general Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important consideration in child custody evaluations?

A

The best interest of the child

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2
Q

extinction burst

A

In operant conditioning, an increase in the behavior from which reinforcement is being withdrawn

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3
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

In classical conditioning, the reappearance of the conditioned response during extinction trials

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of mental retardation?

A

Problems during the embryonic stage of fetal development (conception to 8 weeks). These account for 30% of cases of retardation and can be attributed to chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. Down’s syndrome) and/or environmental factors (e.g. maternal drinking or infection)

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5
Q

adverse impact

A

A term describing discriminatory selection processes, defined as a minority hiring rate of < 80% of the majority hiring rate

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6
Q

two-factor theory

A

a. k.a. Motivation-Hygiene Theory, a.k.a. dual-factor theory. Created by Frederick Herzberg, based on Maslow’s theory. The idea that work satisfaction is derived from:
1. high-level factors for satisfaction (motivators/satisfiers) - e.g. achievement, opportunity, etc. and
2. low-level factors for dissatisfaction (hygiene factors/ dissatisfiers) - e.g. pay, working conditions, etc.

These are not considered to lie on the same scale, so you could be high or low in both.

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7
Q

ERG theory

A

By Clayton Alderfer. Modification of Maslow’s theory. Describes 3 non-hierarchical needs – existence (physiological and safety), relatedness (social/external), growth (self-actualization/internal) – that contribute to work satisfaction.

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8
Q

frustration-regression principle

A

Part of ERG theory. Says that if a higher-level need is frustrated (e.g. desire for self-actualization), the person will regress to a lower-level need (e.g. socializing w/coworkers)

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9
Q

overjustification hypothesis

A

If you’re given a reward for something you like doing, you’ll start liking it less. Relates to intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.

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10
Q

Criterion-based score (a.k.a. referenced score)

A

Calculated in relation to an external criterion – e.g. percentage (the score) of a test (the criterion)

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11
Q

Norm-referenced score

A

Calculated in relation to other test-takers; unrelated to how much of a criterion was mastered. E.g. percentile, standard score, IQ score.

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12
Q

Beck’s depressive triad of cognitive distortions

A

negative view of self (internal), world (global), and future (stable)

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13
Q

Hypnogogic

A

Occurring when falling asleep

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14
Q

Hypnopompic

A

Occurring when waking up

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15
Q

Iatrogenic

A

Caused by a medical or psychological treatment

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16
Q

Concordance rate for bipolar disorder between monozygotic twins

A

80% (dizygotic: 20-25%)

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17
Q

Concordance rate for MDD between monozygotic twins

A

55-60% (dizygotic: 20%)

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18
Q

Concordance rate for schizophrenia between monozygotic twins

A

50% (dizygotic:10-15%)

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19
Q

When in development does handedness develop?

A

Preference emerges at age 2; handedness firmly established at age 7-8. This corresponds with increased brain specialization, decreased plasticity.

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20
Q

Interval recording

A

Recording presence/absence of a behavior during pre-specified time intervals. Behavior is quantified in terms of percentage/ratio of time engaged in. Helpful when a behavior doesn’t have a distinct beginning/end

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21
Q

Event recording

A

Tallying the number of discrete times a behavior occurs.

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22
Q

Content sampling error (a.k.a. item sampling error)

A

Error that reduces test reliability. Results from selecting test items that inadequately cover the content area that the test is supposed to evaluate

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23
Q

Howard’s meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy outcome

A

Found that:

  • By end of session 8, 50% patients improve
  • By end of 6 months, 75% improve
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24
Q

Additive scoring

A

Scores of each subscale contribute to the total score (or scores of each individual person contribute to the outcome). Higher scores offset lower scores.

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25
Q

Compensatory scoring

A

Subscale scores (or individuals’ scores) are averaged together. Higher scores compensate for lower scores.

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26
Q

Conjunctive scoring

A

A.k.a. multiple cutoff procedure. Subscale scores are considered individually (and might each need to be above some cutoff). (Or, all individuals in a group might need to do well to achieve a rewarding outcome.)

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27
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
  1. physiological
  2. safety
  3. belonging and love (social needs)
  4. esteem
  5. self-actualization
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28
Q

Akathisia

A

Most common side effect of neuroleptics. Includes restlessness, especially in legs.

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29
Q

Dystonia

A

A medication side effect. Acute contractions of tongue, face, neck; twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal fixed postures.

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30
Q

Parkinsonism

A

A medication side effect. Stiffness, “mask-like face”, shuffling gait, drooling, tremors

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31
Q

Akinesia

A

A medication side effect; also a description of Parkinson’s symptoms. Apathy, decreased spontaneous gestures, decreased voluntary movement.

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32
Q

Demographic characteristics most highly correlated with suicide

A

White, male, middle to high SES. Women are more likely to attempt suicide, but men are more likely to die by suicide because they use more lethal means. Black people have the lowest suicide rates.

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33
Q

Parietal lobe

A

Processes somatosensory input – e.g. light touch, pain, temperature, proprioception. Damage results in left-right confusion, problems performing motor activities

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34
Q

Occipital lobe

A

Includes primary visual cortex.

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35
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Includes primary auditory cortex, amygdala (“temper, temper”), hypothalamus

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36
Q

Equity theory

A

Posits that inequity between your own input/outcome and another person’s leads to motivation to change performance to make things more fair. If the situation is inequitable, the person may try to increase outcome (e.g. salary) or decrease input (e.g. amount of work) to match.

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37
Q

Rational economic model of decision-making (a.k.a. classical decision theory)

A

Gathering all relevant information, considering all possible solutions, and choosing the best.

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38
Q

Administrative model of decision making (a.k.a. behavioral decision theory, a.k.a. bounded rationality model)

A

Based on work of Herbert Simon. Recognizes real-world limitations on decision-making. Uses a “satisficing” style and involves choosing first adequate possibility.

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39
Q

Confidentiality rules of employee EAP programs

A

Employee’s supervisor is entitled to know about EAP therapy attendance, but not content of sessions.

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40
Q

Quality assurance

A

A workplace assessment of availability, adequacy, and appropriateness of services.

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41
Q

Utilization review

A

A workplace assessment of costs and conservation of resources

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42
Q

Are psychologists mandated to report their health status (e.g. HIV) to the licensing board?

A

No

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43
Q

Psychoanalytic explanation of mania

A

Defense against depression

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44
Q

Beta waves

A

Occur in alert states

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45
Q

Alpha waves

A

Occur during relaxation, eyes closed

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46
Q

Delta waves

A

Occur during deep sleep (sleep stages 3 & 4)

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47
Q

Theta waves

A

Occur as a person first drifts into sleep (stage 1)

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48
Q

Response of avoidant baby in Strange Situation task

A

Avoid and/or ignore the mom when she comes back into the room. No crying or clinging to mom before or after she leaves.

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49
Q

Broca’s area

A

In left frontal lobe, on inferior frontal gyrus. Controls muscles used for speech production and fluency.

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50
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

In temporal lobes. Associated with speech comprehension.

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51
Q

function of basal ganglia

A

initiation and control of movement; learning; includes striatum

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52
Q

functions of hypothalamus

A

part of limbic system; regulates ANS activity; sleep-wake (Circadian) cycle, body temperature, thirst, hunger

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53
Q

forebrain (a.k.a. prosencephalon)

A

main part of brain; includes telencephalon (occipital, parietal, frontal, temporal) and diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal gland)

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54
Q

midbrain (a.k.a. mesencephalon)

A

top of brainstem, connects forebrain to hindbrain; regulates movement, processes, auditory/visual signals; includes tectum, cerebral peducle, substantia nigra

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55
Q

hindbrain (a.k.a. rhombencephalon)

A

contains pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata

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56
Q

structural family therapy (Salvador Minuchin)

A

Focuses on hierarchies, boundaries, subsystems, enmeshment, disengagement. Aims to reorganize structures to remove dysfunctional elements – e.g. by restructuring parents in a coalition against their child, prohibiting kids from talking about symptomatic behavior with parents.

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57
Q

Freud’s stages of psychosexual development

A
  1. oral (birth-1 year): mouth
  2. anal (1-3 years): peeing and pooping
  3. phallic (3-6 years): genitalia; Oedipus/Electra complex
  4. latency (6-puberty); dormant sexual feelings
  5. genital (puberty-death): sexual interests mature
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58
Q

Erikson’s developmental stages

A
  1. trust vs mistrust (birth-1 year)
  2. autonomy vs shame/doubt (1-3 years): “me do it”
  3. initiative vs guilt (3-6 years): initiating and achieving goals
  4. industry vs inferiority (6-12 years): pride in schoolwork/sport/family life
  5. identity vs role confusion (12-18 years): “who am I?”
  6. intimacy vs isolation (20s through early 40s)
  7. generativity vs stagnation (40s-60s): finding life’s work, helping others
  8. integrity vs despair (60s-death): satisfaction when looking back at life
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59
Q

Larry P v. Riles

A

argued that IQ tests in schools resulted in minority students being placed disproportionately in special-ed classes

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60
Q

Reactance

A

When someone becomes more resistant to social influence in response to feeling pressured by the influencer

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61
Q

Resistance

A

Refusing to take a suggestion

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62
Q

Retroflection

A

A boundary disturbance in Gestalt therapy; taking what you want to do to someone else and doing it to yourself

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63
Q

Job evaluation

A

Conducted to determine financial worth of a job. Different from a performance evaluation or job analysis.

