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From Chiro National Boards > General Anatomy > Flashcards

General Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Which of the following pulses can be palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad?
A.	Subclavian
B.	Brachial
C.	Radial
D.	Ulnar
A

D. Ulnar

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2
Q 
9.	Posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert on which bone?
A.	Cuboid
B.	Calcaneous
C.	Talus1
D.	1st metatarsal
A

B. Calcaneous

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3
Q 
2.	Calcitonin is secreted by which of the following cells?
A.	Parafollicular
B.	Follicular
C.	Chief
D.	Macrophages
A

A. Parafollicular

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4
Q 
10.	The epiphyseal plate is considered to be what type of joint?
A.	Synchondrosis
B.	Syndesmosis
C.	Symphysis
D.	Synovial
A

A. Synchondrosis

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5
Q 
3.	Which of the following muscles is the medial rotator of the hip?
A.	Gluteus maximus
B.	Gluteus medius
C.	Obturator internus
D.	Quadratus lumborum
A

B. Gluteus medius

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6
Q 
11.	In which bone is the soleal line?
A.	Femur
B.	Tibia
C.	Fibula
D.	Calcaneous
A

B. Tibia

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7
Q 
4.	Damage to the long thoracic nerve produces paralysis of which of the following muscles?
A.	Pectorals major
B.	Serratus anterior
C.	Latissimus dorsi
D.	Subscapularis
A

B. Serratus anterior

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8
Q 
12.	The lateral malleolus is a feature of which of the following bones?
A.	Femur
B.	Tibia
C.	Fibula
D.	Calcaneous
A

C. Fibula

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9
Q 
5.	Which embryological structure is the adrenal medulla derived from?
A.	Endoderm
B.	Ectoderm
C.	Neural crest cells
D.	Mesoderm
A

C. Neural crest cells

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10
Q 
13.	The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of which artery?
A.	Left coronary 
B.	Marginal
C.	Circumflex
D.	Right coronary
A

A. Left coronary

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11
Q 
6.	Which nerve innervate the peronei muscles?
A.	Deep peroneal
B.	Superficial peroneal
C.	Superior gluteal
D.	Inferior gluteal
A

B. Superficial peroneal

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12
Q 
14.	Which ligament prevents the lateral displacement of the tibia?
A.	Tibia collateral
B.	Fibula collateral
C.	Post cruciate
D.	Ant cruciate
A

B. Fibula collateral

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13
Q 
7.	What type of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract?
A.	Simple squamous
B.	Simple columnar
C.	Stratified squamous
D.	Psudostratified ciliated columnar
A

D. Psudostratified ciliated columnar

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14
Q 
15.	The spring ligament connects the calcaneous to which of the following bones?
A.	Cuboid 
B.	Talus
C.	Navicular
D.	Tibia
A

C. Navicular

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15
Q 
8.	Which of the following nerves is palpable on the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula?
A.	Deep peroneal
B.	Superficial peroneal
C.	Common peroneal
D.	Tibial
A

C. Common peroneal

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16
Q 
16.	Which of the following muscles inserts on the 5th metatarsal?
A.	Peroneus longus
B.	Peroneus brevis
C.	Flexor hallicus longus
D.	Polliteus
A

B. Peroneus brevis

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17
Q 
17.	Which of the following nerves innervates the tibialis anterior muscles
A.	Deep peroneal 
B.	Superficial peroneal
C.	Tibial 
D.	Saphenous
A

A. Deep peroneal

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18
Q 
25.	The coronoid process is located on which bone?
A.	Scapula
B.	Ulna
C.	Radius
D.	Humerus
A

B. Ulna

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19
Q 
18.	The primary ossification of a long bone is located on?
A.	Metaphysis
B.	Diaphysis
C.	Epiphysis
D.	Epiphyseal plate
A

B. Diaphysis

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20
Q 
26.	Haversion systems are separated from each other by which of the following?
A.	Volkmann canals
B.	Interstitial lamina
C.	Endosteum
D.	Canaliculi
A

B. Interstitial lamina

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21
Q 
19.	Palatoglussus and palatopharyngeus form which of the following?
A.	Soft palate
B.	Uvula
C.	Piriform recess
D.	Pillars of fauceus
A

D. Pillars of fauceus

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22
Q 
27.	Ankle inversion and plantar flexion of the foot is most restricted by which of the following ligaments?
A.	Deltoid
B.	Ant tibial
C.	Post talofibular
D.	Ant talofibular
A

D. Ant talofibular

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23
Q 
20.	Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
A.	Villi
B.	Rugae
C.	Peyers patches
D.	Haustra
A

D. Haustra

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24
Q 
28.	Which of the following nerves supplies the extensor muscles of the fingers?
A.	Radial
B.	Ulnar
C.	Median
D.	Musculocutaneous
A

A. Radial

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25
Q 
21.	The radial notch articulates with which of the following?
A.	Head of the radius
B.	Head of the ulna
C.	Trochlea of the humerus
D.	Neck of the radius
A

A. Head of the radius

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26
Q 
29.	Which of the following muscles externally rotates the arm?
A.	Infraspinatus
B.	Subscapularis
C.	Pectorals major
D.	Latissimus dorsi
A

A. Infraspinatus

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27
Q 
22.	On which bone is the olecranon fossa located?
A.	Scaphoid
B.	Radius
C.	Ulna
D.	Humerus
A

D. Humerus

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28
Q 
30.	Which of the following ligaments prevents anterior displacement of the tibia?
A.	Lateral collateral
B.	Medial collateral
C.	Ant cruciate
D.	Post cruciate
A

C. Ant cruciate

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29
Q 
23.	The radial nerve is found on which bone?
A.	Post radius 
B.	Medial ulna
C.	Medial scaphoid
D.	Medial pisiform
A

A. Post radius

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30
Q 
31.	In the fetus blood bypasses the liver sinusoid through which of the following?
A.	Ductus arteriosus
B.	Ductus venosus
C.	Foramen ovale
D.	Ligamentus teres
A

B. Ductus venosus

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31
Q 
24.	The esophageal hiatus is located at which vertebral level?
A.	T8
B.	T9
C.	T10
D.	T11
A

