general Flashcards

1
Q

what are the important Q’s for SOB presentation?

A
general health 
fever
cough
sputum
wheeze
chest pain
swollen legs 
Fix of cardiac or pulmonary disease
risk factors for VTE (smoking, obesity, diet, etc)
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2
Q

list potential causes of sudden onset of breathlessness

A
pneumonia
pulmonary embolism
pericarditis
costochondritis
pneumothorax 
panic attack
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3
Q

what investigations are important in a pt presenting with SOB?

A
RR
O2 sats
pulse
BP
JVP
chest 
legs
breast exam
general
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4
Q

what is the Well score used for?

A

stratifies pt’s for PE and provides an estimate pre-test probability

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5
Q

what investigations would you perform pc SOB and swollen leg

A

FBC - anaemia can cause breathlessness, though unlikely to be sudden onset. raised WCC could point toward infective cause

CRP - raised CRP could also point to an infective cause

N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide - a normal level rules out heart failure

CXR - often normal in PE but should be done to look for potential diagnosis such as pulmonary oedema, pneumonia or pneumothorax

ECG: can be abnormal in acute PE and would pick up other potential causes of acute SOB such as tachyarrhythmias

D-dimer: if Wells score if hight, a D-dimer is not indicated

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6
Q

what is D-dimer used for?

A
  • essentially a rule-out test for PE
  • sensitivity but low specificity
  • common other diagnoses are infection, trauma and cancer. aortic dissection
  • used if low well score (if high well score –> imaging)
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7
Q

what are the ECG changes seen in PE?

A
  • comments ECG abnormality in acute PW is sinus tachycardia
  • the S1Q3T3 pattern is uncommon but when present usually indicates high clot load
  • right axis deviation, right bundle branch block, clockwise rotation of the heart and atrial dysrhythmias
  • sinus rhythm
  • evidence of right ventricular strain, recognised by simultaneous presence of T wave inversion in leads V1-4, III and aVF
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8
Q

what are the risk factors for venous thromboembolic disease?

A
  • major general or orthopaedic surgery
  • immobility
  • leg trauma
  • active cancer
  • COCP
  • pregnancy
  • inherited thrombophilias
  • obesity
  • long plane or care journeys
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9
Q

an acute PE should be considered in pt’s presenting with acute SOB, are hypoxaemic and have clear lung fields on CXR. ECG may provide further clues and raised cardiac biomarker. what Ix would be beat to confirm Dx of PE?

A

CTPA

  • clot load determines the outcome
  • large = central aa. +/- peripheral aa.
  • small = peripheral aa. only
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10
Q

why might an echocardiogram be requested in diagnosing PE?

A

assess RV dilation

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11
Q

what medication is prescribed based on findings suggesting PE?

A

anticoagulant e.g. dalteparin (daily SC injections)

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12
Q

how else could acute PE present?

A
  • commonest = dysponea and pleuritic chest pain
  • large clots loads likely to present with retrosternal chest tightness rather than pleuritic chest pain
  • may also present with cough, fever, haemoptysis and syncope
  • around a quarter of pt’s with PE will have clinically evident DVT (most PE result from DVT)
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13
Q

how do you classify PE?

A

massive = shock and hypotension

sub-massive = pulmonary trunk or one or both pulmonary aa. but the pt is not shocked

small = involve lobar or segmental aa. only

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14
Q

once you have confirmed Dx of PE, is there any other test you might want to perform?

A
  • consider Ix to exclude cancer as an underlying cause
  • CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis
  • breast exam in women, PSA in men
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15
Q

what are the management options for VTE?

