general Flashcards

1
Q

what Q’s are important in a change in bowel habit presenting complaint?

A
blood? mixed ?
weight loss?
appetite?
abdominal pain?
family Hx of bowel cancer?
have you taken part in bowel screening programme?
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2
Q

when and whom is bowel screening offered?

A

men and women aged 50-74 every 2years

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3
Q

what is the bowel screening test?

A

Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)

  • a kit sent to pt’s home
  • simply unscrew cap of the test, dip the end of the stick into the bowl motion, then replace the stick in the tube and screw the lid shut
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4
Q

what is the level for a +ve FIT test and what happens with a positive result?

A

80ugHb/g faeces or above will generate a letter to the participant referring them to their local NHS Board for a follow-up assessment for colonoscopy

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5
Q

what are the referral guidelines for symptoms suggestive of colorectal cancer?

A

the following are high risk:
>bleeding - repeated rectal bleeding without an obvious anal cause. any blood mixed with the stool
>bowel habit - persistent (>4weeks) change in bowel habit especially to looser stools - not simple constipation
> mass - unexplained abdominal mass. palpable ano-rectal mass
>pain - abdominal pain with weight loss
>iron def anaemia - unexplained iron deficiency anaemia

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6
Q

what Ix can be done in the GP?

A

abdo exam
PR
bloods (FBC to check for anaemia and thrombocytosis, U+Es and LFTs), diagnostic FIT

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7
Q

what examination is used to examine the bowel in hospital and what further tests may be necessary?

A

colonoscopy (±biopsy)

further:

  • CT scan of CAP to determine is there is any distant metastases
  • CEA level (tumour marker)
  • lymph node samples
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8
Q

what treatment options might be available for colorectal cancers?

A

surgery (aim = curative) and/or chemotherapy

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9
Q

what is the TMN staging?

A

Tumour (t) describes the size of the tumour:
T0 = no evidence of primary tumour
T1 = only in the inner layer of the bowel (submucosa)
T2 = grown into the muscle layer of the bowel wall (muscular propria)
T3 = grown into the outer lining of the bowel wall (subserosa)
T4 = grown through the outer lining of the bowel wall (into another part of the bowel, nearby organ or structure)

Node (N) describes whether the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes:
N0 = no lymph nodes containing cancer cells
N1 = 1 to 3 LNs close to the bowel contain cancer cells
N2 = cancer cells in 4 or more nearby LNs

Metastatis (M) describes whether the cancer has spread to different parts of the body:
M0 = no spread
M1 = spread

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10
Q

define the following

a) Neo-adjuvant therapy
b) adjuvant therapy
c) chemoradiation
d) palliative chemotherapy

A

a) chemotherapy given before surgery or radiotherapy to shrink the tumour
b) chemotherapy used to help destroy any cancer cells that may remain after surgery or radiotherapy. the aim is to reduce the likelihood of cancer returning in the future
c) chemotherapy combines with radiotherapy
d) if the cancer has spread to other parts of the body, the chemotherapy drugs carried in your bloodstream can reach these cancer cells. the aim is to help relieve symptoms and slow the growth of the cancer

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11
Q

define the inheritance patterns of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  • AD
  • gene defect in APC gene (adenomatous polyposis coli) = tumour suppressor gene
  • chromosome 5q21-22
  • nonsense or frameshift mutations
  • results in truncated/ shortened proteins
  • numerous adenomatous polyps (100s or more from adolescence) from mainly in the epithelium of the large intestine
  • while these polyps start out benign, malignant transformations into colon cancer occurs when left untreated
  • not definite = penetrance
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12
Q

define the inheritance pattern of hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)/ Lynch syndrome

A
  • AD
  • number of genes involves: common function = working to help with dna mismatch repair
  • low number of polyps
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13
Q

distinguish between oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes

A

tumour suppressor gene:

  • recessive mutation (loss of function)
  • normal genes that slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die
  • if genes don’t work properly, cells can grow out of control –> cancer
  • no effect of mutation in one gene copy
  • two inactivating mutations functionally eliminate the tumour suppressor gene, stimulating cell survival and proliferation
  • e.g. defects in APC gene predispose to cancer, but need a second mutation (might arise by chance) then there is complete loss of function

oncogene:

  • dominant mutation (gain of function)
  • single mutation event in porto-oncogene creates oncogene
  • activating mutation enables oncogene to stimulate cell survival and proliferation
  • e.g. EGFR always switched on
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14
Q

describe the evidence supporting the multi-step model of carcinogenesis

A
  • doesn’t happen over night. steady accumulation of lots of different mutations
  • initially the colon is normal -> polyps -> larger -> tumour
  • precursor lesion to cancer takes about 10-15yrs
  • cells of origin thought to be stem cell in the base of crypts
  • progression result from multiple genetic mutations and epigenetic alterations
  • can take samples at different stages + compare genetically
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15
Q

differentiate between genetic tests for FAP and HNPCC

A

FAP:
- test via protein truncation test or direct sequencing

HNCC:

  • study microsatellite’s in the genome and see if they are stable or unstable
  • immunohistochemical protein staining (looking at which protein involved in dna mismatch repair is mutated)
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16
Q

describe the molecular mechanisms underlying FAP and HNPCC

A

FAP:
- APC normally binds beta-catenin and microtubules
- beta-catenin is a TF and is normally present at low levels by APC control (degrades it)
- accumulates when not bound to APC and cells want to proliferate
- part of wider pathway known as wnt signalling pathway: if wnt is present, this results in inactivation of APC and stable B-C
- wnt pathway only normally active in the bottom of crypt cells. in tumours, would have active wnt signalling all the way up the vilus.
- B-C also binds to microtubules; if not happening properly, results in disordered cytoskeleton
+ chromosomal instability -> chromosomes won’t attach to microtubules properly during mitosis

HNPCC:

  • mismatch repair gene products normally recognise when dna bases haven’t matched dup properly e.g. G->T and attract other proteins that can cut out that region of dna, repair and stick back together again
  • MSH6 and MSH2 recognise the damage
  • MLH1 and PMS2 cut away section ready for repair
  • repetitive regions are more susceptible to errors = microsatelite instability (MIN)
  • TGF-beta pathway is an example of a protein with lots of repeats + subject to mismatch repair. it is involved in regulating cell proliferation by inactivating it
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17
Q

compare FAP and HNPCC and screening

A

FAP va HNPCC:

  • large number of polyps vs low number
  • low mutation rate vs high mutation rate
  • high cancer risk because of high number of polyps VS high cancer risk despite low numbers of polys
  • average age of onset similar (approx 40)
  • life-time risk (entrance) close to 100% for VS approx 80%
  • both offered regular screening from young age
  • patient often elect to have colon removed
  • biannual colonoscopy from 25yrs if known FAP/HNPCC
  • high to moderate risk - colonoscopy every 5yrs from 50-75
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18
Q

why is aspirin considered a preventative measure for colorectal cancer?

A
  • inhibit COX-2
  • cox-2 increased in early stages of colorectal cancer
  • increased prostaglandin synthesis
  • stimulates proliferation and angiogenesis
  • inhibits apoptosis
  • BUT CV risk
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19
Q

what are the risk factors of colorectal cancer?

A
  • non-modifiable:
  • age
  • sex
  • IBD
  • family history
  • polyps in colon (tubulovillous adenoma)

modifiable:

  • diet (eating too little fibre; too much 🥩 )
  • lack of exercise
  • smoking
  • alcohol
  • obesity
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20
Q

what is the clinical presentation of colorectal cancer?