C. T10

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32
Q 
32.	The peroneus longus tendon into the foot and attaches to which bone?
A.	Cuboid 
B.	Navicular
C.	Calcaneous
D.	Lateral cuneiform
A

A. Cuboid

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33
Q 
33.	What part of the humerus articulates with the radius?
A.	Trochlear 
B.	Lateral epicondyle
C.	Olecranon
D.	Capitulum
A

D. Capitulum

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34
Q 
41.	Which muscle inserts into the scapula?
A.	Pectorals major
B.	Pectorals minor
C.	Subscapularis
D.	Brachialis
A

B. Pectorals minor

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35
Q 
34.	Fracture of the medial epicondyle results in damage to which of the following muscles?
A.	Biceps brachii
B.	Abductor pollicis longus
C.	Flexor carpi ulnaris
D.	Flexor digitorum superficialis
A

C. Flexor carpi ulnaris

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36
Q 
42.	The gracillus muscle is supplied by which nerve?
A.	Superficial gluteal
B.	Obturator
C.	Femoral
D.	Tibial
A

B. Obturator

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37
Q 
35.	What are the 8-12 conical projections in the renal medulla called?
A.	Pyramids
B.	Minor calyces
C.	Major calyces
D.	Papilla
A

A. Pyramids

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38
Q 
43.	Surfactant is produced by?
A.	Type 1 alveolar cells
B.	Type 2 aveolar cells
C.	Dust cells
D.	Goblet cells
A

B. Type 2 aveolar cells

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39
Q 
36.	Which structure pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm?
A.	Aorta
B.	Esophagus
C.	Inf vena cava
D.	Vagus nerve
A

C. Inf vena cava

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40
Q
  1. Chordae tendonae are fibrous cords the connect _____ to _____?
    A. Valve cusps to papillary muscles
    B. Valve cusps to arterial wall
    C. Papillary muscles to arterial wall
    D. Papillary muscles to ventricular walls
A

A. Valve cusps to papillary muscles

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41
Q 
37.	The apex of the lug is located at what level?
A.	At the level of the 1st rib
B.	Above the 1st rib
C.	At the level of the 2nd rib
D.	Below the 1st rib
A

B. Above the 1st rib

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42
Q 
45.	Which structure passes thru the deep inguinal of the male?
A.	Epididymus
B.	Transverse abdominus muscle
C.	Tunica albuginea
D.	Spermatis cord
A

D. Spermatis cord

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43
Q 
38.	The lacrimal fossa is part of what bone?
A.	Frontal
B.	Maxillary
C.	Ethmoid
D.	Zygomatic
A

A. Frontal

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44
Q 
46.	Which of the following taste buds are the largest and fewest in number?
A.	Fungiform
B.	Filliform 
C.	Foliate
D.	Circumvallate
A

D. Circumvallate

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45
Q 
39.	The axillary nerve lies within which?
A.	Quadrangular sulcus
B.	Triangular sulcus
C.	Triangular space
D.	Quadrangular space
A

D. Quadrangular space

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46
Q 
47.	Posterior costal pleura extends caudally to the level of?
A.	T10
B.	9th rib
C.	12th rib
D.	L2
A

C. 12th rib

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47
Q 
40.	Which of the following is part of the nephron?
A.	Efferent arteriole
B.	Loop of Henle
C.	Straight collecting tubule
D.	Transverse collecting duct
A

B. Loop of Henle

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48
Q 
48.	Which of the following cells types is located in the Lucunae of Howship?
A.	Osteoblasts
B.	Osteoclasts
C.	Osteocytes
D.	Melanocyte
A

B. Osteoclasts

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49
Q 
49.	The radial artery terminates at?
A.	Deep palmer arch
B.	Superficial palmer arch
C.	Post interosseus
D.	Profunda brachii
A

A. Deep palmer arch

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50
Q 
57.	Medial Rotation of the Tibia is accomplished by which of the following muscles?
A.	Rectus Femoris
B.	Popliteus
C.	Plantaris
D.	Biceps femoris
A

B. Popliteus

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51
Q 
50.	Which of the following is the insertion of the long head of the biceps brachii?
A.	 Intertubercular groove
B.	Radial tuberosity
C.	Trochlear notch
D.	Olecranon fossa
A

B. Radial tuberosity

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52
Q 
58.	The thickest par t of the heart is?
A.	Right atrium
B.	Right ventrical
C.	Left atrium
D.	Left ventrical
A

D. Left ventrical

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53
Q 
51.	Which of the following is the superficial boundary of the perineal caviity?
A.	Pouch of Douglas
B.	Pelvic diaphragm
C.	Perineal space
D.	Colles flexure (fascia)
A

D. Colles flexure (fascia)

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54
Q 
59.	Which of the following of the following bones contains the coronoid tubercle?
A.	Scapula
B.	Ulna
C.	Clavicle
D.	Humerous
A

C. Clavicle

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55
Q 
52.	The ureter runs anterior to which of the following structures?
A.	Psoas major
B.	Abdominal aorta
C.	Sup mesenteric artery
D.	Renal vein
A

A. Psoas major

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56
Q 
60.	The embryological derivation for epithelium is?
A.	Ectoderm
B.	Endoderm
C.	Splanchinic mesoderm
D.	Somatic mesoderm
A

A. Ectoderm

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57
Q 
53.	Which of the following is the vein most superficial on the calf?
A.	Schindylesis
B.	Greater Saphenous
C.	Lesser Saphenous
D.	Peroneal
A

C. Lesser Saphenous

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58
Q
  1. Paralysis of which of the following muscles results in loss of abduction and external rotation of the humerus
    A. Lateral Dorsal & Serratus Anterior
    B. Middle Deltoid & Sub-Scapulerus
    C. Supraspinatus & Teres Major
    D. Supra & Infraspinatus
A

D. Supra & Infraspinatus

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59
Q 
54.	The Interossais membrane of the leg classified?
A.	Schindylesis
B.	Syndesmosis
C.	Symphysis
D.	Synchondrosis
A

B. Syndesmosis

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60
Q
  1. Muscle spindles are what type of receptors?
    A. Pain
    B. Touch
    C. Stretch
A

