general Flashcards

1
Q

list the different types of arthritis

A
  1. osteoarthritis:
    - starts with roughening of cartilage ‘repair cartilage’
    - osteophyte growth
    - increased amount of thick fluid inside joint
    - joint capsule can stretch, and the joint may lose its shape
    - > Rx = paracetamol, NSAIDs, keeping active
  2. gout:
    - due to too much urate/uric acid. crystals form in joints
    - inflammatory arthritis that can cause painful swelling in the joints
    - red hot skin, looks shiny and can peel
    - > Rx = allopurinol, felauxostat, NSAIDs, paracetamol
  3. Rhumatoid arthritis:
    - AI inflammatory condition
    - inflammation and increased fluid can cause: painful joint; chemicals in the fluid can damage bone, joint and nerve endings (painful); increased fluid stretches capsule
    - often starts in small joints - hands - bilateral
    - symptoms include pain/tender joints, stiffness/swelling in the morning >30mins, fatigue, general feeling of being unwell
    - 40-60y/o W>M
    - > Rx = DMARDs (slow down over-active IS and therefore reduce pain and swelling in joints). if don’t work -> biological therapies
  4. spondylosis/ spondyloarthritis:
    - number of conditions that cause pain and swelling mainly around around joints of the spine. there is inflammation of the entheses
    - e.g. 1) ankylosing spondylitis - in response to inflammation around the spine, the body responds by making more calcium –> new bone growth causing pain and stiffness. typically causes pain in the second 1/2 of the night and swelling >30mins in the morning
    - 20-30y/o M>W
    - > Tx = drugs to slow process down. posture to help prevent curvature
    - e.g. 2)psoriatic arthritis - AI condition causing painful swelling and stiffness within and around joint, as well as red scaly itchy rash + fatigue
    - > Tx =DMARD creams and meds
    - e.g. 3) JIA - diagnoesed with inflammatory arthritis before 6y/o
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2
Q

what features in a pt history are consistent with osteoarthritis and what features suggest an inflammatory arthropathy

A

inflammatory:

  • worse in morning
  • physical exercise makes it better
  • morning stiffness lasts >1hr
  • associated fatigue and malaise
  • small joints
  • bilateral

OA:

  • worse at night
  • exercise doesn’t make it better
  • no morning stiffness
  • oler pt
  • previous injury to joint
  • larger joints
  • unilateral
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3
Q

what are the main features seen on plain radiographs to the type of arthritis

A

osteoarthritis:

  • sub-articular sclerosis
  • osteophyte growth
  • bone cysts
  • joint space narrowing

inflammatory arthritis:

  • joint subluxation
  • soft tissue swelling
  • osteolysis
  • erosions
  • periarticular osteoporosis
  • joint space narrowing

(NB: first signs of RA are not osseous - MRI and CT better at detection, but plain radiographs remain the mainstay of diagnosis and follow up)

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4
Q

what are the non-operative treatment of osteoarthritis

A

pharmacological:

  • heat creams
  • paracetamol
  • topical NSAIDs
  • oral cox 2 inhibitors
  • oral NSAIDs
  • intra-articular glucocorticoids
  • duloxetine

non-pharmocological:

  • strength training
  • weight management
  • self management and education
  • land/water based exercises
  • biomechanics intervention e.g. knee brace

*surgical after these have been exhausted

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5
Q

for knee replacement surgical operations, which risks should be discussed with the pt?

A
  • venous thromboembolism
  • infection
  • stiffness
  • fracture
  • revision
  • pain
  • neuromuscular injury
  • amputation
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6
Q

after a total knee replacement there are concerns of a haematoma around the operation site and could be an infected wound. what appropriate test would be included in this case? what would be the appropriate management?

A
  • FBC: to looks for increased WCC which would be consistent with infection
  • inflammatory markers (ESR+CRP) that might indicate and underlying infection
  • wound swab to look for culprit bacteria
  • radiograph
  • undergo a washout of the haematoma and primary closure of the wound
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7
Q

list 2 developmental abnormalities to bone

A

osteopetrosis:

  • marble bone disease
  • makes bone abnormally dense, hardened and deformed
  • failure of osteoclasts

osteogenesis imperfecta:

  • brittle bone disease
  • group of genetic disorders that affect bone
  • mutations in genes responsible for making type I collagen (usually found in.bine)
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8
Q

what is the order of fracture healing?

A

injury/necrosis/haemorrhage -> acute then chronic inflammation -> repair-callus -> mineralisation -> remodelling

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9
Q

what is Paget’s disease and how does it present?