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64
Q

Job analysis

A

Performed to determine job tasks and training requirements. Used to match candidates with jobs, determine salary, establish safety standards.

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65
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

Happes as a result of amygdala damage. Hypoemotionality, agnosia, increased docility, hypersexuality, hyperphagia

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66
Q

Bayes Theorem

A

describes statistical probability of certain events given likelihood of other events

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67
Q

BARS

A

Behaviorally anchored rating scale. An absolute measure of performance, with behavioral anchors based on critical incidents

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68
Q

Which type of therapy is best known for doing dreamwork?

A

Gestalt therapy. The therapist has the pt talk from the POV of each object in the dream.

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69
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

A classical conditioning term. Generalizing from CS to similar but neutral stimuli. E.g. if afraid of dogs, also becoming afraid of cats.

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70
Q

Response generalization

A

An operant conditioning term. Doing a similar behavior to one that was previously reinforced.

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71
Q

implosive therapy

A

similar to imaginal flooding; a type of imaginal exposure in which the person imagines an exaggerated version of the anxiety-provoking stimulus. Based on classical extinction.

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72
Q

systematic desensitization

A

a.k.a. reciprocal inhibition (Wolpe). Gradual exposure (imaginal or in vivo) while using relaxation techniques. Does not arouse high levels of anxiety.

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73
Q

Counterconditioning

A

Conditioning to replace an undesired response with a more desired one

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74
Q

Piaget’s developmental stages

A
  1. sensorimotor (birth-2 years) - learning is based on physical experience, trial & error
  2. preoperational (2-7 years) - egocentricity, symbolic thinking (e.g. language); difficulty with idea of constancy; animism, magical thinking
  3. concrete operational (7-11 years) - inductive logic; understanding of conservation
  4. formal operational (12 and up) - abstract concepts, hypotheses based on past experience
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75
Q

standard error of the estimate

A

A measure of the accuracy of predictions made with a regression line.

Formula: std err est = SD(sqrt((1-r)^2)), where SD is the standard deviation of the criterion and r is the validity coefficient. The larger the variance in criterion scores, the greater the variance in error; the higher the validity coefficient (i.e. the better the test is at predicting criterion outcome), the smaller the error.

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76
Q

validity coefficient

A

Magnitude of correlation between a test and a criterion variable. Represents validity of a test.

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77
Q

Can someone with a mixed episode be diagnosed with bipolar I?

A

Yes

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78
Q

Foods to avoid when taking MAOI

A

Foods high in tyramine (can cause hypertension/stroke): alcohol, fava/broad beans, aged cheese, liver, smoked meat; foods to limit: soy sauce, avocado, banana, eggplant, spinach, tomato, yogurt

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79
Q

base rate (in the context of I/O)

A

the rate of hiring good employees without a predictor test

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80
Q

selection ratio

A

the ratio of # of job openings to # of applicants

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81
Q

incremental validity

A

proportion of improvement in success rate, relative to base rate, due to adding a predictor test

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82
Q

Taylor-Russell tables

A

Used to determine the value of a predictor test for hiring decisions based on the selection ratio and base rate. Incremental validity of a test is best when base rate is moderate (~.5), selection ratio is low (~.1), and validity coefficient is high.

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83
Q

Balance Theory

A

Says that a situation with 2 people and 1 object is out of balance when there are two positive links and one negative, which leads to change (e.g. Andrea likes David, Andrea likes skiing, David doesn’t like skiing)

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84
Q

M’Naughton Rule

A

Relates to the insanity defense. In this case, the insanity defense was used to defend someone w/schizophrenia who killed England’s prime minister’s secretary

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85
Q

An active, confrontational, persuasive style is characteristic of which type of therapy?

A

Ellis’s Rational Emotive Therapy

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86
Q

Item Response Theory (a.k.a. Latent Trait Theory)

A

Guides the design/scoring/analysis of questionnaires. Doesn’t assume that all test items are equally easy/hard. Draws connections between an item, the person taking the test, and the latent trait being measured. The theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment.

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87
Q

Under what circumstances is punishment most effective?

A

When administered early in the behavior sequence, at maximum intensity from the beginning, and consistently

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88
Q

halo effect

A

when ratings (either negative or positive) on one dimension affect ratings of the same person on other dimensions

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89
Q

contrast effect

A

when ratings of one person are affected by ratings of previous people

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90
Q

leniency bias

A

when rater rates everyone well

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91
Q

Which perceived characteristics of a manager are most likely to lead workers to do what they say?

A

being skilled/knowledgeable (expert power) and being likable/easy to identify with (referent power)

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92
Q

DRO

A

differential reinforcement of other behaviors. Extinction of an undesired behavior while reinforcing a desired behavior

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93
Q

holophrasic speech

A

Using single words to express something. Happens from 12-18 months.

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94
Q

telegraphic speech

A

Using two-word phrases. Happens around 18-24 months.

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95
Q

Fiedler’s Contingency Theory

A

Relates to a leader’s rating of a least preferred coworker (LPC). Low-LPC leaders are task-oriented and do best when they have either low or high situational control. High-LPC leaders are relationship-oriented and do best when they have moderate situational control.

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96
Q

Gertsmann’s syndrome

A

Caused by lesions to dominant parietal lobe. Characterized by agraphia, acalculia, right-left disorientation, finger agnosia

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97
Q

Theory X

A

A theory of work productivity positing that workers are lazy and need external reinforcement to do their work.

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98
Q

Theory Y

A

A theory of work productivity positing that workers are hard-working, creative, and seek challenges

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99
Q

Theory Z

A

A theory of work productivity positing that workers should be part of a company for life, promoted slowly, and group decision-making is important for companies

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100
Q

self-serving bias

A

attribution of your successes to your disposition and your failures to circumstance

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101
Q

actor-observer bias

A

attribution of one’s own actions to the situation but others’ actions to disposition

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102
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

attribution of others’ behavior to disposition and underplaying situational factors

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103
Q

Rett’s disorder

A

A genetic disorder seen only in females. Symptoms: sudden head growth deceleration, loss of hand skills followed by stereotyped hand movements, loss of social engagement, impaired language development, psychomotor retardation

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104
Q

What is the relationship between job satisfaction and 1) age, 2) gender, 3) race, and 4) type of work?

A

1) job satisfaction increases with age
2) no difference in job satisfaction between men and women
3) job satisfaction is greater among white vs minority people
3) job satisfaction is greater at higher occupational levels and lower in routine work (e.g. assembly lines)

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105
Q

QWL programs

A

a.k.a. quality of work-life programs. Programs meant to improve working life, in which workers meet regularly in teams to discuss issues in their purview.

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106
Q

discriminant analysis

A

a statistical test designed to predict a categorical DV from a set of continuous IVs (e.g. predicting who will pass the EPPP based on study time, age, and GPA)

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107
Q

Under what circumstances is it easiest to persuade someone?

A

The person has moderate self-esteem and there is a moderate discrepancy between their attitude and the message

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108
Q

When trying to persuade someone, under what circumstances should you present both sides of the argument vs only one side?

A

Present both sides if the person is initially opposed, intelligent, and well-informed. Present one side if the person is initially in favor, stupid, and poorly informed.

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109
Q

APA rules for record retention

A

Keep full record for 3 years after finishing treatment, then keep either summary or full record for another 12 years (at least 15 years total)

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110
Q

Cluster analysis

A

Used to derive subgroups from a cluster of DVs

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111
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Has permanent effects: physical deformities, delayed motor development, decreased intelligence

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112
Q

proactive inhibition

A

When old knowledge interferes with learning of new knowledge

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113
Q

retroactive inhibition

A

When new knowledge interferes with retrieval of old knowledge

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114
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

inability to form new memories after an amnesia-causing event

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115
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

inability to retrieve old memories

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116
Q

Premack Principle

A

a.k.a. probability-differential theory. The opportunity to do a high-probability behavior (e.g. eating candy, playing pinball) will reinforce a low-probability behavior (e.g. doing homework)

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117
Q

cluster sampling

A

randomly selecting naturally-occurring groups/samples (e.g. schools in a district, counties in a state). Often all the subjects within that cluster are sampled, but it can also be a random sampling of subjects within the cluster.

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118
Q

stratified random sampling

A

dividing the population into homogeneous groups, then randomly sampling within each

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119
Q

gate control theory

A

By Melzack & Wall. Pain is governed by a neurochemical “gate” that is either open or closed. Positive feelings/thoughts close the gate and negative ones open it.