A
  • thrombolysis is indicated in massive PE (defined as SBP <90mmHg or drop >/=40mmHg from baseline for a period of >15min, not otherwise explained by hypovolaemia, sepsis or a new arrhythmia
  • LMWH is one Tx option. recommended over warfarin or DOACs when PE is associated with active Ca
  • for most pt’s, (not associated with active Ca or massive PE) then choice lies between initial Tx with LMWH before moving onto warfarin as maintenance therapy or a DOAC as both initial and maintenance therapy
  • anticoagulant Tx is recommended for 3months for first provoked PE and 6months for first unprovoked PE. decision to Tx for longer will depend on clot load, the likelihood that PE will recur and the risk of bleeding
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16
Q

what is the site of action of the following drugs..?

a) Apixaban
b) Dabigatran
c) Warfarin

A

a) Xa inhibitor in the combined pathway
b) direct thrombin inhibitor
c) vitamin K antagonist in the extrinsic pathway

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17
Q

do all pt’s with PE need to be treated in hospital?

A

the simplified PE severity index can help identify low-risk pt’s who may be eligible for outpatient Tx, but it should not replace clinical judgement

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18
Q

briefly discuss the metabolic changes during rest-to-exercise transitions

A
  • O2 uptake increased rapidly, generally reaching steady state within 1-4mins
  • the term oxygen deficit applies to the lag of oxygen uptake (anaerobic) at the beginning of exercise before steady state is reached (aerobic)
  • the failure of O2 uptake to increase instantly suggest anaerobic pathways contribute to the overall production of ATP early in exercise
  • after SS, ATP requirement is met via aerobic metabolism
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19
Q

what happens with oxygen levels when recovering from exercise?

A
  • remains elevated above rest during recovery
  • oxygen dept -> repayment for oxygen deficit at onset of exercise
  • exercise post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) -> the amount of O2 required to restore your body to its normal, resting level of metabolic function/homeostasis
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20
Q

EPOC/oxygen debt = the temporary oxygen shortage in the body tissues arising from exercise. there are two portions of O2 debt; rapid and slow. what happens in each?

A

rapid:

  • resynthesis of stored Pc
  • replenishing muscle and blood O2 stores

slow:

  • elevated heart rate and breathing = increase energy need
  • elevated body temperature = increase metabolic rate
  • elevated epinephrine and norepinephrine = increase metabolic rate
  • conversion of lactic acid to glucose
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21
Q

define the term oedema

A

excessive accumulation of fluid within the interstitial space, outside the vascular system

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22
Q

describe the physiological processes that maintain the normal distribution

A

Starling forces act on the capillary bed and govern the exchange of fluid between the capillary and interstitial fluid

these forces determine the direction of net water movement and the rate of movement

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23
Q

describe the physiological processes that maintain the normal distribution

A

Starling forces act on the capillary bed and govern the exchange of fluid between the capillary and interstitial fluid

these forces determine the direction of net water movement and the rate of movement

  1. hydrostatic pressure of the cap (Pc)
  2. hydrostatic pressure of the interstitium (Pi)
  3. oncotic pressure in the capillary (pc)
  4. oncotic pressure in the interstitium (pi)

(remember lymphatics)

net driving pressure = [(Pc-Pi) - (pc-pi)]

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24
Q

what protein is the main contributor to oncotic pressure?

A

albumin

(these proteins are large and can’t move freely out vasculature. therefore, stay in the plasma. the plasma will always have greater oncotic pressure than the interstitial fluid)

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25
Q

list causes of low albumin

A
  1. liver disease
  2. nephrotic syndrome
  3. malabsorption
  4. protein losing enteropathy (disease of the intestines)
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26
Q

describe the pathophysiological processes which lead to oedema formation

A

arise because of localised or generalised disruption of the starling forces (or problems with lymphatic damage)

  • reduction in plasma oncotic pressure
  • increase in cap wall permeability
  • increase venous hydrostatic pressure
  • lymphatic blockage

(oedema is not dependant on starling’s forces alone. in most cases of generalised oedema, the kidneys avidly retain salt and water)