A
  • rare bone disease of bone that disrupts the normal cycle of bone renewal (osteoblasts + osteoclasts become overactive), causing bones to become enlarged and weakened
  • usually present as bone pain with unclear cause
  • common in the elderly
  • XR shows increased reabsorption of bone and later on, the accumulation of large amounts of bone
  • familial or sporadic
  • single bone or more diffuse
  • 4% of the elder
  • possible viral trigger
  • modelling gone wrong
  • pain
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10
Q

how does osteomyelitis affect bone architecture?

A
  • infection of the cavity of the bone, most commonly staph aureus or TB
  • Hx of fracture, recent orthopaedic surgery, immunocmpressed pt to unwell child
  • sets up inflammatory, osteoblast and osteoclast response
  • not just typical inflammation and granulation. cartilage and bone is ‘coming in’
  • goes away with ABS, but chronic osteomyelitis can lead to gross distortion of the bone
  • bacterial infection. -> inflammation -> progressive bone destruction + loss of vasculature
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11
Q

what re the 3 risks associated with osteomyelitis?

A
  1. septicaemia - source of inflammation that can discharge into the circulation
  2. amyloidosis - deposition of an abnormally processed protein in tissue, effectively starving them from O2 and nutrients reaching the tissue. in this case, the protein comes from the acute phase response proteins generated from the liver. abnormally modified and deposited
  3. fracture - because may lead to abscess forming, new bone forming might end up with weaker bones
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12
Q

how might metabolic disease manifest itself in bone?

A

-disorders of bone strength usually caused by abnormalities of minerals (such as calcium or phosphorus), vitamin D, bone mass or bone structure

  1. osteoporosis:
    - is the most common
    - characterized by decrease in bone mass and density combined with loss of bone matrix and demineralization (loss calcium + osteoid)
    - presents when severe: bone pain, fracture, nerve trapping
    - particularly in females and postmenopausal
  2. osteomalacia:
    - metabolic bone disease characterised by incomplete mineralisation of the bone matrix (osteoid). so, instead of having calcified bone, you end up with non calcified matrix/ soft bone
    (- in children, defective mineralisation of the epiphyseal growth plate cartilage –> rickets, resulting in skeletal deformities and growth retardation)
    - caused by severe vit D def (lack of sunlight, inadequate diet, malabsorption, renal failure)
    - often non-specific muscle pain presentation
  3. hyperparathyroidism:
    - caused by parathyroidism adenoma or parathyroid hyperplasia. secondary cause is renal failure
    - causes increased reabsorption from bone (activates osteoclasts)
    - lead to osteoporotic type.
    - more acute, so often presents with hypercalcemia (‘bones, moans, groans, stones’)
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13
Q

what is the pathophysiology and different subtypes of osteoporosis?

A

type 1:

  • postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • decrease in oestrogen, genetic, endocrine and environmental factors -> secretion of bone resorptive cytokines -> increase bone resorption -> osteoporosis

type 2:

  • happens in ill and old aged men
  • secondary osteoporosis, disuse or steroids -> decrease bone formation -> osteoporosis
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14
Q

briefly describe the pathophysiology of OA

A

involves a degradation of cartilage and remodelling of bone due to an active response of chondrocytes in the articular cartilage and the inflammatory cells in the surrounding tissues.

The release of enzymes from these cells break down collagen and proteoglycans, destroying the articular cartilage. The exposure of the underlying subchondral bone results in sclerosis, followed by reactive remodelling changes that lead to the formation of osteophytes and subchondral bone cysts (cracks with leakage of synovial fluid into the bone). The joint space is progressively lost over time.

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15
Q

briefly describe the pathophysiology of RA

A
  • rheumatoid antibody
  • RF and anti-ccp
  • something triggers damage to the synovial cells (maybe virus) -> sets up recurrent AI response.
  • plasma cells produce antibody, mast cells releasing histamine and other inflammatory cells
  • set up inflammatory setting
  • in joint get fibrin, oedema, new blood vessel formation -> chronic inflammatory reaction
  • the presence of growth factors will cause synovial cells to proliferate (hyperplasia) thrown into folds, lymphoid follicles present, plasma cells pilling out antibody.
  • all this happening beside the joint and bones so get secondary changes occurring

Rx = physio, NSAIDs (GI haemorrhage), steroids (risk of osteoperosis), DMARDs (pathogenic cytokines inhibitors) … prescribe with care

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16
Q

what are the risk factors for developing avascular necrosis?