A
  • early stage is usually asymptomatic
  • occult or overt rectal bleeding
  • iron def anaemia
  • change in bowel habit (constipation/ diarrhoea/ alternating)
  • pain and discomfort in bowel
  • weight loss/ loss of appetite
  • family Hx (FAP, HNPCC)
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21
Q

how is colorectal cancer diagnosed?

A

endoscopy:

  • most common, but invasive, method to diagnose colorectal Ca
  • colonoscopy is gold standard

imagine:
- CT colonography - sometimes adjunct to colonoscopy

Bowel screening program (BSP)

lab:
- complete blood count, s checking carcinoembryonica antigen concentrations at the time of diagnosis )high CEA = worse prognosis)

Pathology:

  • histological assessment is on the basis for pathological diagnosis and staging of the disease
  • mismatch repair testing (immunohistochemistry) used for diagnosis of Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)
  • adjuvant immunotherapy decision making
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22
Q

what is the prognosis of colorectal cancer?

A

1 yr survival = 80%
5 yr survival = 60%

what affects prognosis and survival:

  • TNM staging
  • other histopathological features
  • health and fitness
  • effectiveness of surgery and treatment

other prognostic factors:

  • differentiation (architecture and specifically gland formation/ how normal it looks)
  • tumour deposits (discrete nodules of Ca in the tissues LNs drainage area)
  • venous invasion (tumour invades vessels)
  • lymphatic invasion
  • perineurial invasion
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23
Q

describe the progression sequences of colorectal disease progression

A

2 major pathways –> adenocarcinoma or serrated neoplasia

  1. adenoma to carcinoma sequence (chromosome instability) (70-90%):
    - FAP or sporadic -> (germline for FAP)APC mutation -> micro-satellite stable colorectal cancer
  2. serrated neoplasia sequence (10-20%):
    - traditional serrated -> KRAS and BRAF mutation -> microsattelite stable and unstable colorectal cancer
    - sessile serrated -> BRAF mutation -> micro satellite stable and unstable colorectal cancer
  3. micro satellite instability (2-7%)
    - Lynch syndrome
    - germline mutation in MMR genees -> microsatelliet instable colorectal cancer
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24
Q

what molecular subtype of CRC exist and what is the significance

A

CIMP (CpG island methylation phenotype)

MSI/MSS (micro satellite instable/stable)

BRAF/KRAS (mutation status)

*prognosis and treatment decisions can be made on molecular sub typing and not just histopathological staging and features

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25
Q

explain some of the reasons why the NHS has become over-stretched year on year

A
  • increase in life expectance -> healthcare is concentrated at end of life
  • increase costs of treatment -> advancements, but don’t come cheaply
  • patients expectations increase increase -> some conditions what were once not seen as a problem, now has treatments e.g. menapause. understanding of conditions has increased
  • increased cost of admin and salaries -> employs 1.7million people. huge amounts of admin and salaries
  • increase in negligence cases
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26
Q

explain the different strategies that could be used in NHS resource allocation

A
  1. equal access to to treatment (deprive pt’s from beneficial treatment)
  2. rationing according to clinical need (life preserving trump life enhancement?)
  3. maximising health gains (QALY)
  4. discriminating according to age (tragedy to be cut off early)
  5. taking individual responsibility for ill health into account (hard to decide list)
  6. rationing according to ability to pay (high risk might not get insurance. low risk might not buy into insurance)
  7. singling out certain types of excluded treatment (produce a package of care - decide that nhs will pay for and some that they won’t)
  8. dilution of care (we dont have enough resources to go round so we will dilute what er have e.g. dont just do a whole battery of tests)
  9. ransom allocation (when ever there is a random decision that nobody wants to make do a lottery. ethically hard to justify)
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27
Q

describe NICE and outline its role in technology appraisals and NHS rationing

A
  • produce evidence based guidance for health and advice for health, public health and social care practioners
  • e.g. clinical guidelines, technology appraisals, public health, interventional procedures

technology appraisal = recommendations on the use of new and existing medicines and treatments within the NHS

