General Flashcards

1
Q

Which tumours are associated with adrenal metastasis?

A

Lung and breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adrenaline vs Noradrenaline

A

Adrenaline Alpha and Beta Noradrenaline predominantly alpha Alpha - peripheral vasoconstriction Beta - cardiac chronotropic and inotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is dopexamine

A

Splanchnic vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Scaly, thick and greasy appearance.

Keratin plugs

A

Seborrhoeic Keratoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 4 clinical features of a mass/swelling that make it suspicious of being a sarcoma

A

> 5cm soft tissue mass

Deep / Intramuscular Location

Rapidly Growing

Painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ewings vs Osteosarcoma

A

Ewings is a diaphyseal, small round tumour.

Radiologically - Onion Skin appearance- represneting lysis with periosteal elevation.

Osteosarcoma is usually a tumour of the metaphysis (osteoblastic cell origin)

Radiologically - sunburst appearance = sclerotic destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discuss Anterior Interosseus Nerve

Topography

Innervation

A

Topography:

Branch of the emdian nerve —> travels along anterior interossues membrane of the forear between flexor pollicus longus and flexor digitorum profondus ending at pronator quadratus

Innervates:

Flexor Pollicis Longus

Pronator Quadratus

Radial Half - FDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anion Gap

Calc

Causes

A

Calculation (Na+K+)-(Cl+HCO3)

Normal 10-18

Low Anion Gap

hypoalbuminaemia, increased cations (MG++, Ca++, IgG),

Normal Anion Gap - Hyperchloraemic

Bicarb Loss, Renal Tubular Acidosis (moreso in type II), Drugs (Acetozolamide), Chloride Injection, Addison’s Disease (Type IV RTA)

High Anion Gap

Lactate, Ketoacidosis, Urate, Exogenous Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of delayed gastric emptying

A

Neuronal:

Vagotomy, Diabetic Gastroparesis (Vagal Nerve Disruption)

External Compression:

Pancreatic masses abutt the duodenum thereby delaying ewmptying,

Internal Obstruction:

Distal Gastric Malignancies, Pyloric Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ileostomy

Location

Construction

Complications

A

Location: Triangle between ASIS, Umbilicus and symphysis pubis.

Construction: 2cm incision, stoma length 2.5 cm, spouted, one third between umbilicus and ASIS.

Complications: Dermatitis, necrosis, prolapse, retraction, high output

Normal stoma output: 5-10 ml/kg/24 hour period. If >20 ml/kg/24 hour period —> IV fluids and supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vagina lymph vessel drainage:

Superior

Inferior

A

Superior - drain into the internal + external iliac nodes

Inferior - drain into the superficial inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Contents of jugular foramen

Bones forming jugular foramen

A

Bones: Posterior Occipital bone + Petrous portion of temporal bone

Contents - CN IX, X, XI. Inferior Petrosal Sinus, Sigmoid Sinus, Meningieal arteries (from occipital and ascending pharyngeal artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contents of Superior Orbital Fissure

A

CN III, IV, VI

Recurrent meningeal artery

Superior Opthalmic Vein

V1 - Lacrimal, Frontal and Nasociliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do each of these secrete:

Parietal Cells

Chief Cells

Surface Mucosal Cells

A

Parietal Cells - HCl, Ca, Na, Mg, IF

Chief Cells - Pepsinogen

Surface Mucosal Cells - Mucus and Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dep Peroneal nerve

Course

Action

What (sometimes) atraumatic condition can it become compromised in?

A

L4-S2

Branch of common peroneal nerve at lateral aspect of fibula. Travels in anterior leg comparment. passes ankle anteriorly between two malleoli where it bifurcates:

Pre - Bifurcation: - Tibialis anterior, enxtensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius

Lateral - Branch supplies extensor hallucis brevis and extensor digitorum brevis

Medial - cutaneous branch innervating skin at the webspace between 1st and 2nd digits

Acts to - evert foot, dorsiflex ankle and extend toes

It can become compromised in compartment syndrome of the anterior compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Berry’s Sign

A

Absence of carotid pulse due to thyromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Thyroid Malignancy:

Psammoma Bodies

Skull Metastases

Elderly females

A

Pappilary - Psammoma Bodies. Picked up via FNA

Lymphatic spread

Follicular - Not well picked by FNA –> need hemithyroidectomy. Haematogenous spread (bones)

Anaplastic - Elderly females. Poor prognosis. palliative debulking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Otosclerosis

Patho

Treatment

A

Fixation of stapes to oval window

Treatment involes stapedectomy + prosthesis insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pethidine caution in…

A

Renal patients

It has a toxic metabolite which accumulates in renal dysfunction —> Muscle twitching and convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pharyngeal Pouch

A

True diverticulum (Zenker’s)

Involves all layers of mucosa.

Posteromedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Discomfort after eating - think..

A

Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mesenteric Vascular Disease

A

Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia - Embolic. Sudden onset pain, vomiting and diarrhoea

Acute on chronic - Post-prandial discomfort –> Acute

Mesenteric Venous Thrombosis –> Picture of weeks. Symptoms present when arterial inflow is compromised

Low flow mesenteric infarction –> inotrope use, intercurrent cardiovascular compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe rectus sheath

A

Above costal margin –> Aponeurosis of external oblique aponeurosis

Between costal margin and arcuate line –> Anterior rectus sheath - External oblique aponeurosis + anterior internal oblique aponeurosis. Posterior rectus sheath- Posterior internal oblique aponeurosis + Transversus abdominus

Below arcuate line –> There is no posterior rectus sheath. External and internal oblique aponeurosis alongside transversus abdominus form anterior rectus sheath. posterior to this is transversalis fascia then peritoneum.

Arcuate line is 1/2 between umbilicus and pubic crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Transfusion protocol in major haemorrhage due to trauma

A

1:1:1 - Packed Red Cells, FFP and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are adrenal rests

A

Adrenal rests - ectopic adrenal tissue.

Commonly located on broadligament or spermatic cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Extensor retinaculum

Attachments

Structures superficial to retinaculum

Tunnels

Tendons (8)

A

Attachments -

Medial - pisiform and triquetral

Lateral - Radius

Superficial structures -

Basilic + cephalic vein

Dorsal cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve

Superficial branch of radial nere

Tunnels -

6 tunnels in total.

Tendons-

Enxtensor Carpi Ulnaris, Extensor Digiti Minimi, Extensor Digitorum and indicis, extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis longus tendon, extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis tendon .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What muscles are innervated by median nerve

Forearm

Distal forearm

Hand

A

Forearm - Pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profondus (radial half)

Distal forearm - palmar cutaneous branch

Hand -

LOAF - Lateral 2 lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis previs, flexor pollicis brevis

Sensory innervation to thumb and lateral 2.5 fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management of Renal Cell Carcinoma

A

T1 Malignancy - Partial Nephrectomy + Adjuvant chemotherapy

T2 Malignancies - Total radical nephrectomy. Patients need early venous control prior to resection to rpesent tumour seeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

JVP

Absent a waves

Large a waves

cannon waves

prominent v waves

slow y descent

steep y descent

JVP rises during inspiration

Fixed Raised JVP

A

Absent A Waves - AF

Large A Waves - Right ventricular hypertrophy, triscupid stenosis

Cannon Waves - Complete Heart Block

Prominent v waves - Tricuspid Regurgitation

Slow y descent - Tricuspid stenosis, Right Atrial Myxoma

Steep y descent - Right ventricular failure, Constrictive pericarditis, Tricuspid regurgitation

JVP rises during inspiration - Kussmaul’s sign of constrictive pericarditis

Fixed Raised JVP - Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Factors favouring EVAR

A

Long neck of aneurysm (For fusiform aneurysms - neck is the unaffected proximal portion of artery)

Good Groin Vessels

Straight Iliac Vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Billous Vomiting in Neonate - Rule out

Briefly describe embryological problem

What happens in the abdomen

Investigations

A

Intestinal Malrotation (+volvulus)

Normal embryology involves intestine entering abdominal cavity at 4 weeks –> Then a 270 degree rotation so the:

  • caecum is in the RLQ
  • DJ flexure is to the left of vertebrae

In intestinal malrotation - there is a missing 90% rotation –> the duodenal loop is adjacent to the caecum with Lads Bands fixing it in place.

Then the intestine undergoes 720 degree rotation –> volvulus.

Investigations :

US - Abdomen: See where the SMA is in relation to the SMV (Normally SMA on left of SMV)

Contrast abdominal scan: see where the DJ flexure is (usually to the left of vertebral bodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the ligament of treitz

A

Ligament of Treitz:

Suspensory ligament arising from right crus of diaphragm and attaching at the DJ flexure and usually at the 3rd + 4th parts of duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Microscopic difference between

Thyroid:

Follicular Adenoma

Follicular carcinoma

A

Carcinoma has invasion of the capsule whereas adenoma do not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Posterior Interossus Nerve

Origin

Topography

Muscles Innervated

A

Origin - Division of the radial nerve (occurs by lateral epicondyle between brachialis and brachioradialis)

Crosses supinator where it formally becomes the posterior interossues nerve

Innervates - Supinator + Extensor carpi ulnaris

Extensor digitorum, indices, digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus + brevis, abductor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Testicular Tumours

RFs

Investigations

A

RFs- Cryptorchidism, Kinefelter’s, Infertility, FH, Mumps orchitis

Investigations - US, Tumour markets, CT- TAP for staging

Classically Categorised:

Seminoma (40 year olds) - AFP -ve, HCG <20% +ve, LDH <20% +ve

Germ Cell (non-seminoma) (<30 year olds) - 70% AFP +ve, 40% HCG +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cranial Nerve IX and X Muscle exceptions

A

IX - This innervates Stylopharyngues - muscle for swallowing. All other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by Vagus nerve

This is because the stylopharyngeus develops from III pharyngeal arch. CN IX is also developed from this arch.

X - Cricothyroideus is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. All other laryngeal muscles are innerated by Recurrent laryngeal nerve

This is because Cricothyroideus originates from arch IV alongside the vagus nerve. the RLN originates from arch VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causes of dysphagia

A

Extrinsic: Mediastinal Masses, Cervical Spondylosis

Oesophageal Wall: Achalasia, Diffuse oesophageal Spasm, Hypertensive Lower Oesophageal Sphincter

Intrinsic: Stricture, Schatzki Ring, malignancy, Oesophagal Web

Neurological: CVA, Bulbar Palsy, Multiple Sclerosis, Parkinson’s Disease, Myasthaenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

On Sentinel Node Biopsy of breast what might you find?

A

Isolated Tumour Cells or Evidence of Micrometastases

Isolated Tumour Cells - Do not require axillary clearance

Micrometastases - Depends on the extend of nodes involved. If there are lots of suspect nodes then FNA of theese nodes is the first thing to do.

In practice –> Positive SNLB usually equates to axillary node clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Current best practice.

Varicose Veins

i) Investigation
ii) Treatment

A

i) hand held doppler and then Venous Duplex

ii)

1- Endothermal Ablation

2- Sclerotherapy

3 - surgery (trendelenberg procedure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Obturator Nerve

Roots

Topography

Actions

A

Roots - L2 ,3 and 4

Topography - roots combine in psoas major and descend to lateral sacral margin –> Cros sacroiliac joint –> Descend through obturator internus entering the obturator groove. Lies lateral to internal iliac vessel + ureter

Actions -

Cutaneous - Medial thigh

Motor - External obturator, Adductor magnus - upper portion, Adductor Longus, Adductor Brevis and gracilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Options if common bile duct has been opened/damaged?

A

i) T Tube insertion and closure of the bile duct over it
ii) Cholecoduodenostomy
iii) Cholecojejunostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Options for relieving malignant obstructive jaundice (pancreatic head ca / cholangiocarcinoma)

A

i) ERCP
ii) PTC + Drainage + Stent Insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tongue Lymph Drainage

A

Anterior two thirds:

Ipsilateral Drainage

Posterior Third:

Bilateral Drainage

Tip of tongue: Submental –> Deep cervical

Midtongue: Submandibular –> Deep cervical

Posterior tongue: Deep cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tongue innervation + Nerve topography

A

Anterior Two thirds:

Lingual nerve - originates as a branch of mandibular nerve (V3). passes tensor veli palitini –> joined by chorda tympani (facial nerve CN VII). Courses by junction of vertical/horizontal mandibular ramus –> passes by the third molar .

The Trigeminal Portion –> Sensation (General Sensory)

The Facial Portion –> Taste (Special Sensory

Posterior Third

Glossopharyngeal nerve - Sensation + Taste (General and special senory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why may you have a normal ph acute mesenteric emobolus?

A

The bowel infarct –> Lowers pH

Vomiting –> Raises pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Four mechanisms of vomiting

A

Gag - Touch Receptors in throat (CN IX), Pharyngeal Cosntrictors (CNX + CNIX for stylopharyngeus)

Labyrnthine disorders - Motion Sickness

Stomach and duodenal distension - stretch receptors

Central (brain) - chemically induced (drugs etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

PR Bleeds

Source:

Darker Blood

Dark Blood
Fresh red Blood

Melaena

Investigations

A

Darker Blood - Right sided bleed

Dark Blood - Left sided bleed
Fresh red Blood - Distal bleeding (haemorrhoids)

Melaena - Upper GI

Investigations:

When blood –> Flexi Sig first. If no lesion then consider colonoscopy

When blood + unstable –> Stabilise + CT Angio

When melaena –> OGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When to admit for acute lower GI bleeding

A

Age >60

Significant Co-Morbidity

Unstable

Profuse bleeding

Aspirin/NSAID use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Surgical options for splenic flexure malignancies:

Obstructed

Non-Obstructed

A

Obstructed -

i) Stenting
ii) Extended Right Hemicolectomy. This involves taking the middle colic vessels (SMA) too unlike a right hemicolectomy. An ileo-colic anastamosis is fashioned. In general when performing resective colorectal surgery the arteries are followed and taken to ensure lymph nodes are removed as these are usually in close proximity to the arteries.

Non-obstructed -

i) Extended Right Hemi
ii) Left hemi
iii) Transverse colectomy (old-fashioned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Rectal Cancer

What is the margin requirement

What precludes the use of Anterior Resection

What is TME

What surgery for obstructed rectal cancer

What additional treatment can be offered to rectal cancer patients (surgery, chemo + ?)

A

Margin - 2cm margin requirement

Anterior resection is precluded if there is sphincter involvement or if the margin would involve the sphincter –> The surgery of choice would be an APER (Abdomino-Perineal Resection)

TME - total mesenteric excision. This involves the dissection of mesorectal fat + lymph nodes

Obstructive rectal tumours –> Defunctioning Loop Colostomy( Differs from colonic tumours where aim can be to resect and anastamose immediately if safe)

Rectal cancer can be treated with radiotherapy as it is extraperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of Weber Fractures

A

Weber Fractures - malleolar fractures

A - Below syndesmosis. Full Weight Bearing with ankle boot

B - At level of syndesmosis. If stable (Unimalleolar) then ankle boot and mobilise. If unstable - Below knee plaster and no weight bearing for six weeks

C - Above level of syndesmosis - Inherently unstable. Fixation, syndesmosis reconstruction with screws.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

By what mechanism does ECF Volume depletion cause Metabolic Alkalosis

A

Losing significant bodily fluid through vomiting or diuretics results in a loss of Na+ + Cl-

This leads to RAAS activation –> aldosterone causes increased ENaC channels so more Sodium crosses from lumen into cells.

Luminal K+ channels upregulated so potassium is lost to the lumen.

Na+K+ATPase at interstitial side of cells is upregulated —> K+ is moved into the cell whereas Na+ is moved into interstitium.