C. Stretch

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61
Q 
55.	Which of the following planes divides the body into Right & Left halves?
A.	Horizontal
B.	Median
C.	Transverse
D.	Coronal
A

B. Median

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62
Q 
63.	Which of the following structures is found in the peritoneal cavity?
A.	Kidney
B.	Abdominal aorta
C.	Pancreas
D.	Sigmoid colon
A

B. Abdominal aorta

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63
Q 
56.	The superior mesenteric arteries which of the following?
A.	The spleen
B.	Jejunum
C.	Descending Colon
D.	Sigmoid Colon
A

B. Jejunum

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64
Q
  1. From which granular structure is renin secreted?
    A. Afferent arteriole
    B. Glomerular capillary fenestration
    C. Peritubular capillary
    D. Basement membrane of glomerular capillary
A

A. Afferent arteriole

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65
Q 
65.	The sustentoculum tali is part of which bone?
A.	Cuboid 
B.	Navicular
C.	Talus
D.	Calcaneous
A

D. Calcaneous

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66
Q 
74.	What divides the muscles into fascicles?
A.	Epimysium
B.	Perimysium
C.	Endomysium
D.	Neurolemma
A

B. Perimysium

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67
Q 
66.	What  joints is a fibrous articulation?
A.	Proximal tibiofibular
B.	Distal radiounlar 
C.	Distal tibiofibular
D.	Interventricular disc
A

C. Distal tibiofibular

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68
Q 
75.	The biceps brachii tendon is held in place by?
A.	Transverse humeral ligament
B.	Coracoacromial ligament
C.	Glenohumeral ligament
D.	Acromiohumeral ligament
A

A. Transverse humeral ligament

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69
Q 
67.	The laryngotrocheal diverticulum developed from which of the following?
A.	Pharynx
B.	Foregut
C.	Midgut
D.	Hindgut
A

A. Pharynx

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following canals is located on the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa?
    A. Pudendal
    B. Anal
    C. Obturator
A

A. Pudendal

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71
Q 
68.	The head of the fibula articulates with which of the following?
A.	Base of patella
B.	Base of talus
C.	Lateral condyle of tibia
D.	Lateral condyle of femurs
A

C. Lateral condyle of tibia

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72
Q 
77.	Which organs is devoid of lymphatics?
A.	Kidney
B.	Uterus
C.	Liver 
D.	Brain
A

D. Brain

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73
Q 
69.	The midgut forms which of the following structures?
A.	Ileum
B.	Pancreas
C.	Duodenum
D.	Larynx
A

A. Ileum

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74
Q 
78.	Which of the following organs has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
A.	Stomach
B.	Brain
C.	Pancreas
D.	Liver
A

C. Pancreas

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75
Q 
70.	Which is a feature of the humerus?
A.	Glenoid fossa
B.	Coronoid fossa
C.	Trochlear fossa
D.	Olecranon process
A

B. Coronoid fossa

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76
Q 
79.	The anterior portion of the hard palate is part of which of the following bones?
A.	Maxillary
B.	Sphenoid
C.	Ethmoid
D.	Palatine
A

A. Maxillary

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77
Q 
71.	How many tarsal bones are in the foot?
A.	5
B.	6
C.	7
D.	8
A

C. 7

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78
Q 
80.	Which of the following forms the inferior  attachment of the inguinal ligament?
A.	Pecten pubis
B.	Pubic crest 
C.	Obturator crest
D.	Pubic tubercle
A

D. Pubic tubercle

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79
Q 
72.	What ligament reinforces the posterior portion of the hip joint?
A.	Ischiofemoral
B.	Pubofemoral
C.	Iliofemoral
D.	Transverse acetabular
A

A. Ischiofemoral

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80
Q 
81.	Which of the following veins closely follows the medial antebrachial cutaneous vein?
A.	Cephalic
B.	Basilic vein
C.	Superficial venous palmer arch
D.	Accessory cephalic
A

B. Basilic vein

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81
Q 
73.	The articulation of the humerus and ulna during extension occurs at \_\_\_\_ &\_\_\_\_\_?
A.	Supraulna and radius
B.	Olecranon fossa and olecranon process
C.	Capitulum and radius
D.	Trochlea and olecranon
A

B. Olecranon fossa and olecranon process

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82
Q 
90.	Which of the following ligaments connects the medial and lateral leminiscus of the knee?
A.	Transverse
B.	Ant cruciate
C.	Post cruciate
D.	Collateral
A

A. Transverse

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83
Q 
91.	Which of the following structures separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches (foramen)?
A.	Ishial spine
B.	Ischial tuberosity
C.	Ischial ramus
D.	Ischiopubic ramus
A

A. Ishial spine

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84
Q 
100.	Meissner’s plexus is located in which part of the intestinal lining?
A.	Submucosa
B.	Mucosa
C.	Muscularis
D.	Serosa
A

B. Mucosa

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85
Q 
92.	Which two carpal bones articulate with the radius?
A.	Pisiform and hamate
B.	Triquetium and triangular
C.	Scaphoid and lunate
D.	Trapezium and trapezoid
A

C. Scaphoid and lunate

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86
Q 
101.	Which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle?
A.	Mylohyoid
B.	Thyrohyoid
C.	Omohyoid
D.	Sternohyoid
A

A. Mylohyoid

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87
Q 
93.	What is the action of the soleus muscle (post aspect)?
A.	Eversion
B.	Inversion
C.	Dorsiflexion
D.	Plantar flexion
A

D. Plantar flexion

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88
Q 
102.	Which of the following structures lies proximal to the trochlea on the distal humerus?
A.	Olecranon
B.	Coronoid fossa
C.	Coracoid fossa
D.	Radial artery
A

B. Coronoid fossa

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89
Q 
94.	Fibrocartilage unites bone in which of the following articulations?
A.	Suture
B.	Symphysis
C.	Hinge
D.	Saddle joint
A

B. Symphysis

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90
Q 
103.	Arterial blood supply to urinary bladder is derived from superior & inferior branches?
A.	Internal iliac
B.	External ilia
C.	Common iliac
D.	Aorta
A

