General Abdo Flashcards

1
Q

PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS is what

clinical features

A

Progressive cholestasis with bile duct inflammation and strictures.
Clinical features: jaundice, steatorrhoea, pruritus, fatigue weight loss, malabsorption of fat Ca.
Associations: ♂sex, HLA-A1, AIH, IBD, especially ULCERATIVE COLITIS. Bile duct, gallbladder, liver and colon cancers are more common → do yearly colonoscopy + ultrasound; consider cholecystectomy for gallbladder polyps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

test results for PSC

A

Tests: ↑Alk phos, then ↑bilirubin; hypergammaglobulinaemia;
AMA–ve, but ANA, SMA, and pANCA may be +ve;
ERCP distinguishes large duct from small duct disease. Liver biopsy shows a fibrous, obliterative cholangitis. Screen for cholangiocarcinoma (CA19-9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PSC typical epidemiology/associations

A

ssociations: ♂sex, HLA-A1, AIH, IBD, especially ULCERATIVE COLITIS.

Bile duct, gallbladder, liver and colon cancers are more common → do yearly colonoscopy + ultrasound; consider cholecystectomy for gallbladder polyps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ulcerative colitis is associated with what

A

PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PRIMARY BILIARY CIRRHOSIS (PBC) is what + feautres

A

Interlobular bile ducts are damaged by chronic granulomatous inflammation (biliary epithelial cells lining the small intrahepatic bile ducts.) causing progressive cholestasis, cirrhosis, portal HTN

Often asymptomatic
Lethargy and pruritus may occur, and can precede jaundice by months to years.
Signs: Jaundice; skin pigmentation; xanthelasma; xanthomata; hepatomegaly; and splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PBC complications

A

Osteoporosis is common.
■Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins due to cholestasis and ↓ bilirubin in the gut lumen results in osteomalacia and coagulopathy
■portal hypertension; ascites; variceal haemorrhage; hepatic encephalopathy;
■HCC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PBC associations, cause

A
■Thyroid disease 
■Rheumatoid arthritis 
■Sjögren’s syndrome 
■Keratoconjunctivitis sicca 
■Systemic sclerosis 
■Renal tubular acidosis 
■Membranous glomerulo-nephritis

?autoimmune response triggered by environmental factors, with genetic predisposition. ♀:♂≈9:1. Prevalence: ≤4/100,000. Peak presentation: ~50yrs old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is PBC more common in men or women?

A

women (PBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is PSC more commmon in men or women?

A

men (PSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tests in PBC

A

●AMA M2 subtype (Antimitochondrial antibodies) are hallmark of PBC.
●Immunoglobulins are ↑ (esp. IgM).
●TSH & cholesterol ↑ or ↔. ●↑Alk phos, ↑γgt, and mildly ↑ast & alt; late disease: ↑bilirubin, ↓albumin, ↑prothrombin time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what could have a picture of AMA M2 and high Ig (esp IgM

A

PBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is PSC AMA positive?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS (AIH) is what and clinical features

A

An inflammatory liver disease of unknown cause: ■suppressor t-cell defects with autoAb against hepatocyte surface antigens ■Three types AIH

■predominantly young & middle-aged women.

■25% present with acute hepatitis and signs of autoimmune disease, eg fever, malaise, urticarial rash, polyarthritis, pleurisy, pulmonary infiltration, or glomerulonephritis.

■remainder present insidiously or are asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally with signs of chronic liver disease.

■Amenorrhoea is common and disease tends to attenuate during pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AIH tests show

A
Abnormal LFT (ast, alt, serum bilirubin and alk phos are ↑ in most), 
hypergammaglobulinaemia (especially IgG), 
\+ve autoantibodies (ANA, SMA, or LKM1). 

■Other autoantibodies, eg anti-soluble liver antigen (sla) and antimeasles virus may be seen.

■Anaemia, WCC↓, and platelets↓ indicate hypersplenism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can definitive diagnosis of AIH be made?

A

Liver biopsy required for Dx: mononuclear infiltrate of portal and periportal areas & piecemeal necrosis, fibrosis, or cirrhosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes air in the biliary system?

A

& Previous surgery or endoscopy procedures (most common)
& Penetrating ulcers
& Erosion of gallstone into the bowel lumen
& Traumatic fistula
& Neoplasms
& Bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

caecal tumour - what type of resection

A

right hemicolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FELTY’S SYNDROME

A

splenomegaly and neutropenia in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Case: abdo pain, vomiting and jaundice. On examination she has tender hepatosplenomegaly and ascites. She has a historyof recurrent miscarriages
what can it be?