These three transporter changes lead to an increase loss of K+ to the collecting duct lumen and a preservation of Na+

Loss of K+ Leads to K+/H+ Buffering. K+ moves from cells into ECF in exchange for H+ —–:> Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Brisk duodenal ulcer

Treatment

A

Brisk Duodenal Ulcer - Usually posteriorly sited and invading the gastroduodenal artery. Duodenal ulcer pain occurs several hours after eating.

Treatment:

Resuscitate

Surgery - Laparotomy –> Duodenotomy. Underrunning the ulcer by biting above and below ulceration point which will also occlude artery. Transverse closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Gastric Ulcer Surgical Management

Antral ulcer

Lesser Curve Ulcer

A

Antral Ulcer- Partial Gastrectomy (If underunning doesn’t work)
Lesser curve ulcer - Partial Gastectomy / Under Running (Usually involves Left gastric artery)

Some patients will need a total gastrectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Size threshold for surgical repair of rotator cuff tear

A

> 2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where do the rotator cuff muscles attach

A

Lesser Tuberosity - Subscapularis (subscapualr fossa)

Greater Tuberosity - Supraspinatus (supraspinatus fossa), Infraspinatus (infraspinatus fossa), Teres Minor (lateral border)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Neer Classification

A

For proximal humeral fractures

Described as 2,3 or 4 part depending on how many fragments

  • Greater Tuberosity
  • LEsser Tuberosity
  • ARticular Surface
  • SHaft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Supports for the uteres

A

Central Perineal Tendon - Perineal body. This is essential. Extends between vagina and anus.

Round ligament - Uterine horns –> through inguinal canal –> mons pubis

Transverse Cervical/ Cardinal Ligament - Attaches to obutrator fascia on pelvc side wall

Uterosacral ligament - from uterus to anterior aspect of sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the broad ligament

A

The broad ligament is a fold of peritoneum that envelops the uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes.

It folds over the fundus of the uterus forming the:

Mesometrium (covers the uterus)

Mesovarium (covers the ovaries)

Mesosalpinx (covers the fallopian tubes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

investigating large bowel obstruction

A

First line:

DRE, AXR, ?Rigid Sigmoidoscopy

Then:

CT- AP

If inconclusive –> Gastrograffin follow through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Impending signs of perf in LBO

A

Caecal >12 cm

Competent Ileocaecal valve

Caecal tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Managing local anaesthetic toxicity

Max Doses

A

Intralipid:
Bolus- 1.5 ml/kg over 1 minute

Infusion - 0.25 ml/kg/minute

If prilocaine is used then administere methylene blue

1st dose - neat/ 2nd dose w/adrenaline

Lignocaine - 3 mg/kg. 7 mg/kg

Bupivicaine - 2 mg/kg 2 mg/kg

Prilocaine - 6 mg/kg 9 mg/kg

Prilocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Procedures for lymphodoema

A

Homans - skin preserving procedure ( where skin is good). Skin flaps formed and then underlying subcutaneous tissue excised

Charles - skin and underlying subcut tissue all excised down to fascia. split skin grafts are applied. used for poor overlying skin condition.

Lymphonvenous anastamosis - exclusively for proximal obstruction + good distal lymphatics. Anastamoses between distal lymph structure and deep vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why is tissue black in gangrene?

A

Hb degeneration and deposition of iron sulphide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Best test for vWD

A

Bleeding Time (factor VIII may also be low)

vWD can be Autosomal Dominant:

Type I - Quantitative deficiency of vWF

Type 2 - Qualitative impariment of synthesis of vWF

Autosomal Recessive

Type 3 - Absolute deficiency in vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Causes of diarrhoea

Campylobacter

Shigella

Salmonella

EColi

Yersinia

Vibrio Cholera

A

Camp - Most common. Gram Negative Rod (comma shaped). Reactive Arthritis, GBS

Shigella - Gram negative bacilli. Dysentry

Salmonella - Gram negative, facultative anaerobe, enterobactericiae.

ECOLI - ETEC, EIEC, EHEC

Yersinia Enterocolitica - Gram Negative coccobacilli. Terminal Ileitis - mimic Crohn’s/ Appendicitis.

Cholera - Gram Negative Rods. Watery diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sartorius

A

Supplied by Anterior Femoral Nerve (L2-L3)

ASIS –> proximal tibia

Flexes - knee and hip

Medially rotates femur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which Coag factors to the following influence:

Heparin

Warfarin

Liver Disease

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A

Heparin - 2,9, 10, 11

Warfin - 2, 7, 9 , 10

Liver disease - 1, 2 , 5 , 7, ,9, 10, 11

DIC - 1, 2, 5, 8, 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Lymphatic drainage of male genitalia

To the:

Inguinal Nodes

Iliac Nodes

Where is the external sphincter (urethral) in males?

Where does sperm enter urethra?

A

Deep Inguinal Nodes - Spongy urethra, Glans Penis

Iliac Nodes - membranous urethra, prostatic urethra

External Sphincter surrounds - Membranous urethra (membranous urethra extends from prostate –> perineal membrane)

Where does sperm enter urethra - prostatic urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Colonic Polyp Risk (colonoscopy)

Low

Medium
High

A

Low:

1-2 adenomas - < 1 cm No follow Up

Medium:

3-4 adenomas/ 1 adenoma >1cm - 3 year follow up

High:

5 or more Adenomas/ 3 adenomas + 1 being >1cm - 1 year follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Infective organism:

Large bowel ulcers and necrosis

A

EnteroInvasive E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Structures passing through the Parotid Gland

A

Facial Nerve (superficial)

Retromandibular Vein ( next most superficial)

External Carotid Artery (deep to the vein)

Auriculotemporal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is diaphragm disease

A

Due to long term NSAID use

Small bowel becomes seperated into compartments where there is thickened circular mucosal abd submucosal membranes —> focal areas of small callibre lumens –> frequent small bowel obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which nerve is responsible for flexing thumb

A

Solely median nerve

Forearm - flexor pollicis longus

Hand - flexor pollicis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What drain is used surgically after CBD exploration?

A

T Tube:

Latex. This is to induce a fibrotic reaction so a tract will form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is sibson’s fascia?

A

Fascia overlying the apex of both lungs

C7-first rib (inbetween thoracic cage + parietal pleura)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Right Lung Anatomy

A

Three Lobes - Seperated by oblique and transverse fissure

Azygous Vein - Just above hilum

Superior vena cava + inominate vein - Groove is further above hilum

Oesophagus - Behind Hilum

Inominate Artarey - Near apex

IVC groove- near lower part of the oesophageal groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Left Lung Anatomy

A

Two lobes - Seperated by oblique fissure

Groove for aortic arch - Above HIlum

Groove for subclavian artery - Furhter Above hilum

Groove for descendign aorta - behind hilum

Oesophagus - lower part of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

JVP Deflections

a

c

v

x

y

A

Ascents

a - trial contraction

c - ventricular contration

v - atrial venous filling

Descents

x - atrial relaxation

y - ventricular filling / atrial emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Superficial peroneal nerve

Deep peroneal nerve

A

Arise when common peroneal bifurcates between fibula and peroneus longus

Superficial -

peroneal longus and brevis

Cutaneous - lateral lower third of leg and most of dorsum of foot (except lateral foot which is supplied by sural nerve and medial leg which is supplied by saphenous nervee)

Deep -

Tibilaris anterior, peroneus tertius, Extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus + brevis

Terminates into medial and lateral branches

Cutaneous supply - first web space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Psoas Major and Minor

A

Major - originates from lumbar vertebrae and attaches onto lesser trochanter

Innervated - Anterior Rami of L1-L3

Minor - High lumbar origin and attaches to pubic crest (superior)

Innevated - anterior rami of L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Blood tests for carcinoid tumours

Urine Tests

A

Chromogranin A

Neuron Specific Enolase

Substance P

Gastrin

Urine-

5 HIAA

5 Hdyroxytriptamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Tumour Genetics Colorectal

FAP

HNPCC

Cowden

Peutz Jehger

A

FAP - APC mutations (TS Gene)

HNPCC - MSH2, MLH1, PMS2 + GTBP (Amsterdam Criteria, DNA Mismatch repair Genes)

Cowden - PTEN (Autosomal Dominant)

Peutz Jehger - LKB1, STK11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Divisions of the laryngeal cavity

A

Vestibule - Superior to vestibular folds

Ventricle - between vestibular folds and vocal cord

Infraglottic - vocal cord to cricoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Muscles of the larynx (6/7)

A

Posterior Cricoarytenoid - Abduct vocal fold

Lateral Cricoarytenoid - Adduct Vocal fold

Thyroarytenoid - Relax Vocal Fold

Transverse + Oblique Arytenoids - Close Rima Glottidis

Vocalis - Relaxes posterior part of vocal ligament and tenses anterior part of vocal ligament

Cricothyroid - Tenses vocal ligament (Innervated by External Laryngeal Nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Vascular Supply of Larynx

Lymph Drainage

A

Superior and Inferior Laryngeal Arteries ( branches of superior and inferior thyroid arteries )

Superior and inferior Laryngeal veins drain into the Superior and Middle thyroid veins Respectively

Lymph Drainage of Larynx:

Supraglottic - Upper Deep Cervical

Subglottic - Prelaryngeal + Pretracheal + Inferior Deep Cervical

Vocal Cords don’t have lymphatic drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Femoral Triangle:

Borders

Structures

A

Borders:

Lateral - Femoral Vein

Medial - Lacunar Ligament

Anterior - Inguinal Ligament

Posterior - Pectineal ligament

Structures:

Lymphatic Vessels, Cloquet’s Lymph Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Desmoid Tumours

Associated with which GI Disorder

What Structures do they arise from

A

Associated with FAP (APC Tumour Suppressor Gene Mutations)

They are proliferations of myofibroblasts arising from Musculoaponeurotic Structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Male Genital injuries

i) Meatal Haematoma, Perineal Haematoma, Urinary Retention
ii) High Riding Prostate, Perineal Oedema/ Haematoma, Pelvic Fracture
iii) haematuria, suprapubic pain, inability to retrieve all irrigation through bladder

A

i) Bulbar Urethral Rupture
ii) Membranous Urethral Rupture
iii) Bladder Rupture

For Urethral Injury:

Ix - Ascending Urethrogram

Mx - Surgical Suprapubic Catheter

For Bladder Injury:

Intraperitoneal - Laparotomy

Extraperitoneal - Conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Diaphragmatic Apertures:

T12

T10

T8

A

T12 - Aortic

T10 - Oesophageal

Oesophagus + Vagus Trunks

T8 - Caval

IVC +Right Phrenic Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Classifying Open Fractures

What should be empirically done

A

Gustillo and Anderson Classification System:

I Low Energy wound <1cm

II - >1cm wound with modeate soft tissue damage

IIIA - High Energy (>1cm) + Adequate tissue coverage

IIIB - High Energy (>1cm) + Inadequate soft tissue coverage

IIIC - High Energy (>1cm) + Arterial Injury

Empirically - Tetanus Prophylaxis + Broad Spectrum Abx + Check neurovascular status + Debride and lavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

p53 germline mutations –> Cancer<45

A

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

p53 is a tumour suppressor gene

Individuals develop sarcoma <45 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Gardner Syndrome

A

APC Gene Mutations

Multiple Polyposis

Supernumeray Teeth

Jaw + Skull Osteoma

Hypertrophic Retinal Pigment

Thyroid Cancer

Cutaneous Lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which hormones are reduced in stress response?

A

Insulin

Oestrogen

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Superior Vena Cava

Formation

What joins before entering right atrium?

Sites of collateralisation in SVCO

A

Forms from - Right and left Inominate veins ( these respectively form from Internal + Subclavian Veins)

Azygous vein forms before entring right atrium - Forms from union of ascending lumbar veins and subcostal veins.

Collateralisation -

Primarily Azygous

Internal Thoracic Vein - originates at superior epigastric vein and terminates in brachiocephalic vein

Long thoracic Vein - drains from serratus anterior and pectoralis major to axillary vein. A connection between LTV and superficial epigastric vein (the thoracoepigastric vein) alows shunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Median Nerve

Which branches supply what

A

Median nerve supplies:

Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus, Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Anterior interosseus nerve: (branch given off in upper forearm) (Deep forearm muscles)

Lateral part of flexor digitorom profondus, flexor pollicus longus, pronator quadratus

Palmar Cutaneous Branch: (given off in the forearm) s

Sensation to thenar eminence

Recurrent Muscular Branch: (hand branch given off just after flexor retinaculum) Opponens Pollicis, Abductor Pollicis Brevis, Flexor Pollicis Brevis)

Digital Cutaneous branch: (hand branch given off just after flexor retinaculum) Lateral lumbricals,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Blood Supply to CBD

A

Hepatic Artery and branches of Gastroduodenal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Hepatobiliary Triangle

A

Medially - Common Bile Duct

Inferiorly - Cystic Duct

Superiorly - Inferior Lobe of liver

Contents Cystic Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Workup in oesophogeal Ca

A

Staging CT

Diagnostic Laparascopy –> look for peritoneal disease

PET CT

If none of these are positive then proceed to consider for surgery

Distal Ca –> Ivor Lewis Two stage

Proximal –> Mckeown three stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Blood supply to rectum

What is the extraperitoenal rectum Surrounded by?

Fascia surrounding rectum

A

Three arteries

Superior - From IMA

Middle - From Internal Iliac

Inferior - From Internal Pudendal (branch of internal iliac)

Extraperitoneal rectum is surrounded by - Mesorectal fat containing lymph nodes (hence need for total mesorectal excision)

Anterior rectal fascia - Denonvillers

Posterior rectal Fascia - Waldeyers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Innervation of the infrahyoid strap muscles

A

Sternohyoid - Ansa cervicalis

Sternothyroid - Ansa Cervicalis

Thyrohyoid - C1 Spinal nerve (through hypoglossal nerve)

Omohyoid - Superior belly - Superior root of ansa cervicalis - C1)

Inferior Belly - Ansa Cervicalis

Ansa cervicalis - Cervical plexus exists in carotid triangle

- Two roots - Superior Originates from C1, Inferior orginiates from C2+C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Ligamentous Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

Medial -

Lateral - 3 components

Between Tibia and Fibula - 4 components

A

Medial - Deltoid Ligament

Lateral - Lateral ligament complex: 3 components

Anteriotalofibular ligament

Calcaneofibular ligament

Posteriotalofibular ligament

Syndesmosis - ligament complex between distal fibula and tibia - 4 components

Anterior-inferior tibiofibular ligament

Transverse tibiofibular ligament

Interosseus membrane

Posterior-Inferior tibiofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

X Ray indicators of Ankle Syndesmotic Injury

A

Decreased tibiofibular overlap

Lateral/Medial joint clear space

Lateral Talar Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

principles for operating in acute cholecystitis

A

<48 hours surgery is a good idea

>5 days - surgery is best left deferred to 3 months to allow inflammation to settle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Mucinous colorectal cancer at young age

Family history

A

Likely to be Lynch Syndrome or HNPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Immunlogics and their uses

Bevacizumab

Trastazumab

Imatinib

Basiliximab

Cetuximab

A

Bevacizumab (anti-VEGF) - Colorectal, Renal, Glioblastoma

Trastazumab (anti-HER2) - Breast

Imatinib (TK inhibitor) - GIST, CML

Basiliximab (IL2 R) - Post renal transplant

Cetuximab (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor inhibitor) - Colorectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Fistulae

When is it safe to conersvatively manage?

Drug therapy for high output fistula

Contraindication to probing perianal fistulae

How to delinieate fistula tract?