A. Internal iliac

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91
Q 
95.	The linea aspera is located on which of the following bones?
A.	Post femur
B.	Ant femur
C.	Post fibula
D.	Ant fibula
A

A. Post femur

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92
Q 
104.	Shape of the ligament on the liver that is a remnant of umbilical vein?
A.	Oval
B.	Left triangular
C.	Round ligament
D.	Right triangular
A

C. Round ligament

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93
Q 
96.	Which of the following is the most common location for a sesmoid bone?
A.	Extensor pollicis longus
B.	Adductor pollicis
C.	Flexor pollicis brevis
D.	Flexor pollicis longus
A

D. Flexor pollicis longus

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94
Q 
105.	The peroneal artery is located in which of the following compartments of the leg?
A.	Ant
B.	Post
C.	Lateral
D.	Medial
A

B. Post

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95
Q 
99.	At what vertebral level is the horizontal fissure of the lung located?
A.	T3
B.	T4
C.	T6
D.	T8
A

C. T6

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96
Q 
106.	Which passes thru the foramen rotundum?
A.	Abducens nerve
B.	Trochlear nerve
C.	Maxillary nerve
D.	Internal jugular nerve
A

C. Maxillary nerve

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97
Q 
1.) 	The medial boundary of the anatomical snuffbox is formed by the \_\_\_\_ muscle?
A. 	Extensor pollicus longus
B. 	Ext. Pollicus brevis
C. 	Ext. Carpi radialis longus
D. 	Ext. Carpi radialis brevis
A

A. Extensor pollicus longus

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98
Q

9.) The fibrous band that runs from the papillary muscle to the atrioventricular valves are WOF?
A. Moderator band
B. Trabeculae carinae
C. Chordae tendinae

A

C. Chordae tendinae

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99
Q 
2.) 	The styloid process is located on which portion of the radius?
A. 	Ant
B. 	Post
C. 	Medial
D. 	Lateral
A

D. Lateral

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100
Q

10) WOF structures is adjacent to the suprascapular artery?
A. Coracoid process
B. Scapular notch
C. Acromion process

A

B. Scapular notch

101
Q 
3.) 	The styloid process is located on which portion of the ulna?
A. 	Ant
B. 	Post
C. 	Medial
D. 	Lateral
A

B. Post
or
C. Medial

102
Q 
11) 	Deficiency in flexion and supination of forearm may indicate damage to WOF nerves?
A. 	Radial
B. 	Ulnar
C. 	Musculocutaneous
D. 	Median
A

C. Musculocutaneous

103
Q 
4.) 	The resting stage of the epiphyseal plate is composed of WOF?
A. 	Cartilage
B. 	Osteoid
C. 	Hyaline cartilage
D. 	Calcified cartilage
A

A. Cartilage

104
Q 
12) 	WOF nerves innervates the peroneus muscle evert foot?
A. 	Deep peroneal
B. 	Superficial peroneal
C. 	Sup gluteal
D. 	Inf gluteal
A

B. Superficial peroneal

105
Q 
5.) 	Which muscle forms the medial border of the cubital fossa?
A. 	Brachioradialis
B. 	Pronator teres 
C. 	Flexor carpi ulnaris
D. 	Supinator
A

B. Pronator teres

106
Q 
13) 	The lunate bone articulates  \_\_\_\_\_  with which bone?
A. 	Laterally with capitulum
B. 	Proximally with radius
C. 	Medially with scaphoid
D. 	Distally with trapezoid
A

B. Proximally with radius

107
Q 
6.) 	The posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein drain into WOF?
A. 	Internal jugular
B. 	External jugular
C. 	Carotid
D. 	Subclavian vein
A

B. External jugular

108
Q 
14) 	WOF gastric glands produce serotonin?
A. 	Chieg
B. 	Mucous neck
C. 	Argentaffin
D. 	Parietal
A

C. Argentaffin

109
Q 
7.) 	WOF is the distal attachment of the adductor longus muscle?
A. 	Lesser trochanter
B. 	Greater trochanter
C. 	Linea aspera 
D. 	Trochanteric fossa
A

C. Linea aspera

110
Q 
15) 	From which embryological structure is the adrenal medulla derived?
A. 	Endoderm
B. 	Ectoderm
C. 	Mesoderm
D. 	Neural crest cells
A

D. Neural crest cells

111
Q 
8.) 	Both ureters lie \_\_\_\_\_ to the psoas major and \_\_\_\_ to the internal and external iliac veins?
A. 	Post & post
B. 	Ant & post
C. 	Ant & ant
D. 	Post & ant
A

C. Ant & ant

112
Q 
16) 	Which muscle is the anterior support of the glenohumeral joint?
A. 	Subscapularis
B. 	Supraspinatus
C. 	Infraspinatus
D. 	Teres minor
A

A. Subscapularis

113
Q 
17) 	WOF structures transforms the scapular notch into the scapular foramen?
A. 	Transverse ligament
B. 	Coracohumeral
C. 	Acromioclavicular
D. 	Coracoacromial
A

A. Transverse ligament

114
Q 
25) 	The action of the anterior tibialis muscles is to \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ the foot?
A. 	Dorsiflex & evert
B. 	Planter flex & invert
C. 	Plantar flex & evert
D. 	Dorsiflex & invert
A

A. Dorsiflex & evert

115
Q 
18) 	Posterior superficial muscles of the leg insert on WOF?
A. 	Cuboid
B. 	Calcaneous
C. 	Talus
D. 	1st metatarsal
A

B. Calcaneous

116
Q 
26) 	The pronator teres muscle is innervated by WOF nerves?
A. 	Radial
B. 	Median
C. 	Ulnar
D. 	Interosseus
A

B. Median

117
Q 
19) 	On WOF bones is the soleal line?
A. 	Femur
B. 	Tibia
C. 	Fibula
D. 	Calcaneous
A

B. Tibia

118
Q 
27) 	WOF carpal bones most often fractures?
A. 	Lunate
B. 	Capitate
C. 	Trapezium
D. 	Scaphoid
A

D. Scaphoid

119
Q 
20) 	What structure shunts blood from the right to the left atrium in the fetus?
A. 	Foramen orale
B. 	Foramen ovalis
C. 	Ductus venosus
D. 	Ductus arteriosus
A