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120
Q

What is the factor most strongly associated with suicide?

A

Hopelessness

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121
Q

Jung vs. Freud

A

In contrast to Freud, Jung didn’t think all personality development was based on sex drives; had a more positive view of human nature; and emphasized personality and spiritual development in adulthood (not just childhood development)

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122
Q

Ziegarnik effect

A

tendency to remember partially finished tasks better than completed ones

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123
Q

Barnum effect

A

tendency to identify with vague descriptions of themselves, e.g. a horoscope

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124
Q

Common medication for OCD

A

andidepressants - e.g. clomipramine (Anafranil - a triciclyic) or fluoxetine (Prozac - SSRI)

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125
Q

ethical rule regarding multiple relationship

A

they’re discouraged but sometimes unavoidable. They’re allowed as long as therapeutic objectivity isn’t compromised, and there is no exploitation of the patient.

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126
Q

power test (in psychoed testing)

A

a test of the highest level a subject can achieve. no time restrictions, liberal limits

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127
Q

What is the best therapy for specific phobias (agoraphobia, etc)?

A

Flooding – i.e. exposure with response prevention. Based on the principle of classical extinction.

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128
Q

Cognitive processing in older vs. younger adults

A

Older adults:

  • Do worse than younger adults on higher-order cognitive processes (problem-solving, reasoning, etc) in lab situations, but as well or better when measured in terms of real-world function.
  • Do well on simple attention tasks but have more trouble with complex ones. - Are poorer at learning and retrieving new info from long-term memory.
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129
Q

primary reinforcer

A

Things that are innately reinforcing across ages and cultures, e.g. food

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130
Q

secondary reinforcer

A

Something that’s not innately reinforcing but acquires reinforcing value through experience. E.g. positive feedback

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131
Q

generalized conditioned reinforcer

A

Something that has reinforcing value because it provides access to other reinforcers, e.g. money/tokens

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132
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

A stimulus in the presence of which a certain behavior will be reinforced – e.g. if you get a point for clicking button A but not B, button A would be a discriminative stimulus

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133
Q

Kohlberg’s stages of moral development

A

Based on Piaget’s ideas.

  1. preconventional (age 4-10)
    1a. obedience and punishment
    1b. self-interest (“what’s in it for me?”)
  2. conventional (age 10-13)
    2a. interpersonal accord and conformity (“good boy”/”good girl”)
    2b. authority and social-order maintaining
  3. post-conventional (early adolescence to adulthood)
    3a. social contract (mutual benefit, reciprocity)
    3b. universal ethical principles
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134
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A

anxiety, shaking hands, headache, vomiting, sweating; hallucinations/delusions, seizures, fever, racing heart

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135
Q

Symptoms of benzodiazepine (e.g. valium) withdrawal

A

rebound anxiety/insomnia, irritability, headaches, sensory distortions, agitation, high blood pressure, seizures, hallucinations; can be fatal if done abruptly

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136
Q

Symptoms of opiate (heroin, morphine, codeine, oxycodone) withdrawal

A

agitation, anxiety, insomnia, sweating; diarrhea, vomiting; very unpleasant but not life-threatening

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137
Q

flex-time

A

employees choose their hours as long as it includes some common set of hours. Associated with better morale, less absenteeism/tardiness

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138
Q

Rehm’s self-control model of depression

A

Integrates cognitive and behavioral principles. Depression results from negative self-eval, lack of self-reinforcement, too much self-punishment. Treatment addresses self-monitoring, self-eval, self-control skills, change in thoughts & behaviors

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139
Q

Kohut’s self psychology

A

A psychoanalytic approach. Refers to selfobject needs (dependence on other people), including mirroring, idealization, twinship. Says that narcissism stems from lack of parental empathy, so therapist must provide empathy.

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140
Q

social buffering hypothesis

A

perceived social support (as opposed to actual social support) buffers against depression and suicide

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141
Q

T-score

A

a standardized score; mean = 50, SD = 10

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142
Q

z-score

A

a standardized score representing the number of standard deviations from the mean a data point is; mean = 0, SD = 1. range= -3 to 3.

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143
Q

relationship between z-score and percentile

A
z = 0: 50th percentile
z = 1: 84th percentile
z = 2: 98th percentile
z = -1 to 1: 68% of sample
z = -2 to 2: 95% of sample
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144
Q

Lithium side effects

A

gastric distress, weight gain, tremor, fatigue, mild cognitive impairment

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145
Q

tricyclic medication

A

Include Elavil, imipramine, clomipramine, amitriptyline. Best for “classic” depression (bodily symptoms, worse in AM, short duration/acute onset, moderate severity). Side effects include sedation, weight gain, anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention)

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146
Q

SSRI medication

A

Include fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), paroxetine (Paxil). Best for moderate to severe depression. Fewer side effects than tricyclics, lower risk for fatal overdose. Side effects include agitation, insomnia, decreased libido, headache, nausea

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147
Q

primary prevention

A

intervention for non-affected group to prevent the problem from happening at all

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148
Q

secondary prevention

A

early intervention to prevent a problem from getting worse

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149
Q

tertiary prevention

A

intervention to reduce recurrence or residual effects of problems

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150
Q

social referencing

A

when infants use affective cues (e.g. from mom) for guidance in uncertain situations. Begins around 1 year of age

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151
Q

Around what age do embarrassment, empathy, and envy develop?

A

Around age 2

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152
Q

Alzheimer’s involves a decrease in which neurotransmitter?

A

acetylcholine

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153
Q

covert sensitization

A

imaginal aversive conditioning. Used for “deviant” behaviors: smoking, fetishes, etc.

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154
Q

empirical criterion keying

A

A method of developing personality tests. A set of criteria are given to people with and without a known characteristic (“criterion groups”), and only items that distinguish between groups are retained.

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155
Q

Tests that were developed using empirical criterion keying

A

MMPI, Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory; Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.

NOT used for MCMI (Millon)

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156
Q

Atkinson’s theory of achievement motivation (NAch)

A

Success depends on:

  1. task difficulty - intermediate
  2. motive/need to achieve - high; associated with independence, challenge-seeking, pride in accomplishments
  3. need to avoid failure - high
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157
Q

Under what circumstances is a group leader most likely to deviate from group norms?

A

When the leader is secure in their position

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158
Q

criterion contamination

A

when there is a spuriously high correlation between predictor and criterion (validity coefficient) because of a rater’s prior knowledge of the predictor ratings

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159
Q

Symptoms of amphetamine withdrawal

A

dysphoria, psychomotor retardation, increased appetite

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160
Q

At what value does an ANOVA F-ratio start becoming significant?

A

2.0

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161
Q

parallel process

A

when a therapist acts toward a supervisor like a patient has acted toward the therapist

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162
Q

Deci’s studies of extrinsic and intrinsic motivation

A

Found that, in contrast to the overjustification effect, extrinsic rewards can enhance intrinsic motivation if used as feedback about performance (e.g. getting a raise for good work) rather than used to control performance

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163
Q

K scale of MMPI

A

measures guardedness/defensiveness; corrects for these things on some clinical scales. Very low K score is associated with acute psychological distress (d)

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164
Q

F scale of MMPI

A

reflects infrequently endorsed items; can mean either malingering or random response. If too high, it invalidates the entire test.

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165
Q

L scale of the MMPI

A

The Lie (“faking good”) scale. Intended to catch people lying, in denial about their symptoms, or with low insight. Items asked about things that sound good, but are rarely actually endorsed by most people.

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166
Q

James-Lange Theory of Emotion

A

Stimulus –> bodily reaction –> emotion (I’m running, so I must be scared)

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167
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

A

Stimulus –> thalamus –> simultaneous bodily reaction and emotion. Emotion doesn’t rely on bodily reaction.

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168
Q

Schacter’s Theory of Emotion

A

A.k.a. two-factor theory of emotion. Stimulus –> bodily reaction + cognitive labeling of the reaction –> emotion. E.g. crying at a wedding = happy, crying at a funeral = sad

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169
Q

Who does the APA ethics code apply to?

A

Officially only members of the APA. However, licensing boards often follow APA ethics codes.

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170
Q

group polarization

A

When a group discusses a topic, the views discussed are more extreme and in the same direction as the views held by individual group members. Group decisions tend to be more extreme (in either direction) than individuals’ decisions would be.

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171
Q

Under what circumstances is dementia due to head trauma progressive?

A

Generally only after multiple head traumas. If it looks progressive after just one, there is usually a superimposed condition such as hydrocephalus.

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172
Q

Lenore Walker’s cycle of violence

A
  1. tension building, 2. acute battering incident, 3. loving contrition. The abusive relationship is stable when the benefits of the relationship in the loving contrition stage balance out the costs of the abuse
173
Q

How does antisocial personality disorder change over adulthood?