A

Conservative management - In the absence of IBD or distal obstruction

Octreotide si used to reduce pancreatic secretions in the context of high output fistulae

Perianal fistulae should not be probed in teh context of acute inlammation

Fistula anatomy can be delineated using CT and barium studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Management of Liver Metastases

A

Patients with good physiological reserve - Chemotherapy + Surgical Resection

5 Year Survival can be as good as 20%

With poor physiological reserve - Radiofrequency ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Glucocorticoids

At a cellular level - MOA

Metabolic effects

Regulatory Effects

A

They bind to intracellular receptors -these migrate to the nucleus acting as transcription factors

Metabolic:

Decrease uptuake and utilisation of glucose –> increase gluconeogenesis

Increase protein catabolism

Potentiate lipolysis

Regulatory:

Negative Feedback on hypothalamus

Prevent vasodilation and fluid loss from vessels

Increase osteoclastic activity/ Decrease osteoblastic activity

Decrease inflammation (Decrease B/T Cell clonal expansion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Hip Joint

Vascular Supply

Gold Standard Investigation for fractures if plain films are inconclusive

Internal Fixation, Hemiarthroplasty or THR

A

Vascular Supply - Medial and lateral femoral circumflex arteries (branches of profunda femoris) which go onto anastamosis and enter the joint capsule at the posterior neck base.

Ligament of teres provides small blood supply

Imaging - MRI is gold standard if plain radiographs aren’t good enough however in practice CT is sought

internal fixation - Young displaced/undisplaced, Elderly undisplaced

Hemiarthroplasty - Displaced and poor baseline mobility/ cognitive impariment/ medically unfit

THR - Displaced and good baseline mobility/ no cognitive impairment/ medically fit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Colonic cancers with threatened resection margin mangement

Rectal cancers with threatened resection margin management

A

Colonic cancers with threatened resection margin mangement - Primary Resection

Rectal cancers with threatened resection margin management - Long course chemotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Nerve most commonly injured during superficial parotidectomy

A

Greater Auricular Nerve

- ascending branch fo cervical plexus arising from 2nd and 3rd cervical nerves

  • Ascends sternoclediomastoideus coming underneath the platysma muscle
  • Branches into anterior and posterior overly the parotid.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

RFs

Most common Location

Ix

Mx

A

RFs- Smoking, Diabetes, Adenoma, FAP

Most commonly in the head of pancreas

Ix - USS, CT Scan

IF on CT it is deemed unresectable no further staging

IF on CT it is deemed resectable –> PET/CT, ERCP/MRI, Staging Laparoscopy (peritoneal disease)

Mx -

Head - Whipple’s

Body/Tail - Distal Pancreatectomy

Adjuvant Chemotherapy

ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Contents of the popliteal fossa

A

Most Medial

Artery

Vein

Tibial Nerve

Common Peroneal Nerve

Soemtimes sural nerve

Most Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What level do the following branches come off the aorta?

Coeliac

Superior Mesenteric

Inferior Mesenteric

A

Coeliac - T12

Superior Mesenteric - L1

Inferior Mesenteric - L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What level do the following branches come off the aorta?

Inferior phrenic

Lumbar

Median Sacral

A

Inferior phrenic - T12

Lumbar - L1-L4

Median Sacral - L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What level do the following branches come off of the aorta?

Middle suprarenal

Renal

Gonadal

Common Iliac

A

Middle suprarenal - L1

Renal - L1-L2

Gonadal - L2

Common Iliac - L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Colles Fracture

A

Dinner fork deformity

Transverse distal radius fracture

Dorsal displacement and angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Smiths Fracture

A

(reverse colles’)

Distal Radius transverse fracture

Volar angulation of fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Bennett’s Fracture

A

Intraarticular fracture of 1st MCP

Triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Monteggia Fracture

A

Ulnar fracture

Proximal radioulnar joint dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Galeazzi Fracture

A

Radial shaft fracture

Dislocation of distal radioulnar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Barton’s Fracture

A

Distal Radius fracture (Colles or Smiths)

with

radiocarpal dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what nerve is responsible for otalgia post-tonsillar surgery

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the most common site of intessusception paediatric?

A

Ileo-caecal - This is usually maanged by fluroscopically guided air insufflation

Ileo-ileal is less common but needs a laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Origins of gluteal arteries

Gluteal Nerves

A

Inferior gluteal artery - anterior trunk of internal iliac artery

Superior gluteal artery - posterior trunk of internal iliac artery

Superior Gluteal Nerve - L4, L5, S1

Inferior Gluteal Nerve - L5, S1, S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Epigastric Pain and Audible Bruit

A

Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome:

The median arcuate ligament of the diaphragm compresses the coelic trunk and coeliac ganglia.

Pain realted to meals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Aortic Aneurysm - Iliac Involvement

A

Open Repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the level of the transpyloric plane

Contents of the transpyloric plane (13)

A

Transpyloric plane - L1!

Pylorus of the stomach

Left Kidney Hilum + Right Kidney Hilum (Note right lower than left)

Gall bladder fundus

Pancreatic Neck

Duodenojejunal Fixture

Superior Mesenteric Artery

Portal Vein

Left and right Colic Flexure

Roof of the transverse mesocolon

2nd part of the duodenum

Upper Part of conus medullaris

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Functional Renal Imaging

DMSA

Diethylene-triamine-penta-acetic acid

MAG 3 Renogram

Micturating Cystourethrogram

Intravenous Urography

PET/CT

A

DMSA - Localises in the renal cortes. –> Cortical defects, scarring, Ectopic or aborrhent kidneys.

Diethylene-triamine-penta-acetic acid DTPA - Glomerular Filtration Agent. Provides useful information about eGFR

MAG 3 Renogram - Secreted by tubular cells so good for imaging kidney in patients with existing renal impairment.

Micturating Cystourethrogram - Assessment of bladder reflux. Bladder filled with contrast via catheter

Intravenous Urography - Good for renal function, and detection of urinar tract calculi

PET/CT - Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Statistical Tests:

T Test

Fishers Exact Test

Spearmans Rank Test

Mann Whitney U Test

Bonferroni Test

A

T Test - normal distribution

Fishers Exact Test - determines the signfificance of athe deviation from null hypothesis.

Spearmans Rank Test - significant relationship between two sets of data

Mann Whitney U Test - nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that sample from one group is equally likely to be lesser than or greather than sample from another group

Bonferroni Test - counteracts problems of multiple comparisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Brachial PLexus Questions

In which fascia are the upper 3 rami of the brachial plexus contained within pre-axillary artery?

Which part of the axillary artery does the plexus surround?

where are the cords formed?

Which divisions form which cords?

A

They are contained within the pre-vertebral fascia

The plexus surrounds the second aprt of the axillary artery

Cords are formed in the Axilla

Cords:

Posterior Cord - Dorsal divsions of C5- C8 (Upper, Middle and half of Lower Trunk)

Medial Cord- Ventral divisions of C8-T1 (Lower Trunk)

Lateral Cord - Ventral Divisions of C5-C7 (Upper and middle trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Brachial Plexus Questions:

What are the terminal nerves of the brachial plexus (not branches)?

What forms the:

Long Thoracic Nerve

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

Upper Subscapular Nerve

Thoracodorsal Nerve

Lower Subscapular Nerve

Axillary Nerve

Suprascapular Nerve

Nerve to subclavius

Lateral pectoral Nerve

Musculocutaneous Nerve

Medial Cutaneous nerve of the arm

Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm

Ulnar Nerve

A

Terminal Nerves are - Radial Nerve ( From Posterior Cord)

Median nerve (Lateral and Medial Cord)

Derived from:

Roots:

Posterior-

Long Thoracic Nerve- C5-C7

Dorsal Scapular Nerve - C5

Anterior -

Nerve to Subclavius - C5-C6

Trunks:

Suprascapular Nerve - Upper Trunk

Cords :

Upper Subscapular Nerve - Posterior Cord

Thoracodorsal Nerve - Posterior Cord

Lower Subscapular Nerve - Posterior Cord

Axillary Nerve - Posterior Cord

Lateral pectoral Nerve - Medial and Lateral Cord

Musculocutaneous Nerve - Lateral Cord

Medial Cutaneous nerve of the arm - Medial Cord

Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm - Medial Cord

Ulnar Nerve - Medial Cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Describe Subclavian Steal syndrome

A

Stenosis/ Occlusion of subclavian artery, proximal to the origin of the veryebral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What surgery for Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in baby?

A

Biliary atresia:

Kasai procedure - Roux-en-Y portojejunostomy

if this fails —> Liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Phrenic Nerve Topography

A

C3- C5

Left:

Deep to prevertebral fascia across scalenus anterior

Crosses anterior to part 1 of subclavian artery

Posterior to Subclavian vein and Internal Thoracic —> enters the thorax

Lateral to left subclavian, aortic arch and left ventricle.

Anterior to lung hilum and pierces diaphragm

Right:

Deep to prevertebral fascia across sclaneus anterior

Croses anterior to 2nd part of subclavian artery

Posterior to Subclavian vein and Internal Thoracic —> enters the thorax

Travels anterior to right vagus and laterally to SVC

passes over R atrium and exits through the caval opening at T8 of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Cancer arising of the kidney due to long term inflammation?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Scalenus Anatomy

Innervation

Which structures pass through

A

Scalenus Anterior Medius and Posterior

-Anterior and medius both insert onto first rib

Posterior inserts onto second rib

Innervation:

Spinal Nerves C4-C6

Brachial Plexus and subclavian artery both pass inbetween scalenus anterior and medius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Why use bupivicaine post-operatively over lidocaine?

A

It has a much longer duration of action than lignocaine and therefore can provide longlasting wound-site analgaesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What would be the LA of choice in regional block?

A

Prilocaine - this is much less cardiotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Basilic Vein Path

Cephalic Vein Path

A

Basilic - is Medial.

Originates from dorsla venous network —> passes most of the way superficially.

Anterior to the antecubital fossa —> joins the cephalic vein the the median cubital vein

Pierces the biceps fascia

Ascending medially it becomes the axillary vein

Cephalic - is Lateral

Ascends lateralyl from the dorsal venous network. Travels lateral to antecubital fossa.

Into Deltopectoral triangle inbetween pectoralis and deltoid

Empties into axillary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Prostate Disease-Which lobe

BPH

Carcinoma

Prostate

Arterial Supply

Venous Drainage

Lymph Drainage

A

BPH - Median Lobe

Carcinoma - Posterior Lobe

Arterial Supply - Inferior Vesical Artery (branch of internal iliac)

Venous Drainage - Prostatic Venous PLexus ( to paravertebral veins)

Lymph Drainage - internal iliac (+sacral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

When are hepatocellular adenomas resected?

A

>5 cm due to risk of rupture

or

In males due to high risk of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Coeliac Artery

Branches of coeliac artery

Level of coeliac artery from aorta

A

Level - T12

Branches:

Left Gastric - Oesophageal and stomach branches

Common Hepatic - Proper hepatic (branches into left and right hepatic- right giving off cystic artery), Right Gastric, Gastroduodenal (branches into r. gastroepiploic + superior pancreticoduodenal)

Splenic Artery - Dorsal pancreatic, Short Gastric, Left gastro-omental, Greater Pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Anatomy of the foot arches

A

Longitudinal:

Posteriorly supported by calcaneum

Laterally- passes over cuboid bone and lateral two metatarsal bones

Medially - head of talus (summit) between the subtentaculum tali and navicular bone. Anterior pillar is navicular, cuneiforms and medial three metatarsals.

Transverse:

Between Anterior tarsus and posterior metatarsus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What constitutes:

Sub Talar Joint

A

Facet on lower surface of talus body + Posterior facet on the upper surface of calcaneus

Synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What constitutes:

Talocalcaneonavicular joint

A

Anteroinferiorly the navicular bone communicates with the subtentaculum tali of the calcaneus (Posteroinfeiorly) to provide a place for communication of the Talus to sit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Hip Joint

Intracapsular ligamnets

Extra Capsular Ligaments

Majority of blood supply to head of femur?

A

Intrcapsular -

Transverse Ligament

Ligament of Teres

Extracapsular:

Ilofemoral

Pubofemoral
Ischofemoral

Medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries (both branches of profunda femoris/ inferior gluteal artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Which strucures pass through

Inferior Sciatic Foramen

Superior Sciatic Foramen

Both

A

They are divided by sacrospinous ligament.

Lesser (Anterior - ischium tuberosity, Superior - Sacrospinous ligament + spine of ischium, Posterior - sacrotuberous ligament)

Obturator Internus Tendon

Greater (Anterior - greater sciatic notch of ilium, Posterior- sacrotuberous ligament, Inferior - sacrospinous ligament + ischial spine, superior - anterior sacroiliac ligament)

Nerves- sciatic, Superior (above piriformis) and inferior gluteal nerves, posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, nerve to quadratus femoris, nerve to obturator internus)

Arteries + Veins - Superior Gluteal A +V, Inferior Gluteal A+V, )

Both

Pudendal Nerve

Internal Pudendal A+V

Nerve to obturator internus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Deep Perineal Pouch

Anatomical Location

Contents

A

Anatomical location:

Bounded inferiorly by inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm and superiorly by superior fascia of urogenital diaphragm

Contents:

Urethral sphincter

Transversus Perinei

Nerves - Dorsal nerve of penis, perineal nerve branches

Vessels - Urethral artery, deep artery of penis, dorsal artery of penis, origin of artery to bulb of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Left Common Carotid Anatomy

Thorax -

Neck -

A

Originates from arch of aorta -

Thorax - In contact with trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve and oesophagus

Left brachiocephalic vein passes anteriorly in front of it

Neck -

Runs beneath SCM and enters anterior triangle

In carotid sheath with - vagus nerve, and (lateral to ) internal jugular vein

vertebral artery and thoracic duct lie posterior to the artery in the neck

Bifurcate at level of C3 vertebrae/ upper border of throid cartilage

Right Common Carotid -

Same except :

Branch of brachiocephalic trunk.

No thoracic duct on the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Sulphur Granules and Gram Positive Organisms - Histology

A

Actinomycosis

  • Forms multiple sinuses

The sulphur granules (round or oval basophilic masses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Within what time should an open fracture be internally fixated?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma

Four SubTypes

Treatment

A

Subtypes:

Storiform - Pleomorphic

Myxoid

Giant Cell

Inflammatory

Treatment:

Surgical resection + pseudocapsule resection

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Large pathological deposit in bone

?management

A

Surgical Fixation - to prevent fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

When do you consider surgery for polyps?

A

Incomplete excision of malignant polyp (endoscopically)

Malignant sessile polyp

Malginant peduncalated polyp with submucosal invasion

Polyops with poorly differentiated carcinoma

Familial polyposis syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Growth Plate Fracture Classifications

A

SALTER

I S traight through growth plate

II A bove and through growth plate

  • *III B** elow and through growth plate
  • *IV T** hrough metaphysis epiphysis + growth plate

V E Everyything (crush injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Which space does LP go?

A

Subarachnoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Popliteal Fossa

Borders

Contents

A

Borders:

Lateral: Biceps femoris, Lateral head of gastroc and plantaris

Medial - Semimembranosis and semitendinosis, medial head of gastroc

Floor - Popliteus, Femur

Roof - Superficial and deep fascia

Contents:

Vascular: Popliteal artery, Popliteal Vein, Short Saphenous Vein

Nerves: posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh, tibial nerve, genicular branch of of obturator nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Which vein is related to:

Sural Nerve

Saphenous Nerve

A

Sural nerve:

Short Saphenous Vein: Lateral side of foot. Passes inferio-lateral to the lateral malleolus. Enters popliteal fossa between gastroc heads.