B. Foramen ovalis

120
Q 
28) 	The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into WOF?
A. 	Sphenoethmodial recess
B. 	Sup nasal meatus
C. 	Inf nasal meatus
D. 	Middle nasal meatus
A

D. Middle nasal meatus

121
Q 
21) 	What type of cells make up the uterus?
A. 	Simple columnar
B. 	Simple squanmous
C. 	Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
D. 	Stratified squamous
A

A. Simple columnar

122
Q 
29) 	Which hormone is produced by parafollicular cells of the thyroid?
A. 	Thyroxia
B. 	Calcitonin
C. 	Oxytocin
D. 	Vasopression
A

B. Calcitonin

123
Q 
22) 	WOF forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?
A. 	Sartorius
B. 	Adductor longus
C. 	Inguinal ligament
D. 	Adductor magnus
A

A. Sartorius

124
Q 
30) 	What type of articulation is made up of bone and hyaline cartilage?
A. 	Synchondrosis
B. 	Synarthrosis
C. 	Amphiarthrosis
D. 	Diarthrosis
A

A. Synchondrosis

125
Q 
23) 	On which location of the leg is the great saphenous vein located?
A. 	Superficial medial
B. 	Superficial lateral
C. 	Deep lateral
D. 	Deep medial
A

A. Superficial medial

126
Q 
31) 	WOF ligaments prevents lateral displacement of the tibia?
A. 	Tibial collateral
B. 	Fibula collateral
C. 	Post cruciate
D. 	Ant cruciate
A

B. Fibula collateral

127
Q 
24) 	Membranous bone formation is found in WOF bones?
A. 	Scapula
B. 	Ilium
C. 	Clavicle
D. 	Sternum
A

C. Clavicle

128
Q 
32) 	What structure comes from the urogenital sinus?
A. 	Oviduct
B. 	Uterus
C. 	Vas deferens
D. 	Urethra
A

D. Urethra

129
Q 
33) 	The collateral ligament of the elbow are localized thickening of WOF structures?
A. 	Articular capsule
B. 	Interosseous membrane
C. 	Synovial membrane
D. 	Annular ligament
A

A. Articular capsule

130
Q 
42) 	WOF gastrointestinal structures contains the central lacteals?
A. 	Villi
B. 	Brunner’s gland
C. 	Rugae
D. 	Haustra
A

A. Villi

131
Q 
34) 	WOF lies in the inguinal canal?
A. 	Suspensory ligament of the ovary
B. 	Ovarian ligament
C. 	Broad ligament
D. 	Round ligament of uterus
A

D. Round ligament of uterus

132
Q 
43) 	WOF structures lies poterior lateral to the testes?
A. 	Epididymis
B. 	Ductus deferens
C. 	Ductus spermatious
D. 	Ejaculatory duct
A

A. Epididymis

133
Q 
35) 	WOF is a pivot joint? 
A. 	Proximal tibia fibular
B. 	Talonavicular
C. 	Proximal radioulnar
D. 	Metacarpotrapezium
A

C. Proximal radioulnar

134
Q 
44) 	What directly drains the liver sinusoid?
A. 	Epididymis
B. 	Ductus deferens
C. 	Inf vena cava
D. 	Central vein
A

D. Central vein

135
Q 
36) 	The lateral aspect of the rectus abdominus sheath is known as WOF?
A. 	Inguinal ligament
B. 	Linea alba
C. 	Falciform ligament
D. 	Linea semilunaris
A

D. Linea semilunaris

136
Q 
45) 	The pampiniform plexus is located in WOF?
A. 	Glans penis
B. 	Gubernaculum
C. 	Prostrate
D. 	Spermatic cord
A

D. Spermatic cord

137
Q 
37) 	Plasma cells are derived from WOF?
A. 	Neutrophils 
B. 	Basophils
C. 	Lymphocytes
D. 	Monocytes
A

C. Lymphocytes

138
Q 
46) 	The intertrochanteric crest is located on which aspect of the femur?
A. 	Medial
B. 	Lateral
C. 	Ant
D. 	Post
A

D. Post

139
Q

38) WOF muscles attaches to the proximal ulna and medial epicondyle of the humerous?
A. Anconeus
B. Pronator teres
C. Brachioradialis

A

B. Pronator teres

140
Q 
47) 	The urogenital system develops from WOF?
A. 	Paraxial mesoderm
B. 	Intermediate mesoderm
C. 	Somatic mesoderm
D. 	Brachial mesenchyme
A

B. Intermediate mesoderm

141
Q 
39) 	What is the action of the plantar interosseus muscles of the foot?
A. 	Abduct
B. 	Adduct
C. 	Flex
D. 	Extend
A

B. Adduct

142
Q 
48) 	A laceration of the profunda brachii artery could cause damage to which nerve that accompanies it?
A. 	Medial
B. 	Radial
C. 	Ulnar
D. 	Musculocutaneous
A

B. Radial

143
Q 
40) 	WOF is controlled by the pituitary gland?
A. 	Follicular cells
B. 	Parathyroid
C. 	Parafollicular cells
D. 	Parietal cells
A

A. Follicular cells

144
Q 
49) 	WOF muscles closes the glottis?
A. 	Post cricoarytenoid
B. 	Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. 	Thyroarytenoid
D. 	Cricothyroid
A

B. Lateral cricoarytenoid

145
Q 
41) 	WOF structures directly adheres to the kidney?
A. 	Pararenal fat
B. 	Renal fascia
C. 	Renal capsule
D. 	Perirenal fat
A

C. Renal capsule

146
Q

50) WOF muscles attaches to the pillars of fauces?
A. Tensor & levator vela palatine
B. Tensor vela palatine & palatoglossus
C. Palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus
D. Palate & levator vela palatine

A

C. Palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus

147
Q 
58) 	The tendon of which muscle passes through the internal capsule of the shoulder?
A. 	Biceps brachii
B. 	Triceps brachii
C. 	Subscapularis
D. 	Deltoid
A