A

Symptoms, especially criminal behaviors, decrease with time. But APD is chronic, and interpersonal problems may still exist.

174
Q

Solomon four-group design

A

An experimental study design used when there are concerns that pre-testing might change treatment effects. Groups consist of:

  1. Pre-test, treatment, post-test
  2. Pre-test, no treatment, post-test
  3. Treatment, post-test
  4. No treatment, post-test
175
Q

APA standard of objectivity in teaching/training

A

psychologists must give accurate information “with a reasonable degree of objectivity”

176
Q

experiment-wise error

A

the probability of getting at least one Type I error (false positive) across all the analyses in an experiment

177
Q

fee capitation

A

fixed amount of money paid per client (not per visit or procedure)

178
Q

time-series design

A

Take a series of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then introduce an experimental manipulation. Biggest problem with this design is if a historical event co-occurs with the manipulation.

179
Q

Blocking

A

Presenting a CS along with a second stimulus just before the UCS. This prevents the second stimulus from becoming associated with the UCS.

180
Q

Higher-order conditioning

A

Presenting a CS along with a second, neutral stimulus (not in the presence of the UCS). This leads the second stimulus to be associated with the CS, usually with a weaker conditioned response

181
Q

Adlerian therapy

A

Involves 12 stages, focuses on warmth and empathy. Main motivator of behavior is a desire to belong. If things go well, this can be a motivation to pursue success. If they don’t, this desire can be channeled into goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge. Also focuses on importance of birth order.

182
Q

Central limit theorem

A

As sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of the means approaches normality (even if the original population isn’t normally distributed)

183
Q

paresis

A

Partial paralysis, caused by injury resulting in incomplete severing of the spinal cord. Can consist of numbness, tingling

184
Q

Timothy Crow’s subtypes of schizophrenia

A
  1. Type I: More likely due to neurotransmitter problems; causes positive symptoms. Responds better to antipsychotics. Symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, inappropriate affect, disorganized thinking.
  2. Type II: More likely due to structural brain problems; causes negative symptoms. Begins in adolescence, doesn’t respond to most antipsychotics, poor prognosis. Symptoms: word salad, apathy, antisociality
185
Q

WISC-V index scores

A
  1. Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) - measures verbal concept formation
  2. Visual Spatial Index (VSI) - measures spatial processing
  3. Fluid Reasoning Index (FRI) - measures inductive and quantitative reasoning
  4. Working Memory Index (WMI) - measures working memory ability
  5. Processing Speed Index (PSI) - measures processing speed
186
Q

WISC Verbal Comprehension Index

A

Composed of Similarities, Vocabulary, Information, Comprehesion

187
Q

WISC Visual Spatial Index

A

Composed of Block Design, Visual Puzzles

188
Q

WISC Fluid Reasoning Index

A

Composed of Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Picture Concepts, Arithmetic

189
Q

WISC Working Memory Index

A

Composed of Digit Span, Picture Span, Letter-Number Sequencing

190
Q

Processing Speed Index

A

Composed of Coding, Symbol Search, Cancellation

191
Q

Item Characteristic Curve

A

Used in Item Response Theory. A plot created for each item showing percentage of people from different ability groups who answered the item correctly. Can convey item difficulty discrimination between high and low scorers, probability of answering correctly by guessing

192
Q

Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Model

A
  1. Microsystem - child’s immediate environment; home, school, peer group
  2. Mesosystem - interactions between microsystems; home and school, peers and family, etc.
  3. Exosystem - indirect environment; parents’ workplace, extended family
  4. Macrosystem - social/cultural values
  5. Chronosystem - changes over time
193
Q

Medications for bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, Tegretol (carbamazepine), Depakote (valproic acid)

194
Q

Cattell & Horn’s theory of intelligence

A

Fluid intelligence - logic, problem-solving, pattern identification. Culture-free.
Crystallized intelligence - Learned knowledge, experience. Affected by education, culture.

Fluid and crystallized are highly correlated, and crystallized develops via use of fluid.

195
Q

Curriculum-based assessment

A

Used to assess students in the context of a specific curriculum and potentially make changes based on the curriculum as a result. Considered a criterion-referenced (not norm-referenced) assessment since it’s evaluated with respect to an external criterion (the curriculum).

196
Q

Requirements for a token economy

A
  1. target behaviors (i.e. behaviors to change)
  2. choice of reinforcers (what is reinforcing to the client)
  3. rate of exchange (how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer)
197
Q

Huntingonton’s Disease

A

Dominant genetic disorder that begins with degeneration of the striatum in the basal ganglia, leading to decreased GABA, which leads to too much dopamine. Symptoms: uncontrollable movement of arms, legs, face (chorea); impaired gait/balance; difficulty speaking/swallowing; impulsivity, perseveration, learning difficulties; depression.

198
Q

vestibule training

A

A method of off-the-job job training with conditions simulating the real job environment

199
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

difficulty producing language, including repeating what someone says

200
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

a.k.a. receptive aphasia. Difficulty with comprehension, leading to problems with spoken and written language, and word recall. Includes difficulty repeating words someone says.

201
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

Caused by damage to neurons connecting Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. Characterized by difficulty repeating words someone says. Speech comprehension and production are intact, but speech contains lots of errors.

202
Q

Hersey & Blanchard’s situational model of leadership

A

Describes four leadership styles, which managers should choose depending on the employee’s maturity level and the situation:

  1. Telling: giving instructions. Used for employees who are unable, not willing/confident.
  2. Selling: somewhat directive, but explaining decisions. Employees are unable, willing/confident.
  3. Delegating: giving responsibility to employees. Employees are able, willing/confident.
  4. Participating: leader and employees share ideas. Employees are able, not willing/confident.
203
Q

House’s path-goal model of management

A

leader’s style should be adapted to fit employees and environment to achieve a goal. Aim to increase employees’motivation, satisfaction.

204
Q

Vroom and Yetton’s normative model of management

A

Uses a decision tree to determine whether to use an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach. Leadership style and degree of employee involvement in decision-making depends on importance of decision, acceptability of decision to employees, time required to make decision.

205
Q

What is the drug most commonly abused by teenagers?

A

Alcohol

206
Q

Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

A

Motivation depends on:

  1. Belief about association between effort and performance
  2. Belief about relationship between performance and outcome
  3. Desirability (valence) of outcome.
207
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of childhood development of gender concepts

A
  1. gender identity (by age 3) - categorizing self and others as male/female
  2. Gender stability (by age 4) - understanding that gender stays the same throughout life
  3. Gender constancy (by age 5-6) - gender doesn’t change based on appearance
208
Q

Characteristics associated with resilience after trauma

A

social support, skill in at least one activity (and associated self-efficacy)

209
Q

Petty’s Elaboration Likelihood Model

A

A cognitive model of persuasion. Says that people can be persuaded through one of two routes:

  1. central: thoughtful consideration of the information presented
  2. peripheral: based on more superficial positive/negative cues (e.g. attractiveness and production quality of message source), rather than logic
210
Q

Lazarus theory of emotion

A

a thought has to precede any emotion or physiological arousal

211
Q

Absence seizure

A

a.k.a. petit mal seizure. Very brief (=< 30s), lack of awareness, minimal movement. Believed to originate in thalamus. Usually happen in childhood and outgrown by adulthood.

212
Q

Complex partial seizure disorder

A

a.k.a. focal dyscognitive seizure, a.k.a. temporal lobe epilepsy. Originates in temporal lobe (usually). Uncontrolled body movements, lack of awareness; seizures are very brief. Starts in one part of the body and spreads

213
Q

tonic-clonic seizure

A

a.k.a. grand mal seizure. 1-3 minutes long, loss of consciousness, rhythmic twitching/jerking

214
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Caused by degeneration of substantia nigra, leading to decreased dopamine delivered to other areas of the basal ganglia. Tremors, difficulty with voluntary movement.

215
Q

coalition (in the context of Minuchin’s structural family therapy)

A

when one parent and a child gang up on the other parent

216
Q

triangulation (in the context of Minuchin’s structural family therapy)

A

when two family members with an ongoing conflict bring in another family member (e.g. when each parent tries to get a child to take their side)

217
Q

joining (in the context of Minuchin’s structural family therapy)

A

A step that involves tracking (identifying and using the family’s values, etc.) and mimesis (taking on the affective style of the family).

218
Q

introjection

A

A term from Gestalt therapy; taking on other people’s values as if they were your own

219
Q

Huesmann et al (2003)’s study of TV violence

A

increases later aggressive behavior for both boys and girls

220
Q

What brain area is overactive in OCD?

A

caudate nucleus

221
Q

inferior colliculus

A

in midbrain; controls auditory reflexes

222
Q

locus coeruleus

A

in the pons, within the brainstem; controls physiological responses related to stress and panic; associated with depression and panic disorder

223
Q

procedural memory

A

Part of long-term memory and a subset of implicit memory. How to do things (i.e. motor skills).