Saphenous Nerve:

Long saphenous Vein: Medial side of foot. Passes anterior to medial malleolus. Traverses the medial posterior femoral epicondyle. Migrates laterally on anterior thigh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Common extracolonic manifestation of FAP

A

Duodenal and gastric polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Paediatric Neck Masses:

Cyst above the hyoid

Cyst below the hyoid

Anterior to SCM at the angle of mandible

Posterior to SCM

A

Cyst above the hyoid - dermoid - heterogenous appearane

Cyst below the hyoid - Thyrogossal cyst - thin walled and anechoic

Anterior to SCM at the angle of mandible - branchial cyst - failure of obliteration of usualy 2nd arch. anechoic. can become infected

Posterior to SCM - cystic hygroma - can be closely aassocated with surrounding structures. lymphatic malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Paediatric fluid management

A

100 ml/kg/day - first 10 kg

50 ml/kg/day - second 10 kg

20 ml/kg/day - subsequent kgs

Neonates:

First day- 50-60 ml /kg/day

Second day - 70 - 80 ml/ kg / day

Third day - 80 - 100 ml /kg / day

fourth day - 100-120 ml/kg/day

5-8 days - 120-150 ml /kg / day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Oxygen Dissociation Curve

Causes of Right Shift

Causes of left shift

A

Right shift - Reduced affinity for oxygen –> increased oxygen delivery

High

High H+ (Acidosis)

High temp

High 2-3 DPG

CO2

Left shift - higher affinity for oxygen–> lower oxygen delivery

Low

Low H+ (alkalosis

Low Temp

Low 2-3 DPG

DPG - is high in conditions where there is reduced oxygen delivery to tissues - High Altitude, Low Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Tymus Histology

ARterial Supply

Venous Drainage

A

Encapsulated Lobular Structure originating from III and IV pharyngeal arches

Cortex - Lymphocytes

Medulla - Concentric epithelial cells with keratinsed centre

Arterial Supply:

Internal mammary artery (or pericardiophrenic arteries)

Venous Supply:

Left Brachiocephalic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Scaphoid abdomen

A

Abdomen sucked inwards:

Think diaphragmatic hernia in newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

management of diverticular stricture + LBO

A

Laparatomy and hartmann’s

Dilating - contraindicated

Stenting - often not useful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Wound healing - Predominant Cell Types

Inflammation

Regeneration

Remodelling (Contraction)

A

Inflammation

Neutrophils. Early phase (first week)

Regeneration

Fibroblasts. (8 weeks)

Microvascularisation

Remodelling (Contraction)

Differentiated fibroblasts.

Microvessels regress so the scar looks pale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Exposure to vinyl chloride

A

Hepatic Angiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Ileostomy effluent

A

Na - 126 mmol/ L

K+ - 22 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Contents of Cavernous Sinus

A

O TOM CAT

Ophthalmic nerve

Trochlear Nerve

Ophthalmic nerve (V1)

Maxillary nerve (V2)

Internal Carotid Artery

Abducens Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Foramen of Munro

Magendie

Lushka

A

Munro:

Lateral Ventircles into Third ventricle

lushka:

Anteromedial apertures of the fourth ventricle

magendie:

Posteriorinferor of the fourth ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

what provides sensory innervation to posterior thigh

A

Posterior Cutaneous Nerve of thigh:

Direct branch of Sacral PLexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

SMA

Origin from Aorta

Branches

A

L1

Inferior Pancreatico-duodenal artery

Jejunal and Ileal Arcades

ileocolic

right colic

middle colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Musculocutaneous Nerve

Origin?

Action?

A

Origin: Branch of Lateral Cord of brachial plexus

Action:

Continues into forearm as lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm

Innervates - coracobrachialis, brachialis, biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Structures passing through foramen ovale

Through which bone is the foramen

A

Sphenoid bone

OVALE

O - tic ganglion

V - V3 Mandibular nerve

A - accessory meningeal artery

L - lesser petrosal nerve

E- missary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Location and content of following skull foramina

Ovale

A

Ovale (sphenoid)

Otic Ganglion, V3, Accessory Meningeal Art., Lessor Petrosal Nerve, Emissary Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Spinosum

A

Spinosum (Sphenoid)

Middle Meningeal Artery, Meningeal branch of mandibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Rotundum

A

Rotundum (Sphenoid)

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Foramen Lacerum - Location and contents

A

Lacerum (Sphenoid)

ICA, Nerve + Art. of pterygoid canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Jugular Foramen - Location and Contents

A

Jugular (temporal)

Inf. Petrosal Sinus, IX, X, XI, Sigmoid Sinus (becomes Int. jug), Meningeal branches of occipital and ascend. pharyngeal art.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Foramen Magnum - location and contents

A

Foramen Magnum (occipitaL)

Medulla oblongata, Ant. + Post. Spinal Art. , Vert. Art

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Stylomastoid Foramen - Location and contents

A

Stylomastoid Foramen (Temporal)

Stylomastoid Artery, CNVII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Superior Orbital Fissure - Location and contents

A

Superior Orbital Fissure (Sphenoid)

III, IX, V1, Recurrent meningeal artery, VI, Superior Ophthalmic Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Lymph Drainage of Auricle (Ear)

Lateral upper Half

Cranial Superior half

Lower half and lobule

A

Lateral upper Half - Superficial parotid

Cranial Superior half - deep cervical + Mastoid

Lower half and lobule - Superficial cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

parotid malignancy:

perineural skip lesions

Most common

derived from secretory portion

A

perineural skip lesions - Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

35% 5 year survival. Tendency for visceral spread

Most common- Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Don’t usually metastasise

derived from secretory portion - Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Pharyngeal Pouch is between?

A

Diverticulum between cricopharyngeus and thyropharyngeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Oesophagus:

Arterial

Venous

Lymphatic

Beginning and termination

Location of strictures

A

Upper Third:

Arterial - Inferior Thyroid Artery

Venous - inferior thyroid vein

lymph - Deep cervical

Middle Third:

Arterial - Aortic Branches

Venous - Azygous

Lymph - Mediastinal

Lower Third:

Arterial - Left Gastric

venous - left gastric

lymph - gastric

Begins - C6, Ends , T11

Strictures:

Cricoid, Aortic Arch, Left Bronchus, Oesophageal Hiatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Urine Calcium-Creatinine Clearance in :

Primary Hyperparathyroidism

Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcaemia

A

Primary Hyperparathyroidism (Kidneys try to remove calcium)

>0.01

Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcaemia (Autosomal Dominant loss of calcium sensing –> High PTH despite high calcium, normal calcium resorption despite high calcium)

<0.01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Drug Causes of Gynaecomasti

A

Digoxin, Cimetidine, Dopamine receptor antagonists, Methyldopa, Cannabis, Oestrogens, Anabolic Steroids, Spiro, Finasteride

Heroin Isoniazid etc. rare causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Branches of External Carotid Artery

A

MASS FLOP

Maxillary

Ascending Pharyngeal

Superior Thyroid Artery

Superficial temporal artery

Facial Artery

Lingual artery

Occipital Artery

Posterior Auricular Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Branches of subclavian artery

A

VIT C&D

Verterbral

Internal thoracic

Thyrocervical Trunk ( Inferior Thyroid, Suprascapular, Transverse Cervical)

Costocervical Trunk (superficial intercostal + deep cervical)

Dorsal Scapular (joins with transverse cervical) becoming Transverse Cervical –> Superficial and Deep descending branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is in cryoprecipitate

A

VIII

Fibrinogen

XIII

vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is anular ligament?

What articulates with the capitulum?

What articulates with trochloea?

A

Anular ligament- Proximally located liagment between ulnar and radius to permit supination and pronation movements at the proximal radioulnar joint

Capitulum - Distal end of humerus. This articulates with the concave groove on the radius head

Trochlea - articulates with ulnar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Occluded posterior nasal airway in newborns

A

choanal atresia

Cyanotic episodes when feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates

CVP Reading

<18 mmHg

>18 mmHg

A

<18 mmHg = ARDS (fat embolus, sepsis, acute pancreatitis, trauma, lung injury, head injury)

Low tidal volume ventilation, diuresis

>18mmHg = Pulmonary Oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Margins for melanoma resection

A

Breslow thickness score:

1mm - 1cm margin

1-2mm - 1-2cm margin

3-4mm - 2-3 cm margin

>4mm - 3 cm margin

Lymph resection + isolated limb chemotherapy infusion as adjuncts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Malignancy Arising as a result of chronic oedema

A

Lymphangiosarcoma

  • these are agressive lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What happens to the rectal stump

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Ventilation

What are the three cerebral areas responsible for ventilation and what do they respond to?

Any non-cerebral areas involved?

A

Medulla Oblongata

This responds to increased interstitial H+ to increase ventilation (to blow off CO2). The Apneustic Centre in pons instigates inspiration whereas the Pneumotaxic Centre, also in the pons, inhibits inspiration.

Peripheral chemoreceptors are in the carotids and arch of aorta –> these respond to arterial pO2, pCO2 and H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Ulnar Nerve

Origin

Innervates? (10)

Relationship to ulnar artery

Topography

A

Origin - C8 T1, derived from medial cord of plexus

Innervates:

Muscular Branch - Flexor Carpi Ulnaris+ Flexor Digitorum Profondus (medial)

Deep Branch- Flexor Digiti Minimi

Abductor Digiti Minimi

Opponens Digiti Minimi

Adductor pollicis

Interossei Muscles

Medial 2 lumbricals (III and IV)

Flexor Pollicis Brevis

Palmaris brevis

Also - Dorsal cutaneous branch, palmar cutaneous branch, Superficial (medial digits) branch

Medial to the ulnar artery

Topography:

Medial side of upper arm then passes posterior to medial epicondyle

Pierces two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris and travels deep to this near the ulna bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

where does the chorda tympani arise and from what?

A

Inside the facial canal from the facial nerve - so not effected in facial nerve lesion at the parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Facial Nerve Topography

order of canals through whence it travels?

3 branches within facial canal?

2 branches immediately after exits the temporal bone?

branches of facial nerve at parotid gland?

A

I) It enters the internal adutiory meatus travles through the facial canal and then exits via the stylomastoid foramen

ii) Greater petrosal nerve, nerve to stapedius and chorda tympani

iii) Posterior auricular nerve, branch to posterior belly of digastric +stylohyoid muscle

iv) temporal, zygomatic, buccalis, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Sensory innervation of the mouth

Inferior Molars

Inferior Canines and incisors

Gingiva and supportive structures

Upper teeth

A

Generally - upper teeth by the maxillary nerve

and lower teeth by the mandibular nerve

Lower Teeth:

Molars - inferior alveolar nerve

Canines and incisors - Incisive branch of inferior alveolar

gingiva and supportive - lingual nerve

Upper teeth:

Superior alveolar plexus:

Molars - Posterior Superior alveolar nerve (SAN)

premolars - middle SAN

front teeth - anterior SAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Giant Cells most commonly arise from?

A

Macrophages

  • Giant cells are collections of distinct cell types
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Any distant metastases in oesophageal/gastric ca?

A

Not for surgery and chemotherapy reserved for young and fit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Below which blood pressure does renal autoregulation of flow fail?

A

<80 systolic blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

WHat is a:

Bankart Lesion

Hill Sachs Lesion

A

Bankart Lesion - avulsion of anterior glenoid labrum

Hill Sachs Lesion - chondral impaction on posteriosuperior humeral head from contact with glenoid rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What stimulates insulin release(6)

A

Glucose

Amino Acids

Secretin/CCK/Gastrin

Vagal Cholinergic Action

Fatty Acids

Beta adrenergic drugs (blockers block release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Ansa Cervicalis

Origin

What fascia is it posterior to

What does it innervate

A

Origin - C1 (superior root), C2-3 (inferior root)

Posterior to - Pretracheal fascia

Innervates - sternohyoid, sternothyroid, omohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Anal Sphincter

Smooth and striated components

Nervous supply

A

Smooth muscle- upper two thirds of anal canal

Striated muscle - superficial to smooth muscle but surrounds the entire canal

Nerve supply- inferior rectal branch of pudendal nerve and perineal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Radial Nerve

Origin

Innervates

Branches

A

Origin: Posterior Cord of brachial plexus, C5 to T1

Innervates:

main branch -Triceps, Anconeus, Brachioradialis, Extensor Carpi Radialis

posterior interossues nerve (deep branch)- Supernator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor pollicis longus and brevis, abductor pollicis longus

sensory -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Axilla

aBoundries

Contents

A

Boundaries:

Anterior - pec major,

Posterior - lat dorsi

Medial - serratus anterior + chest wall

Lateral - Humeral Head

Contents:

Long Thoracic Nerve

Thoracodorsal Trunk

Axillary Vein

Intercostobrachial nerves

Lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Lymphatic drainage

Inferior to the dentate line

Superior to the dentate line

A

Inferior to the dentate line - Inguinal lymph nodes

Superior to the dentate line - Mesorectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Which genetic condition do you see plexiform neurofibromas?

A

NF Type I - can cause accelerated growth of limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

5 investigations for incidental adrenal lesions

Beyond which size lesion shoudl you worry?

A

Morning and midnight plasma cortisol

Dex Suppression Test

24 Hour urinary cortisol

24 hour urinary catecholamines

Serum potassium, aldosterone and renin

>4cm is 25% risk of malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Absence Vas Deferens?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Inguinal Canal

Borders

Contents

Where do the testes lymph drain

A

Borders:

Anterior - Aponeurosis of external Oblique

Posterior - Transversalis Fascia

Floor - Ingiinal Ligament and Lacunar Ligament (medially)

Roof - Arching fibres of the transversus abdominus and internal oblique

Superficial ring - External Oblqieu

Deep ring - Transversalis Fascia

Contents

3 Fascia - External Spermatic Fascia (External oblique), Cremasteric Fascia (internal oblique), Internal Spermatic Fascia (transversalis fascia)

3 Arteries - Testicular Artery, Artery to vas, Cremasteric Artery

2 Veins - Testicular Vein (Left into left renal, right into IVC), Pampiniform Plexus,

3 Others - Vas Deferens, Lymphatics

3 Nerves - Genitofemoral, Ilioinguinal, Iliohypogastric

Where do testes drain to? - para aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is the inverse of odds ratio?

A

Number needed to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Smooth abdominal swelling in child - no worrying features. Mobile

A

Mesenteric cyst

  • usually need to be surgically removed
  • can undergo torsion rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

hyposplenism blood film (4)

A

Howell - Jolly body

Target Cells

Pappenheimer cells

Irregularly contracted erythroyctes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What do you incise for median sternotomy?

A

Interclavicular ligament + interclavicular fossa

Sternum with bone saw

pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Masounieve Fracture

A

Medial malleoulus Fracture

Spiral fracture of proximal 1/3 fibula

dorsal tibiofibular syndesmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

key anatomical deformities of tallipes equinovarus (5)

A

Adductes and inverted calcaneus

Wedged shaped calcaneal articular surface +head of talus

tibio-talar plantar flexion

medial talar neck inclination

medially displaced navicular and cuboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Parathyroid neoplasms:

Most common cause?

Indications for surgery in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Commonly - adenoma

Indication for surgery:

Ca++ >1 above normal

Calciuria >400 mg/day

Decreased creatinine clearance

Life threatening hypercalcaeima

Nephrolithiasis

<50 years age

Neuromuscular symptoms

Reduction in bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

what regulates ion exchange in the salivary glands?

A

Aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Management of traumatic pneumothorax and why?

A

Chest drain - Usually in context of traumatic pneumothorax there is damage to lung parenchyma = High chance of tension pneumo development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Describe the trendelenberg procedure

A

Head tild and legs abducted

Oblique incision medial to artery

Ligation of tributaries

Saphenofemoral junction double ligated

Stripping of vein proximal (knee or upper calf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Muscles attaching to the greater trochanter of femur

POGGGO

A

Piriformis

Obturator Internus

Gemelli, Gluteus medius, Gluteus Minimus

Obturator Externus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is the blood supply to the omentum

A

Left Gastroeipoloic Artery (branch of splenic)

Right Gastroepiploic Artery (branch of gastroduodenal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is common liver fluke?

Disease?

A

Fasciola Hepatica

Disease:

Two - Acute - fever, abdo pain, rash, and hepatomegaly

Chronic - Obstructive jaundice due to worm maturing in bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What enters the IVC and at what level?

