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tumor > general > Flashcards

general Flashcards

1
Q

5 epiphyseal lesions

A

chondroblastoma, giant cell tumor, clear cell chondrosarcoma, PVNS, infection

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2
Q

diaphyseal lesions

A

AEIOU +/- Y adamantinoma, EG, infection, osteoid osteoma, U-ing’s (Ewing’s), lYmphoma

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3
Q

“chicken wire calcification” and “cobblestone appearance”

A

chrondroblastoma

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4
Q

treatment for chondroblastoma

A

intra-lesional curretage and bone grafting

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5
Q

synovial cell sarcoma mutation and translocation

A

X;18 translocation defect, SYT-SSX1 or SYT-SSX2 fusion product

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6
Q

“herringbone” pattern of spindle cells

A

fibrosarcoma

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7
Q

chromosomal translocation in myxoid liposarcoma

A

t(12;16), genes CHOP/TLS

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8
Q

CD99 positive

A

ewing’s/PNET (11, 22… 99)

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9
Q

CD1a positive

A

eosinophilic granuloma

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10
Q

translocation and genes in ewing’s sarcoma

A

t(11;22), genes EWS FLI1

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11
Q

translocation in myxoid chondrosarcoma

A

t(9;22), EWS-CHN

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12
Q

translocation and genes in clear cell sarcoma

A

t(12;22)(q13;a12), genes EWS, AFT1

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13
Q

treatment sequence for high grade bone sarcoma

A

chemo, surgery, chemo

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14
Q

soft tissue sarcoma treatment sequence

A

radiation and surgery, +/- chemo

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15
Q

rhabdomyosarcoma translocation and gene

A

t(2;13), gene Pax3-FKHR

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16
Q

describe the MSTS classification system for benign lesions

A

Arabic numbers.
1 = latent
2 = active
3 = aggressive

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17
Q

describe the MSTS classification system for malignant lesions

A

roman numerals. I - low grade, II - high grade, III - metastatic. A - intracompartmental, B - extracompartmental

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18
Q

What are the Mirel’s Criteria?

A 
score > 8 --> prophylactic fixation
site (1 upper limb, 2 lower limb, 3 peritroch)
pain (1 mild, 2 moderate, 3 functional)
lesion (1 blastic, 2 mixed, 3 lytic)
size (1  <1/3, 1  1/3-2/3, 3  >2/3)
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19
Q

How does osteoid osteoma present?

A

small, discrete, painful, benign bone lesion. constant progressive pain worse at night, relieved by NSAIDs

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20
Q

what does osteoid osteoma look like on histo?

A

distinct demarcation between nidus and reactive bone

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21
Q

what lab may be abnormal in intramedullary osteosarcoma?

A

elevated alk phos

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22
Q

where does osteosarcoma usually metastasize to?

A

lungs

23
Q

what does intramedullary osteosarcoma look like on histo?

A

tumor cells produce “lacey” osteoid, stroma cells have malignant characteristics

24
Q

what is the treatment for intramedullary osteosarcoma?

A

high grade - chemo, limb salvage, chemo

low grade - wide surgical resection

25
Q

what does MDR gene do in osteosarcomas?

A

lets cells pump chemo out

26
Q

where are enchondromas most commonly found?

A

hands (60%) and feet

27
Q

what are the differences between ollier’s and maffucci’s?

A

both are sporadic, not genetic, multiple enchondromas. maffucci’s includes soft tissue angiomas. risk of malignant transformation <30% in ollier’s, up to 100% in maffucci’s

28
Q

what are the genetics of osteochondroma/MHE?

A

autosomal dominant mutation in EXT tumor suppressor gene

29
Q

what is the characteristic histo of chondroblastoma?

A

chondroblasts arranged in “cobblestone” or “chicken-wire” pattern, scattered multinucleated giant cells

30
Q

treatment of chondromyxoid fibroma

A

intra-lesional curettage and bone grafting

31
Q

treatment of chondrosarcoma

A

wide surgical excision, doesn’t respond to chemo/radiation

32
Q

what are the characteristic findings of multiple myeloma?

A

CRAB - hyperCalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, bone lesions (multiple, punched-out)

33
Q

CD 38+

A

multiple myeloma

34
Q

histo of multiple myeloma

A

round plasma cells with eccentric nuclei and clockface chromatin, clear area (Hoffa zone) next to nucleus due to prominent Golgi apparatus

35
Q

what are the immunohistochemical markers for lymphoma?

A

CD20+, CD45+, lymphocyte common antigen+

36
Q

labs in malignant fibrous histiocytoma

A

elevated WBC, eosinophilia, abnormal LFTs, hypoglycemia

37
Q

fallen leaf sign

A

unicameral bone cyst, pathologic fracture with fallen cortical fragment in base of empty cyst

38
Q

mutation in primary ABC

A

upregulation of USP6, translocation of t(16;17)(q22;p13)

39
Q

genetics of fibrous dysplasia

A

GNAS mutation, GSalpha protein activating –> increased cAMP production

40
Q

what is a verocay body and what is it pathognomonic for?

A

neurilemmoma/Schwannoma, 2 rows of aligned nuclei in palisading formation

41
Q

what sarcomas spread to lymph nodes?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma, angiosarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, synovial sarcoma (RACES)

42
Q

translocation in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma

A

t(2;13) -> Pax3-fKHR fusion protein

43
Q

what genetics are associated with dermatofibrosarcoma protruberans?

A

t(17;22)

44
Q

what is a medical treatment for dermatofibrosarcoma protruberans?

A

imatinib - inhibits PGDF-receptor tyrosine kinase, no response if patient lacks t(17;22)

45
Q

genetics of well-differentiated liposarcoma

A

amplification of MDM2

46
Q

myxoid liposarcoma translocation and genes

A

t(12;16), CHOP, TLS

47
Q

what cell type is pathognomonic for liposarcoma?

A

signet-ring cell

48
Q

what stage does osteosarcoma usually present at?

A

stage IIB

49
Q

Paget’s treatment

A

bisphosphonates

50
Q

top two most common bony lesions in kids

A
  1. osteosarcoma, 2. ewing’s
51
Q

most common soft tissue sarcoma in kids < 15

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

52
Q

rhabdomyosarcoma treatment

A

chemo and surgery

53
Q
A

tumor (1 decks)

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