general anaesthetics Flashcards

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1
Q

three main categories of anaesthetic

A

local, regional and general

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2
Q

what is anaesthesia

A

the reversible loss of awareness in pain

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3
Q

local anaesthesia

A

small area has sensation blocked, patient remains conscious

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4
Q

regional anaesthesia

A

pain sensation in region of body are blocked.

Allows more extensive procedures to take plain but maintains the advantage that patients are conscious. Is safer than general anaesthesia

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5
Q

general anaesthesia

A

general: patient is given a drug that causes them to loose consciousness (and enter a state or altered consciousness)

Can essentially be viewed as a medically induced coma

Allows major surgery to take place
-that may be too painful or traumatic for the patient (or too difficult for the surgeon) if the patient were conscious

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6
Q

historical general anaesthetics

A

nitrous oxide, chloroform, ether

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7
Q

the first ‘modern’ anaesthetic

A

haloethane

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8
Q

problems with ether

A

highly flammable

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9
Q

problems with chloroform

A

hepatoxic and causes cardiac dysrhythmias

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10
Q

problems with haloethane

A

It causes liver damage with repeated use because (unlike other inhlaed agents) a substantial fraction (20%) is metabolised in the liver.

The product of this metabolism is trifluroacetic acid, which causes hepatitis.

This is a problem not just for patients, but for operating theatre staff who breathe in “waste” halothane.

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11
Q

stage 1: induction/ analgesia

A

patient is conscious but drowsy
they have reduced response to pain

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12
Q

stage 2: excitement

A

patient may become delirious and hypersensitive to pain (pain responses preserved)

may have increased gag reflex making intubation difficult

concerns in this phase: choking, breath holding, movement and vomiting
-important to limit the amount of time patient is in stage 2

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13
Q

stage 3: surgical anaesthesia

A

desired stage for surgery

there are 4 substages (‘planes’) in stage 3

as you move through the phases there is progressive shallowing of breathing and loss of muscle tone and reflex

plane 3 is said to be the ideal state for surgery, because there is relaxation of the thoracic and abdominal muscles

stage 4 results in apnea due to diaphragm paralysis

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14
Q

stage 4: anaesthetic overdose

A

in this stage there is medullary paralysis, cessation of respiration and loss of vasomotor control
without rapid intervention, the patient will die

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15
Q

goals of an anaesthetist

A

Achieve a pleasant, rapid induction

Spend as little time in stage II as possible

Get the patient into stage III as quickly as possible

Make this surgery as easy as possible for the surgeon

Stay out of stage IV

Achieve a rapid recovery from anaesthesia, with minimal post operative pain

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16
Q

pre-operative/ sedative anxiolytic

A

midazolam

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17
Q

induction of anaesthesia

A

propofol (IV)

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18
Q

maintenance of anaesthesia

A

isoflourane/ nitrous oxide mixture (inhaled)

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19
Q

relax tracheal muscles to facilitate intubation

A

suxamethonium

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20
Q

post operative analgesia

A

fentanyl

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21
Q

overton and myer

A

reported that the potency of the general anaesthetic is directly proportional to the lipophilicity

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22
Q

lipid theories

A

fluidizaition
volume expansion

These changes were presumed to affect the behaviour of the ion channels and receptors in the membrane.

However, the lipid theories explain drug action in terms of the AMOUNT of anaesthetic that accumulates in the membrane (which is related to the drug’s lipid solubility).

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23
Q

fluidization

A

Anaesthetic causes the membrane to become more fluid. As normal operation of the channel depends on its interactions with the solvent it is dissolved in (the membrane), its function is altered and it closes

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24
Q

volume expansion

A

The general anaesthetic causes the membrane to thicken. This alters interactions between the membrane and the channels/ receptors within it, causing their function to change

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25
Q

problems with lipid theories

A

The potency of alkyl alcohols increases up to around 13 carbons in length, but this is the cut off point
-suggests binding to a pocket of a defined size within a protein

Stereoisomers of anaesthetics have identical effects on membrane but can differ in their anaesthetic potency

Temperature changes fluidise membranes, but do not produce effects similar to general anaesthetics

Not all lipophilic molecules are general anaesthetics

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26
Q

current view of how anaesthetics work

A

protein theories

seems more likely that anaesthetics alter the way the protein moves between different conformational states.
-For example, an ion channel might have a higher likelihood of opening in the presence of a general anaesthetic.