A

elderly
F>M
post fall
made worse by osteoporosis

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17
Q

what is the pathophysiology of gout?

A

problem of uric acid metabolism (increased intake, decreased removal or increased cell turnover or death)

M>F
age 40-50
family Hx common

symptoms variable
inflammation and pain
renal stones

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18
Q

what are the main classes of malignant bone tumours?

A

diaphysis:

  • Ewing sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma (from cartilage producing cells)

metaphysis:

  • osteosarcoma (from bone producing cells)
  • juxtacortical osteosarcoma

*commonest tumours in bone is metastatic

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19
Q

where are the main sites of bone metastases

A
breast
kidney
lung
prostate 
colon
thyroid
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20
Q

list organisms responsible for septic arthritis

A

s.aureus
s. pyogenes
s. epidermis
m. tuberculosis
salmonela
bucella
N. gonorrhoea in sexually active

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21
Q

list organism responsible for osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus (>80%)
S. pyogenes
M. tuberculosis

(fungal in severe immunocompromised pt’s)

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22
Q

what is the pathogenesis, Ix and Mx of septic arthritis (joint infection, and medical emergency, characterised by hot, swollen, red, restricted joints)

A
  • infection can be introduced into the joint by haematogenous spread or direct inoculation e.g. trauma or iatrogenically
  • 1-2 week Hx of red, painful and restricted joint

Ix:

  • urgent joint aspiration
  • culture + sensitivity joint fluid
  • peripheral blood culture
  • PCR is suspect N. gonorrhoeal cause
  • joint XR

Mx:

  • most common cause of acute SA is staph aureus -> IV flucloxacillin 2g qds 2 weeks and then oral therapy for further 4wks
  • washout may be required
  • microbiology and infective diseases advice

(DD - inflammatory arthritis, crystal arthritis, trauma, bursitis or cellulitis)

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23
Q

what is the pathogenesis of reactive arthritis, Ix and Mx (triad - conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis)?

A

(urogenital or GIT. typically triggered by gram -ve bacteria)

  • chlamydia trachomatis
  • neisseria gonorrhoea
  • escherichia coli
  • shigella flexneri
  • salmonella enteritis
  • autoimmune condition that develops in response to an infection
  • dermatological manifestations such as nail+ oral changes

Ix:

  • ESR
  • CRP
  • rheumatic factor

Mx:

  • symptomatic
  • full dose NSAOD and gastric protection and treatment of precipitating factors e.g. chlamydia
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24
Q

what is the pathogenesis of osteomyelitis (inflammation of the bone and bone marrow usually caused by pyogenic baceteria and rarely by mycobacteria or fungi)?

A
  • haematogenous spread; local spread (e.g. from septic joint); compound fracture; foreign body
  • predisposition: sickle cell disease (salmonella); travel/foreign born (brucella); prosthesis (S.epidermis); children <5y/o (H.influenzae); UTI (E.coli)
  • common bones = humerus, femur, tibia, fibula, calcaneum
  • pain, swollen, fever, reduced movement, won’t weight bear

Ix:

  • temp
  • WBC
  • eSR
  • CRP
  • blood cultures (Note - take 3)
  • XR
  • MRI/CT/Bone scan (increase uptake)
  • pus

Mx:

  • acute (prob staph. aureus) -> IV flucloxacillin (or clindamycin) 2g qds for 2 weeks -> or ABs further 2wks
  • chronic (s.aureus, occasionally coliforms) -> oral glucloxacillin 1g qds
  • MRSA osteomyelitis -> vancomycin IV
  • drainage. removal or involucrum
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25
Q

define vasculitis

A
  • inflammation in the blood vessel, characterised by inflammatory infiltrate and destruction of the vessel wall (thickening, weakening, scarring, narrowing)
  • commonly refers to the systemic vasculitides -> AI disorders characterised by inflammation of blood vessels with widespread involvement (i.e systemic symptoms) and clinical severity

*2 features helpful in classification.nomenclature = size of vessel (small, medium and large) and ANCA )presence or absence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

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26
Q

describe the different types of systemic inflammatory vasculitis

A

large vessel:

  • Giant cell arteritis
  • polymayalgia rhumatica
  • takayasu’s arteritis (aorta)

medium vessel:

  • polyarteritis nodosa (necrotising vasculitis in renalland visceral aa. adult pt’s.)
  • Kawasaki disease (vasculitis in children <5y/o)

small:

  • ANA associated = microscopic polyangitis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
  • Henoch Schonlein Purpur (common in children; associated with rash, glomerulonephritis, arteritis, and sob pain)
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27
Q

what are the clinical features of vasculitis?

