the pharyngeal structures visible on mouth opening with the patient
sitting looking forward

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10
Q

3-3-2 Rule

A

● Can you fit 3 fingers in the mouth
perpendicular? If so, then should
be room for insertion of tube and
laryngoscope
● Can you fit 3 fingers between the
angle of the jaw and mentum? If
so, then should be able to lift the
tongue forward
● Can you fit 2 fingers between the
top of thyroid cartilage and
bottom of jaw? If not, then
suspect high anteriorly located
cords

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11
Q

Mallampati Score classifications

A

● Grade I The soft palate, anterior and posterior tonsillar pillars, and uvula are
visible—suggests easy airway intubation. (Easy)
● Grade II Tonsillar pillars and part of the uvula obscured by the tongue. (Should
be easy)
● Grade III Only soft palate and hard palate visible. (Hard)
● Grade IV Only the hard palate is visible. (Very challenging airway)

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12
Q

Perioperative complication and deaths are most often a combination of:

A

● Comorbidities
● Surgical complexity
● Anesthesia effects

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13
Q

Physical status classifications:

A

Does not assign risk but is a common language
used to describe patients preoperative physical status. Above ASA 2 should be seen
in preoperative clinic and have preoperative labs drawn beforehand unless emergent

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14
Q

Pre-op guidelines for patients that have CAD with Prior Percutaneous Coronary Intervention:

A

● Patients are usually placed on a dual antiplatelet therapy of aspirin and
clopidogrel following angioplasty/stenting.
● The AHA guidelines recommend if the procedure is elective, then the
operation should be postponed until the case can be done with aspirin
as the only antiplatelet drug. If the operation is emergent, then
consideration must be given to the timing of the surgery and the risk of
surgical bleeding.

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15
Q

Pre-op guidelines for patients that have Pulmonary Disease:

A

● The presence of lung disease puts the patient at risk for perioperative
complications.
● Pneumonia and prolonged difficulty weaning from the ventilator are
two of the most common.
● In some instances, arterial blood gas analysis (ABG) or pulmonary
function tests (PFT) are necessary.
● Patients should stop smoking at least 8 wks prior to the surgery

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16
Q

Preoperative guidelines for patients with obesity

A

● Airway is often difficult to maintain with mask ventilation secondary to decreased
neck mobility and adipose tissue.
● Morbidly obese patients may have a higher risk of gastric aspiration and
development of aspiration pneumonia (high mortality rate).
● Medication metabolism fatty liver, pain management
● Obesity is a risk factor for OSA

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17
Q

Preoperative Fasting importance and rules

A

Fasting helps to reduce the risk of pulmonary
aspiration.
● No solid food should be eaten after the evening meal night before. NPO after midnight except for sips of water to take oral medications.
○ At the minimum, most anesthesiologists delay an
anesthetic so that the last solid food was 6-8
hours prior to non emergent surgery.

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18
Q

Preop guidelines on hypertension

A

BP should be optimized prior to surgery

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19
Q

Unless absolutely indicated, neuraxial anesthesia (spinal, epidural) should
not be performed for at least 12 hours and preferably 24 hours after last dose of

A

Heparin

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20
Q

Preop guidelines for DM

A

● The most common metabolic abnormality dealt
with by anesthesia.
● Anesthesia is responsible for glucose control
during the procedure and will monitor at least
hourly if patient is on insulin.
● Remember, the patient will be fasting
preoperatively and intraoperatively

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21
Q

Roles and responsibilities of the Holding Room (aka Preop)

A

● The nurse checks the patient in and records
vital signs, checks for a signed consent, and
starts an intravenous line if needed.
● The surgeon should confirm and mark the site
of surgery. Answer questions/consent signed.
● The anesthesiologist should confirm the
preoperative evaluation and type of anesthetic
selected. Confirm NPO status if general used.