A. Biceps brachii

148
Q 
51) 	WOF metatarsal bones articulate with the hamate?
A. 	1st & 2nd 
B. 	2nd & 3rd 
C. 	3rd & 4th 
D. 	4th & 5th
A

D. 4th & 5th

149
Q 
59) 	Which bones develop primarily from the interosseus membrane?
A. 	Mandible
B. 	Parietal
C. 	Maxillary
D. 	Zygomatic
A

B. Parietal

150
Q 
52) 	The junction of the sagital and coronal plates meet at WOF?
A. 	Lambola
B. 	Bregma
C. 	Pterion
D. 	Asterion
A

B. Bregma

151
Q 
60) 	What structure passes through the right and left crura at T12?
A. 	Aorta hiatus
B. 	Esophageal hiatus
C. 	Inf vena cava hiatus
D. 	Thoracic duct
A

A. Aorta hiatus

152
Q 
53) 	Which muscle initiates abduction of the glennohumeral joint?
A. 	Deltoid
B. 	Infraspinatus
C. 	Supraspinatus
D. 	Subscapularis
A

C. Supraspinatus

153
Q 
61) 	When the adenoids swell they occlude WOF?
A. 	Eustachian tube
B. 	Stenson’s duct
C. 	Canal of Schlemm
D. 	Wharton’s duct
A

A. Eustachian tube

154
Q 
54) 	The biceps brachii muscle attaches to which structure on the radius?
A. 	Styloid process
B. 	Head
C. 	Neck
D. 	Tubercle
A

D. Tubercle

155
Q 
62) 	The ulnar nerve lies between WOF bones?
A. 	Scaphoid & lunate
B. 	Pisiform & hamate
C. 	Trapezium & trapezoid
D. 	Lunate & triangular
A

B. Pisiform & hamate

156
Q 
55) 	The haustra of the large intestine is formed by WOF?
A.   Diverticulum
B. 	Appendices epiplociae
C. 	Intestinal valves
D. 	Taenia coli
A

D. Taenia coli

157
Q 
63) 	Which structure passes through the inguinal canal?
A. 	Round ligament of uterus
B. 	Broad ligament
C. 	Uterine ligament
D. 	Inguinal ligament
A

A. Round ligament of uterus

158
Q 
56) 	Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves?
A. 	Sagittal
B. 	Transverse
C. 	Semisagittal
D. 	Coronal
A

D. Coronal

159
Q 
64) 	WOF muscles is responsible for the inferior rotation of the thigh?
A. 	Gluteus maximus
B. 	Gluteus minimus
C. 	Gluteus medius
D. 	Obturator externus
A

B. Gluteus minimus

160
Q 
The area of the bladder between two ureter orfices and the opening for the urethra is called?
A. 	Trigone
B. 	Internal urethral sphincter
C. 	External sphincter
D. 	Detrusor urinae
A

A. Trigone

161
Q 
65) 	The lateral aspect of the ilium gives rise to the \_\_\_\_ , \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ of the gluteal lines?
A. 	Sup, inf & medial
B. 	Ant, post & inf
C. 	Ant, post & sup
D. 	Inf, sup & medial
A

B. Ant, post & inf

162
Q 
66) 	WOF structures is composed of hyaline cartilage?
A. 	Bronchi
B. 	Tertiary bronchioles
C. 	Respiratory bronchioles
D. 	Aveolar duct
A

A. Bronchi

163
Q 
74) 	WOF cells produce surfactant?
A. 	Type 1 pneumocyte
B. 	Goblet
C. 	Type 2 pneumocyte
D. 	Macrophage
A

C. Type 2 pneumocyte

164
Q 
67) 	When bronchi separate in the lung how many are on the right side?
A. 	2 lobar
B. 	3 lobar
C. 	2 segmental
D. 	3 segmental
A

B. 3 lobar

165
Q 
75) 	From which part of a cell is the cupola (apex of lung dreived?
A. 	Cervical pleura
B. 	Costal pleura
C. 	Mediastinal pleura
D. 	Diaphragmatic pleura
A

A. Cervical pleura

166
Q 
68) 	WOF cranial nerves transverse the foramen rotundum?
A. 	Opthalamic of V
B. 	Maxillary of V
C. 	Mandibular of V
D. 	Facial nerve
A

B. Maxillary of V

167
Q 
76) 	The junction of the esophagus and stomach is located in WOF?
A. 	Post to heart
B. 	At esophageal hiatus
C. 	Inf to diaphragm 
D. 	Upper border of T9
A

C. Inf to diaphragm

168
Q 
69) 	WOF muscles attaches to the iliotibilal tract?
A. 	Gluteus maximus
B. 	Pectineus
C. 	Gluteus medius
D. 	Quadratus femoris
A

A. Gluteus maximus

169
Q 
77) 	The coronary sinus drains into which chamber of the heart?
A. 	Right atrium
B. 	Right ventricle
C. 	Left atrium
D. 	Left ventricle
A

A. Right atrium

170
Q 
70) 	The majority of the respiratory tract is composed of WOF cells?
A. 	Simple squamous
B. 	Simple columnar
C. 	Stratified squamous
D. 	Pseudostratified columnar
A

D. Pseudostratified columnar

171
Q 
78) 	The root of the spine of the scapula is located close to WOF?
A. 	Acromion process 
B. 	Inf angle
C. 	Vertebral border
D. 	Sup angle
A

C. Vertebral border

172
Q 
71) 	WOF metacarpal bones articulates with the hamate?
A.	4th & 5th
B.	1st & 2nd
C.	2nd & 3rd
D.	3rd & 4th
A

A. 4th & 5th

173
Q 
79) 	The adenohypophysis is dreived from WOF?
A. 	Mesoderm
B. 	Endoderm
C. 	Neuroectoderm
D. 	Oral ectoderm
A

D. Oral ectoderm

174
Q

72) The pituitary gland controls the ____ organs that secrete ____ from the ____ cells?
A. Adrenal cortex - cortisol from the fasiculatus
B. Thyroid - thyroxine from the parafollicular cells

A

A. Adrenal cortex - cortisol from the fasiculatus

175
Q 
80) 	Malformation of the hindgut is a result of abnormal?
A. 	Fusion of mesentery
B. 	Development of urogenital septum
C. 	Migration of neural creat cells
D. 	Rotation of the gut
A

B. Development of urogenital septum

176
Q 
73) 	WOF nerves innervate the anterior part of the leg?
A. 	Sural
B. 	Saphanous
C. 	Deep peroneal
D. 	Superficial peroneal
A

C. Deep peroneal

177
Q 
81) 	The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is located in which part of the mediastinum?
A. 	Sup
B. 	Ant
C. 	Middle
D. 	Post
A

C. Middle

178
Q

When the scapula moves anterior & lateral it is called _______.