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28
Q

outline the role of SMC and describe its involvement in NHS rationing

A

Scottish medicines consortium - national source of advice on the clinical and cost-effectiveness of a new medicines for NHS Scotland. aim to ensure people in Scotland have timely access to medicines that provide most benefit based on best available evidence

evaluates whether the benefits for patients may be considered an acceptable use of NHS resources

when SMC accepts a new medicine, NHS boards are expected to make it, or an equivalent

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29
Q

describe what a QALY is, and its use in the decision-making process to purchase health care resources, and evaluate its strengths and weaknesses

A
  • quality adjusted life year
  • theory = consequentialism
  • generic measure of disease burden, including both the quality and quantity of life lived
  • QALYs are calculated by estimating the years of life remaining for a patient following a particular treatment or intervention and weighting each year with a quality-of-life score (on a 0 to 1 scale)
  • years of life x utility value (perfect health)
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30
Q

give an example of controversial uses of healthcare budget

A
  • treatments to assist reproduction (is this a healthcare need)
  • cosmetic surgery
  • long-term nursing for elderly
  • health education in schools
  • provision of traffic-calming measures
  • reversal of sterilisation
  • insentives
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31
Q

what is rationing on the NHS?

A

because everyone does not get the same fixed amount of resources. Rationing refers to the discretionary allocation of scarce resources

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32
Q

what is the role of clinical trials in drug development process?

A

assess the safety of the drug, obtain a thorough knowledge and understanding of the drug’s pharmacokinetic profile and potential interactions with other drugs (drug-drug interactions), and estimate pharmacodynamic activity.

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33
Q

describe different categorisation methods for adverse drug reactions

A
  1. traditional ABCDE classification:
    - type A = ‘augmented’; ADRs are predictable from the pharmacology of the causative agent and are dose-related e.g dehydration with diuretics
    - type B = ‘bizarre’; ADRs are unpredictable from pharmacology of the causative agent and are not dose-related
    - type C = ‘chronic’; effect that need prolonged period of exposure to develop e.g. osteoporosis
    - type D = ‘delayed’; dont arise until prolonged period after exposure.g. lymphomas are increased in frequency in people who have had previous chemo
    - type E: ‘end of use’; effects of medicine withdrawal
  2. DoTS classification:
    - Dose relatedness:
    - > hypersusceptibility (ADR occurs below SE/ standard therapeutic dose - e.g. anaphylaxis to penicillin)
    - > SE (standard therapeutic dose - e.g. osteoporosis with steroid use)
    - > toxic effects (if ADR at higher dose than for therapeutic effect)
    - Time:
    - > rapid (occurs when drug is administered too quickly e.g. red man syndrome with vancomycin)
    - > first dose (anaphylaxis)
    - > early only (improves with continued risk e.g. nitrates headache)
    - > intermediate (occurs in the middle and resolves)
    - > late (risk increases with duration)
    - > delayed
    - Susceptibility:
    - > depends on age, gender, pregnancy, disease, drug interactions, exogenous factors, genetics
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34
Q

define pharmacovigilance

A

the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problem.

The main aim of pharmacovigilance is to identify, evaluate and prevent adverse effects from medicines.

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35
Q

Name 4 patient factors which increase the risk of ADRs

A

Polypharmacy

Age > 65 and children/neonates

Females

Ethnicity and genetics – Asian diabetes, afrocarribean angiodemea with ACE, Chinese steven johnsons with

Comorbities – kidney liver

pregnancy

36
Q

Using DoTS classification, describe the following ADRs

a) Anaphylaxis due to penicillin
b) Corticosteroid induced osteoporosis

A

a) Do = hypersusceptibility
T = first dose
S = unknown

b) Do = SE (standard dose)
T= late
S = age/gender

37
Q

Name two ways ADRs can be established

A

Yellow card

During drug development

Phase 4 trials

38
Q

list signs and symptoms of upper GI disease

A
  • heartburn
  • dysphagia
  • odynophagia
  • vomiting
  • epigastric pain
  • haematemesis
  • melaena
  • weight loss
39
Q

what abnormalities on other test would prompt request of upper GIT investigation?