224
Q

semantic memory

A

Part of long-term memory relating to ideas/concepts NOT based on personal experience. Rules of logic/inference as well as common knowledge such as color names, capitals of cities, sounds of letters.

225
Q

episodic memory

A

memory of events in personal experience

226
Q

components of long-term memory

A
  1. procedural memory
  2. episodic memory
  3. semantic memory
227
Q

factor loading

A

correlation between a measure and a factor

228
Q

postcentral gyrus

A

in the parietal lobe, just behind the central sulcus; contains the primary somatosensory cortex (receptive area for sense of touch)

229
Q

precentral gyrus

A

at the back of the frontal lobe, just in front of the central sulcus; contains the primary motor cortex (codes for motor movement)

230
Q

lateral fissure

A

separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes

231
Q

criterion deficiency

A

when a criterion is insufficient to validly predict the outcome, e.g. using typing speed as a predictor of an administrator’s job performance

232
Q

rules about using age, disability, etc. as criteria for hiring

A

You can use any criteria as long as you can show that it’s job-related. If someone charges you with discriminatory hiring practices, you have the burden of proving the job-relevance of the criterion.

233
Q

frame-of-reference training

A

done to improve rater accuracy; teaches raters to focus on specific characteristics that align with the organization’s ideas about good performance

234
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

a.k.a. alcohol-induced persisting amnestic disorder due to thiamine deficiency. Thiamine = vitamin B1. Characterized by anterograde and sometimes retrograde amnesia due to damage to thalamus and hypothalamus.

235
Q

apraxia of speech

A

difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately

236
Q

dysarthria

A

difficulty with speech articulation

237
Q

Stuart’s operant interpersonal therapy

A

A type of marital therapy that encourages couples to focus on each others’ positive traits and use reciprocal reinforcement (“quid pro quo”). Successful marriages are seen as having more rewards than costs.

238
Q

Gardner’s theory of intelligence

A

Theory of multiple intelligences (linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalist). Based on the idea that evaluation of intelligence is culture-specific.

239
Q

Eagly meta-analyses of gender and leadership

A

Male and female leaders equally effective. Women more effective when leadership role defined as “feminine” and men more when defined as “masculine.” Men better in 1st-level management positions, women better in middle management.

240
Q

Eagly’s social role theory of sex differences

A

Behavior of men and women arises primarily through socialization to cultural gender roles

241
Q

Patterson’s coercive family interactive model

A

Kids learn aggression via modeling by parents. Kids and parents get stuck in a cycle where the parent’s aggressive behavior elicits resistance from kid, which elicits more negativity from parent, etc until one of them “wins”. Eventually generalizes to other contexts (e.g. school).

242
Q

Weber’s law

A

Describes the association between a physical stimulus and the way it’s perceived. “Just noticeable difference” is proportional to magnitude of the original (baseline) stimulus. E.g. easier to notice a difference b/t 1 and 2 lbs than between 50 and 51 lbs

243
Q

Robert Sternberg’s triarchic model of intelligence

A

3 interacting components:

  1. componential/analytical aspect - processing and analyzing information
  2. experiential/creative aspect - dealing with unfamiliar situations
  3. practical/contextual aspect - responding to environment
244
Q

MMPI score indicating “faking bad”

A

high score on F scale

245
Q

MMPI scores indicating “faking good”

A

high K, high L, low F

246
Q

DSM-V “other specified disorder”

A

used if you want to indicate why the patient didn’t meet criteria for another disorder (e.g. “other specified depressive disorder, recurrent brief depression”)

247
Q

DSM-V “unspecified disorder”

A

used if you don’t want to indicate why the patient meet criteria for another specific disorder

248
Q

Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI)

A

a semi-structured interview in the DSM to gather client’s view of sociocultural factors in their presenting problems

249
Q

intellectual disability

A
  1. deficits in intellectual functioning
  2. problems in adaptive functioning (independence, social responsibility, etc)
  3. onset during childhood
250
Q

autism spectrum disorder

A
  1. deficits in social communication
  2. restrictive/repetitive behavior, interests, and activities
  3. symptoms during childhood
  4. impairment in social, occupational, or other area
251
Q

ADHD DSM criteria

A
  1. inattention (6 symptoms) and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity (6 symptoms) for at least 6 months
  2. onset before age 12
  3. present in at least 2 settings (e.g. home and school)
  4. interferes with functioning
252
Q

ADHD subtypes

A
  1. predominantly inattentive presentation: >= 6 symptoms of inattention, < 6 symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity
  2. predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation: >= 6 symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity, <6 symptoms of inattention
  3. combined presentation: >= 6 symptoms of each
253
Q

Barkley’s behavioral disinhibition hypothesis of ADHD

A

behavioral inhibition problems in ADHD are due to problems in:

  1. working memory
  2. self-regulation of affect/motivation/arousal
  3. internal monologue
  4. behavioral analysis and synthesis
254
Q

brain abnormalities in ADHD

A

low activity and small size of caudate, globus pallidus, PFC

255
Q

NIMH Multimodal Treatment Study of ADHD (MTA)

A

Compared meds alone (methylphenidate), behavioral therapy alone, combined meds/therapy, routine care. Initially, both mes alone and combined tx did better than therapy alone or community care; but long-term follow-ups found that all groups had similar outcomes.

256
Q

specific learning disorder

A
  1. academic skill deficits below expected for pt’s age
  2. persists for >= 6 months despite intervention
  3. interferes with job/school performance or life
  4. onset during school age
257
Q

subtypes of specific learning disorder

A
  1. with impairment in reading
  2. with impairment in written expression
  3. with impairment in mathematics
258
Q

Tourette’s disorder

A
  1. one or more vocal tics
  2. multiple motor tics
  3. persists for at least 1 year
  4. onset before age 18

Linked to elevated dopamine, hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in caudate. Often comorbid with OCD. Often treated with antipsychotic drugs (haloperidol, pimozide)

259
Q

Persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder

A

one or more vocal OR motor tics for at least a year, began prior to age 18. In contrast to Tourette’s doesn’t require both motor and vocal tics.

260
Q

Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation model

A

Used to help “inoculate” patients against upcoming stress. Includes:

  1. initial conceptualization: psychoeducation about stress, appraisal, cognitive distortions
  2. skills acquisition
  3. application and follow-through: practice coping skills
261
Q

delusional disorder

A

At least one delusion lasting at least a month. Subtypes: erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, somatic, mixed, unspecified

262
Q

schizophrenia diagnostic criteria

A
  1. Two or more active phase symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, negative symptoms), with at least one being one of the first three listed, for at least 1 month
  2. continuous symptoms for at least 6 months
  3. functional impairment
263
Q

anosognosia

A

poor insight into illness; this is a predictor of relapse in schizophrenia. Often due to damage to the right parietal lobe.

264
Q

good prognostic indicators for schizophrenia

A
  1. good premorbid adjustment
  2. acute and late onset
  3. female gender
  4. precipitating event
  5. brief duration of active-phase symptoms
  6. insight
  7. family history of mood disorder, no family history of schizophrenia
265
Q

brain abnormalities in schizophrenia

A

Enlarged ventricles, small hippocampus, amygdala, globus pallidus. Low PFC functioning associated with negative symptoms, poor cognitive performance.

266
Q

traditional (first-generation) antipsychotic medications

A

Include haloperidol, fluphenazine; most useful for positive symptoms. Severe side effects, especially tardive dyskinesia.

267
Q

atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medications

A

Include clozapine, risperidone. Can help positive and negative symptoms. Less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to cause tardive dyskinesia.

268
Q

schizophreniform disorder

A

same criteria as schizophrenia, except symptoms are present for 1-6 months, and impaired functioning not required

269
Q

brief psychotic disorder

A

One day to mone month, with return to pemorbid functioning. One or more of: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior; at least one must be one of the first three. Often due to intense stressor.

270
Q

bipolar I disorder

A

At least one manic episode lasting at least 1 week, most of the day nearly every day. At least three of the following: inflated self-esteem/grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, excessive talkativeness, flight of ideas. Marked impairment, hospitalization, or psychosis.

271
Q

bipolar II disorder

A

At least one hypomanic episode (3 symptoms, at least 4 days) and one major depressive episode.

272
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

numerous subthreshold hypomanic and depressive periods, significant distress or impairment. At least 2 years in adults, 1 year in children and adolescents. Present at least half the time, not more than 2 months symptom-free.

273
Q

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

A
  1. severe recurrent temper outbursts out of proportion to the situation, at least 3x/week
  2. chronic irritable/angry mood between outbursts most days
  3. Symptoms present at least 12 months in at least 2 of 3 settings (home, school, with peers)
  4. Onset before age 10
  5. First diagnosed between ages 6 and 18
274
Q

Lewisohn’s behavioral theory of depression

A

Based on operant conditioning. Says MDD is due to low reinforcement for social and other behaviors (e.g. due to death of a partner or change in social environment)

275
Q

MAOI medications

A

Helpful for depression that doesn’t respond to tricyclics or SSRIs, or with atypical symptoms (anxiety, hypersomnia, hyperphagia, interpersonal sensitivity).