A

Protraction

179
Q

Calcitonin is secreted by which cell?

A

Parafollicular

180
Q

Which pulse is palpated just proximal to the hypothenar pad?

A

Ulnar

181
Q

Which types of cells are found throughout the respiratory tract?

A

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar

182
Q

The palatoglossus & palatopharyngeus form which of the following?

A

Pillars of Fauces

183
Q

What is a characteristic of the large intestine?

A

Haustra

184
Q

The esophageal hiatus is located @ which vertebral level?

A

T10

185
Q

The peronius longus tendon goes under the foot & crosses the groove of which bone?

A

Cuboid

186
Q

Which of the following structures pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm?

A

Internal Vena Cava @ T8

187
Q

The apex of the lung is @ what level?

A

Just above the 1st Rib

188
Q

Which of the following produces surfactant?

A

Type II Alveolar Cells

189
Q

Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT:

 a) striated 
 b) voluntary 
 c) multinucleate 
 d) autorhythmic
A

d) autorhythmic

190
Q

The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue:

 a) striated 
 b) skeletal 
 c) cardiac 
 d) smooth
A

d) smooth

191
Q

Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue:

 a) is involuntary
 b) is non-striated 
 c) has intercalated discs
 d) contains smooth muscle tissue
A

c) has intercalated discs

192
Q

Approximately what percentage of body heat is generated by muscle tissue:

 a) 15% 
 b) 30% 
 c) 55% 
 d) 85% 
 e) 98%
A

d) 85%

193
Q

A muscle fascicle is a:

 a) bundle of myofibrils 
 b) bundle of connective tissue 
 c) bundle of muscle fibers 
 d) muscle cell
A

c) bundle of muscle fibers

194
Q

The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a:

 a) sarcomere 
 b) motor unit 
 c) synapse 
 d) thin filament
A

a) sarcomere

195
Q

The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are:

 a) myosin and tropomyosin 
 b) myosin and actin 
 c) actin and troponin 
 d) troponin and tropomyosin
A

d) troponin and tropomyosin

196
Q

Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle:

 a) constriction of blood vessels 
 b) heartbeat 
 c) dilation of pupil     
 d) eye movements
A

d) eye movements

197
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction:

 a) thick and thin filaments bind to each other 
 b) muscle fibers stretch 
 c) thick and thin filaments "slide" past each other 
 d) muscle fibers shorten
A

b) muscle fibers stretch

198
Q

This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction:

 a) calcium is released from intracellular storage sites 
 b) motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle 
 c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine 
 d) troponin binds calcium
A

c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine

199
Q

The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from:

 a) excessive acetycholine activity on muscle 
 b) excessive calcium release in muscle 
 c) excessive lactic acid build up 
 d) excessive contraction of the fibers
A

b) excessive calcium release in muscle

200
Q

A single motor neuron may innervate as few as 3-5 fibers in muscles of the:

 a) upper arms 
 b) legs 
 c) eye 
 d) heart
A

c) eye

201
Q

When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron:

 a) calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber 
 b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft 
 c) acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft 
 d) physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs
A

b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft

202
Q

Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in:

a) decrease acetylcholine production by the motor neuron
b) relaxation of the muscle fiber
c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
d) inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fiber

A

c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber

203
Q

Curare, a toxin, blocks the acetylcholine receptors on muscle tissue. This would result in:

a) increased stimulation of the muscle fiber
b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus
c) contraction of the muscle fiber
d) excessive contractions and convulsions

A

b) inability of the muscle to respond to motor nerve stimulus

204
Q

Training excersizes such as jogging, swimming and aerobics have this effect on skeletal muscle tissue:

 a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber
 b) increase number of muscle fibers 
 c) increase number of motor units 
 d) increase number of skeletal muscles
A

a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber

205
Q

Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder characterized by

 a) skeletal muscle degeneration 
 b) excessive convulsions 
 c) shaking and trembling 
 d) only cardiac damage
A

a) skeletal muscle degeneration

206
Q

Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful musculoskeletal “tender points”:

 a) fibromyalgia  
 b) myasthenia gravis  
 c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy  
 d) Becker muscular dystrophy
A

a) fibromyalgia

207
Q

Anabolic steroids have all these effects except:

 a) builds muscle proteins 
 b) increases muscle strength 
 c) increases number of muscles in the body 
 d) can result in liver cancer and heart disease
A

c) increases number of muscles in the body

208
Q

Which of the following statements regarding aging and the muscular system is true:

a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
b) the effects of aging can be nearly completely reversed
c) satellite cells increase in aging causing fibrosis
d) young persons have more adipose in muscles compared to elderly persons