A

Inferiorly:

I LIKE TO RISE SO HIGH

Common Iliacs fuse at L5

Lumbar veins L1-L5

Right Gonodal vein (Left generally drains into Left renal vein) L2

Suprarenal veins and renal veins L1

Hepatic vein, inferior phrenic vein T8 - also caval hiatus (diaphragmatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Body Fluid Volumes

A

60% of a person is fluid

Intracellular - 60%

Extracellular - 40%

Plasma - 5%

Interstitial - 24%

Transcellular - 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Treatments for meconium ileus

A

PR Contrast (diagnostic and therapeutic)

N-Acetyl Cysteine Enemas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Nerve fibres:

A alpha

A beta

B fibres

C Fibres

A

A alpha - Motor proprioception

A beta - touch and pressure

A delta - myelinated pain fibres

B fibres - autonomic

C Fibres - unmyelinated c fibres

238
Q

Red streaks and tender mass on limb?

A

Lymphadenitis

239
Q

External urethral sphincter supply

A

Supplied by pudendal branches (S2-S4)

Pudendal nerve also supplies - external anal sphincter + cutaneous innervation to the perineum

240
Q
A
241
Q

Structures posterior to the medial malleolus

Anterior to medial malleolus

Posterior to lateral malleolus:

A

Posterior to medial malleolus:

Tibialis Posterior Tendon

Flexor Digitorum Longus

Posterior Tibial Artery

Tibial Nerve

Hallucis Longus

Anterior to medial malleolus:

tibialis anterior tendon

great saphenous vein

Posterior to lateral malleolus:

short saphenous vein, sural nerve (superficial)

peroneus longus tendon, peroneus brevis tendon (deep)

242
Q

Lichen Sclerosus - pathophysiology

Treatment

A

Pathophysiology - Abnormal fibroblast proliferation

Treatment:

1 - High dose corticosteroid

2 - Calcineurin inhibitors (Tacrolimus)

3- Retinoids, methotrexate, steroid injections, photopherapy, cyclophosphamide

243
Q

Which sarcomas metastasise to lymphatics

A

SCARE

Synovical Sarcoma

Clear Cell Sarcoma

Angiosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Epitheloid sarcoma

244
Q

Which drug prevents conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Tranexamic Acid

245
Q

Which clotting factors are particularly heat sensitive?

A

Factor V

Factor VIII

Hence FFP is frozen

246
Q

Branches of the external carotid artery

A

Some anatomists like freaking out poor medical students

Superior Thyroid Aryery
Ascending Pharyngeal

Linguial Artery

Facial Artery

Occipital Artery

Posterior Auricular

Maxillary Artery

Superior Temporal Artery

247
Q

Staging for perthe’s disease

A

catterall staging system

I - Clinical + Histological

II - Sclerosis +/- cystic changes

III - Loss of integrity of femoral head

IV - Loss of acetabular integrity

248
Q

Muscular Compartments of lower limb

A

Anterior Compartment

innervated by - Deep Peroneal Nerve

Tibialis Anterior, Peroneus Tertius, Extensor Hallucis longus, Extensor Digitorum Longus

Peroneal Compartment

innervated by - Superficial peroneal nerve

peroneus longus, peroneus brevis

Superficial Posterior compartment

innervated by - tibial nerve

Gastrocnemius, Soleus

Deep posterior compartment

innervated by - tibial nerve

flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior

249
Q

What is laplace’s law?

A

hollow circumferential organs:

total wall tension depends on:

i) circumference of wall
ii) Thickness of wall
iii) wall tension

250
Q

Adrenal Anatomy

Arterial Supply

Venous drainage

Adrenal Relations

A

Adrenal Arteries:

Superior from inferior phrenic artery

middle from aorta

inferior from renal artery

Adrenal Veins:

Left - into renal vein (as for testicular vein)

right - directly into IVC

Adrenal Relations:

Right: Posterior - Diaphragm, Anterior - Hepatorenal pouch + bare area of liver, Inferior - Kidney, Medial - IVC

Left: Posterior - diaphragm crus , Inferior - kidney, Anterior - pancreas and splenic vessels

251
Q

What is a hadfield’s procedure

A

Total Duct Excision (For mammary duct ectasia)

252
Q

Anterior and posterior relations of carotid sheath

A

Anterior:

Hypoglossal Nerve

Ansa Cervicalis

Omohyoid Muscle

Only on right - Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Posterior:

C6 - Cervical Sympathetic Chain

C7 - vertebral artery, thoracic duct

Inferior thyroid artery

253
Q

Why might gastritis cause anaemia?

Which form of gastritis is foveolar hyperplasia associated with?

factors increasing gastric acid production?

Factors decreasing Gastric Acid production?

(where are these produced)

A

Anaemia: Loss of parietal cells - Loss of intrinsic factor production - loss of B12 absorption - macrocytic anaemia

Foveolar hyperplasia - Reflux gastritis –> due to bile reflux into the stomach

factors increasing gastric acid production?

Vagal stimulation, histamine, gastrin

Factors decreasing Gastric Acid production?

Cholecystokinin, secretin, somatostatin

Gastrin - G cells in antrum of stomach

CCK - I Cells in small intestine

Secretin - S Cells in small intestine

Somatostatin - D Cells in pancreas/stomach

Vasoactive intestinal peptide - small intestine/ pancreas

254
Q

Difference between gastroschisis and omphalocele?

A

Gastroschisis - Right of umbilicus

Bowel outside of abdominal wall not covered by peritoneum

Omphalocele (Exomphalos) - Through umbilicus.

The protruding GI organs are covered by peritoneum

255
Q

The lifecycle and treatment of :

Ascariasis

Enterobius Vermicularis

Strongyloidiasis

Anclyostoma Duodenale

Giardiasis

Cryptosporidium

A

Life Cycle

Treatment

Ascariasis (roundworm)

Ingestion -> lung migration -> cough and autodigest

Mebendazole

Anclyostoma Duodenale (Hookworm)

Skin penetration -> Lung migration -> cough and autodigest -> Hooked to small intestine luminal wall

Mebendazole

Strongyloides

Skin penetration -> lung migration -> Cough and autoingest

Mebendazole

Enterobius Vermicularis

Oral ingestion. Pruritis Ani.

Mebendazole

Giardiasis

Ingestion of cysts

Metronidazole

Cryptosporidium

Ingestion of cysts

Metronidazole

256
Q

Dose of heparin for:

Vascular Bypasses

Cardiopulmonary bypasses

A

Vascular Bypasses

3000 units prior to cross clamping

Cardiopulmonary bypasses

30,000 units priot to initiating bypass

257
Q

Amputation

Removal of femoral condyles

Retention of patella

A

Gritti Stokes Amputation

Patella is swung posteriorly to cover distal femoral surface

258
Q

Gross Thyroid Anatomy

Vascular supply of thyroid

Arterial

Venous

A

Apex of thyroid cartilage to 4/th/5th tracheal ring. R + L lobe with isthmus in the middle.

Arterial:

Superior Thyroid (first branch of external carotid)

Inferior thyroid (from thryocervical trunk - subclavian artery)

Venous SUpply:

Superior and Middle thyroid vein - Into Internal Jugular Vein

Inferior thyroid vein - into brachiocephalic veins

259
Q

Flexor tendons in carpal tunnel (9)

A

4 FDP

4 FDS

1 Flexor Pollicis Longus

260
Q

Types of electrosurgical current

A

Blend - Less power than cutting. Alternates between cutting and coagulating

Coagulate - Modulated current with high peak voltage.

Cut - High power and current. Little thermal damage

Fulgurate - Electrode not in contact with tissue. Low amplitude/ high voltage. Local superifical tissue destruction

Dessicate - Electrode in contact with tissue. Low current/ high voltage. Loss of cellular water but not protein

261
Q
A
262
Q

Descending Thoracic Aorta

Relations

branches

A

Relations

Anterior - Left Lung root, Pericardium, Oesophagus, Diaphragm

Posterior - Vertebral Column, Azygos Vein,

Right - Hemi Azygos Veins, Thoracic Duct

Left - Left Pleura and lung

Branches

Bronchial Artery, Mediastinal Artery, Posterior Intercostal ARteries, Oesophageal Arteries

263
Q

Sympathetic Ganglia Locations

Cervical

Thoracic

Lumbar

Damage to which causes:

Horner Syndrome

Ejaculatory problems

A

Cervical:

Superior - C2,C3

Middle - C6

Stellate - C7

Thoracic ganglia are segmentally arrange

Lumbar ganglia - descend posterior to median arcuate ligament of diaphragm and lie anterior to vertebrae and medial to psoas

Horner Syndrome - T1

Ejaculatory problems - L1

264
Q

Relations of the caecum

A

Posterior:

Psoas, Gonadal Vessels, Ureter, Iliacus, Femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve,

Anterior:

Greater Omentum

265
Q

Thoracic Duct

Where does it enter thorax

What is it continuation of

What does it drain

What importantly doesnt it drain

Relation to oesopahgus

A

Thoracic Duct:

Enters the thorax alongisde the oesophagus at the oesophageal hiatus of T12

It is a continuation of the cisterna chlyii

The lymphatics of the left head and neck drain directly into the thoracic duct, which itself drains into the left brachiochephalic vein. the right side of the head and neck drain into the right lymphatic duct which drains into the mediastinal duct and then into the right brachiocephalic vein

It lies posterior to the oesphagus then passing to the left at T5

266
Q

Actions of PTH

A

Bone - Osteoblasts binding –> inreased RANKL expression –> Activation of osteoclasts —> increase resorption

Kidney - Resorption of calcium and mangesium from DCT. Decreased resorption of phosphate

GI - PTH increases Vit D activation –> increased GI calcium absorption

267
Q

Localised oesophageal tumours with no mets:

SCC vs ADenocarcinoma

A

For SCC trial of chemoradithoerapy can be curative whereas for Adenocarcinoma surgery is the only curative option

268
Q

WHy does H Pylori cause increased acid production?

How can the duodenum have ulcers with H Pylori infection

A

Urease enzyme hyrdrolyzes urea –> Ammonia

Ammonia causes antral G cells to produce more gastrin

H Pylori itself causes ulcers due to chronic inflammatory changes. The duodenum comes to have these changes when it becoems colonsed. This occurs when the duodenal mucosa undergoes metaplasia as a result of excess acid –> then allowing the H Pylori organisms to colonise the metaplastic tissue

269
Q

ureter anatomy

Releation to iliac vessels and uterine artery

Blood Supply

A

Releation to iliac vessels and uterine artery:

Anterior to iliac bifurcation, posterior to uterine artery

Blood Supply:

Segmental: Renal, aortic, gonadal, common iliac, internal iliac

270
Q

Features of MEN conditions

A
271
Q

Digastric nervous supply

A

Anterior - Mylohyoid Nerve

Posterior - Facial Nerve

272
Q

Which artery do the following branch from?

Superior Cerebellar Artery

Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

Basilar Artery

Superior Cerebellar Artery

Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery

Vertebral ARtery

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

273
Q

Branches of:

Vertebral Artery

Basilar Artery

Internal Carotid Artery

A

Vertebral Artery

Anterior Spinal ARtery, Posterior Spinal ARtery, Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery

Basilar Artery

Superior Cerebellar Artery, Anterior Inferior cerebellar Artery, Pontine ARteries, Labyrynthine ARtery, Posterior cerebral artery

Internal Carotid Artery

PComm,Anterior Cerebral Artery (AComm exists between htese two), Middle Cerebral ARtery, Anterior Choroidal ARtery

274
Q

Seminoma Subtypes (4)

A

Classical (lmyphocyte infiltrate in stroma)

Spermatocytic (tumour cells remember spermatocytes)

Anaplastic

Syncitiotrophoblast Giant Cells

275
Q

Attachments of the extensor retinaculum of the wrist

A

Medial - pisiform and triquetral

Lateral - Radius

276
Q

Management of Low Grade DCIS vs LCIS

A

DCIS - WLE

LCIS - Monitoring

277
Q

Drug Causes of hyper uricaemia (8)

A

Ciclosporin

Alcohol

Nicotinic Acids

Thiazides

Loop Diuretics

Ethambutol

Aspirin

Pyrazinimide

278
Q

Which muscles form the pes anserinus?

Where is it?

A

Sartorius

Gracilis

Semintendinosis

It is on the anteromedial proximal extermitiy of the tibia

279
Q

Quadrangular Space

Borders

Contents

A

Borders:

Lateral - humerus, Superior - subscapularis + teres minor, Inferior - teres major, Medial - tricpes long head

Content:

Axillary Nerve

Posterior Circumflex ARtery

280
Q

Branches of the axillary artery

Relations of axillary artery

A

First Part: Superior Thoracic ARtery

Above Pec Minor

Axillary artery + vein enclosed within the axillary sheath.

Anterior - Clavipectoral fascia, Posterior - Serratus Anterior, Long thora nerve, first intercostal space.

Second Part: Thoraco-acromial and lateral thoracic arteries

Behind Pec minor

Here the cords relate to the artery true to their names.

Third Part: Subscapular, anterior circ and posterior circ arteries

Inferior to pec minor

Posterior - subscapularis, lat dorsi, teres major

281
Q

Relations of brachiocephalic artery

Where does it bifurcate

A

Right brachiocephalic vein + vagus - laterally

trachea - posteromedially

inferior thyroid vein - anteriorly

Bifurcates at level of sternoclavicular joint

282
Q

What is para- amino hippuric acid (PAH) used to measure?

A

Renal Plasma Flow

283
Q

What does sistrunks procedure involve

A

Thyroglossal Cysts:

Involves resection of:

cyst, track, central hyoid portion + wedge of tongue muscle behind hyoid resection

284
Q

TB or Sarcoid?

Asteroid Bodies

Extensive Necrosis

A

Asteroid Bodies - Sarcoidosis

Extensive Necrosis - Tuberculosis

285
Q

When do you offer long course neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy for rectal cancer??

A

T4 tumours

286
Q

Where are the following valves located in CXR?

Tricuspid

Mitral

AOrtic

A

Tricuspid - 5th ICS on right

Mitral - 4th ICS on left

AOrtic - 3rd ICS on right

287
Q

lymph drainage of female internal genitalia

Ovaries

Uterine Fundus

Uterine Body

Cervix

A

Ovaries - Para aortic

Uterine Fundus - Para aortic + Inguinal

Uterine Body - Iliac Lymph nodes

Cervix - Presacral, Internal Iliac and External Iliac

288
Q

Management of Axillary Vein Thrombosis

A

Acute - Catheter GUided tPA

Heparin / Warfarin if chronic

289
Q

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Staging System?

Treatment?

A

Barcelona Clinical Liver Classification

0 - <2 cm - resection

A - >3 cm / <3 nodules. radiofrequency ablation or transplant

B - >3 nodules. Transarterial chemoembolisation

C - Advanced tumours/ Portal vein invasion. Sorafenib

D - supportive

290
Q

Air fluid level in chest in baby

A

Bronchogenic Cyst

This should be CTd

Thorascopic Resection at 6 weeks

291
Q

Subclavian Artery Branches

A

Vertebral Artery

Internal Thoracic Artery

Thyrocervical Trunk

Costalcervical Trunk

Dorsal Scapular Artery

292
Q

Cellular characteristic of Hurthle Cell Tumours

A

OXyphil Cells

Scanty Thyroid Colloid

This is a form of follicular

293
Q

Where do the following genitalia structures arise/drain?

Artery of Vas Deferens

Creamsteric Artery

Pampinofrm Plexus

A

Artery of Vas Deferens - Inferior Vesical Artery (from internal iliac artery)

Creamsteric Artery - Inferior Epigastric Artery (from external iliac artery)

Pampinofrm Plexus - Venous Plexus (into testicular vein - left into renal vein, right directly into IVC)

294
Q

Best and worst prognostically Hodgkin’s Lymphoma’s?