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27
Q

list causes of oedema

A
  1. infection/trauma:
    - damage to capillary and leakage
    - localised
    - e.g. cellulitis of the finger. associated swelling around the infection.
  2. DVT/obstruction:
    - increased venous hydrostatic pressure
    - localised (distal to block)
    - e.g. obstruction of venous return to the heart (DVT or stenosis or extrinsic compression), stop draining properly.
  3. lymphatic obstruction:
    - damage to lymph vessels (radiotherapy)
    - localised
    - e.d. any damage, commonly seen as a result of surgery (i.e. breast Ca axillary lymphatic system) or radiation
  4. drugs:
    - CCB (cause fall in arterial BP, venous BP stays the same. therefore, pressure difference across the cap’s increases, pushing fluid out)
    - lower limb
    - CCB; commonly associated with oedema (10% of pt’s that are on dihydropyridine e.g. amlodipine)
    - (ACEi and ARBs normalize hydrostatic pressure by causing post-capillary dilation)
  5. idiopathic:
    - oedema in women in absence of another cause
    - intermittent, premenstrual
    - Dx of exclusion.

*3 causes of generalised oedema:

  1. congestive cardiac failure:
    - increased venous hydrostatic pressure that can lead to increase in cap P
    - reduction in CO that can cause reduction in cap filling -> activates RAAS system –> retention of salt and water
    - raised JVP is not interstitial fluid it is intravascular; can be a feature, especially of right sided HF
  2. cirrhosis:
    - reduced oncotic pressure
    - peripheral vasodilation as a result of NO generation, can lead to reduction in arterial filling and renal salt and water retention. ascites in this case
    - lower limb, and ascites
  3. nephrotic syndrome:
    - primary increase in salt and water retention and decrease in plasma oncotic pressure
    - can get marked lower limb and also climbing body oedema. facial oedema is a sign of nephrotic syndrome
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28
Q

describe the clinical assessment of a patient presenting with oedema and formulate a differential diagnosis

A

Hx:

  • onset (sudden or more insidious)
  • duration
  • variability
  • distribution
  • rings/belts/shoes
  • collateral Hx

systemic review:

  • focus on symptoms of underlying potential
  • HF: SOBE, orthopnoea and PND
  • liver disease: malaise and anorexia
  • nephrotic syndrome: frothy urine

PMHX:

  • diabetes
  • heart/liver/renal disease
  • Ca surgery or radiation therapy
  • chronic alcohol abuse
  • hyper coagulable disorders/previous DVT/ immobilisation or recent surgery

DHX:

  • CCB
  • NSAIDs
  • oestrogens (has aldosterone effect -mild sodium retention)
  • thiazalidinediones (glitazones) (can cause fluid retention due to action on Na transporters)
  • IV fluid (iatrogenic oedema; some have a lot of sodium load)

exam:

  • generalised
  • localised
  • scrotal
  • facial/peri-orbital
  • sacral/thighs
  • ankles
  • hands (periphery stigmata of liver disease, palmar erythema, clubbing)
  • > symmetry, temperature, tenderness, pitting
  • pulse
  • jvp (intravascular fluid status)
  • precordium (signs of HF, additional heart sounds or murmurs)
  • lungs (pleural effusion -> sign of reduced air entry or dull percussion note)
  • abdomen (hepato/splenomegaly or massess or ascites)
  • weight

Ix:

  • urine dip - protein/blood (quantify after)
  • bloods - FBC, U+Es, eGFR, LFT (albumin), D-dimer
  • ECG - features of HF
  • CXR
  • liver USS
  • duplex USS
  • echo
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29
Q

define the term nephrotic syndrome, list causes

A

triad: oedema, proteinuria >3.5g/24h and hypoalbuminaemia

not a Dx. it is a syndrome
always due to glomerular disease (e.g. glomerulonephritis or systemic diseases that affect the kidney)