A

systemic: weight loss, fatigue, night sweats, arthralgia, fever
skin: rash, purpura, ulcers
kidneys: haematuria (hallmark of renal involvement in small vessel), proteinuria, AKI/CKD
neurological: nerve involvement - motor/sensory
respiratory: haemoptysis

ENT: epistaxis
deafness
sinusitis

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28
Q

what is polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • large vessel vasculitis
  • most common in adults >50y/o, peak 70-80y/o
  • W>M
  • causes pain and stiffness in the shoulders, neck and hips, which is often worse in the morning
  • low-grade fever
  • extreme tiredness
  • loss of appetite and weight loss
  • depression
  • can be associated with GCA
  • unknown cause - maybe infective trigger

DD -> RA (onset in older adults), local msk disease (bursitis or tendonitis), OA, hypothyroidism

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29
Q

describe the clinical assessment of a pt presenting with suspected PMR

A

Hx:

  • aching stiffness in muscles/joints
  • acute onset
  • proximal/symmetrical, in limb girdles
  • stiffness worse in morning or after inactivity >30mins
  • systemic features - fatigue, weight loss, depression
  • affect daily activities e.g. getting out of chair/dressed

examination:

  • limited shoulder abduction
  • reduced ROM
  • distal synovitis
  • normal muscle strength

IX:

  • bloods (ESR/CRP - hallmark of disease, usually elevated; FBC - normocytic/normochromic, thrombocytosis; LFTs - raised ALP; CK - normal, Anti-CCP/ANA/RF - -ve)
  • imaging (not required for Dx) -USS, MRI, PET
  • mainly diagnosed based on clinical feature, lab findings and response to steroids
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30
Q

what is giant cell arteritis (GCA)

A
  • most common large vessel vasculitis in the UK. AKA temporal arteritis
  • key complication is vision loss. often reversible
  • > 50y/o
  • involvement of the cranial aa. that come off the aortic arch
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31
Q

describe the clinical assessment of a pt presenting with suspected GCA

A

Hx:

  • unilateral headaches - temporal
  • tenderness of the scalp or temples - unable to brush hair
  • double vision/ vision loss - transient painless monocular visual loss
  • dizziness or problems with coordination and balance
  • jaw claudication

exam:

  • erythema, thickening along course of the aa.
  • tenderness on palpation
  • reduced pulsation
  • signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation

Ix:

  • bloods (ESR/CRP - hallmark of disease, usually elevated; FBC - normovytic/normochromic, thrombocytosis; LFTs - raised ALP/ reflects systemic process)
  • imaging (USS - increased diameter of superficial temporal a., and hypo echoic wall thickening)
  • temporal a. biopsy
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32
Q

what are the key signs of GCA on histological investigation of temporal artery

A
  1. infiltration of T-lymphocytes, macrophages and giant cells in the vessel wall
  2. granulomatous inflammation of intima and media
  3. breaking up of internal elastic lamina and giant cells and plasma cells

(Multinucleated giant cells are found on the temporal artery biopsy!!)

33
Q

outline how PMR/GCA is managed

A

PMA:

  • prednisolone 1015mg until remission
  • gradually reduce to maintenance dose 7.5-10mg
  • may require Tx fro 2yrs
  • steroid-sparing agent = methotrexate

GCA:

  • start steroids immediately before confirming the Dx to reduce the risk of vision loss
  • 40-60mg (60 if jaw claudication or visual symptoms) daily until remission. 7.5-10mg maintanence dose
  • 2 yrs often required
  • other meds = aspirin (75mg) daily decreases visual loss and strokes. PPI (omerprozole) for gastric prevention while on steroids. bispohosphonates and supplement calcium and vit D for osteoporosis prevention.
34
Q

list common immunosuppressant medications focusing on those used in renal disease and transplant (*)

A

corticosteroids:

  • prednisolone*
  • methylprednisolone

calcineurin inhibitors:

  • ciclosporin
  • tacroliums*

antimetabolites:

  • azathioprine
  • MMF *

antibodies:

  • alumtuzumab
  • basiliximab

proliferation inhibitors:
- sirolimus

-> dampen the effects of the IS - T and B lymphocytes. heterogenous group with different MoA

35
Q

outline the MoA of prednisolone, tacroliums and MMF

A

prednisolone:

  • interfere with the function of multiple cell types including T cells
  • enter the cytoplasm of cell ad bind to glucocorticoid receptor, the complex translocated into the nucleus and regulates gene transcription:
    1. decrease T-cell production of IL-2 an dIFN-gamma
    2. decrease monocyte production of IL-1 and TNF-alpha
    3. decrease activation and migration of immune cells

tacroliums:

  • calcineurin inhibitor
  • usually activated Tcells
  • it activates transcription factor (NFAT) by dephosphorylation -> translocates into the nucleus, where it up regulates the expression of IL-2
  • IL-2 stimulates the growth and differentiation of Cells

MMF:
- interferes with purine synthesis and therefore DNA synthesis - in T and Bcells

36
Q

describe the clinical contexts or conditions when these drugs may be used

A

prednisolone:

  • in nephrology: solid organ transplants and nephrotic syndrome (minimal change disease)
  • PMR and GCA

tacrolimus:

  • topical use - atopic eczema/psoriasis
  • solid organ transplants
  • nephrotic syndrome - minimal change disease

MMF:

  • solid organ transplants
  • SLE/vasculitis
37
Q

outline when and why these drugs might be contraindicated or used with caution

A

prednisonalone:

  • congestive heart failure
  • diabetes
  • glaucoma
  • tuberculosis
  • HTN

tacrolimus:

  • avoid UV light
  • applying to malignant areas of skin

MMF:

  • active gastro-intestinal disease
  • elderly
  • increased susceptibility to skin cancer
  • pregnancy - harm to foetus
38
Q

describe the adverse effects of immunosuppressive medications

A

predmnosolone:

  • endocrine: adrenal insufficiency, weight gain, diabetes
  • psychiatric: confusion, irritability, delusions, suicidal
  • GI: peptic ulceration, dyspepsia, abdominal distension
  • msk: osteoperosis
  • skin: thinning, easy bruising, delayed wound healing
  • eyes: glaucoma, cataract
  • CVS: HTN
  • general: immunosuppresion, Cushing’s syndrome, increase susceptibility to infection

tacrolimus:

  • increased risk of infection
  • abnormal sensation
  • skin reactions
  • neoplasm
  • headache
  • diabetes
  • HTN
  • tremor
  • NB - clarithromycin can increase levels of tacrolimus –> SEs

MMF:

  • anaemia
  • diarrhoea
  • bone marrow disorders
  • thrombocytopenia
39
Q

What should be checked when considering stopping steroids?

A
  • gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids should be considered in those whose disease is unlikely to relapse and have:
  • > received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for > 1week
  • > been given repeat doses in the evening
  • > received >3wks Tx
  • > etc etc check BNF!
40
Q

a 54 yr old women is admitted with an infective exacerbation of COPD. whilst taking blood tests you notice bruising and thinning of her skin. what do you think is the cause?

A

long term steroid use

41
Q

what immunosuppressant has side effects of headache and tremor?

A

tacrolimus

42
Q

what are the definitions used when scheduling pt’s in theatre?

A
  1. immediate - life, limb or organ saving. requires to be carried out within minutes of the decision to operate e.g,g rupture aortic aneurysm
  2. urgent - acute onset or clinical deterioration of a condition which may threaten life, limb or organ survive; (hours) e.g. fixation fracture
  3. expedited - pt requiring early treatment where the condition is not an immediate threat to life, limb or organ; (days)
  4. elective - intervention planned or booked in advance of routine admission to hospital. (timing suits pt, hospital and staff)
43
Q

what is the ASA classification and what is it used for?

A
  • physical status classification system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery
  • does not predict the perioperative risks, but used with other factors (eg, type of surgery, frailty, level of deconditioning), it can be helpful in predicting perioperative risks.

(ASA I = a normal heathy pt
II = pt with mild systemic disease
III = pt with severe systemic disease
IV = pt with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
V = moribund pt who is not expected to survive without the op
VI = a declared brain dead pt whose organs are being removed for donor purpose

addition of an ‘E’ indicated emergency surgery)

44
Q

what is the aim for peri-operative (time from decision to operate to time pt is transitioned to theatre) care?

A
  1. assess the needs of individual pt’s
  2. diagnose co-morbidities
  3. optimise long-term conditions
  4. evaluate risk:benefit
    (5. intra-operative care (anaesthetist))
  5. consider likely deterioration from baseline
  6. plan post-op care
  7. discharge strategy

*e.g. smoking cessation, discharge plan, care package in place post-op

45
Q

how do you assess a pt pre-operatively?