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27
Q

Protein theories explain the lipophilic nature of general anaesthetics by proposing that:

A

the binding sites on target proteins are located in their membrane regions.

Thus, the drug would have to dissolve in the bilayer to be able to access its target site

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28
Q

how can the myer-overton correlation be explained in terms if we hypothesise actions of GA are protein dependent

A

that anaesthetics have to cross the blood brain barrier in order to exert their actions, and this depends on lipophilicity.

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29
Q

GA target proteins

A

Potentiating GABAA receptors and strychnine-sensitive glycine receptors
-extrasynaptic GABAA receptors may be particularly important targets of general anaesthetics

Potentiating two-pore-domain potassium channels

Inhibiting ionotropic glutamate receptors

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30
Q

two pore-domain potassium channels

A

Potassium channels that are open at resting membrane potential
-determine the resting membrane potential

Have two pore-forming domains in each subunit (and 4 transmembrane domains)

Assemble as dimer with 2 pore forming domains from each subunit contributing to the lining of the channel

Compounds that potentiate the function of these channels (more potassium moves out of cell) will produce neuronal inhibition

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31
Q

types of anaesthesia

A

inhalation
intravenous
neurolept
dissociative

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32
Q

inhalation

A

Requires use of volatile agent, that can be mixed with air or oxygen and delivered to patient via a mask

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33
Q

advantages of inhalation

A

by adjusting the mixture of anaesthetic drug reaching the patient, its relatively easy to maintain a certain level of anaesthesia

there will be rapid equilibration between the inhaled gas and the patient’s tissues

Most general anaesthetics undergo only limited metabolism in the patient’s body, and they will leave by the same route that they entered: the patient’s lungs. This can give rapid emergence from anaesthesia

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34
Q

potency of general anaecthetics

A

For an injected or orally administered drug, we would normally express potency as an ED 50 with units of mg/kg.
-we cannot do this for an inhaled drug.

inhaled anaesthetic potency is expressed as its minimum alveolar concentration (MAC).

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35
Q

minimum alveolar concentration

A

This is the minimum concentration of the anaesthetic at 1 atm pressure that is needed to prevent movement in 50% of subjects in response to an incision.

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36
Q

oil-gas partition coefficient

A

This is a measurement and anaesthetics lipid solubility and we have already met the idea that high lipid solubility confers high potency (probably due to needing to cross the blood-brain barrier).

the oil gas partition coefficient can also impact on pharmacokinetics.
If our anaesthetic is highly soluble in fat, lots of the anaesthetic will partition into fatty tissues. Because fat has a poor blood supply, the anaesthetic will take a long time to leave this tissue.
Our patients will have a slowly resolving “hangover” as the anaesthetic gradually leaks back into their blood and leaves the body via the lungs.
This will be worse the fatter the patient and the more fat-soluble the drug. Again, we have a short animation to help with this concept (no sound

37
Q

blood gas partition coefficient

A

The blood gas partition coefficient of an anaesthetic is one of the determinants of induction and recovery speed.

This parameter is essentially a measure of how well the drug dissolves in blood compared with gas

a drug with a low blood gas partition coefficient will give rapid induction and rapid recovery

38
Q

disadvantages of inhalation

A

Longer induction and marked stage II
-slower compared to intravenous agents
-risk patient will spend more time in dangerous, excitation stage II

Equipment factors and psychological distress
-require complex, expensive, bulky equipment -patient can become stresses from experience of having mass placed over face

Metabolism, toxicity and environmental damage
-Although inhaled general anaesthetic metabolism is unimportant for elimination, metabolites can be a significant source of toxicity both for the patient and operating theatre staff.

39
Q

flurane metabolism problem

A

Flurane general anaesthetics generate fluoride when they are metabolised which can cause renal toxicity.

40
Q

halothane metabolism problems

A

is converted to bromide and trifluoroacetic acid which can cause liver toxicity, leukaemia, spontaneous abortions and birth defects

problem in operating theatres with staff who were repeatedly exposed to halothane

41
Q

why are most inhaled general anaesthetics damaging to the environment

A

because they have up to 2000x the green house gas effect of CO2

42
Q

two most common inhalation anaesthetics in the UK

A

nitrous oxide and isoflurane

desflurane and sevoflurane are becoming more popular but are considerably more expensive

43
Q

haloether compounds

A

halothane, isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane

44
Q

what are haloether compounds thought to act on?