Alll Hodgkin’s Lymphoma’s

A

Best - Lymphocyte Rich

Worst - Lymphocyte Deplete

Other Subtypes:

Nodular Sclerosing

Mixed Cellularity

Nodular Lymphocyte - predominant

295
Q

Which fascia contains the base of the penis?

A

Bucks Fascia

296
Q

Erb’s Vs Klumpke’s Palsy

A

Klumpke’s: (C7-T1)

Claw Hand (MCP extension/ IP flexion)

Loss of sensation over medial forearm/hand

Horner’s Syndrome

Loss of wrist flexors

Erb’s Palsy: (C5-C6)

Waiter’s Tip

Extended Elbow,

Pronates Forearm

Adducted and internally rotated shoulder

Impairment to - wrist extensors, Elbow flexor, external rotators

297
Q

Muscles innervated by buccal branch of CN VII (6)

A

Buccal (Buccal membrane - mouth)

Zygomaticus Minor

Risorius

Buccinator

Levator Anguli Oris

ORbicularis

Nasalis

298
Q

Common Carotid:

Pulse palpable at -

Bifurcates at -

A

Palpable at C6 against the transverse process of vertebra

Bifurcates at C4

299
Q

Merkel Cell Tumour

Histologically

Related to?

Treatment

A

Histologically :

Sheets + nodules of hyperchromatic epithelial cells with ++ mitosis and apoptosis

Lymphovascular invasion

Related to sunlight damaged skin

Treatment:

Surgical excision (1 cm margin)

+ SLNB if >10mm lesion

Adjuvant radiotherapy

300
Q

Which RLN has a more superiorly situated course?

A

The RIGHT

Remeber that this one arches around the subclavian posteriorly, whereas the left branches more distally and branches->arches around the anterior aspect of the arch of the aorta

301
Q

Arterial Supply to the nose

A

Sphenopalatine Artery (Maxillary ARtery )

Greater Palatine Artery (Maxillary Artery)

Facial Artery (Anteriorly)

Most Bleeding from Keisselbach’s Plexus

302
Q

Goodsalls Rule

A

Anterior fistulae - internal opening opposite the external opening

Posterior fistulae - curved track that passes toward the midline (6 o clock)

303
Q

Constirctions of oesophagus (ABCD)

A

Arch of Aorta

Left Main Bronchus

Cricoid Cartilage

Diaphragmatic Hiatus

304
Q

Cryotherapy shouldn’t be used for..

Radiotherapy shouldn’t be used for..

in context of cutaneous malignancy

A

Cryotherapy - shouldnt be used for deep lesions

Radiotherapy - shouldnt be used for lesions in regions which are prone to radionecrosis (nose)

305
Q

in DIC which components of clotting are depleted fastest

A

V, VIII and Platelets

306
Q

Signet Ring Cell proliferation in stomach

A

Linitis Plastica

  • Stomach Doesnt Distent on OGD
307
Q

The oesophagus doesn’t have which mucosal layer?

A

Serosa

308
Q
A
309
Q

Effects of Adrenaline

A

Alpha -

Peripheral Vasoconstriction

Insulin inhibition

Glycogenolysis in liver/muscle and glycolysis in muscle

Beta -

1 - Cardiac chronotrope + inotrope, increased renin secretion

2 - Skeletal muscle vasodilation + coronary artery vasodilation. Bronchodilation

Glucagon secretion, ACTH secretion, Lipolysis in adipose tissue

310
Q

Muscles Supplied by the Ansa Cervicalis

A

Ghost Thought Someone Stupid Shot Irene

Geniohyoid

Thyrohyoid

Superior Omohyoid

Sternothyroid

Sternohyoid

Inferior Omohyoid

311
Q

Common peroneal nerve

Roots

Where does it bifurcate

A

Roots - L4 - S2

Where does it bifurcate

Bifurcates at neck of fibula after descending posterior to biceps femoris into lateral part of popliteal fossa

312
Q

Retromandibular Vein

What are its tributaries

Where does it go

A

Arises from the joining of the maxillary vein and superficial temporal vein

Descends through the parotid gland

313
Q

Associations with anal fissure

A

STI

IBD

Leukaemia

TB

314
Q

DTPA vs MAG3

A

DTPA - good for assessment of GFR

MAG3 - good for assessment of renal function in patients with known impairment

315
Q

Which structures lie in the free border of lesser omentum?

A

Hepatic Artery, CBD and Portal Vein

316
Q

Contrainidications to surgical resection in lung malignancy?

A

SVCO

FEV1 <1.5L

Malignant Pleural Effusion

Vocal Cord Paralysis

Tumor near hilum

317
Q

contents of porta hepatis

A

Common hepatic Duct

Hepatic Artery

Portal Vein

Nerve Fibres

Lymphatic Drainage

318
Q

Calculating NNT?

A

1/(Control rate - Experimental Rate)

319
Q

Digastric Muscle innervation

A

Anterior Belly - Mylohoid Nerve

Posterior Belly - Facial Nerve

320
Q

Sessile Serated Polyps

Best management?

A

These are more commonly found on the right

Should be removed

321
Q

Displaced Anatomical Humeral Head Fractures require…

A

Hemiarthroplasty

  • Due to high risk of AVN
322
Q

Lesions giving early para-aortic lymphadenopathy

A

Ovarian

Testicular

Uterine Fundus

323
Q

Contents of superior mediastinum

A

Arch of aorta

SVC

Brachiocephalic Veins

Thoracic Duct

Trachea

Oesophagus

Thymus

Vagus Nerve

Left RLN

Phrenic Nerve

324
Q

Contents of middle mediastinum

A

Aortic Root

Pericardium

Heart

Arch of azygos vein

Main Bronchi

325
Q

Contents of :

Anterior Mediastinum

Posterior Mediastinum

A

Anterior:

Thymic remnants, LNs, Fat

Posterior:

Oesophagus, Thoracic Aorta, Azygos Vein, Thoracic Duct, Vagus Nerve, Sympathetic Nerve Trunks, Splanchnic Nerves

326
Q

Rockall Score

WHen?

Components?

A

Following Endoscopy for UGI haemorrhage

Components:

A Age

B BP

C Co-morbidities

D Diagnosis

E vidence of bleeding

327
Q

Kocher Criteria for Septic Arthritis

A

WIFE

WCC >12

I - inability to weight bear

Fever

ESR >40

328
Q

Lateral Hip rotators

Nerve supplies

A

Piriformis - Ventral Rami of S1/S2

Obturator Internus - Nerve to obturator internus

Superior Gemellus - Nerve to obturator internus

Inferior Gemellus - Nerve to quadrator Femoris

Quadrator Femoris - Nerve to quadrator Femoris

329
Q
A
330
Q
A
331
Q

Drug Treatment for Colonic Pseudoobstruction

A

Neostigmine

332
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma Margin for Excision

A

5 mm

333
Q

Neck Surface Anatomy

A

C3 - Hyoid

C4 - Thyroid Cartilage Notch

C6 - Cricoid

334
Q

What are the attachments of the spleen?

A

Ileorenal Ligament (to the posterior abdominal wall)

Gastrosplenic ligament ( to the stomach)

335
Q

Hydrocele treatment in :

adults

children

A

Adults - lords/ jabourlay’s - plication/otomy of sac + ligation of PPV

Children - ligations of PPV

336
Q

management for biliary leak post lap chole

A

ERCP + Stent

337
Q

Biliary Decompression as an adjunct to curative pancreatic surgery

A

ERCP + Stent

Do not surgically bypass them

338
Q

Features of von hippel-lindau syndrome

A

Cerebellar hameangiomas

Retinal Haemangiomas

renal cysts

phaeochromocytomas

extra-renal cysts: epididymal, pancreatic, hepatic

endolymphatic sac

339
Q

Enterocutaneous fistula at the umbilicus due to….

A

Failure of obliteration of omphalpmesenteric duct

340
Q

Indications for surgery in hyperparathyroidism

A

Age >50

Serum Calcium > 1 above mornal

hypercalciuria >400 mg/day

Creatinine clearance <30%

Renal stones

Neuromuscular Symptoms

Reduction in bone density

341
Q

Pink Serous Fluid discharge after laparatomy?

A

Think about early dehiscence

342
Q

Management of sudden full dehiscence

A

Analgaesia,

IV fluid,

IV abx

Cover wound with saline gauze

Return to theatre STAT

343
Q

Which nerve wraps around the middle meningeal artery>

A

Auriculotemporal nerve - branch of the mandibular nerve.

344
Q

Mass posterior to angle of mandible

A

Parotid Gland Tumour

345
Q

Double Stranded DNA Virus

Single Stranded RNA Virus

A

DS DNA - HEP B

SS RNA - HEPC + HIV

346
Q

Where is bucks fascia

A

Bucks fascia is continuous with the external spermatic fascia into the penis

347
Q

Musculocutaneous Nerve

Roots

Innervates

Topography

A

Roots - C5-C&

Innervates - Biceps, Brachialis, Corachobrachialis

topography -

Arises from lateral cord (C5-C7) of brachial plexus. Travels between the heads of the biceps muscles. Then inbetween biceps and brachialis.

Terminates in forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm

348
Q

Does UC affect the anal canal

A

No It starts from the rectum. Spares the anal canal and the transition zone

349
Q

CXR features of aortic disruption

A

Trachea deviated to the right

Left Bronchus depression

Most disruption is in proximal descending aorta

350
Q

Greater Sciatic Foramen

Boundaries

Contents

A

Boundaries:

Anterolateral - Greater sciatic notch of ilum

Posteriomedial - sacrotuberous ligament

Inferior - Sacrospinous ligament

Superior - Anterior sacroiliac ligament

Contents:

Nerve:

Sciatic nerve

Superior + inferior gluteal nerves

Pudendal Nerve

Posteror Femoral Cutaneous Nerve

Nerve to quadrator femoris

Nerve to obturator internus

Vessels:

Superior + Inferior Gluteal Vessels

Internal pudendal vessels

351
Q

Which breast cancer is more common in women breast feeding or who are pregnant

A

Inflammatory Carcinoma

  • THese are more aggressive
352
Q

Popliteal pulse disappears when leg fully extended

A

Popliteal fossa entrapment syndrome

main differential here would be adductor canal compression syndrome

353
Q

Bariatric Surgery Selection Criteria

A

>40 BMI

>35 + Other significant disease that can be helped with wieght loss

6 months of other measures have not helped

Fit for surgery

Commit to follow up + specialist management

354
Q

BEst way to assess for upper airway compression?

A

Flow Volume Loop

355
Q

Anaerobic Organism complicating difficult operations>

A

Bacteroides Fragilis - Gram Neg, Anaerobe, Rod Shaped

Involved in majority of peritoneal infections

356
Q

Branches of the external iliac artery

A

Inferior Epigastric Artery (Anastamoses with superior epigastric artery, which is a branch of internal thoracic artery)

Deep Circumflex Iliac ARtery

Terminates as Femoral Artery

357
Q
A
358
Q

Obstructive Jaundice in the context of HIV patient likely to be due to…

A

Sclerosing Cholangitis 2o to - CMV, Cryptosproidium or Microsporidia

359
Q

Branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus

A

Subscapular Nerves ( Subscapularis)

T - horacodorsal

A - xillary

R - adial

360
Q

What does serotonin do to vessels?

A

Intact vessels - Vasodilation

Damaged vessels/tissue - vasoconstriction

361
Q

Four drugs commonly associated with parotid enlargement

A

Thiouracil

Isoprenaline

Phenylbutazone

Oestrogen Contraceptic pills

362
Q

What is a:

Pilon Fracture

A

Pilon Fracture - Distal Tibia including the articular surface with ankle

Tilloux Fracture - Child fracture involving the distal tibial epiphysis. Is an avulsion fracture due to the anterior tibiofibular ligament pull in an abduction injury.

363
Q

Which Cord of the brachial plexus do the following nerves come from?

Axillary Nerve

Medial Pectoral Nerve

Lateral Pectoral Nerve

Medial Brachial Cutaneous Nerve

Medial Antebrachial Cutaneous Nerve

Subscapular Nerves

Thoracodorsal nerve

A

Posterior Cord (C5-T1) Posterior divisions of all trunks) - Subscapular Nerves, Thoracodorsal Nerve, Axillary Nerve

Lateral Cord (C5-C7 Ventral Divisions of Upper and Middle Trunk)

Lateral Pectoral Nerve

Medial Cord (C8-T1 ventral Divisions of lower trunk)

Medial Pectoral Nerve

Medial Brachial Cutaneous Nerve

Medial ANtebrachial Cutaneous Nerve

364
Q

where are most anal fissures?

A

Posterior midline (90%)

Anterior midline (10%)

365
Q

Nephroblastoma vs Nueroblastoma distinguishing features

A

nephroblastoma:

(Wilm’s) Arise from the kidney.

Associated with Hypertension

No Calcification on CT

Neuroblastoma:

Arise from neural crest (often from adrenal Gland)

Calcification on CT

366
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia

Drug therapies

A

Amiodarone

Lidocaine

Procainamidwe

NOT VERAPAMIL

367
Q

Drug cause of SIADH

A

Carbamezapine, SSRIs, Sulfonylureas, TCAs, vincristine, cyclophosphamide

368
Q

Sites of ectopic testes

A

Superficial Inguinal Pouch

Base of Penis

Femoral Triangle

Perineum

369
Q

Multifocal high grade dysplasia of oesophagus Treatment?

A

Resection

In old patients might be a place for local treatment - Endoscopic resection, photodynamic therapy

370
Q

Strangulation risk

Femoral

Indirect Inguinal

Direct Inguinal

A

Femoral - 40%

Indirect Inguinal - Greater than direct inguinal

Direct Inguinal - 3%

371
Q

Post Test Probability

A

Post Test Odds/ (1+ Post Test Odds)

Way of calculating the prevalence of a condition in a population that have had an intervention

372
Q

where are most gastrinomas found?

Three hallmark features for diagnosis of gastrinoma

A

Duodenum, then pancreas

Features:

Fasting hypergastrinaemia

Increased basal acid output

Secretin Stimulation Positive

373
Q

What is the remnant of the urachus?

What is the arterial supply to the bladder?

What is the venous drainage of the bladder?

What is the lymph drainage of the bladder?

A

Median umbilical ligament

Arteries supplying the bladder:

Inferior and superior vesical arteries from the internal iliac artery

Venous drainage of the bladder:

Vesicoprostatic venous plexus -> drains into the internal iliac vein

Lymph drainage of the bladder:

External iliac nodes (lesser so to the internal and obturator nodes)

374
Q

indications for CABG

Conduits for CABG

A

LMS/ LAD/ Left Circ

Triple Vessel Disease

Diffuse Disease

Conduits

Internal Mammary Artery

Radial ARtery

Long Saphenous Veins

375
Q

Basophilic and mucoid material between intimal elastic fibers of an artery?