A

BUDD–CHIARI SYNDROME is a condition characterized by obstruction to hepatic venous outflow. It usually occurs in a patient with a hypercoagulative state (e.g. antiphospholipid syndrome, use of oral contraceptive pill, malignancy) but can also occur due to physical obstruction (e.g. tumour). The venous congestion can lead to enlargement of the spleen as well as the liver. The history of recurrent miscarriages suggests that there may be an underlying disorder (e.g. antiphospholipid syndrome) and this should be investigated thoroughly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ASCENDING CHOLANGITIS signs and cause

A

secondary to bacterial contamination of an obstructed biliary system. The classical description of fever with rigors, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice is known eponymously as Charcot’s triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

biliary colic characteristic and how does it differ from acute cholecystitis>

A

BILIARY COLIC Is a constant right upper quadrant pain (unlike renal colic) as it results from the spasm of gallbladder muscle against a stone lodged in Hartmann’s pouch (at neck of gallbladder) or the cystic duct. Acute cholecystitis presents with biliary colic symptoms. The key difference is that in ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS there is development of inflammation due to the mechanical obstruction that can result in superimposed bacterial infection. These patients will therefore show signs of inflammation/infection (pyrexia, tachycardia, increased white cell count).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MUCOCOELE

A

dilatation and enlargement of the gallbladder without infection, secondary to prolonged obstruction of the cystic duct. There is progressive distension over a period of time due to the accumulation of mucus secreted by the epithelial cells. The condition is usually asymptomatic. On clinical examination a visible, non-tender mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

markers for pancreatic carcinoma

A

CA19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ZOllinger-Ellison syndrome typical presentation, patho and associations, investigation of choice

A

patient with Hx of multiple ulcers resistant to anti-ulcer Tx

gastrin secreting tumour usually in the pancreas).

Associated with MEN1 – ie also a risk of parathyroid hyperplasia.