*causes (REMEMBER THIS):
3 primary:
1. minimal change disease (MCD) - common cause in children and young adults
2. focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) - all age groups, recurs in transplanted kidneys
- scarring in the kidney, limited to small sections of each glomerulus
3. membranous glomerulonephritis: - older patients, can be secondary to viral infections or malignancy. specific type of glomerular nephritis that develops when inflammation of the kidney structures causes problems with the functioning of the kidney

2 systemic disease:

  1. diabetes - usually >10yrs, other microvascular complications
  2. amyloid - older pt’s
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30
Q

explain the complications of nephrotic syndrome

A
  1. hypercholesterolaemia:
    - increase lipoprotein synthesis
    - atherosclerosis
  2. hyper coagulability:
    - loss of coagulation factors (antithrombin) in the urine
    - venous thromboembolism
  3. infection:
    - urinary loss of immunoglobulins causing hypogammaglobulinaemia
    - infection by encapsulated organism (e.g. pneumocococcus)
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31
Q

list causes of transient proteinuria

A
  • fever
  • exercise
  • orthostatic proteinuria
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32
Q

what structures comprise the kidneys filtration barrier?

A
  1. capillary endothelium
  2. glomerular basement membrane
  3. podocytes
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33
Q

outline how oedema is managed

A

treat the underlying cause:

  • HF
  • nephrotic syndrome caused by minimal change disease is often steroid responsive
  • anti=proteinuric effect of ACE-i

treat oedema:

  • diuretics (high dose)
  • sodium restriction (2g/day)

prevention of complications:
- anticoagulation in nephrotic syndrome

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34
Q

a resp Hx may cover what symptoms?

A
chest pain
dysponea
cough
sputum
haemptysis
wheeze
systemic upset
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35
Q

list differential causes of SOB with an onset of…

a) minutes
b) hours to days
c) weeks to months
d) months to years

A
a) PE
pneumothorax
acute LVF
acute asthma
inhaled foreign body

b) pneumonia
asthma
exacerbation of copd

c) anaemia
pleural effusion
respiratory neuromuscular disorders

d) copd
pulmonary fibrosis
pulmonary TB

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36
Q

A 23 year old male patient presents to A+E with sudden pleuritic chest pain and breathlessness. His has an X-ray. What is the diagnosis?

A

pneumothorac

37
Q

A 33 year old female who gave birth ten days previously presents to A+E with acute SOB and pleuritic chest pain. On examination she has a HR of 120, BP of 96/50, a raised JVP and you can hear a pleuritic rub on auscultation. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

pulmonary embolism

38
Q

A 73 year old with breathlessness that has worsened over several months. They have also noticed increased ankle swelling, and are waking up overnight feeling breathless. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

left ventricular failure

39
Q

A 70 year old male presents with SOB on exertion and a dry cough. On examination you note he has finger clubbing, appears cyanosed and you hear fine end-inspiratory crackles on auscultation. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

40
Q

below what anatomical level is haemoptysis coughing up blood from?

A

below the level of the larynx (tends to be frothy, pink/red, alkaline pH and isn’t associated with nausea and vommiting)

(needs to be distinguished from haematemesis (blood from the GIT that is usually brown/black, rarely frothy, has an acidic pH and if often mixed with food stuff) or blood from the pro/naso pharynx)

41
Q

list causes of haemoptysis

A

Ca

infective causes:

  • bronchiectasis
  • pneumonia
  • TB
  • COPD

parenchyma’s causes:

  • fibrosis
  • CF
  • sarcoidosis

vascular cause:

  • PE
  • vasculitis

traumatic:
- foreign body

CVS:

  • pulmonary oedema
  • mitral stenosis
42
Q

what test is performed if there is a suspicion of TB?

A

acid fast bacillus test

43
Q

when should you refer a pt with heamoplysis using suspected lung Ca pathway (2weeks)?