A
  • abnormal CT chest (e.g. oesophagus looks thickened - is there any significant pathology there?)
  • iron def anaemia
  • to confirm (or refute) diagnosis of coeliac disease
  • to check for varies in pt’s with cirrhosis
40
Q

what upper GIT investigations are available?

A
  • upper gastrointestinal endoscopy (oesophagi-gastroduodenoscopy OGD)
  • nasal gastroscopy
  • endoscopic ultrasound
  • barium swallow/meal
41
Q

list signs and symptoms of lower GI disease

A
  • chronic diarrhoea
  • chronic constipation
  • alternating bowel habit
  • abdominal pain
  • incomplete evacuation (tenesmus)
  • rectal bleeding
42
Q

what abnormalities on other tests would prompt request of lower GIT investigation

A
  • abnormal CT abdomen/ CT pneumocolon
  • iron def anaemia
    • faecal occult blood
  • FHX of other conditions increasing risk
43
Q

what lower GIT investigations are available?

A
  • colonoscopy
  • flexible sigmoidoscopy
  • CT pneumocolon
44
Q

list signs and symptoms of heptopancreaticobiliary disease

A
  • jaundice
  • upper abdominal pain (RH)
  • pale stools, dark urine
  • fever
  • weight loss
45
Q

what abnormalities on other tests would prompt request of hepatopancreaticobiliary investigation

A
  • abnormal CT abdomen

- deranged liver function tests

46
Q

what hepatopancreaticobiliary investigation are available?

A
  • endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
  • endoscopic ultrasound
    abdominal USS
  • CT abdomen
  • MRCP
47
Q

list signs and symptoms of small intestine disease

A
  • upper, central or lower abdominal pain
  • weight loss
  • diarrhoea
48
Q

what abnormal tests would prompt referral for small intestinal investigation

A
  • abnormal CT abdomen
  • iron def anaemia
  • overt bleeding (no cause seen on bidirectional endoscopy
  • B12 or folate def
49
Q

what small intestine investigations are available?

A
  • small bowel capsule endoscopy
  • push enteroscopy
  • CT enterography
  • small bowel barium meal
  • MRI| small bowel
  • small bowel USS
50
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of OGD?

A

advantages:

  • direct visualisation of pathology
  • ability to take biopsy (evidence of Ca, dysplasia, coeliac disease)
  • highest sensitivity and specificity for most upper GI conditions

disadvantages:

  • invasive
  • unpleasant
  • risk of bleeding, perforation, over-sedation, aspiration, damage to teeth
51
Q

what is the diagnostic and therapeutic role of OGD?

A

diagnostic findings:

  • oesophagi’s/ inflammation
  • Barretts oesophagus
  • Ca
  • gastritis (fissures)
  • coeliac disease
  • ulcers

therapeutic role:

  • treatment of bleeding peptic ulcer (e.g. injection therapy, heater probe, endoclips)
  • treatment of oesophageal varies (band ligation)
  • treatment of gastric varies (injection of tissue thrombin, injection of tissue glue)
  • dilate oesophageal strictures (balloon dilation)
  • stent strictures
  • remove foreign bodies
52
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantaged of colonoscopy and flexible sigmoidoscopy?

A

advantages:

  • high specificity and sensitivity
  • best test for Dx IBD
  • only test to Dx microscopic colitis
  • can see diverticular disease
  • options for therapy (polyp removal, stenting distal colorectal cancers)

disadvantages:

  • invasive
  • can be painful
  • perforation
  • bleeding
  • bowel prep
53
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of CT colon?