A

Cystic Medial Necrosis

Seen in age related degeneration + marfan’s syndrome

376
Q

ABx MOA

Inhibiting Cell Wall FOrmation

Inhibiting Protein Synthesis

Inhibiting DNA Synthesis

Inhibiting RNA Synthesis
Cell Membrane

A

Inhibiting Cell Wall FOrmation

Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Glycopeptide

Inhibiting Protein Synthesis

50S - Macrolide, Linezolid, Chloramphenicol

30 S - Aminoglycloside, Tetracycline,

Inhibiting DNA Synthesis

DNA Gyrase - Fluroquunilone

Metronidazole, Sulphonamide, Trimethoprim

Inhibiting RNA Synthesis

Rifampicin

cell Membrane

Polymxin

377
Q

Nerve Roots

SUperior gluteal nerve

Inferior Gluteal Nerve

A

Superior - L4- S1
Inferior - L5 - S2

378
Q

relations of submandublar gland

A

Superficial:

Lymph Nodes

Facial Vein

Marginal mandibular nerve + cervical Nerve

Deep:

Facial Artery

Mylohyoid Muscle + Hypoglossus
Wartons duct

Lingual nerve

Submandibular Ganglion

Hypoglossal nerve

379
Q

Femoral Nerve

Roots

Innervates

A

Roots - L2 - L4

Innervates : Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh, Intermediate cutaneous nerve of thigh, Saphenous nerve

Vastus muscles, Quad femoris, Sartorius, Pectineus

380
Q

Calculating Relative risk

A

Experimental Event Rate / Control Event Rate = Relative Risk

381
Q

Testing for HIV

A

HIV PCR

p24 antigen test

382
Q

Breast Anatomy

ARterial Supply

Venous Drainage

Lymph Drainage

A

Arterial Supply:

Internal Mammary

External Mammary (lateral breast)

Anterior intercostal arteries

Thoraco-acromial artery

Venous Drainage:

Superficial venous plexus –> subclavian, axillary and intercostal veins

Lymph -

Axillary Nodes

Internal mammary chains

383
Q

Crohn’s Rectal Disease

A

Can’t make an ileoanal pouch- lots of cx

Need end stoma

384
Q
A
385
Q

Muscles attaching to the radius

A

Radial Tuberosity - Biceps Brachii

Body: Upper third - Supinator, FDS, FPL

Middle third - Pronator Teres

Lower part - Pronator quadratus + Supinator tendon

Lower end:

3 Grooves for tendons:

Extensor muscles (carpi, pollicis longus, indices)

386
Q

Pressure for pneumoperitoneum

A

7-15 mmHg

387
Q

Right Coronary ARtery supples:

Left Coronary Artery Supplies:

A

Right Coronary ARtery supples:

RA

Part of RV

SA node (usually), AV Node

Posterior Third of interventricular septum

Left Coronary Artery Supplies:

LA

LV

Part of RV

SA node (less usually)

anterior two thirds of interventricular septum

388
Q

Coronary Sinus

Where is it

What drains into it

A

Posterior part of coronary groove

Receives blood from:

great cardiac vein on left

middle cardiac vein on right

small cardiac vein on right

389
Q

Which veins drain the loose areolar tissue of scalp?

A

Emisary veins (potential for spread of infection to cranial cavity)

390
Q

Perforated appendicitis - where is fluid most likely to collect

A

pelvis

391
Q

Which muscle relaxants do not cause histamine release

A

Verocuronium + Suxamethonium

392
Q

Where does sciatic nerve bifurcate and what into

A

Bifurcates at superior aspect of the popliteal fossa:

Tibial Nerve

and Commmon Peroneal NErve

393
Q

Mediators of acute inflammation

A

Serotonin

Histamine

Prostaglandin

Leukotrienes

TNF

Interleukins

394
Q

Structures within the right atrium

A

Musculi Pectinati

Crista Terminalis

Fossa Ovalis

opening of coronary sinus

395
Q

Causes of pruritis ani

A

Systemic - DM, High Bili, Aplastic Anaemia, Leukaemia

Mechanical - diarrhoea, constipation, anal fissure

Infections- Stds

Dermatological disease

Drugs - Quinidine, Colchicine

396
Q

Treatment of cyclical mastalgia

A

Evening primrose oil, flax seed oil

Danazol, tamoxifen

397
Q

Scrotal Sensation

A

Anterior - Ilioinguinal Nerve (L1)

Posterior - Pudendal Nerve ( S2-S4)

398
Q

Branchial Cyst

Cystic Hygroma

Locations on examination?

A

Branchial Cyst - Anterior to SCM

Cystric Hygroma - Posterior to SCM

399
Q

Structures anterior to posterior in the hilar area:

Right Lung

Left Lung

A

Right Lung

1. Superior to hilum : SVC, Azygos Vein, Inominate Artery

2. Behind the hilum:pulmonary ligament, Oesophagus (Superiorly). IVC (inferiorly just anterior to oesophagus )

Left Lung

1. Superior to hilum: Arch of aorta, Subclavian artery, left inominate vein

2. Behind the hilum: pulmonary ligament, descending aorta, oesophagus (inferiorly)

400
Q

NPI Equation

A

(0.2 x size of tumour) + Nodes + Grade

Nodes:

0 nodes = 1

1-3 nodes = 2

>3 nodes = 3

Grade:

1=1

2=2

3=3

401
Q

How to differentiate between Anclyostoma Duodenale + Ascariasis infections?

A

Anclyostoma - stool microscopy just larvae (if you’re lucky)

Ascariasis - worms and eggs

402
Q

Myocardial Action Potential

A

Rapid Depolarisation - Na+ Influx

Early repolarisation - K+ Efflux

Plateue - Slow Ca++ Influx

Final repolarisation - K+ Efflux

403
Q

Monteggia vs Galeazzi

A

Montegia - Ulnar Fracture + Proximal radioulnar dislocation

Galeazzi - Radial Fracture + Distal radioulnar dislocation

404
Q

Structures passing posterior to lateral malleolus

A

Peroneus longus and brevis

405
Q

Actinomycysosis

Best Diagnosis?

A

Gram Positive Anaerobic Bacilli

Diagnosis is through open drainage and culturing of material

406
Q

Jugular Anatomy

External
Internal

A

External - Superficial to SCM

Internal - Deep to SCM in carotid sheath medial to common carotid.

External:
Formed from joining of posteior division of retromandibular vein + Posterior auricular vein

joins subclavian vein and then internal joins more medially to form inominate vein

407
Q
A
408
Q

Cervical Drainage

A

Through broad ligament to external iliac nodes

Uterosacral fold to presacral

Accompanying uterine vessels to internal iliac

409
Q

Which structures are superior/deep to the extensor retinaculum

What are the attachments of the retinaculum

A

Superficial - Veins(cephalic and basilic veins) and Nerves (Dorsal cutaneous of ulnar nerve + Superficial of radial nerve)

Deep - Tendons

Attachments

Ulnar side - Psisform And triquetrium

Radial side - radial bone

410
Q

Axillary LNs

If palpable/image confirmed lymphadenopathy?

If no lymphadenopathy?

A

If palpable/image confirmed lymphadenopathy then proceed to FNAC

If no lymphadenopathy then Sentinel Lymph Node biopsy at surgery

411
Q

Axillary Artery:

Parts

Branches

A

From upper border of first rib (underneath the clavicle) to lower border of teres major

Parts:

1 - Superior to pec minor.

Associated with brachial plexus and axillary vein

2 - Behind pec minor

Cords of the plexus location are synonymous with their names here

3 - Inferior to pec minor

Branches

High Thoracic

Thoracoacromial

Lateral thoracic

Subscapular

Posterior circumflex

Anterior circumflex

412
Q

Where does the chorda tympani unite with the lingual nerve?

A

Near the lateral pyerygoid

413
Q

Which pharnygeal arches are the following structures derived from:

Superior parathyroid glands

Inferior parathyroid glands

A

Superior - Fourth Pharyngeal Arch

Inferior - Third Pharyngeal Arch

414
Q

Structures at risk in carotid surgery

A

Hypoglossal Nerve

Greatuer Auricular Nerve

Superior Laryngeal Nerve

Common Facial + Internal Jugular Vein

415
Q

Why might the APTT be long in someone with Anti Phospholipid Syndrome?

A

They might have Lupus Anticoagulant.

ALthugh in vivo this is prothrombotic, in vitro it increases APTT

416
Q

From where does the scaphoid bone get its blood supply?

A

From its distal end via a small branch of the radial artery

417
Q

What goes through:

Caval Hiatus

Oesophageal Hiatus

Aortic Hiatus

A

Caval - IVC + Right Phrenic

Oesophageal - Oesophagus + Vagal trunks

Aortic - Aorta + Thoracic Duct

418
Q

Nerves at risk in submandinbular gland excision

A

Hypoglosal Nerve

Lingual Nerve

Marginal Mandibular Nerve

419
Q

Limited liver mets in colorectal malignancy….

A

Chemotherapy + Resection.

Radiofrequency ablation for those not fit for surgery

420
Q

Actions of corticosteroids

A

Metabolic

Decreased uptake/utilisation of glucose

Increased gluconeogenesis

Increased hyperglycaemia

Increased protein catabolism

Lipolysis

Regulatory

Negative feedback on hypothalamus

CNS - decreased vasodilation/ decreased fluid exudation

Decreased osteoblastic/ Increased osteoclastic

Decreased inflammation

421
Q

Branches of the vagas nerve

A

Right - Recurrent laryngeal at the level of Right Subclavian artery in neck

Left - RLN at level of aortic arch

Both give off:

Superior and Inferior cervical cardiac branches

Right - Both Posterior to subclavian

Left - Superior branch between arch of arota and trachea

Whereas inferior tracks along with the vagus

Thoracic and cardiac branches (in thorax)

422
Q

Where do the different rotator cuff muscles attach to fibrous capsule

A

Superior - Supraspinatus

Anterior - Subscapularis

Posterior - Teres Minor + Infraspinatus

423
Q

left renal vein interesting anatomy

A

It crosses the aorta just inferior to the SMA

Receives tributaries from the testicular vein, suprarenal vein + inferior phrenic vein

Level is at about L1/L2

424
Q

Feeding in oesophageal perforation

A

Should be through TPN as any other feeding can cause delayed healing or leak through perforation

425
Q

Treatment of pancreatitic pseudocyst

A

Endoscopic or radiological cystgastrostomy

426
Q

nerve roots for

Superior Gluteal nerve

Inferior Gluteal nerve

A

SGN - L4 - S1

IGN - L5 - S2

427
Q

What muscle is associated with the pudendal canal?

Which space is it located within?

A

Obturator Internus

Ischioanal fossa

428
Q

Bacteria most commonly associated with synergistic gangrene

A

E Coli + Bacteroides

429
Q

Where are musculi pectinati predominantly ofund

A

Right atrium - internal muscular ridges on the anterolateral surface of the chamber

430
Q

Lymph drainage of ureter

A

Upper - Para Aortic

Lower - Common Iliac

431
Q

Flattened Face =

A

Le Fort 2 or Le Fort 3 fracture

432
Q

What is in the lung pleural reflection?

A

Bronchus, Pulmonary Artery, Pulmonary Vein

433
Q

Relations of Coeliac Trunk

A

Anterior - Lesser Omentum

Right - Right coeliac ganglion + caudate lobe of liver

Left - Left coeliac ganglion + gastric cardia

Inferiorly - pancreas + renal vein

434
Q

Laparotomy approach in children

A

Transverse Supra Umbilical incision

435
Q

Trotter’s Triad

A

Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

Unilateral Conductive Hearing Loss

Ipsilateral Facial Pain

Ipsilateral Palatal Paralysis

436
Q

Thoracic Duct Path

A

Starts at joining of left and right lumbar trunk + intestinal trunk (cisterna chylii)

Traverses diaphragm through aortic hiatus then ascends between aorta and azygos vein

Terminates in the left inominate vein

437
Q

Process of gastric dumping syndrome

A

Load enters the jejunum fast –> Water enters the lumen –> Distension of the jejunum and then diarrhoea

Also causes insulin release (hypoglycaemia )

438
Q
A
439
Q

Salter Harris Classification System

A

I ( Straight) - Through Physis

II (Above) - Through physis and above to involve metaphysis

III ( Lower) - Through physis and below to involve epiphysis

IV (Through) - Through metaphysis, physis and epiphysis

V (Everything Ruined) - Crush / Compression

440
Q

Ansa Cervicalis

Roots

Innervates

Location

A

Roots - Upper C1, Lower C2-C3

Innervates - Sternohyoid, Sternothyroid, Omohyoid - innervation comes from inferior part of muscle

Location - Anterior to carotid sheath within the pre tracheal fascia

441
Q

Where do these arteries originate?

Artery of Vas

Cremasteric Artery

A

Artery of Vas - Inferior Vesicular Artery

​Cremasteric Artery - Inferior epigastric artery

442
Q

What does mandibular nerve innervate (motor)

A

Masseter

Temporalis

Medial and Lateral Pterygoid

Tensor Veli Palatini

Tensor Tympani

Mylohyoid

Anterior belly of digastric

443
Q

Quadratus Lumborum

Origin

Insertion

Action

Innervation

A

Origin - Medial aspect of iliac crest and iliolumbar ligament

Insertion - 12th Rib

ACtion - Pulls rib cage inferiorly. Lateral flexion of spine

Innervation - Anterior Rami of T12-L3

444
Q

Multiple lytic / lucent appearances on X Ray

(Soap Bubble)

A

Osteoclastoma (Giant Cell Tumour)

445
Q

Where is the coeliac plexus

What contribuets to it

A

Plexus is at T12/L1 inbetween oesopahgus (anterior) and aorta (posterior)

It receives contributions from Greater splanchnic nerves, lesser splanchnic nerves, Vagus Nerves and Phrenic Nerves

446
Q

Innervation to external urethral sphincter

Autonomic Control of the bladder

Innervation to internal urethral sphincter

A

External -Pudendal Nerve (L2-L4)

Autonomic control of bladder - Hypogastric plexuses

Internal - Sympathetic fibers from T10 - L2 through inferior hypogastric plexus

447
Q

How does tranexamic acid work>

A

Inhibits plasmin which is responsible for fibrin degradation

448
Q

Location of the brcahial plexus in the neck

A

Roots enclosed within an extension of prevertebral fascia

Deep to platysma, omohyoid, transverse cervical artery + supra clavicular nerves.

449
Q

Causes of avascular necrosis

Plastic RAGS

A

Plastic Rags

Pancreatitis

Lupus

Alcohol

Steroids

Trauma

Idiopathic, Infection

Caisson Disease, Collagen Vascular Disease

Radiotherapy, RA

Amyloid

Gaucher Disease

Sickle Cell Disease

450
Q

Directions of External Carotid Branches

A

Anterior:

Superior Thyroid

Lingual

Facial

Posterior:

Occipital

posterior auricular

Deep:

Ascending Pharyngeal

451
Q
A
452
Q

Where is the intercostal bundle

A

Lies in the subcostal groove

Vein is most superior (least easily damaged)

Artery

Nerve (most inferior)

453
Q

Cutaneous innervation of foot

Dorsolateral

lateral plantar

dorsum

first web space

proximo-medial

heel

A

Dorso-lateral - Sural

Lateral Plantar - Lateral Plantar Nerve

Dorsum - Superficial peroneal

First Web Space - Deep Peroneal

Proximo-medial - Saphenous nerve

Heel - Calcaneal Branch of Tibial Nerve

454
Q

Treatment of haematocele?

A

Surgical Exploration + Repair through scrotal approach

455
Q

Where does the cervical sympathetic chain lie?

A

Between the:

Carotid Sheath (anteriorly)

Prevertebral Fascia (Posteriorly)

456
Q

Biceps Femoris

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

Blood Supply

A

Origin - Ischial Tuberosity (long), Linea aspera/ Supracondylar ridge of femur (short)

Insertion - Fibular Head

Innervation - Sciatic nerve (Tibial - Long, Common Peroneal - Short)

Blood Supply - Profunda Femoris, Inferior Gluteal, Superior Politeal Branches

457
Q

What influences release of histamine from enterochromaffin cells in stomach?