A
  • have CXR findings that suggest lung cancer
  • or over 40 with unexplained haemoptysis
*order urgent CXR if the pt is >40 and have 2 or more of the following unexplained symptoms OR have ever smoked and have 1 or more of the following symptoms:
cough
fatigue
SOB
chest pain
weight loss
appetite loss
44
Q

list causes of hoarseness

A

infections:
- laryngitis

malignancy:

  • laryngeal
  • lung (recurrent laryngeal nerve)

neurological causes:

  • stroke
  • MND

benign pathology:
- vocal cord nodules

functional dysphonia:
- Dx of exclusion

45
Q

what is the red flag of hoarseness?

A

any pt 45 and has persistent unexplained hoarseness

46
Q

what is stridor?

A

an inspiratory sound (wheeze is expiratory) that is due to partial obstruction of the upper airway

can be caused by:

  • extrathoractic causes (goitre, lymphadenopathy, mediastinal tumours causing compression)
  • intrathoracic causes (foreign body inhalation, narrowing of the airway - anaphylaxis, acute epiglottis, retropharyngeal abscess, latyngospasm)
47
Q

what type of pressure is constant throughout the system

A

oncotic (25mmHg)

hydrostatic pressure slowly and steadily declines. so, point where oncotic is higher

48
Q

describe the role of the lymphatic system

A
  • interstitial fluid is absorbed by the lymph capillaries
  • lymph capillaries are thin-walled, endothelial tubes
  • capillaries joint and form lymph vessels (have valves)
  • lymph in vessels are filtered by lymph nodes -> antigen presenting cells can present to lymphocytes as a way of recognising self and non-self and make antibodies -> fluid leaves and enters the venous side of circulation
49
Q

what are the two main ducts of the lymphatic system that drain into the venous system

A

right lymphatic duct (right side of the head, neck, thorax and upper limb)-> union of the right subclavian and jugular vv.

thoracic duct (drains everything else) -> union of the left subclavian and jugular vv.

50
Q

what is the sentinel lymph node?

A

first lymph node in draining the site of the tumour. if clear, there will not be spread anywhere

51
Q

what is the function of the spleens red and white pulp?

A

red pulp - sinuses lined by macrophages
- received red cells

white pulp - similar to lymph nodes
- receives plasma and white cells

52
Q

name 4 functions of the spleen

A
  1. red cell phagocytosis - e.g. old, damaged, antibody coated cells removed
  2. site of haemopoesis in foetus
  3. acts as lymphoid organ
  4. blood pooling - platelets > red cells
53
Q

list red flags of lymphadenopathy

A
  • persistent lymph node or node >6weeks
  • firm, hard lymph nodes
  • lymph nodes >2cm in size
  • rapidly increasing size
  • significant unintentional weight loss, night sweats, appetite loss
  • exposure to HIV or hepatitis
  • unexplained fever in returning traveller
  • treat lumps or symptoms suggestive of common cancers
54
Q

what do pathological lymph nodes tend to feel like?

A

spherical, firm, lumpy, tender compared to flat and smooth

55
Q

list differential causes of lymphadenopathy

A

infective (tender/short Hx/variable size):

  • regional response to infection: look for ‘red streak’ (often radiated from wound to nearest LN)
  • systemic infections eg EBV/CMV/toxoplasma/HIV

inflammatory:

  • local or systemic response to inflammation e.g. eczema
  • AI conditions e.g. RA
  • common in sarcoidosis

neoplastic:
secondary (hard, fixed):
- existing malignancy or new diagnosis (e.g. melanoma/ENT/lung)
primary (rubbery, mobile, non-tender nodes):
-lymphoma or leukaemia

56
Q

what can help distinguish a primary and secondary cause of lymphadenopathy?