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22
Q

Preoperative- Informed Consent

A

● Key word is “Informed”
● Risk/Benefit discussion
○ Maybe your 100th surgery, but it is likely the
patients first
● Surgical Team- Inform the patient about surgical
complications unique to the surgery
● Anesthesiologist will inform of risks of anesthesia
in general
● Both conversations must occur
● Patient must sign informed consent

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23
Q

July 2004, JCAHO (Joint
Commission) instituted a safety
mandate known as the

A

“Universal Protocol for Preventing
Wrong site, Wrong Procedure,
Wrong Person Surgery”

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24
Q

Wrong Site/Procedure/Person Surgery steps

A

Step 1: Initial verification of the intended
patient, procedure, and site of the procedure.
Step 2: Marking the operative site
● This mark should not be an “X” but rather a word or line
(representing the proposed incision).
Step 3: A “Time Out” performed immediately before starting the procedure.
○ All members of the care team—surgeon, nurses, anesthesiologists—must
actively participate/listen. (Room needs to be quiet)
This time out must take place before incision

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25
Q

The anesthesiologist is in charge of

A

the patient well being

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26
Q

Considerations in choosing an anesthetic technique include:

A

○ Planned surgical procedure
■ For example abdominal versus extremity
○ Patient and surgeon preference
■ Prior complications
○ Urgency of the operation
○ Postoperative pain management considerations
● Patient age (relative risk factor) must also be included in the decision of choice of
anesthetic technique.

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27
Q

Emergency surgery for patients with a full stomach may necessitate a
_____

A

rapid-sequence general anesthetic (RSI) to protect from pulmonary aspiration

28
Q

______ is a drug-induced
reversible behavioral state consisting of
antinociception, unconsciousness,
amnesia, and akinesia (paralysis) with
maintenance of physiologic systems
stability.

A

General anesthesia

29
Q

_____ uses a combination of drugs, each in an amount sufficient to produce its major or desired effect to the optimum degree and to
keep undesirable effects to a minimum.

A

“Balanced” general anesthesia

30
Q

If cardiovascular status is compromised, ____ preferred.

A

etomidate or ketamine

31
Q

Almost all anesthetics are preceded by the administration of ______. Helps reduce the amount of induction agent and provides
analgesia.

A

an opiate (eg, fentanyl)

32
Q

Produces a trance-like state. Patient is dissociated from the surroundings

A

Ketamine

33
Q

Short-acting, general anesthetic.

A

Propofol

34
Q

Ultra-short-acting nonbarbiturate general anesthetic, rapid induction, minimal
cardiovascular effects

A

Etomidate

35
Q

Acts similar to acetylcholine, causes sustained flaccid skeletal muscle paralysis

A

Succinylcholine

36
Q

Most general anesthetics then include a _____ to facilitate endotracheal intubation or other
benefits such as in spine surgery

A

muscle relaxant
(akinesia)

37
Q

Difficult Airways maneuvers

A

○ Cricoid manipulation (pressure)
■ Helps with aspiration also
○ Adjustment of the patient’s head position
○ Use of a long, stiff catheter (a bougie) or
video laryngoscopy.

38
Q

The most serious complication-

A

failure to secure the airway

39
Q

Maintenance of General Anesthesia

A

● Commonly maintain the anesthetic with a
combination of an inhalation agent, opiate, and
muscle relaxant.
● This “balanced anesthetic” allows for titration of
agents to maintain the requirements of
anesthesia: analgesia, amnesia
(unconsciousness), skeletal muscle relaxation,
and control of the hemodynamic responses to
surgical stimulation

40
Q

Advantages to Spinal or Epidural Anesthesia for Surgery

A

○ Allows the patient to be conscious
○ Fewer thrombotic complications
○ Less pulmonary compromise
○ Earlier hospital discharge
○ Avoidance of airway manipulation

41
Q

Spinal Anesthesia

A

● Performed in either the lateral position or with the patient sitting on the table.
● Following sterile prep and local skin anesthetic, a small 25-27 gauge spinal
needle is introduced in the lower lumbar spine, and the subdural space is
identified by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
● Depending on the planned length of surgery, either lidocaine or bupivacaine
(with or without an opiate) is injected.

42
Q

Most common complication of spinal anesthesia

A

spinal headache.

43
Q

Severe headache may require a ____

A

“blood patch”
to plug the leak of CSF and is performed by an
anesthesiologist. (Patient’s own blood is used)

44
Q

Epidural Anesthesia

A

● The epidural space is between the ligamentum flavum and
the dural structures
● Analgesia continued by insertion of a small catheterRegional anesthesia is very useful for procedures on the extremities

45
Q

Regional anesthesia is very useful for _____

A

procedures on the extremities

46
Q

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC

A

● MAC was previously termed “local anesthesia with
standby.”
● The “standby” is an anesthesia caregiver who monitors
the patient’s status while the surgeon performs a
procedure under local anesthesia +/- conscious (IV)
sedation. (Minimal, moderate, deep)