A

advantages:

  • bowel prep much easier
  • less unpleasent
  • can see extra-intestinal structures: incidental pathology
  • very low risk of complications

disadvantages:

  • no therapeutic option
  • radiation dose
  • less good at detecting IBD
54
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of the following hepato-pancreatico-biliary investigations

a) ERCP
b) abdo USS
c) abdo CT
d) endoscopic US

A

a) advantages:
- therapeutic (remove bile duct gallstones. stenting)

disadvantages:

  • pancreatitis (2-5%)
  • perforation (1:1000)
  • bleeding (1:1000)
  • cholangitis (bile duct infection:low as long as ducts clear)
  • failed procedure
  • radiation

b) advantages:
- cheap
- very readily available
- no radiation dose
- not painful

disadvantages:

  • not therapeutic
  • can miss pathology esp in pancreas

c) advantages:
- readily available
- not painful
- less likely to miss pathology

disadvantage:

  • radiation dose
  • not therapeutic
  • risk of contrast nephropathy

d) advantages:
- good test for detecting biliary calculi
- cal allow tissue sampling e.g. pancreatic mass by FNA

disadvantages:

  • less readily available
  • invasive
  • longer procedure requiring sedation
  • risk of bleeding/perforation
55
Q

for small intestine what investigation is better?

A

radiological > endoscopic

56
Q

45 year old man present with persistent heartburn despite PPI treatment. what test should be considered?

a) upper GI endoscopy
b) barium swallow
c) barium meal
d) CT
e) MRCP

A

a) upper GI endoscopy

57
Q

a 75 year old man with diarrhoea and rectal bleeding. what test should be considered?

a) MRI enterography
b) CT colonography
c) barium enema
d) colonoscopy
d) flexible sigmoidoscopy

A

d) colonoscopy

b = not unreasonable especially is co-morbidity but likly to be polyps or CRC or UC

e = probably need to visualise whole of colon because of Hx of diarrhoea

58
Q

25 year ole women present with persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding?

a) MRI enterography
b) CT colonography
c) barium enema
d) colonoscopy
d) flexible sigmoidoscopy

A

d) colonoscopy (?IBD)

e - also reasonable

59
Q

55 year old women presents with Hx of painless jaundice for 4 weeks.

a) MRCP
b) CT abdomen
c) endoscopic US
d) ERCP
e) abdominal US

A

e) abdominal US

60
Q

how would you interpret a plain abdominal radiograph?

A
  • > taken supine
  • > indications: acute abdomen (sudden, sever abdominal pain)

A - adequate, aligns, apparatus (right person, date, spinous process central)
B- bones
C- cartilage and joints
S- soft tissues (gas in stomach ± bowel; liver/ spleen; bladder visible if full; size and position of kidneys (T12/L2 and ureters lie down the sides of the transverse processes); should be able to see posts; shadows both sides; plicae circulares; SI centrally located; small bowel loops should be <3cm

61
Q

what is Riglers sign?

A

indicate pneumoperitoneum. gas inside and outside bowel highlighted by a thin line representing the lining

62
Q

what is the treatment of CRC?

A
  • SURGER: colectomy
  • chemotherapy (stage 3 and above)
  • radiotherapy (only rectal)
  • palliative: surgery/ chemo/ radio
63
Q

discuss the term ‘screening’

A

the examination of a group of usually asymptomatic individuals to detect those with a high probability of having or developing a given disease, typically by means of an inexpensive diagnostic test

detect earlier than development of symptoms

64
Q

discuss the current UK cancer screening programmes

A

3 cancer screening programmes:

  1. cervical (smear -> cells assessed by cytology every 5 yrs if negative. if positive -> colposcopy)
  2. breast
  3. colorectal
65
Q

discuss the benefits of population screening for cancer

A
  • prevent premature morbidity and mortality
66
Q

discuss dome of the problems with population screening

A

designed for a population:

  • screening is a population activity, but by nature it is designed for a group
  • in reality it doesn’t serve everyone in that group
  • can we build a personalised approach to care then screening provides for populations

ecological fallaci:
- e.g. moving house and breast screening van doesn’t time up with your 3 yearly review

harms:

  • anxiety
  • being aware that once you have a test it can set you on a decision making journey
  • e.g. (although not a screening test) if PSA is raised -> increase risk of prostate cancer –> radical surgery

measurement/ informed consent:

  • measured in terms of how many people take up the screening
  • poor uptake might not mean they haven’t considered it. they might have had risks explained and chosen not to take it up. are we getting the right message across?

inequality:

  • most at risk yet less likely to turn up for screening
  • other competing factors in their life
67
Q

what epithelium lines the cervix?

A

2types:

  • > vaginal portion is lined by stratified squamous
  • > supravaginal portion is columnar cells
  • meet at squamocolumnar junction
68
Q

what is squamous metaplasia and where does it occur in the female reproductive tract?

A

occurs in the transformation zone (zone where most cervical cancers arise)

physiological replacement of the columnar epithelium on the ectocervix with newly formed squamous epithelium from columnar reserve cells.

69
Q

how if HPV associated with cervical cancer?

A
  • almost all squamous cancers are formed from HPV
  • 80 subtypes are associated with cervical cancer
  • 70% of cervical Ca are caused by subtypes 16 and 18
  • vaccination program in place protect against types 6 and 11 (that cause warts) and 16+18 (cause most types of Ca
70
Q

the abnormal cervical cells are called CIEN and graded 1-3. describe them

A

Cien 1 = 1 third of the thickness of the outer cervix is affected. dont Tx as likely to go back to normal entirely themselves. get pt to come back in 12 months

Cien 2 = 2thirds of the outer surface is affected. higher chance of these cells -> Ca (5%). Tx might be offered or monitored every 6months. options depend on what the individual wants and discussions with gynaecologist

Cien 3 = full thickness of the outer cervix. if not Tx then -> Ca 12%. offer Tx in this case

71
Q

what are the risk factors of cervical cancer

A
  1. affects person not attending screening e.g. socioeconomic class, geographical location
  2. increased exposure to the virus e.g. more sexual partners, younger age of sexually active
  3. factors that affect your immune system e.g. autoimmune diseases, smokers
72
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
  • IMB
  • PMB
  • abnormal discharge
  • dyspareunia (deep?)

-> detailed Hx and examination (speculum)

73
Q

how is cervical cancer staged

A
80% = squamous cell Ca's
20% = adenocarcinoma

1a - cancer involves the cervix. No spread. Only a small amount of Ca. found deeper in the cervix under microscope
1b - deeper in cervix but not spread
2a - spread beyond cervix, but not near by areas. Spread into upper two thirds of the cervix
2b - cancer has spread to nearby areas. Still inside pelvis but tissue around the cervix
3 - cancer in pelvic area (lower part of vagina/ureters)
4a - other parts of the body
4b - far away organs like the lungs

74
Q

what is the management of cervical ca?

A
  • depends on stage and age of pt
  • think about fertility
  • if more wide spread may need surgery: trachelectomy (cervix and upper vagina and parametric removed (still an option for fertility); hysterectomy
  • chemo/radio if large or spread beyond cervix
75
Q

what is the most common gynaecologist cancer in the uk?

A

endometrial cancer

(one of the layers of the uterus: endometrium (functional and basalts layer), myometrium and perimetrium)

  • 80% are adenocarcinomas
  • subdivided into 2 types -> 1) endometriod type Ca (80-90%) - linked to excess oestrogen in the body, slow growing, less likely to spread
    2) non-endometrioid Ca (10%) - uterine serous carcinomas, clear cell carcinomas and carcinosarcoma. not linked to the same extent to excess oestrogen. fast growing and more likely to spread
76
Q

what are the risk factors for endometrial cancer

A
  • excess oestrogen e.g. non-porous women, late menopause, obesity, PCOS, tamoxifen use, genetic cause (Lynch syndrome, other gynaecologist cancers)

(protective factors = smoking, COCP, progestogens e.g. coils:)

77
Q

what is the presentation and Ix of endometrial cancer?