A

primary:

  • often rubbery, mobile, non-tender nodes
  • local or systemic
  • check for B-symptoms (fever to 38C, drenching sweats, wt loss; >10% in <6mnths)
  • FBC (e.g. CLL)
  • lactate dehydrogenase: non-specific marker of cell turnover
  • fine needle aspiration unhelpful - core or excision biopsy

secondary:

  • often hard, fixed nodes
  • consider nodal drainage e.g. below umbilicus will drain to groin
  • fine needle aspiration is useful
  • treatment plan depends on type and extent of tumour
57
Q

list some of the main causes of splenomegaly (often need to be 16-18cm pole to ole to be palpable)

A

related to function…

  1. lymphoid organ:
    - similar to lymph nodes
    - malaria
    - felty’s syndrome (RA, splenomegaly and neutropenia)
  2. reticuloendothelial organ (site of red cell destruction):
    - haemolytic anaemia
    - amyloid
  3. Haemopoetic site:
    - 20% of newborns before bone marrow takes over
    - chronic myeloid leukaemia
  4. portal circulation - haemodynamic pressure:
    - cirrhosis
    - portal vein thrombosis
    - severe right heart failure
58
Q

discuss how splenomegaly might be investigated

A
Hx
exam
bloods (FBC/retics/blood film/LFTs/LDH
imagine (USS, CT)
??bone marrow
??splenic biopsy
59
Q

you suspect patient may have a PE. what do you do next?

A

assess likelihood of PE by:
- Wells score

2 tier model
->Patient risk is determined to be “PE Unlikely” (0-4 points, 12.1% incidence of PE): consider high sensitivity d-dimer testing.
If the dimer is negative consider stopping workup.
If the dimer is positive consider CTA.
->Patient risk is determined to be “PE Likely” (>4 points, 37.1% incidence of PE): consider CTA testing.

60
Q

when would a pulmonary embolism rule criteria be useful?

A

for people under the age of 50. way to try and exclude PE in young person without putting them through lots of tests.

*used after wells score as rule out criteria in the three tier model

61
Q

you suspect patient may have had a PE on basis of their well score. what do you do next? CTPA or D-dimer?

A

CTPA (definitive test for PE)

only request d-dimer when clinical suspicion is low! - to exclude PE

62
Q

describe what is d-dimer?

A
  • fibrin degradation product
  • represents hypercoaguable state
  • actually rises with age
63
Q

what is the purpose of the coagulation pathway?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic pathways that ultimately lead to the formation of prothrombin activator (X).

once it is activated, and in the presence of calcium ions, it converts prothrombin into thrombin.

when there is sufficient quantities of thrombin in the blood it leads to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

originally just fibrin monomers (not sufficient to make clots), but converted to polymers by calcium ions and factor (XIII).

eventually lead to stable clots after recruitment of platelets, phospholipids etc –> haemostasis.

64
Q

what ecg changes are commonly described as being associated with right sided pressures

A

S1Q3T3
-A large S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead III together indicate acute right heart strain

right ventricular strain pattern:

  • flipped t-waves in inferior (II, III and aVF) and precordial leads (V1-4)
  • pulmonary HTN, PE, RV infarction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary stenosis, pneumothorax
  • associated with a higher clot load, mortality and risk of clinical deterioration in PE

+:

  • sinus tachycardia
  • RBBB (QRS duration >120ms with rSR pattern V1*, V2, V3)
  • RAD
  • atrial tachyarrhythmias
65
Q

how do you assess axis deviation on ecg?

A

leads AvF & I:
+ & + = normal
+ & - = RAD
- & + = LAD

66
Q

name another condition where you see flipped t-waves

A

myocardial infarction/ ACS (but in ACS with TWI n leads V1-4 it would be unusual to find TWI in leads III and aVF as seen in PE)

67
Q

Learning point

A

patients with acute SOB, no previous cardiorespiratory disease, hyperaemia, normal CXR and RV strain pattern on their ECG should be treated as PE until proven otherwise

give them LMWH (salteparin) while waiting for CTPA

68
Q

what is the next steps after CTPA PE diagnosis?