Ix: nuclear medicine (somatostatin receptor scintigraphy is the most sensitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
METAPLASIA definition
transformation of one fully differentiated cell type into another fully differentiated cell type
26
ANAPLASTIC CARCINOMA of the THYROID description, associations
aggressive tumour which usually affects the more elderly patients. A rapidly invasive thyroid tumour. It may arise from a pre-existing papillary/follicular carcinoma and is also closely associated with endemic goitre. Treatment involves surgical debulking of tumour and is usually a palliative procedure due to the aggressiveness of the tumour. ANAPLASTIC CARCINOMA of thyroid is associated with PHAEOCHROMOCYTOMA.
27
papillary carcinoma of thyroid description, histo features
PAPILLARY CARCINOMA accounts for 60–70 per cent of all malignant thyroid neoplasms. It is a well-differentiated and minimally invasive tumour that carries a good prognosis even with lymphatic spread (which is common). The classical histological findings are Orphan Annie nuclei and psammoma bodies. Orphan Annie nuclei (named after a New York cartoon strip character) have characteristic clear areas within the nucleus giving them the appearance of ‘orphan eyes’. Psammoma bodies are spiral rings of calcification that are a highly specific finding to papillary carcinoma.
28
how can you differnatiate follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma of the thyroid>
Not with FNA, you need to do full histo.
29
follicular carcinoma description, associations
FOLLICULAR CARCINOMA is several times more common in women than men. It is a well-differentiated encapsulated tumour that is characterized by haematogenous spread (lung, bone and brain).
30
papillary thyroid carcinoma appearance gross and histo
- look like ill-defined pale areas or can be circumscribed Histo: -from the follicular epithelium -finger like processes, covered by malignant cells that have pale nuclei -Plasmmoma bodies (calcific concretions) are common
31
follicular carcinoma vs adenoma of thyroid appearance gross and histo to tell if it is malignant or adenoma instead
- 2nd commonest - affects slightly older people - usually solitary tumours - Dx rests on HISTO → vascular invasion around the capsule - spreads via blood - metastasises in bone and lung
32
commones cancers of the thyroid?
Most common: papillary | 2nd most common: follicular
33
features of pathological histology of medullary carcinoma of thyroid
- from the C cells or parafollicular cells producing calcitonin - invade stroma which contains amyloid
34
Gardner’s syndrome consists of:
``` A combination of polyposis coli multiple osteomas epidermal cysts dermoid tumours ```
35
squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder is associated with what?
Schistosomiasis in the bladder.
36
SEMINOMAS are what and how common?
more common of the germ cell tumours. Usually in 30- 40 year-olds
37
CONSTELLATION OF SX (SAINT’S TRIAD)
①DIVERTICULOSIS, ② GALLSTONES, ③HIATUS HERNIA
38
PERNICIOUS ANAEMIA features
① megaloblastic anaemia + ②neuropathy + ③sore mouth and red tongue + ④looser stool.
39
COELIAC DISEASE features, Ix and associations
diarrhoea, weight loss, abdo discomfort, isolated IgA deficiency. Anti-endomyosial antibodies are highly sensitive and specific (they are IgA, so will not be detected if IgA is very low. Associated with intestinal lymphoma (8xrisk)
40
Melanosis coli
a dark/brown appearance of the colonic mucosa due to pigment filled macrophages – occurs due to laxative overuse., esp senna
41
in SLE, what antibodies are present?
ANA and dsDNA antibodies are present
42
Features of severe UC?
``` Bloody FEAST • Bloody: Hb <30g/l • Six or more motions a day • Tachycardia • ****stool consistency not a factor ```
43
Chron’s commonest location
commonest location is ileoceacal valve.
44
Gilbert’s and Crigler-Najjar features and patho
lead to jaundice through defectszn the same enzyme.
45
what LFT ration is suggestive of EtOh
AST:ALT >2:1
46
Whipple’s disease diagnosed by ...
small bowel biopsy and staining to show PAS-poitive macrophages.
47
Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap
1. DKA 2. Uremia 3. Salycicalte poisoning 4. Lactic acidosis: shock, liver failure, metformin, GPD deficiency, leukaemia 5. Methylene 6. Ethylene glycol
48
Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
1. Severe diarrhoea 2. Pancreatic fistula 3. Ureterosigmoidostomy 4. RTA 5. Acetazolamide
49
GLASGOW CRITERIA
``` (does not include amylase and only valid 24-48hours after the onset. APACHE II can be used prior to 24h) •• PaO2 55 • Age>55 • Neutrophils >15x10’9 • Corrected Ca 15mmol/l • Elevated LDH >600IU • Albumin <10mmol/l •------AMYLASE NOT A CRITERION ```
50
PELLAGRA features
dermatitis, dementia, diarrhoea
51
KCH CRITERIA In all cases of non-paracetamol related DILI the following criteria indicate poor prognosis:
• INR > 6.5 • Or 3 of the following 5 criteria: – Patient age < 11 or > 40 – Bilirubin > 300μmol/l – Time from onset of jaundice to encephalopathy > 7 days – INR > 3.5 – Drug toxicity, regardless of whether it was the cause of liver failure
52
what are the best predictors in liver dysfunction for altered drug handling?
Albumin, INR/PT and bilirubin are considered the best predictors of altered drug handling, as they correlate with synthetic and excretory hepatic functions – Dose adjustment if bilirubin >100μmol/l or PT >130% normal
53
GI: crypt abscesses in histopath of bowel is associated with what condition?
Ulcerative colitis
54
lymphoid aggregates and neutrophil infiltrates are associated with what bowel (biopsy histo) condition?
Crohns
55
which IBD has a LOWER incidence in smokers?
Ulcerative colitis
56
typical barium studies ofCrohn;s>
cobblestoning of mucosa rosethorn ulcers strictures skip lesions
57
typical barium studies of UC?
pseudopolyps between ulcers loss of haustral pattern featurless shortened colon
58
do fistulae develop in UC?
No
59
what is the pathological process in coeliac disease? | and epidemiology
it occurs due to immunological reaction to the gliadin fraction in wheat etc. peaks in third decade and babies. very common in Western ireland HLA B8. anti endomysial antibody. may have low IgA partial or total villois atrophy in the proximal small bowel, intraepithelial WBCs + crypt hyperplasia
60
clinical picture in coeliac
``` DIarrhoea oral aphthous ulcers weight loss mailaise b12 and/or folate deficiency and associated neuro + anaemia abdo pain ``` INCREASED RISK OF ALL GI MALIGNANCY, ESPECIALLY SMALL BOWEL LYPHOMA
61
what is chelitis aka angular stomatitis
fissuring of the mouth corners due to dentures, Fe or B gr vit (esp B2) deficiency
62
vomiting after 1h of eating suggests...
gastoparesios (DM)
63
vomiting that relieves abdo pain suggests..
pepticu lcer
64
comiting in the morning suggests
raisec ICP or pregnancy
65
best test for suspected wilsons
urinary copper 24h
66
serum copper and caeruloplasmin in wilsons
both low