276
Q

treatment for specific phobia, blood injection injury subtype

A

exposure with response prevention, plus applied tension (tensing and releasing large muscles to increase blood pressure) for the vasovagal response

277
Q

treatment for social anxiety disorder

A

exposure with response prevention; can be enhanced by social skills training or cognitive techniques, or SSRI/SNRI/propranolol (a beta-blocker)

278
Q

medical conditions to rule out before diagnosing panic disorder

A

hyperthyroidism, hypoglycemia, cardiac arrhythmia

279
Q

time frame for diagnosing separation anxiety disorder in kids vs adults

A

symptoms must be present for 4 weeks in kids and adolescents, 6 months in adults

280
Q

reactive attachment disorder

A

A childhood disorder due to parental neglect, repeated change in primary caregivers, or growing up in a weird situation where it’s difficult to form selective attachments. Symptoms:

  1. Lack of seeking/responding to comfort when distressed
  2. Social/emotional disturbance with >= 2 of a list of several symptoms (irritability, sadness, fearfulness)
281
Q

disinhibited social engagement disorder

A

A childhood disorder due to parental neglect, repeated change in primary caregivers, or growing up in a weird situation where it’s difficult to form selective attachments. Symptoms: inappropriate interactions with unfamiliar adults

282
Q

PTSD

A

Symptoms lasting at least 1 month and causing distress/impairment:

  1. exposure to actual/threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence directly or indirectly
  2. at least one intrusion symptom (distressing memory, nightmare, flashback, intense distress or physiological reactions to reminders of event
  3. avoidance of either memories/thoughts/feelings about the event, or external cues that remind of the event
  4. at least 2 negative mood/cognitive changes (difficulty remembering, negative beliefs, distorted thoughts about event’s cause/consequences, anhedonia, social detachment
  5. at least 2 changes in arousal/reactivity (angry outbursts, destructive/reckless behavior, hypervigilance, startle response, impaired concentration, insomnia)
283
Q

acute stress disorder

A

symptoms similar to PTSD, except:

  1. duration of 3 days to 1 month
  2. at least 9 symptoms from any of the 5 categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance, arousal)
284
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

a.k.a. Briquet’s syndrome. One or more somatic symptoms accompanied by excessive thoughts or anxiety about them, or excessive time and energy devoted to them. Usually > 6 months in duration. Highly comorbid with personality disorders (61%), MDD (55%), GAD (34%).

285
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

Worry about having a serious illness when there are no or only mild somatic symptoms; high health anxiety; excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of doctors. Present for at least 6 months.

286
Q

Conversion disorder

A

neurological-type symptoms (e.g. paralysis, seizures, blindness, loss of pain sensations) incompatible with recognized neurological/medical disorders. Significant distress or impairment.

287
Q

factitious disorder vs malingering

A

factitious disorder doesn’t have an obvious external reward, whereas malingering does (e.g. avoiding work, getting monetary compensation, getting drugs). In both, the faked symptoms can be medical or psychological.

288
Q

bulimia vs anorexia binge-purge subtype

A

people with bulimia maintain normal or above-normal weight, people with anorexia don’t

289
Q

enuresis

A

peeing yourself at least 2x/week for 3 or more months. Age 5 or older.

290
Q

encopresis

A

pooping yourself (or inappropriate places) at least 1x/month for 3 or more months. Age 4 or older.

291
Q

non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorders

A

episodes of incomplete awakening accompanied either by sleepwalking and/or sleep terrors (awaking with a scream and intense fear/autonomic arousal). Limited or no recall of the episode after waking up.

292
Q

intermittent explosive disorder

A
  1. recurrent anger outbursts at least 2x/week on average for at least 3 months, OR
  2. 3 outbursts in 12 months causing damage/destruction and/or injury
  3. out of porportion to provocation
  4. not premeditated or intended to achieve something
  5. age 6 or older
293
Q

conduct disorder

A

violation of social norms or others’ basic rights in the categories of aggression to people/animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness/theft, and serious rule violation. You can’t be given this diagnosis if over 18 and diagnosed with antisocial PD.

294
Q

substance ue disorder

A

at least two characteristic symptoms in 12 months from these categories:

  1. impaired control
  2. social impairment
  3. risky use
  4. pharmacological criteria (tolerance, withdrawal)
295
Q

abstinence violation effect (Marlatt and Gordon)

A

relapse into substance abuse following abstinence due to negative emotions leading to increased susceptibility to alcohol consumption. Risk of future relapses is reduced if the person thinks of the episode as due to specific, external, controllable factors.

296
Q

ABAB study design

A

baseline, treatment, baseline (treatment removed/reversed), treatment

297
Q

Multiple baseline study design

A

includes multiple baselines across settings or subjects. E.g.:

  • baseline in setting A, intervention in setting A, baseline in setting B, intervention in setting B
  • baseline for group A, treatment for group A, baseline for group B, treatment for group B
298
Q

Reframing (in the context of structural or strategic family therapy)

A

Defining a problem behavior in a different way (e.g., the daughter who “talks back” is expressing need for love, not anger). The therapist does this to help the family see things differently and comply with treatment.

299
Q

Big Five personality traits associated with antisocial personality disorder

A

high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness

300
Q

most likely comorbidity with enuresis

A

non-REM sleep arousal disorders (i.e. sleep terror disorder or sleepwalking)

301
Q

Three (overlapping) steps of Minuchin’s structural family therapy

A
  1. Joining
  2. Evaluating/diagnosing
  3. Restructuring
302
Q

Techniques used in Evaluating/Diagnosing stage of Minuchin’s structural family therapy

A

constructing a family map; enactment (also used for restructuring)

303
Q

Berry’s acculturation model

A

Describes two distinct dimensions in members of minority groups:
1. retention of minority culture
2. maintenance of majority culture.
“Marginalization” refers to people low on both.

304
Q

If the APA approves an organization to sponsor continuing ed programes, does the APA considered to be endorsing/sanctioning/approving the program?

A

No. Only the overall sponsorship is APA-approved.

305
Q

Self-referencing (Rogers et al)

A

A memory technique involving asking yourself whether you’ve done this thing before, where you were, etc. Results in better recall than semantic referencing or other types of information processing.

306
Q

According to Piaget, does cognitive development depend on biological maturation, environment, and/or social interactions?

A

Biological maturation and environment.

307
Q

theme interference (Gerald Caplan; in the context of I/O psych)

A

WHen a worker displaces unresolved personal problems or defeat onto a work situation.

308
Q

Social Identity Theory (Tajfel)

A

People want to enhance their self-esteem and do so via personal and social identity. Social identity is enhanced by believing your group (the ingroup) is good and belittling the other groups (outgroups). Leads to prejudice/discrimination.

309
Q

Self-perception theory (Daryl Bem)

A

When there are no clear internal cues, people infer their feelings/beliefs based on observed behavior or external cues (e.g. “I’m crying, so I must be sad.”) Consistent with James-Lange theory.

310
Q

Social comparison theory (Leon Festinger)

A

People assess their own worth by comparing themselves to others. The more similar you are to someone, the more likely to compare yourself to them. More motivated people are likelier to make upward comparisons than downward.

311
Q

Situational control (in the context of Fiedler’s Contingency Model)

A

A leader’s control over a work situation. Determined by leader-member relations, task structure, and leader position/power.

312
Q

French and Raven’s bases of social power

A
  1. expert power - knowledge of a topic
  2. referent power - position of respect
  3. legitimate power - administrative authority (i.e. people are required to do what they say)
  4. coercive power - ability to punish
  5. reward power - ability to reward
313
Q

Feature integration theory (Treisman and Gelade)

A

Perception of an object occurs through:

  1. preattentive stage - automatic processing of the object’s features (color, shape, movement, etc)
  2. focused attention stage -all the disparate features focused on that point in the “master map” of locations are lumped together into one object
314
Q

acetylcholine

A

Transmits messages from peripheral nerves to muscles, making the muscles contract.

315
Q

GABA

A

Most abundant neurotransmitter. Has an inhibitory role, especially in the limbic system (emotions). Low GABA is assocaited with anxiety and Huntington’s.

316
Q

norepinephrine

A

helps regulate arousal, dreaming, moods

317
Q

serotonin

A

associated with personality, mood, drive states

318
Q

Which three of the Big Five personality traits are most associated with job satisfaction?