A

potentiate GABA A receptors leading to increased inhibitory transmission

inhibit NMDA receptors leading to decreases in excitatory transmission

potentiate two pore domain potassium channels leading to increased neuronal inhibition

45
Q

isoflurane effects

A

Can produce hypotension through two different mechanisms
-it is a negative inotropic (decreases force of contraction)
-can decrease peripheral vascular resistance

46
Q

most commonly used general anaesthetic

A

isoflurane

47
Q

what is a suggested outcome of the coronary vasodilatory properties if isoflurane

A

may worsen ischaemia in parts of the heart that are supplied by vessels with atherosclerosis

phenomenon known as coronary steal and occurs because blood is diverted away from the ischemic areas into the dilated blood vessel

48
Q

toxicity of isoflurane

A

low toxicity
it is not significantly metabolised

49
Q

concerns with isoflurane?

A

Have been some concerns it can induce neurodegeneration

-has been shown experimentally in neonatal animal models
-appears to have a greater tendency to promote neurodegeneration than sevoflurane

50
Q

why does sevoflurane have rapid induction?

A

due to its low blood: gas coefficient

however this recovery can be so rapid that post-operative pain relief is frequently needed

51
Q

high oil gas partition

A

lots of the anaesthetic will partition into fatty tissues. Because fat has a poor blood supply, the anaesthetic will take a long time to leave this tissue.
Our patients will have a slowly resolving “hangover” as the anaesthetic gradually leaks back into their blood and leaves the body via the lungs.
This will be worse the fatter the patient

52
Q

toxicity of sevoflurane

A

some metabolism to release fluoride but this is not significant

doesn’t produce respiratory tract irritation

evidence for some neurodegeneration being caused, but this is less than with isoflurane

53
Q

toxicity of desflurane

A

Although there is very little metabolism, can produce significant irritation of the respiratory tract, can lead to coughing
causes high levels of sympathetic activity, which is dangerous in patients whose cardiac function is compromised

54
Q

blood gas partition of desflurane

A

Low blood: gas partition coefficient

less soluble in blood than sevoflurane

makes it particularly suitable for use on obese patients
-however has a rather low potency

55
Q

mechanism of nitrous oxide

A

It is a moderately potent blocker of MNDA receptors and this probably underlies its anaesthetic actions

It may have some additional but weaker potentiating actions at GABAA receptors and other targets that mediate its anxiolytic and analgesic effects

56
Q

potency of nitrous oxide

A

Has a very low potencyits potency is so low that it cannot be used to produce a surgical anaesthesia on its own

even an 80% mixture with oxygen does not produce a loss of consciousness

57
Q

ethanox

A

50/50 mix of nitrogen oxide and oxygen

commonly used in trauma and obstetrics

58
Q

mechanisms of nitrous oxide

A

It is a moderately potent blocker of NMDA receptors and this probably underlies its anaesthetic actions

It may have some additional but weaker potentiating actions at GABAA receptors and other targets that mediate its anxiolytic and analgesic effects

59
Q

why does nitrous oxide have low potency

A

due to its low oil : gas partition coefficient and this caused other problems

when the patient stops receiving nitrous oxide, the anaesthetic can transfer very rapidly from the blood into the lungs, reducing the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs

also a problem if the has recently been scuba diving
-scuba divers can have tiny bubbles of nitrogen in their blood which doesn’t usually cause a problem. However, Nitrous oxide can transfer from the liquid phase of the blood into these bubbles and expand them to cause gas emboli

60
Q

problems with nitrous oxide drug abuse

A

N2O is relatively safe but is contraindicated in early pregnancy as it can produce foetal abnormalities

it can also cause or exacerbate vitamin B12 deficiency, which has been a problem in some recreational users

61
Q

advantages of intravenous anaesthesia over inhalation methods

A

rapid induction

Very limited stage II anaesthesia

Simple apparatus (syringe/ infusion system)

Relatively pleasant induction (no mask)

No atmospheric pollution

62
Q

disadvantages of anaesthesia

A

‘once its in, its in’: the level of anaesthesia can be difficult to control

Recovery can be slow due to redistribution metabolism

Vein damage van occur e.g. thrombophlebitis

63
Q

what are intravenous anaesthetics used for

A

largely avoid stage II anaesthesia (the excitation phase), they often used to induce anaesthesia in a balanced anaesthesia protocol

once patient has reached stage III, an inhalation anaesthetic can then be used to maintain anaesthesia during surgery

however for a short surgeries intravenous anaesthetics may be suitable for the entire procedure

64
Q

what type of drug is sodium thiopental

A

barbiturate

65
Q

effect of sodium thiopental being very lipid soluble

A

so crosses the blood-brain barrier very quickly which makes induction dependent only on blood flow i.e. very rapid.