47
Q

Used to reverse the effects of anesthesia

A

Vasopressors

48
Q

Anesthetic medication is known to cause _____

A

nausea and vomiting

49
Q

Intraoperative Respiratory Management

A

● Patient is placed on a ventilator and tidal volume is maintained
● Use of an ET tube or LMA to maintain airway
○ Monitor capnography
● OPA or NPA when using a bag-valve mask
● Rapid sequence intubation if patient has eaten more recently
● Video laryngoscopy
● Tracheal Airway

50
Q

Intraoperative Fluid Management

A

Zero-balance fluid management replaces only fluids lost during the surgery

51
Q

Intraoperative Endocrine Management

A

● Adrenal and thyroid abnormalities should be planned for
● Diabetes
● Optimize diabetes preoperatively

52
Q

Intraoperative management of blood glucose

A

● DKA or dehydration is present
● Elevated blood glucose (different cutoffs are given)
○ Lower risk surgery vs high risk surgery
● Clearance of an infection is required
● Unknown pregnancy found
● Or acute severe medical problem, eg. MI

53
Q

Postoperative Acute Pain Management

A

● NSAID: For minor procedures
● Oral medications: Commonly combined with Tylenol
● Intravenous opioids: Used for a specific dosing
● Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA): Predetermined incremental amounts
● Intramuscular opioids:
○ Can be used outpatient or when an IV is not available or required
● Epidural analgesia: Used at the dermatomal level of the incision
● Specific/ or Plexus Nerve Block: Turn off a specific region

54
Q

Complications of Anesthesia:
Awareness

A

● Many patients are concerned about being aware or waking up during surgery
○ Aware of surroundings intraoperatively
○ Typically no pain is felt
● The patient is able to recall events
● While rare, can be traumatic and require counseling
● Patients with history of perioperative awareness are
higher risk, and certain procedures are higher risk
● Brain monitoring is a mixed bag

55
Q

Prior history, substance abuse, chronic use of opioids for pain control have
increased risk for ______

A

intraoperative awareness

56
Q

Most common Peripheral Nerve Injury

A

● The ulnar nerve at the elbow is the most
common injury

57
Q

Perioperative Visual Loss

A

● Most commonly associated with prolonged (> 6.5 hours) spinal surgical procedures performed in the prone position associated with large blood losses and cardiac surgery
● Vision loss seems to be associated with an central retinal artery occlusion (pressure), ischemic optic neuropathy (blood loss), or without any known etiology.
● Risk factors include anemia, vascular disease, and obesity

58
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia

A

A true anesthesia life threatening emergency often triggered by anesthetic agents
● Hereditary disorder
● Rapid diagnosis is required
● Can also occur eg. heat, strenuous exercise

59
Q

Treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia

A

● Supportive Care-Cool down, Oxygen, Cut off
the agents/stop the procedure
● Dantrolene directly interferes with muscle
contraction by inhibiting calcium ion release
from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, possibly by
binding to ryanodine receptor type 1 (RYR-1)
which has been mutated. In essence, lowers
calcium.

60
Q

Postanesthesia Care Unit (Recovery Room)

A

● The PACU is where most patients are transferred after surgery
● Monitoring of vital signs, temperature, oxygenation, circulation, and level of
consciousness are key steps
● Addressing nausea/vomiting, pain control
● Verbal report is provided to the responsible PACU nurse
● The PACU is equipped with essentially the same monitors as the operating room
and with the drugs and equipment needed for emergency resuscitation.

61
Q

Patients are continually monitored in the PACU
for approximately _____

A

1 hour or until they fulfill
specific objective criteria

62
Q

Complications of Anesthesia

A

● Awareness/Waking Up
● Peripheral Nerve Injury
● Malignant Hyperthermia (can be life threatening)
● Perioperative visual loss
● Corneal abrasions

63
Q

The most effective methods of rewarming are ______

A

forced-air warming devices
(Bair huggers-commonly used name brand) or water-jacket devices

64
Q

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting guidelines

A

● Identify patients at high risk. (female gender, nonsmoking, and a history of
PONV or motion sickness.)
● Reduce baseline risk factors (minimization of intraoperative volatile agents
(inhaled anesthetics), opioids, and nitrous oxide; and use of epidurals for
postoperative pain management may be the best strategy.
● Administer prophylaxis using one or two interventions at risk for PONV.
○ 5-HT3 receptor antagonists (eg. ondansetron), dexamethasone, low dose
droperidol (Black Box- QT prolongation)

65
Q
A