A

starts with Hx:

  • opportunity for pt to evaluate you and raise concerns
  • reason for surgery (site+side)
  • PMH
  • med’s + allergies
  • anaesthesic Hx (awareness, potential suxamethonium apnoea?,worries)
  • systems review + pregnancy?
  • social support
  • smoking, alcohol, drugs
  • post op N+V
46
Q

what is suxamethonium apnoea?

A
  • occurs when a patient has been given the muscle relaxant suxamethonium, but does not have the enzymes to metabolise it. Thus they remain paralysed for an increased length of time and cannot breathe adequately at the end of an anaesthetic –> ICU

(- suxamethonium is a depolarising muscle relaxant

  • commonly used for RSI e.g. when risk of aspiration
  • metabolised by palms cholinesterase
  • normally drug is metabolised in 5-10mins
  • 4 variations of the gene encoding for plasma cholinesterase
  • acquired plasma cholinesterase def (pregnancy)
  • prolonged muscle paralysis
  • management support/ ventilate until the drug wears off)
47
Q

what is malignant hyperpyrexia?

A
  • dangerous complication of general anesthesia occurring in individuals with an underlying disease of muscle. The essential clinical features of the syndrome are a drastic and sustained rise in body temperature, metabolic acidosis, and widespread muscular rigidity
  • inherited AD disorder
  • life threatening
  • follows response to trigger e.g. six or volatile anaesthetic agent
  • hyper metabolism
  • response = cease exposure, dantrolene, supportive
48
Q

what is the most common cause of preoperative anaphylaxis and what is the Tx/response?

A

antibiotics (47%)

IM adrenaline and shout for help

  • vital signs
  • focus on CVS and RS
  • think airways!
49
Q

what beside assessment can you do to assess airways/ identify pt’s that may be a challenge to manage airway?

A
  • look at previous anaesthetic sheets
  • ask pt to open mouth as wide as they can (limited <3cm)
  • assess neck extension
50
Q

what is the correct fasting time prior to an elective operation?

A

6hours for solids, 2 hours for clear fluids

51
Q

what Ix (if indicated) would be carried out before elective surgery?

A
  • FBC
  • clotting screen
  • Gp & save or cross match (anticipated blood loss)
  • U+Es
  • 12 lead ECG
  • urinalysis (pregnancy)
  • blood glucose
  • sickledex test
52
Q

a 42y/o pt at pre-operative assessment prior to varicose vein surgery is noted to have a systolic murmur loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla. she has an ECG.

a) what valve abnormality does the murmur suggest?
b) how would you describe the loudness of the murmur? what additional clinical sign do you need to elicit if present?
(c) report the ECG)
d) what further tests are required?
e) what decision would you make regarding the impending surgery?

A

a) MR
b) loudness using 6point scale:
grade 1 = heard by an expert in optimum conditions
grad 3 = easily heard, no thrill
grade 4 = loud murmur, palpable thrill
grade 5 = very loud, often heard over a wide area, palpable
grade 6 = extremely loud, heard without stethascope
c) showed AF with rate 100/110
d) if pre-op consider why the pt has AF. AF with murmur may indicate value disease. therefore, echo. also want to rule out throid disease with TFTs. there may be ischemic heart disease or electrolyte imbalance (U+Es)
e) pt is waiting for an elective non-essential surgery. should be postponed until pt is Ix and optimally managed

53
Q

what drugs are safe to prescribe, withhold peri-operatively?

A
  1. most long-term meds are ok:
    - anticonvulsants, parkinson meds, asthma Tx, steroids
  2. consider withholding long term drugs with no ‘acute; effect:
    - bisphosphonates, vitamins, ACEi +ARBs
  3. consider prescribing:
    - thromboprophylaxis (LMWH)
    - antibiotics
    - analgesia
    - anti-emetics
    - alcohol withdrawal regime
  4. diabetic control
54
Q

what common post op issues are junior dr’s likely to be called about?