However, it is rapidly redistributed into tissues and accumulates in fat.
-This means that it has the same problems with a hangover effect that are seen with inhalational agents with a high oil: blood partition coefficient. This issue precludes thiopental being used via continuous infusion and it is only used as an induction agent.

66
Q

what is sodium thiopental increasingly being replaced by?

A

It is being increasingly replaced by propofol and etomidate.

67
Q

mechanism of sodium thiopental

A

The mechanism of the barbiturates anaesthetics is thought largely to be by positive allosteric modulation of GABAA receptors.
-At higher doses, barbiturates are able to directly activate the GABAA receptor and this makes them particularly dangerous in overdose.

Some studies have also found that barbiturates also act as inhibitors of AMPA type glutamate receptors.

68
Q

effects of sodium thiopental

A

Thiopental can produce respiratory and cardiac depression.

it is used as one of the agents in lethal injections and in euthanasia, partly because of these properties.

It can also induce arrhythmias as a side effect.

69
Q

how is propofol thought to act?

A

Propofol, also named Divipram, is thought to act largely by allosterically potentiating GABAA receptors

although at higher doses may be able to directly activate the receptor and is somewhat similar to the barbiturates in this respect.

70
Q

how is propofol administered?

A

as an emulsion

as a single does or as via continuous infusion

71
Q

how is propofol used?

A

become very widely used as an induction agent and is used as a sole agent in short surgeries.

72
Q

advantages of propofol

A

It is rapidly metabolised giving a rapid recovery compared to other IV agents.

It produces little or no hangover effect and has lower rates of post-operative nausea and vomiting than thiopental or etomidate.

73
Q

disadvantages of propofol

A

The most common side effect of propofol is pain when it is injected but this can be managed with analgesic agents.

It can also cause hypotension due to its cardiovascular effects and it can decrease respiratory drive

Propofol has been widely abused by medical personnel for its amnesic, euphoric and hypnotic properties.

it has a steep dose response curve and this has led to accidental overdose in some cases.

74
Q

etomidate shares many characteristic with what drug

A

propofol

75
Q

uses of etomidate

A

generally used for induction or short surgeries, and is rapidly metabolised, so recovery is fast

76
Q

side effects of etomidate

A

It has a good cardiovascular profile but can cause post-operative nausea and vomiting and like propofol can caue pain at the injection site.

One additional side-effect is that it can suppress the production of steroids by the adrenal cortex.

77
Q

what type of anaesthesia is ketamine

A

dissociative anaesthesia

78
Q

mechanism of ketamine

A

none competitive antagonist at NMDA receptors

79
Q

what doses of ketamine produce loss of consciousness? what drug is this similar to?

A

high doses of ketamine, similar effects to nitrous oxide

80
Q

serious side effect of haloether inhalation agents

A

malignant hyperthermia

81
Q

what anaesthetics do not trigger malignant hyperthermia

A

intravenous anaesthetics and non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker

82
Q

what is malignant hyperthermia characterised by?

A

muscle rigidity and increase in body temperature

83
Q

what can malignant hyperthermia lead to

A

kidney failure

84
Q

genetic factor of people at risk of MH

A

usually have either a mutation in an L type calcium channel subunit or a mutation in the ryanodine receptor
-these mutations make the system sensitive to inhalational anaesthetics and suxamethonium

85
Q

what happens if someone with an MH mutation is given a trigger drug?

A

calcium floods out of the SR triggering sustained muscle contraction.
This generates large amounts of heat - hence the hyperthermia part of the name.

86
Q

what is the mortality rate of MH? how is this reduced?

A

mortality rate of 80% but this is reduced to 5% if patients are treated with a muscle relaxant called dantrolene.

87
Q

how does dantrolene work?

A

blocks the ryanodine receptor, preventing the release of calcium from the SR

88
Q

what doe neurolept anaesthesia involve

A

the use of an antipsychotic and an opioid

Many antipsychotics produce profound sedation when combined with an opioid, this can produce a rapid acting anaesthesia with similar effects to ketamine

89
Q

etorphine

A

is an opioid around 2000x more potent than morphine

one drop is sufficient to kill an adult human within a few minutes

the tranquiliser darts are always supplied with an antidote (revivon) in case of accidental human exposure