A
  • 90% present with PMB
  • pre-menapause usually intramenstrual bleeding or Heavy menstrual bleeding

Ix:

  • Hx
  • exam = TVUSS
  • look at endometrial thickness. should be thin in postmenopausal women (>5mm then worry)
  • need to take biopsy
  • other tests = RBC if you are worried about anaemia, LFTs if worried about met, CT if looking for LN involvement/spread
78
Q

how is endometrial cancer staged?

A
1 =  carcinoma confined to the corpus uteri (body of the uterus)
1a = in the endometrium and less than 1/2 of myometrium is invaded
1b = is the same but more than half of the myometrium is invaded 
2 = into cervical stroma 
3 = local or regional spread beyond the uterus 
4 = involvement of the bladder/bowel mucosa or distant metastases
79
Q

what is the management of endometrial cancer?

A
  • surgery is the mainstay Tx (allows for removal and staging)
  • stage 1 = hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
  • stage 2 = hysterectomy, bilateral pelvic LN dissection, para-aortic LN clearance, pelvic and peritoneal washings
  • 3 and 4 same
80
Q

describe the anatomy of the ovary

A

attached to the fundus of the uterus by the ovarian lig and pelvic wall to mesovarium by suspensory ligament (vessels run in this leg)

aa. from aorta
vv. r into IVC; l into renal v

surface = simple cuboidal epithelium 
cortex = outer part = CT stoma 
medulla = inner supporting storm with rich neuromuscular structures
81
Q

what different types of ovarian cancers are there?

A

90% from epithelial ovarian tumours arising from surface epithelium of the ovary. these tumours are more common in women >50 number of subtypes e.g. serous, mutinous, endometriosis, clear cell

tumours from germ cells (primitive germ cells of embryonic gonad) more common in younger women (<35). often curable and have high survival rates. present as large painful abdominal mass that often rupture or torsion. e.g. teratoma, yolk sac tumour

sex cord/stoma derive from CT cells (<5%). e.g. granulose/theca cell tumour, fibroma

82
Q

what are the risk factors of ovarian cancer?

A
  • age (half of women >65)
  • FHx (20% genetic - BRACA gene)
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • HRT use ( for every 1000 women using hot for 5years will get 1 additional case of ovarian cancer)
  • oestrogen exposure like early menarche, late menopause and nulliparous

(protective = COCP; reduce by 50% if taken for 10yrs or more)

83
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer?

A

insidious - as a result 58% with advanced disease

constant bloating 
abdo pain
increased urinary frequency
fatigue
weight loss
loss of appetite

difficult to pick up

Ix:

  • full Hx
  • bimanual, speculum
  • women presenting with one or more symptoms of less than 12 months duration but occurring more than 12 times per month. ovarian Ca should be considered
  • CA125 blood serum level if women have persistent abdominal distension, feeling full, pelvic pain, >50
  • pelvic and abdo USS if over 35
  • calculate risk of malignancy index (RMI)
84
Q

how do you calculate RMI?

A

U x M x CA125

*product of the ultrasound scan
U = US score/ number of abnormalities seen on the scan
M = menopause status
CA125 = can detect early signs of ovarian cancer

85
Q

how is ovarian Ca staged?

A

1a - limited to 1 ovary
1b - both
1c - one or both but either capsule rupture, tumour on ovarian surface, or malignant cells in ascites or peritoneal washes.
2 - tumour involving 1 or both ovaries but going into pelvic extension
2a - extension into the uters +/or fallopian tubes
3 - tumour in 1 or both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal implants (spread in the pelvis)
4 - tumour in 1 or both with distant met