A

From most to least: low neuroticism, high conscientiousness, high extraversion

319
Q

Holland’s six personality types

A

RIASEC:

  1. realistic: good with tools/machines, values practical, concrete things.
  2. investigative: likes math/science, avoids leading/persuading; precise, intellectual
  3. artistic: likes the arts; original, independent
  4. social: likes helping people; good at teaching, caring, counseling; friendly, helpful
  5. enterprising: likes leading/persuading; values success, leadership; ambitious, sociable
  6. conventional: likes structure, numbers, records; orderly, good at following a set plan
320
Q

Marlatt’s model of substance dependence

A

Addicts associate substance use with positive feelings via “overlearning” through numerous cues and reinforcers (ads, happy social occasions, etc). In fact, substance use causes more problems, leading to self-criticism/guilt, leading to more substance use.

321
Q

insight learning (Wolfgang Kohler)

A

“A-ha” learning due to cognitive restructuring of the environment. In Kohler’s classic experiment, he put food outside a chimp’s cage and gave the chimp two short sticks. Chimp suddenly figured out it could attach the two sticks to make a long stick and get the food.

322
Q

Solution-focused therapy

A

Focuses on helping patients become aware of solutions they already have in place. E.g. observing what’s working well that they would like to continue. Therapists use future-oriented questions such as the miracle question.

323
Q

Lewinsohn’s research on self-evaluations in depression

A

Depressed people’s self-evaluations are more realistic than those of non-depressed people, based on association with observer evaluations.

324
Q

Findings related to the 4-day work week (a.k.a. compressed work week, CWW)

A

4-day work week is associated with lower absenteeism, higher job satisfaction (particularly among younger and lower-level employees). Productivity is unaffected.

325
Q

ipsative score

A

score reflecting the relative strength of a measure within an individual. (e.g. the results of a forced-choice measure). Scores can’t be compared directly with other people.

326
Q

Donald Meichenbaum’s self-instruction technique for ADHD

A

Involves teaching the child to make appropriate self-statements while performing a desired task.

327
Q

bootstrapping (in the context of language development)

A

building understanding of one part of language based on understanding of another part. E.g. syntactic bootstrapping = getting word meaning based on sentence structure.

328
Q

Lewinsohn’s theory of depression

A

depression is caused by low rates of response-contingent positive reinforcement, which leads to extinction of social and other behaviors and concurrent depressive somatic symptoms and cognitions

329
Q

What is the relationship between validity coefficient and the range of scores in the predictor(s) and criterion?

A

The larger the range of scores in the predictor(s) and the criterion, the higher the validity coefficient.

330
Q

glutamate

A

a neurotransmitter associated with learning and memory

331
Q

standardized measures of adaptive behavior

A

These include the Adaptive Behavior Scale and the Vineland. Designed to assess competencies (e.g. getting dressed without help, engaging in conversation when addressed, etc) rather than abilities

332
Q

point-biserial correlation

A

uased when correlating a dichotomous variable with a continuous one

333
Q

biserial correlation

A

used when correlating an artificial dichotomy (e.g. high vs low scorers) with a continuous variable

334
Q

Spearman’s rho (a.k.a. Spearman’s rank-order correlation)

A

the non-parametric version of the Pearson product-moment correlation. Measures the association between two ranked variables.

335
Q

prosopagnosia

A

Inability to recognize faces. Due to problems with visual processing and memory caused by damage to the bilateral occipitotemporal areas.

336
Q

Damage to which area of the brain causes indifference or apathy?

A

prefrontal association cortex (in the frontal lobe)

337
Q

reciprocal determinism (Albert Bandura)

A

Three factors interact with each other and influence behavior: environment, the individual, and the behavior itself. E.g. a child acts out and gets negative attention from teachers, which further influences his behavior.

338
Q

Berne’s transactional analysis model

A

Describes social interactions in terms of positive and negative “strokes” (fundamental units of social interaction) given and received. A person’s life plan is called a “script” and describes their pattern of giving/receiving strokes.

339
Q

idiopathic

A

of unknown cause

340
Q

allopathic

A

typical Western medicine

341
Q

autoplastic

A

adapting by altering one’s own behavior

342
Q

declarative memory

A

Includes episodic and semantic memory. Associated with hippocampus, temporal cortex, diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus), peripheral cortex.

343
Q

terminal drop

A

a substantial decrease in all aspects of intelligence within the months before death

344
Q

centration

A

A term from Piaget. Describes a focus on one situation to the exclusion of others (e.g. lack of understanding of conservation of volume due to focus on shape of containers). Occurs during preoperational phase.

345
Q

Wickline v. California

A

Patient sued a managed-care organization because it hadn’t approved a hospital stay the patient needed. The doctor didn’t appeal the decision, so the patient lost the case.

346
Q

coefficient of determination

A

the square of the correlation coefficient. Represents proportion of variability shared by the two variables.

347
Q

Goal of Gestalt therapy

A

Increased awareness of the self, the environment, and the self-environment boundary. Integration of thought, feeling, and action.

348
Q

Kuder-Richardson formula

A

A measure of internal consistency reliability. Used to assess inter-item consistency of dichotomously scored tests (e.g. items are scored as right or wrong)

349
Q

What parenting styles have been associated with teenage offspring’s delinquency/antisocial behavior?

A

Lax supervision, non-enforcement of rules, non-involvement in child’s life

350
Q

iconic memory

A

extremely brief (milliseconds) visual memory of an image just seen

351
Q

What are the ethical requirements for testifying as an expert witness?

A

You should have specific knowledge of the relevant field. Not required to be considered an expert by both sides or to have any special certification.

352
Q

identity foreclosure

A

commitment to your own (ethnic) identity without much exploration of what that means. Minority adolescents are more likely than whites to be in this stage.

353
Q

identity achievement

A

involves a struggle between different potential personal choices that eventually lead to a commitment to a personal choice.

354
Q

identity diffusion

A

lack of commitment to an identity, whether or not there has been an identity crisis.

355
Q

identity moratorium

A

ongoing identity crisis with no clear commitment to a personal choice

356
Q

family systems theory (Bowen)

A

includes concepts of triangles, differentiation of self, multigenerational transmission of problems, emotional cutoff, sibling position, societal emotional process

357
Q

triangulation (in the context of Bowen’s family systems therapy)

A

Reduction of tension between two family members by focusing on a third family member

358
Q

How did Jung conceptualize the unconscious?

A

As a combination of a personal and a collective unconscious. Collective unconscious contains memories of culture, archetypes, prehuman memories

359
Q

What are the laws about warning potential partners of an HIV-positive person who plans to have unprotected sex without telling the partner about their status?

A

Variable by state. Some states require warning the partner, others prohibit it.

360
Q

interpersonal therapy (IPT)

A

Manualized, time-limited treatment for depression based on a biopsychosocial model. Focus is on interpersonal relationships. Conceptualizes depression as stemming from attachment problems in childhood.

361
Q

self-disclosure reciprocity

A

the tendency for people to be more likely to disclose personal information when someone else has already done so

362
Q

Percentage of people with panic who have agoraphobia

A

33-50%

363
Q

Short-term memory is associated with which part of the brain?

A

prefrontal cortex

364
Q

Super’s Life-Career Rainbow

A

Relates 9 major life roles to 5 life stages:

  1. growth
  2. exploration
  3. establishment
  4. maintenance
  5. disengagement

Said that people will choose career paths that fit their self-concept. Progress through the stages with relation to the person’s age is called “vocational maturity.”

365
Q

A test’s ___ can never be higher than the square root of its ____.

A

A test’s validity coefficient can never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient.

366
Q

paradoxical intention

A

In behavior therapy, the idea that avoidance is more due to anticipatory anxiety than anxiety in the situation itself. Engaging in the behavior helps neutralize the anticipatory anxiety.

367
Q

eta squared

A

square of the correlation coefficient between a treatment an an outcome. Represents the amount of variability accounted for.

368
Q

Coehen’s d

A

Indexes effect size; a measure of the mean difference between two groups

369
Q

VRIN scale of MMPI

A

Variable Response Inconsistency Scale. Measures inconsistent responding. High scores invalidate the test.

370
Q

TRIN scale of MMPI

A

True Response Inconsistency scale. Measures fixed responding (e.g. marking 1st 10 questions true, the next 10 false, etc)

371
Q

During what part of sleep do dreams occur?

A

both REM and non-REM, but REM dreams are more vivid and more easily remembered after waking

372
Q

sections of the spinal cord and what happens if they get damaged

A
  1. cervical - paralysis of arms, hands, trunk, legs; possible impaired breathing, bowel/bladder control
  2. thoracic - paralysis of legs, trunk (upper body is ok)
  3. lumbar - some loss of function in hips/legs; may be able to walk with braces
  4. sacral - some loss of function in hips/legs; can probably still walk
373
Q

personal fable

A

A belief among adolescents that the normal rules of the word don’t apply to them. E.g. driving fast all the time because the rules of mortality don’t apply. A facet of adolescent egocentrism.

374
Q

findings from Perry & Bussey’s (1984) study of aggression in children

A

Found that aggression in children is tied to parental rejection, lack of warmth, and harsh discipline

375
Q

standard error of measurement

A

indicates how much error an individual score is likely to have with relation to their “true” score. Formula: SE of Measurement = (observed SD)*sqrt(1-r)

376
Q

standard error of the mean

A

Dispersion of sample means around the population mean.