A

thrombolysis for massive PE and the pt is shocked:

  • systemic thrombolytic therapy is recommended for massive PE with sustained hypotension i.e. SBP <90mmHg for at least 15mins
  • treatment is alteplase (tPA) 100mg IV given over 2hours
  • stop anticoagulant during infusion
  • check APTT then restart heparin
  • dalteparin if not shocked
69
Q

list 4 causes of pleuritic chest pain (pain when breathing in)

A
  1. PE
  2. pneumonia
  3. pericarditis (relieved by leaning forward)
  4. pneumothorax
  5. costochondritis
70
Q

how do you define/ get a definitive diagnosis of pneumonia

A

CXR shows consolidation

71
Q

what tool is used to classfy the severity of pneumonia?

A

CURB65 score:

diagnosis is likely if:

  • presents with one of more of cough, purulent sputum, fever, dyspnoea, pleuritic pain, confusion in the elderly
  • O/E: pyrexia, tachypnoea, hyperaemia, crackles ± bronchial breathing
  • bloods show raised WCC and CRP
  • CXR shows new shadowing consistent with pneumonia
  • admit patient if >65, comorbidities (COPD, HF, diabetes) or clinical concerns (hyperaemia, multilobal pneumonia)
  • ambulatory care = additional Ix e.g. sputum culture, prescribe oral ABs, explain that it may be several weeks before pt feels completely better, softened, arrange repeat CXR in 4-6weeks
72
Q

what is the Rx of pneumothorax?

A
  • admit and treat as emergency id tension pneumothorax: large bore needle into pleural space -> gush of air confirms diagnosis -> keep needle in place until chest tube inserted -> give O2 and IV fluids
  • if it is a secondary pneumathorax (pt is a smoker, >50; evidence of underlying lung disease): admit, will require chest drain
  • if it is primary pneumothorax and size at hilum is >2cm and /or pt is breathless consider aspiration up to 2.5L with 16-18G cannula then repeat CXR
  • > may need chest drain if still >2cm and/ or breathless
  • > if below 2cm and not breathless: ambulatory care
  • if it is primary pneumothorax and size at hilum is <2cm and pt is not breathless: ambulatory care
73
Q

what are the red flags for tension pnumathorax?

A
sweating
tachycardia >135/min
tachypnoea
hypotension
raised JVP
surgical emphysema
hyper resonance with silence
74
Q

a 50y/o man presents to A+E with worsening left-sided chest pain for 2 days. the pain is worse on taking a deep breath. he describes SOB due to the pain. his examination is unremarkable except for tenderness on palpation of the left fourth and fifth rib. what is the likely diagnosis?

A

costochondritis

Rx:

  • reassure self limiting and not cardiac
  • ibuprofen 400mg tds with paracetamol 1g qds till pain settles
75
Q

an otherwise healthy 30y/o man presents with a several day history of progressive, severe, retrosternal chest pain that is sharp and pleuritic in nature. the pain is worse on lying down and improved with sitting forward. there is radiation to the neck and shoulders. the pain is constant and unrelated to excretion. O/E a two and fro cardiac sound is heard with the pt leaning forward. what is the likely diagnosis?

A

pericarditis

classic triad: widespread st elevation, released by leaning forward, pericardial rub

Rx:

  • ibuprofen 600mg ads for 1-2 weeks then taper
  • colchicine 500mcg bd for 3months to prevent recurrence
  • exercise restriction
76
Q

what 4 criteria should you keep in mind when Ix an ECG in a pt with suspected pericarditis?

A
  1. PR depression
  2. diffuse ST elevation
  3. scooping, or upwardly concave ST segment
  4. saddle shaped QRS
77
Q

what is d-dimer is high but CTPA is negative for PE?

A

? aortic dissection

78
Q

when should you request a CXR?