A
  1. hypotension
    - find out why
    - lost blood in op? are they under-filled? sepsis (lactate >2mmol)?
    - > fluid challenge = 250-500mls normal saline quickly over 5-10mins
    - > antibiotics
    - > ECG if hear issue
  2. pyrexia (sepsis 6)
  3. pain
  4. N+V
  5. not peeing (why? is this normal? ?catheter, ?fluid challenge)
  6. wound looks red (?manage with wound cleansing and AB, or systemically unwell ?sepsis)
  7. delirium (common in elderly - look for exacerbating cause + Tx, orientate pt)
55
Q

distinguish between articular (joint) vs periarticular (around a joint) pain

A

articular pain:

  • true joint pain (shoulder, elbow wrist, hip, knee, ankle, MCP/PIP)
  • pain with any movement of the joint
  • from synovial joint

periarticular pain:

  • structures around the joint e.g. tendonitis, bursitis, enthesitis. can present with a chief complaint of joint pain.
  • > enthesistis e.g. medial epicondylitis (golfers elbow), lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
  • > bursitis e.g. trochanteric bursitis (pain in later thigh), pre-patellar bursitis (housemaid’s knee)
  • > tendonitis e.g. Achilles tendonitis (pain in heel), patellar tendonitis (pain in anterior knee)
56
Q

differentiate arthralgia from arthritis

A

arthralgia:

  • joint pain with tenderness
  • no inflammation
  • heat, swelling, tenderness, redness
  • > may not necessarily imply joint disease
  • > causes can be systemic (depression, fibromyalgia, thyroid disease, infection) or articular causes (repetitive use of joint, mechanical injuries, early OA or RA)

arthritis:

  • joint inflammation or structural damage
  • > true joint disease
  • > types =
    1. degenerative (OA)
    2. inflammatory (RA + zero-negative arthritis (crystal anxthropathies, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthropathy))
57
Q

a 65 y/o female come to the clinic for evaluation of right elbow pain. on examination, there is no swelling or tenderness of the elbow joint, but the olecranon bursa is noted to be swollen and tender. this is an example of:

a) articular pain
b) periarticular pain
c) referred pain
d) neuropathic pain

A

b) periarticular pain

(referred = pain that is referred to a location distant from the site of origin of pathology e.g. referred from spine, hip, another joint)

58
Q

discuss osteoarthritis

A
  • a chronic joint disorder in which there is progressive softening and disintegration of articular cartilage accompanied by new growth of cartilage and bone at the joint margins (osteophytes) and capsular-fibrosis (stiffness)
  • mostly primary or idiopathic
  • secondary from post trauma, infection, avascular necrosis, DDH, perthes, SUFE

other symptoms:

  • swelling
  • stiffness
  • deformity
  • instabilty
  • other joints involved
59
Q

a 25 y/o female is seen in your clinic for evaluation of fatigue and diffuse joint pains. she reports pain in bilateral wrists, shoulder, MCP and PIP joint. to Dx this patient with arthralgia, she must have what?

A
  1. heat in joint
  2. swelling in joints
  3. tenderness in joints
  4. redness in joints
60
Q

discuss Rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • a chronic systemic inflammatory and AI disease, characterised by potentially deforming symmetrical poly arthritis and extra articular features
  • F>M
  • peak onset 40 and 50’s
  • genetic, environmental and infective factors involved in disease development
  • disease of the synovium. inflammation due to infiltration of lymphocytes, macrophages to inflict effect on the cartilage
  • panes formation (hypertrophied synovium)
  • destruction and erosion of cartilage and bone
  • joint pain (usually worse on wakening)
  • morning stiffness
  • general symptoms e.g. fatigue, malaise, bone ache
  • swelling, tenderness, reduced ROM
  • deformities (Boitonniere deformity of thumb, ulnar deviation of MCP, swan neck deformity in fingers)
  • extra-articular features e.g. nodule, anaemia of chronic disease, pleural effusion (inflammatory process)

hands/wrist, elbows/shoulders, cervical spine, knees, ankles/feet

61
Q

Dx by pattern of presentation:

a) timing
b) physical distribution
c) type of joint
d) no. of joints

A

a) chronic = OA, RA

acute = crystalline, septic, trauma

b) asymmetrical = OA, psoriatic,
spondyloarthritis, reactive

symmetrical = RA, SLE, viral artheritis

c) large = OA, spondyloarthritis, polymyalgia, rhumatic

small = RA, SLE, viral artheritis

d) poly (5or more) = RA, SLE, viral artertitis

mono = crystalline, septic, trauma, OA

oligo (2-4) = psoriatic, spondyloarthritis

62
Q

differentiate between inflammatory and non-inflammatory arthritis

A

inflammatory:

  • worse in the morning
  • better after exercise
  • morning stiffness lasts >60mins

non-inflammatory:

  • worse in the evening
  • worse after exercise
  • morning stiffness doesn’t last for >60mins/ quickly assess
63
Q

give examples of causes of inflammatory arthritis?