Formula: SE of Mean = SD/(sqrt n)

377
Q

catecholamine hypothesis of mood disorders

A

Says depression is associated with decreased norepinephrine (and dopamine).

378
Q

selective abstraction

A

One of Beck’s cognitive distortion. Refers to focusing on a single detail and ignoring the rest.

379
Q

Total Quality Management (TQM)

A

A business approach focusing on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. Relies on involving employees in all aspects of decision-making.

380
Q

Are tonic-clonic seizures associated with cognitive decline?

A

Yes, and more so than other kinds of seizures. This is true regardless of whether they are idiopathic or secondary to another disorder.

381
Q

Lewin’s field theory

A

Focuses on the person’s “life space” in the present. Past and future are important only in how they affect the present situation.

382
Q

Hopelessness theory of depression (Abramson, Metalsky, & Alloy 1989)

A

A reformulation of the helplessness theory of depression. Says that hopelessness is a “proximal sufficient cause” of depression.

383
Q

What neurotransmitter has been linked with anorexia and bulimia?

A

Serotonin. High serotonin is linked to anxiety and appetite suppression. Starvation in anorexia reduces tryptophan, which reduces serotonin and therefor decreases anxiety. In bulimia, low serotonin precipitates binges, carbs/sweets increase serotonin and elevate mood.

384
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

Participants act differently because they’re participating in research

385
Q

Glasser’s reality therapy

A

The development of a “success identity” relies on the ability to fulfill one’s own needs for survival, power, belonging, freedom, and fun without harming self or infringing on others’ rights.

386
Q

state dependence

A

memory is best when you’re in the same emotional state during learning and recall

387
Q

response cost

A

A form of negative punishment in which a predetermined reward is taken away each time the person engages in an undesired behavior

388
Q

inductive reasoning

A

generalizing from a specific fact to a general rule (e.g. A > B and B > C, therefore A > C)

389
Q

deductive reasoning

A

reasoning from a general law to a particular case (e.g. “All women are people. Henrietta is a woman. Therefore Henrietta is a person.”

390
Q

What parenting styles are most highly associated with insecure/avoidant attachment?

A

overstimulating (smothering) or impatient and non-responsive

391
Q

What parenting style is most highly correlated with disorganized/disoriented attachment?

A

neglectful or abusive

392
Q

concurrent validity

A

correlation between the test of interest and a well-validated measure

393
Q

content validity

A

extent to which a test measures all facets of a given construct

394
Q

most common neuropsych problem in AIDS

A

dementia

395
Q

correction for attentuation

A

estimate of the correlation between two items if one or both could be measured without error

396
Q

assessment center

A

a method of employee selection that uses performance-based assessment (e.g. giving a practice presentation or simulated meeting). Also use more traditional questionnaires.

397
Q

psychoanalytic explanation of anxiety

A

a failure of the defenses to appropriately modulate excitation

398
Q

psychoanalytic explanation of a symptom

A

a maladaptive response that occurs as a compromise between an unconscious impulse and the resulting defense process

399
Q

order of mean, median, and mode in left- (negative) vs right (positive)-skewed curves

A

left/negative: mean, median, mode

right/positive: mode, median, mean

400
Q

reinforced practice

A

a CBT method for treating specific phobias. Patient is rewarded for increasingly long in vivo exposures to a feared stimulus.

401
Q

quasi-experiment

A

similar to a real experiment, but there is no random assignment to groups (e.g. parents who do vs don’t spank their kids)

402
Q

in-basket test

A

used in assessment centers. A test given to people up for promotion (e.g. to a managerial position), where they have to organize and respond to a set of tasks according to priority (phone calls, mail, etc)

403
Q

The largest proportion of variance in therapy outcomes is due to what?

A

Client factors, e.g. motivation to change

404
Q

attachment styles from strange situation task

A

Type A. Insecure avoidant (15%) - not distressed when mom leaves, ok w/stranger, little interest when mom returns, mom and stranger can comfort baby equally well
Type B. Secure (70%)- upset when mom leaves, avoidant of stranger when alone but friendly with mom present, happy when mom returns
Type C. Insecure ambivalent/resistant (15%) - distressed when mom leaves, fears stranger, approaches mom but resists contact when she returns, cries a lot
(4th type). Disorganized

405
Q

double-bind message

A

A communication with two conflicting messages, where one negates the other (e.g. friend says “I hope you can join us” but body language clearly says otherwise)

406
Q

job enrichment (Herzberg)

A

adding more challenge, recognition/achievement, less repetitive work to an employee’s job. Adds more responsibilities and authority.

407
Q

job enlargement (Herzberg)

A

increasing the number of tasks in an employee’s job. Doesn’t provide more responsibilities/authority

408
Q

Irvin Yalom’s existential group therapy

A

refers to four “givens” of the human condition: isolation, meaninglessness, mortality, freedom. Focuses on group cohesiveness (the equivalent of alliance in individual therapy) as the most important part of therapy.

409
Q

irreversibility (in Piaget’s model)

A

in preoperational thought, a cognitive inability to imagine how things can be undone (e.g. an egg yolk going back into its shell). Reversibility develops in the concrete operational stage.

410
Q

comparable worth

A

dissimilar jobs that are of equal worth to the organization should be paid the same

411
Q

procedural justice

A

fairness in conflict resolution and allocation of resources

412
Q

sensitivity

A

true positive rate of a test. Formula: sensitivity = true positives/(true positives + false negatives)

413
Q

specificity

A

true negative rate of a test. Formula: specificity = true negatives/(true negatives + false positives)

414
Q

Problems in kids of divorced parents

A

Misbehavior, aggression, delinquency, lower academic achievement, emotional functioning, low self-esteem, interpersonal problems. Worst in the first year after the divorce.

415
Q

Age differences in effects of divorce

A

Short-term effects worse in preschoolers than older kids; long-term effects worse for older children

416
Q

sleeper effect

A

when girls don’t initially show negative reaction to divorce, but problems emerge in adolescence

417
Q

gender differences in effects of divorce

A

Results are mixed, but it seems that boys do worse initially but gender differences are less apparent by adolescence (due to sleeper effect)

418
Q

Skinner’s view on the effectiveness of punishment

A

Punished behavior reappears after the punishment is withdrawn

419
Q

systemic family therapy (Milan model, Gregory Bateson, Margaret Mead)

A

Addresses patterns directly rather than trying to figure out the cause. Focuses on “rules of the game” that family members use to control each other. Uses positive connotations to reframe the problem. Uses questions framed using a constructivist approach.

420
Q

constructivist approach (Tomm)

A

Used in systemic family therapy. Includes several types of reflexive questions:

  • distinction clarifying
  • embedded suggestion
  • normative comparison
  • process interruption
  • future-oriented questions
  • observer-perspective questions
421
Q

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) mechanism

A

Improves catecholamine action in brain by blocking reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine

422
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

a.k.a. mad cow disease. A degenerative brain disease in older adults (age 60+). Starts with memory problems, behavior changes, lack of coordination, visual disturbances. Mental function deteriorates and person develops involuntary movements, blindness, weak limbs, coma.

423
Q

“protective triad” for at-risk kids

A

Strengths of:

  • the child
  • the family
  • the school/community
424
Q

Attribution theory (Bernard Weiner)

A
  • most important factors affecting attributions: ability, effort, task difficulty, luck
  • three aspects of attributions:
    1. locus of control
    2. stability
    3. controllability
425
Q

consequence of failure to cooperate with an ethics investigation

A

investigation and proceedings continue anyway, and the psychologist can be expelled from the APA

426
Q

Atkinson-Shiffrin memory model (a.k.a. multi-store model, modal model)

A

Memory has 3 components:

  1. sensory register - sensory info enters memory
  2. short-term store - a.k.a. working/short-term memory that holds input from sensory register and long-term store. Lasts 18-20 s w/o rehearsal. Accounts for recency effects.
  3. Long-term store - info rehearsed in short-term store is held indefinitely. Accounts for primacy effects.
427
Q

Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making

A

Four factors that influence career decision-making:

  1. genetic endowments
  2. environment
  3. instrumental/associative learning experiences
  4. task approach skills

Four ways in which these factors influence career decision-making:

  1. self-observation generalizations
  2. worldview generalizations
  3. Task approach skills
  4. Actions
428
Q

Lewis and Brooks-Gunn’s self-awareness experiments

A

Put red dot on kid’s nose and held kid up to mirror. Most kids reach for their own nose (rather than reflection) by age 2, indicating self-awareness. Info is understood through contingency cues (When I move, the mirror image does too) and featural cues (the mirror image looks like me)

429
Q

Rational Emotive Therapy (a.k.a. Ellis’s rational emotive behavior therapy, REBT)

A

Main focus is on helping pts change irrational beliefs (and emotions and behaviors).