A

a) aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production

209
Q
  1. Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue:
    a. lacunae
    b. protein fibers
    c. blood vessels
    d. chondroitin
A

d. chondroitin

210
Q
  1. The most common type of exocrine gland is this type:
    a. apocrine
    b. merocrine
    c. endocrine
    d. holocrine
A

b. merocrine

211
Q

Epithelia that consist of more than one layer of cells is termed:

 a. striated 
 b. stratified 
 c. stipilated 
 d. intercalated
A

b. stratified

212
Q

The matrix of connective tissue is composed of:

 a. cells, fibers and ground substance 
 b. cells and fibers 
 c. fibers and ground substance 
 d. cells and ground substance
A

c. fibers and ground substance

213
Q

Small hair-like structures on the surface of some epithelial cells are termed:

 a. cilia 
 b. glia 
 c. villi 
 d. microvilli
A

a. cilia

214
Q

These cells are located in bone tissue:

 a. chondroblasts 
 b. osteocytes 
 c. fibroblasts 
 d. chondrocytes
A

b. osteocytes

215
Q

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury:

 a. bone 
 b. epithelium 
 c. cartilage 
 d. muscle
A

b. epithelium

216
Q

The small holes in which some connective tissue cells reside are termed:

 a. lumen 
 b. lamellae 
 c. lacunae 
 d. lamaze
A

c. lacunae

217
Q

Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle tissue fibers:

 a. striated 
 b. voluntary 
 c. multinucleate 
 d. branched
A

d. branched

218
Q

Which of the following suffixes implies “growth” or “formation”:

 a. -blast 
 b. -lemma 
 c. -stasis 
 d. -cyte
A

a. -blast

219
Q

Based on basic tissue type, which of the following terms does not belong grouped with the others:

 a. muscle 
 b. ligament 
 c. cartilage 
 d. blood
A

a. muscle

220
Q

A tissue viewed under the microscope displays cells in little holes, densely packed fibers and no blood vessels. This describes:

 a. dense regular connective tissue 
 b. hyaline cartilage 
 c. fibrocartilage 
 d. adipose tissue
A

c. fibrocartilage

221
Q

Which of the following characteristics can be used to describe epithelial tissue:

 a. it is derived from mesenchyme 
 b. sarcomas originate from it 
 c. it is well vascularized 
 d. it forms the glands of the body
A

d. it forms the glands of the body

222
Q

The serous membrane lining the surface of the lung is the:

 a. parietal pleura 
 b. visceral peritoneum 
 c. visceral pleura 
 d. peritoneal pleura
A

c. visceral pleura

223
Q

Read the following statements carefully. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT statements: (hint - a statement may appear to be stating correct facts and yet be incorrect as a whole statement. Read and Think.

1) Cartilage heals slower than skin because cartilage is a deeper tissue.
2) The inside lining of the intestine has a large surface area because of the presence of cilia.
3) Adipose is a type of connective tissue because that is where fat is stored.

A

all are incorrect statements

224
Q

The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:

a) perichondrium
b) periosteum
c) endosteum
d) exofibrium
e) articular cartilage

A

b) periosteum

225
Q

Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:

a) sternum
b) ethmoid
c) femur
d) patella
e) phalanx

A

d) patella

226
Q

These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:

a) osteoclasts & collagen
b) mineralized salts & osteocytes
c) mineralized salts & collagen
d) collagen & elastic fibers
e) collagen & mesenchyme

A

c) mineralized salts & collagen

227
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:

a) epiphysis
b) metaphysis
c) diaphysis
d) epiphyseal plate
e) mesenchyme

A

c) diaphysis

228
Q

Yellow marrow consists of:

a) osteoprogenitor cells
b) blood cell progenitor cells
c) hyaline cartilage
d) adipose
e) spongy bone

A

d) adipose

229
Q

Chondroblasts produce:

a) basement membranes
b) bone matrix
c) cartilage matrix
d) mesothelium
e) endothelium

A

c) cartilage matrix

230
Q

These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:

a) Haversian canals
b) canaliculi
c) perforating canals
d) osteocytes
e) lacunae

A

a) Haversian canals

231
Q

The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:

a) osteoclasts
b) chondrocytes
c) osteocytes
d) fibroblasts
e) osteoblasts

A

c) osteocytes

232
Q

Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:

a) an indication of microcephaly
b) frontal sinuses
c) epiphyseal plates
d) cribriform plates
e) fontanelles

A

e) fontanelles

233
Q

Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of:

a) bone remodeling
b) embryonic skeletal ossification
c) controlling blood calcium levels
d) cartilage synthesis

A

b) embryonic skeletal ossification

234
Q

Which of the following is not a cranial suture:

a) epiphyseal
b) lambdoidal
c) coronal
d) sagittal
e) squamous

A

a) epiphyseal

235
Q

The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:

a) zygomatic and temporal
b) palatine and maxillae
c) maxillae and zygomatic
d) maxillae and mandible

A

b) palatine and maxillae

236
Q

The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:

a) nasal and lacrimal
b) inferior nasal choncae and vomer
c) vomer and ethmoid
d) ethmoid and sphenoid

A

c) vomer and ethmoid

237
Q

Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:

a) deviated nasal septum
b) sinusitis
c) damaged cribriform plate
d) damaged or cleft palate
e) ruptured bursae

A

c) damaged cribriform plate

238
Q

“Articulations” refers to:

a) broken bones
b) the study of individual bones
c) bone growth and remodeling
d) structures on bones where muscles attach
e) joints

A

e) joints

239
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the cranium:

a) sphenoid
b) palatine
c) ethmoid
d) occipital

A

b) palatine

240
Q

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:

a) femur
b) sternum
c) mandible
d) sacrum

A

a) femur

241
Q

18) The “Hunchback” of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
a) cleft palate
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lordosis
e) spina bifida

A

c) kyphosis

242
Q

Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:

a) spina bifida
b) scoliosis
c) sinusitis
d) kyphosis
e) lordosis

A

a) spina bifida

243
Q

The thickened cartilage “cushions” found in the knee that absorb compression are:

a) the menisci
b) the bursae
c) the ligaments
d) the synovial capsules
e) epiphyseal plates

A

a) the menisci

244
Q

Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:

a) bones held together by cartilage
b) joint surfaces of bones covered with articulating cartilage
c) has joint cavity
d) has 2-layered joint capsule
e) most freely movable of joints

A

a) bones held together by cartilage

245
Q

A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a:

a) cruciate
b) bursae
c) collateral
d) patellar

A

c) collateral

246
Q

Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:

a) removal of a torn meniscus in the knee
b) removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee
c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee
d) repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee

A

c) repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee

247
Q

The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:

a) chondroitin sulfate
b) hydroxyapatite
c) osteoblasts
d) blood vessels
e) synovial fluid

A

d) blood vessels

248
Q

This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:

a) growth hormone
b) estrogen
c) parathyroid hormone
d) calcitonin

A

c) parathyroid hormone

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