A

rheumatic disease:

  • RA
  • Spondyloarthritis (psoriatic, reactive, ankylosing)
  • SLE

infective diseases:

  • acute infection (bacterial septic, viral, gonococcal)
  • subacute/chronic infection (Hep B,C, HIV)

endocrine:
- thread disorders

GI:
- coeliac disease/ IBD associated arthritis

64
Q

give examples of non-inflammatory causes of arthritis

A

common:

  • primary OA
  • trauma (e.g. meniscal tear)

other:

  • avascular necrosis
  • sickle cell disease
65
Q

a pt complains of pain in the front of their shoulder/side of arm on activities such as combing har. what is the likely diagnosis?

A

rotator cuff impingement/ tear

66
Q

what is the likely diagnosis when… are seen during physical exam?

a) bony enlargement, Heberden nodes, Bouchard nodes, crepitus on motion
b) acute onset erythema and warmth
c) ulnar deviation, boutonniere deformities
d) dactylitis

A

a) OA
b) gout, septic arthritis, injury/trauma
c) RA
d) psoriatic arthritis, spondyloarthritis, gout

67
Q

what 4 signs are seen on X-ray Ix OA?

A
  1. joint space narrowing
  2. osteophytes
  3. subcentral cysts
  4. bony sclerosis
68
Q

what is the Tx of OA?

A

non-operative M:

  • analgesis
  • activity modification
  • walking aids
  • ohysio
  • intra-articular injection (cortisone, lubricant)

operative Mx:

  • osteotomy (re-align joint/limb)
  • arthrodesis (make stiff, painless joint)
  • excision arthroplasty (remove arthritis)
  • replacement arthroplasty ( large joints mainly)
69
Q

what are the indications for joint replacement?

A

disabling joint - despite analgesia

functional restrictions - walking distance

QoL - night pain

radiographic signifiant arthritis

70
Q

what are the complications of joint replacement?

A
  • infection
  • DVT/PE
  • peri-prosthetic fracture
  • loosing
  • limited ROM
  • residual pain and stiffness
  • dislocation
  • dissatisfaction
71
Q

how would you investigate RA?

A
  • imaging (XR, US, MRI)
  • FBC and ESR
  • RhF, anti-CCP antibodies
72
Q

how is RA managed?

A

1st:

  • lifestyle
  • MDT - physio, OT podiatry

2nd:

  • NSAIDs (lowest dose compatible with symptom relief, use gastro-protection)
  • Cox-2 inhibitors (same pain relief as normal NSAIDs, but less GI problems)

3rd:
- long-term suppressive drug therapy with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
(DMARDs)
- need to monitor FBC, LFTs, U+Es, BP, urinalysis

other:

  • systemic corticosteroids (not recommended for routine use, monitor SE profile)
  • intra-articular corticosteroids (Target joint if only 1/2 affected)
  • TNF alpha / immunological and biological drugs (infliximab, adalimumab, golimumab) - interfere with inflammatory cascades
73
Q

what does comminuted mean in fracture terms?

A

more than one fracture

*NB always X-ray fractures in 2 planes

74
Q

why do paediatric fractures need special considerations?

A

due to growing physic - don’t want to disturb this process

75
Q

define acute compartment syndrome

A

intracompartmental pressure is elevated (relative to the end capillary-pressure) to a level and for such a duration that perfusion of intracompartmental structures is compromised and decompression is necessary to prevent muscle necrosis

e.g. caused by fracture - can bleed into the muscle and increase pressure (medical emergency)

76
Q

what are the signs of acute compartment syndrome?

A
  • pain* (especially when muscle is passively stretch)
  • paraesthesia*
  • paralysis
  • pulse present (pulsslessnes at later stage)
  • pallor

*early signs

77
Q

what is used to Dx compartment syndrome?

A

split catheter is introduced into the compartment next to fracture and P is measured

differential pressure (diastolic - tissue pressure) <30mmHm then medical emergency … immediate compartment decompression

78
Q

who is more at risk of compartment syndrome?

A
  • young
  • male
  • large muscle
  • non-compliant envelope
  • relatively hypotensive
  • unconscious patients
  • children
  • patients with peripheral nerve injury or blocks
79
Q

how is acute compartment syndrome managed?

A

fasciotomy

  • double incision 4 compartment fasciotomy
  • all muscle groups must be fully visualised
  • decried necrotic tissue
  • expeditious closure with grafting if necessary