A
  • SOB
  • acute chest pain
  • Ix malignancy
  • following severe trauma
  • pneumonia
  • chronic lung diseases
  • pleural diseases
  • peritonitis
79
Q

compare pleural oedema and pleural effusion

A

Pulmonary edema happens when fluid collects inside the lungs, in the alveoli, making it hard to breathe. However, in pleural effusion, water fluid collects in the layers of the pleura that are ouside the lung

80
Q

compare metabolic responses to a) short-term, high intensity exercise (>10mins) and b) prolonged exercise

A

a) 1-5s ATP production is via ATP-PC -> longer than 5s is glycolysis -> longer than 45s is ATP-PC, glycolysis and aerobic system
b) ATP from aerobic metabolism

81
Q

what is VO2 max?

A

the maximum at which the heart, lungs, and muscles can effectively use oxygen during exercise, used as a way of measuring a person’s individual aerobic capacity

‘physiological ceiling’ for delivery of O2 to muscle

82
Q

what is the fuel selection in varying exercise intensity

A

low:
- fat during prolonged low intensity

high:
- carbohydrates

(cross-over concept = the short from fat to CHO metabolism as exercise intensity increases, due to recruitment of fast muscle fibres and increasing blood levels of epinephrine)

83
Q

how does exercise affect the immune system?

A
  • people who engage in regular moderate exercise are at lower risk of URTI, but risk is higher in people who engage in intense and/or long duration exercise and people who dont exercise
  • causes boost in innate IS, less emotional stress, better nutrition, adequate sleep
  • prolonged exercise has a temporary depressive effect ob the IS, ‘open window’ of increased risk of infection
84
Q

Have an understanding of the cardiovascular changes that occur during exercise

A
  • oxygen demand of muscles increases. accomplished by increased CO (HR and SV) and redistribution of blood flow (auto regulation: skeletal muscle vasodilation mainly by local factors around arterioles, SNS vasoconstriction of visceral organs)
  • CO increases as a linear function of oxygen uptake during exercise
85
Q

Have an understanding of the respiratory changes that occur during exercise

A
  • at the onset of constant-load submaximal exercise, ventilation increases rapidly, followed by a slower rise toward a SS value
  • arterial PO2 and PCO2 remain relatively constant
  • during prolonged exercise in a hot/humid environment, ventilation drifts upward due to the influence of rising body temperature on the resp. control centre
  • incremental exercise results in linear increase in VE (quantity of air in/out lungs in 1min) up to approx 50%-70% of O2 max; at higher work rates, ventilation begins to rise exponentially.
86
Q

what is the primary driver to increase ventilation during exercise?

A

higher brain centres

87
Q

Have an understanding of the thermoregulatory changes that occur during exercise

A
  • muscular exercise can result in large amounts of heat production
  • 70-80% of the energy expended during exercise is released as heat
  • body heat can be lost as evaporation, convection, conduction and radiation
  • during cool environments, evaporation is the primary avenue for heat loss
  • the rate of evaporation from skin is dependent upon 3 factors:
    1. temp and relative humidity
    2. convective currents around the body
    3. amount of skin exposed is
  • as exercise increases heat production increases, linear increase in body temp. core temp proportional to active muscle mass
  • as ambient temp increases, heat production remains constant, lower convective and radiant heat loss and higher evaporation heat loss
88
Q

physiological response to heat and cold?

A

heat:
thermoreceptors in the skin + core -> hypothalamus -> cutaneous vasodilation or induce sweat

cold:
thermoreceptors in the skin and core -> hypothalamus -> vasoconstriction, shivering, catecholamine and thyroxine release (increase core temp)

89
Q

exercise performance is impaired in a hot environment due to what 3 factors?

A
  1. accelerated muscle fatigue
    - increased glycogen breakdown, increased free radical production
  2. cardiovascular dysfunction
    - CV strain (increased HR and decreased SV
    - reduced muscle blood flow
  3. CNS dysfunction
    - hyperthermia or dehydration can impair function