A

Elevated Serum Gastrin

458
Q

Grading of knee collateral injury

A

1 - Soem fibre disruption, no laxity (Conservative)

2 - Some ligament laxity (casting/ splinting)

3 - Joint instability, ligament is torn (Surgical Reconstruction)

459
Q

Statistics:

Likelihood ratio for positive test result

likelihood ratio for negative test result

A

PTR - Sensitivity/ (1-specificity)

NTR - (1-sensitivity)/specificity

460
Q

Describe lesser omentum

A

Double layer of peritoneum extending from liver to the -stomach and duodenum

Divided into two portions: hepatogastric ligament (attaches to lesser curve of stomach), hepatoduodenal ligament

WIthin the folds - left and right gastric arteries

hepatic artery, CBD, Portal vein, LNs, and hepatic plexuses

461
Q

Describe Greater Omentum

A

Double layer of peritoneum extending from greater curvature of stomach over the top of the small intestines and then coming back to cover the transverse colon

Subdivisions: Gastrophrenic, Gastrocolic, +Gastrosplenic Ligament

Blood Supply - Left (from splenic artery) and Right (gastroduodenal branch) Gastropeiploic Arteries

462
Q

Posterior Triangle of neck contents

A

Nerves:

  • Accessory nerve, phrenic nerve
  • Trunks of brachial plexus

Cervical Plexus Branches - Supraclavicular nerve, Transverse Cervical Nerve, Greater Auricular Nerve, Lesser occipital nerve

vessels:

EJV, Subclavian artery

Muscles;

Inferior belly of omoyhyoid, Scalene

Lymph Nodes;

supraclavicular, occipital

463
Q

What is the only muscle of the foot not innervated by the tibial nerve?

A

Extensor Digitorum brevis ( Common Peroneal nerve)

464
Q

Pituitary Anatomy

A

In the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. Covered by dura here. Originates from rathkes pouch (pharynx)

Anterior side conected to hypothalamus by portal vein whereas posterior side connected via neurones

anterior hormones:

GH, LH, FSH, ACTH, MRH, TSH

posterior hormones:

ADH, Oxytocin

465
Q

Sciatic nerve topography

A

Convergence of L4-S3 Anterior rami at the inferior border of piriformis and emerges through the inferior part of greater sciatic foramen

From here it descends underneath gluteus maximus

Splits into Common peroneal + Tibial nerve superior to popliteal fossa

466
Q

Anterior Interosseus Nerve Injury

A

Loss of pronation of the arm (pronator quadratus)

Loss of flexion of lateral fingers and thumb (FPL + FDP)

467
Q

Greater Sac

Lesser Sac

A

Greater Sac

Peritoneum encasing the majority of the intraperitoneal abdomen (save the lesser sac)

Lesser Sac

Is the encasing of the cavity that is formed by the greater and lesser omentum.

Margins:

Anterior - Quadrate lobe of liver, stomach, lesser omentum, gastrocolic ligament

Posterior - left kidney, adrenal gland, pancreas

Inferior - Greater Omentum

Superior - Liver

Lateral - Spleen and ligaments anterior/posterior to the spleen

468
Q

lateral malleolus

Posterior structures

A

Posterior:

Peroneus longus and brevis tendons

Sural nerve

Short Saphenous Vein

469
Q

Causes of thrombocytopenia

Severe

Moderate

A

Severe- ITP, TTP, DIC, Haem Malignancy

Moderate -

HIT
Drugs - quinine, diuretics, sulphonamide, thiazide, aspirin

Alcohol

liverdisease

hypersplenism

Viruses

Pregnancy

SLE/Antiphospholipid Syndrome

B12 Deficiency

470
Q

What are the branches of the maxillary artery

A

Inferior alveolar

Middle meningeal

471
Q

Adductor Longus

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

A

Origin - Anterior body of pubis

Insertion - middle third of linea aspera

Innervation - Obturator Nerve (L2-L4)

472
Q

Adults:

Where does spinal cord terminate

Where does dural sac end

A

Spinal cord - L1 (L3 in newborns)

Dural Sac - S2

473
Q

Laxatives

Bulk forming laxatives

Osmotic Laxatives

Stimulant Laxatives

A

Bulk forming laxatives

Bran, Psyllium, Methylcellulose

Osmotic Laxatives

magnesium sulphate, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, sodium sulphate, potassium tartate, polyethylene glycol, docusate

Stimulant Laxatives

Senna

Picosuphate

ricinoleic acid

bisacodyl

474
Q

Types of DCIS

A

Comedo - Linear branching microcalcificaition

Cribiform, micropapillary - multifocal

475
Q

Pectoralis Major

Origin

Insertion

Nerve SUpply

Actions

Pectoralis Minor

Origin

Insertion

Nerve SUpply

Actions

A

Major

Origin - medial two thirds of clavicle, manubrium and sternocostal angle

Insertion - lateral edge of bicipital groove of humerus

Nerve SUpply - Lateral Pectoral nerve

Actions - Adducts + Medial ROtates humerus

Minor

Origin - Costochondral Junctions of third to fith ribs

Insertion - Coracoid process of scapula ( medial border+ superior surface)

Nerve SUpply - Medial + Lateral Pectoral Nerve

Actions - Draws scapula inferiorly/ anteriorly against thoracic wall.

476
Q

What drains into the

SMV

IMV

A

SMV - up to the splenic flexure

IMV - beyond the splenic flexure

477
Q

Regarding Nerve Transection Injuries - what is the prognosis/ course of action

Clean Simple Transection

Complicated Transection

A

Clean Simple Transection - the proximal axon will degenerate back to the first node of ranvier. Wallerian degeneration will causae the distal axon to degenerate too.

The proximal axon will grow at a rate of 1mm per day

Complicated Transection -

Axonal growth will be impaired in the setting of fracture, haemorrhage, infection etc…

Therefore practice is to delay approximation of the distal+proximal axons for a few weeks

478
Q

Where does the female urethra drain lymphatic wise too

A

Internal Iliac Nodes

479
Q

Where is a hypervascular bone primary most likely to come from

A

Kidney

480
Q

Main difference between T Tests/ Fishers + Chi

A

T Test - Compares normally distributed data

Fishers + Chi - Tests categorical data

481
Q

Quadrate lobe

A

Functionally part of left lobe of liver

Anatomically associates with right lobe of liver

482
Q

Oesophagogastric Junction Tumours

A

Type 1 - true oesophageal (barrett’s)

Type 2 - of the gastric cardia/ intestinal metaplasia

Type 3 - Sub cardial cancers that spread across the junction

Depending on staging these are treated by oesaphogogastrectomy

483
Q

Innervation of lacrimal duct

A

PNS

Greater Petrosal nerve (Branch of CNVII in the facial canal) –> Pterygopalatine ganglion —> gland innervated through zygomatic / lacrimal branches of maxillary nerve

484
Q

What is the thoracic outlet?

A

Where the subclavian vein, artery and brachial plexus exit the thorax.

In between first rib and the clavicle

485
Q

Which nerve supplies abductor pollicis longus?

A

Radial

486
Q

Ear Nerves:

What supples sensation to external ear?

What innervates stapedius?

What innervates tensor tympani?

A

What supples sensation to external ear? - Greater Auricular Nerve (Cervical Plexus C2-C3) + Auriculotemporal nerve ( Mandibular Nerve)

What innervates stapedius?
Nerve to stapedius ( CN VII)

What innervates tensor tympani?

CN V

487
Q

Composition of cervical canglion

A

Superior : C1 - C4

Middle: C5- C6

Inferior: C7-C8

488
Q

Any rupture of urethra from membarnous urethra onwards … Where doe urine accumulat?

A

Connective tissue of the scrotum:

Fascia adherence prevents urine from going posteriorly or laterally so it tracks retrograde

489
Q

Borders of the

Deep Perineal prouch

Superficial Perineal Pouch

Muscles of perineal body

A

Deep Perineal pouch

Superiorly - fascia of perineal floor

Inferiorly - Perineal membane

Superficial perineal pouch

Superficial - perineal membrane

Inferiorly - Superficial perineal fascia

perineal body:

Just superior to the anus.

Muscles - Levator Ani, Bulbospongiosus, Transverse perineal muscles, External Anal Sphincter, External urethral sphincter.

490
Q

Duke Classification System

A

A - Confined to bowel

B - Involving bowel wall

C - Nodal Mets

D- Distant mets

491
Q

Biopsy features of barret’s oesophagus

A

Goblet Cell metaplasia

Oesphageal Glands

492
Q

Which rectal cancer patients require neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy

A

T4

493
Q

Radial Nerve Injury in the :

Shoulder

Arm

Forearm

A

Shoulder - Triceps Long Head

Arm - Impairment to elbow extension

Forearm - Wrist, finger extension and supination

494
Q

Contents of

Superficial perineal Pouch

Deep Perineal Pouch

A

Deep:

Urethral Sphincter

Urethra

Vagina

Deep Transverse Perineal Muscle

Superficial:

Erectile Tissue

Superficial Transverse, Ischiocavernosus, bulbospangiousis

Bartholin’s Glands

495
Q

Levator Ani Muscles

A

Three paired muscles - pubococcygeus, puborectalis, ileococcygeus

Perineal Body to pubic bodies of hip bone(anterior), to obturator internus (lateral), ischial spines of hip bone (posterior)

496
Q

Relations of the prostate gland

A

Anterior - Venous PLexus, Pubic Symphysis

Posterior - Denonvilliers Fascia, Rectum, Ejaculatory Ducts,

Lateral - Venous Plexus, Levator ani

497
Q

First Line therapy for Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

A

Radiotherapy

498
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

Feature

A

VSD

Overarching Aorta

Right Ventricular Hypertroply

RV outflow Obstruction

Right to left shunting

499
Q

Oxyphil Cells on thyroid histology =

A

Follicular carcinoma

500
Q

Thing in relation to carotids

A

Inferior thyroid artery passes posterior to common carotids

Thoracic Duct crosses the left common carotid

Recurrent laryngeal nerve crosses the right common carotid

501
Q

larynx:

Superior to vestibular folds

Between vestibular folds, superior to vocal cords

vocal cords to inferior bord of cricoid cartilage

A

Vestibule - Superior to vestibular folds

VEntricle - Between vestibular folds, superior to vocal cords

Infraglottis - vocal cords to inferior bord of cricoid cartilage

502
Q

Differentiating feature of

Central Horner’s

Pre Ganglionic Horner’s
Post ganglionic Horner’s

A

Central Horner’s - Anhidrosis of ipsilateral face arm trunk

  • *Pre** Ganglionic Horner’s - Anhidrosis of ipsilateral face
  • *Post ganglionic Horner’s -** Anhidrosis of NOTHING
503
Q

Which surgical device is good for managing splenic bleeding?

A

Argon plasma coagulation system

504
Q

Which arteries make up kiesselbach’s plexus?

A

Greater Palatine artery + SPhenopalatine Artery

(Both Maxillary Artery Branches - From ECA)

505
Q

What is a bankart lesion

A

Injury to anterior inferior glenoid labrum

This can cause recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation

506
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis

Type 1

Type 2

Type 4

A

Type 1 (Distal Tubule) - Impaired H+ Secretion, Hypokalaemia

Type 2 (Proximal Tubule)- Impaired Bicarb Reabsorption, Hypokalaemia

Type 4 (Collecting Ducts) - Addison’s/Ald Resistance

Hyperkalaemia

507
Q

If the external fistula opening is at th following o clock where can you expect to find the internal opening

2 o clock

4 o clock

7 o clock

11 o clock

A

2 o clock + 11 o clock are anterior - so the internal opening will be in a straight line from the external opening at the same o clock trajectory.

4 o clock + 7 o clock are posterior - so the internal opening will be in the midline at 6 o clock after havine a curvilinear route

508
Q

What are the posterio/medial relations of the left lobe of liver?

A

Proximal stomach + abdominal oesophagus

509
Q

Which valves have chordae tendinae

A

Mitral and Tricuspid

Mitral - 2 Cusps (one anterior)

510
Q

Which two cranial nerves originate from between the posterior cerebral artery and the superior cerebellar artery

A

Trochlear Nerve + Occuluomotor nerve

511
Q

Which clotting constituents are consumed most quickly in DIC

A

V, VIII and platelets

512
Q

Layers of bowel wall

A

Mucosa

Submucosa

Submucosal Plexus (Meissner’s)

Muscular Layer (First circular and then longitudinal - Auerbach’s plexus is in between them)

Serosa

513
Q

Dark blood on aspiration in priapism?

A

This indicates low flow priapism - the penis needs to be decompressed by further aspiration

514
Q

Where are the motor root fibers of the trigeminal nerve?

A

In the pons - distinctly not part of the trigeminal ganglion

515
Q

Carcinoid Tumours - management

<2 Cm And in the appendix

>2 cm

A

<2 cm and in appendix - Just appendicectomy

>2 cm - Radioisotipe scanning.

If radioisotope scanning demonstrates –> lymph involvement then right hemi

if margins on histology demonstrate compromise –> right hemi

516
Q
A
517
Q

Contents of anterior triangle of neck

A

Submandibular Gland

Supra and infrahyoid muscles, Digastric Muscle

Carotid Sheath ( Vagus, Carotid, Jugular)

Ansa Cervicalis,

Internal Jugular Vein, External jugular Vein, Anterior Jugular Vein

518
Q

Associations of oesophageal atresia

A

Distal tracheoosophageal fistula is teh common varient

Associated with VACTERL (Vertebral anomalies, anal atresia, cardiac anomalies, thracheosophageal fistula/esophageal fistula, renal anomalies, limb defecvts).

519
Q

Long Thoracic Nerve

A

Ventral rami of C5- C7 —> inferior route iether infront or behind middle scalene muscle.

Descends overlying the serratus anterior muscle

520
Q

Renal stoens associated with…

inborn errors of metabolism

purine metabolism disorders

infection

A

inborn errors of metabolism - Cystine (radio-dense)

purine metabolism disorders - Uric Acid (radiolucent)

infection - Struvite (radio-dense)

521
Q

In children - are teratomas usually malignant or benign

A

Benign - so if there is a testicular mass in a child with ?metastatic disease its probably not teratoma

522
Q
A
523
Q

Where does the root of the :

Right lung pass

Left Lung Pass

A

Right lung - SVC and Right Atrium

Left Lung - Desceinding Aorta, Aortic arch

524
Q

Pancreatic Relations

A

Posterior:

IVC, CBD, Renal Veins, SMA, SMV, Portal Vein, Diaphram, Psoas, Kidney, Adrenal, Aorta

Anteror:

1st Part of Duodenum, Pylorus of stomach, Gastroduoednal ARtery, SMA + SMV, Stomach, DJ Flexure, Splenic Hilum

Superior:

Coeliac Trunk, SPlenic artery, Common Hepatic ARtery

525
Q

Mutation associated with

FAP

Lynch

Cowden

MYH associated Polyposis

Peutz jehgers

A

FAP - APC

Lynch - DNA mismatch repair genes

Cowden - PTEN

MYH associated polyposis - MYH

Peutz Jehgers - STK11

526
Q

Management of >1 cm sessile serrated polyps

A

Polypectomy

527
Q

Fracture Healing Stages

A

Clot and haematoma formation

Clot Organisation ( Collagen)

Bone production from periosteum

Cartilage production (mesenchymal cells)

Callus formation ( connective tissue + hyaline cartilage)

Endochondrol ossification of cartilage

Trabecular bone formation –> Compact bone by osteoclast mediated resorption of trabecular bone

528
Q

types of colonic peristalsis

what does circular muscle do

what does longitudinal muscle do

A

Colonic peristalsis:

Mas movement - waves of peristalsis through the whole colon

Segmental Contraction - Local contractions to maximise absorption

Antiperstaltic contractions - slow down food bolus toward ileum

Circular muscle - contracts behind food bolus

longitudinal muscle - propels food bolus forwards

529
Q

WHere do the following originate

Long Head BIceps

Long Head Triceps

A

Long head biceps - Supragelnoid Tubercle

Long head Triceps - Infraglenoid tubercle

530
Q
A
531
Q

Iliacus

Origin

Insertion

Innervation

Action

Arterial Supply

A

Origin - Superior 2/3 of iliac fossa

Insertion - Lesser trochanter of femur

Innervation - Femoral nerve

Action - Thigh Flexor

Arterial Supply - Femoral Artery

532
Q

What are the end branches of posterior tibial artery

A

Medial and lateral planter arteries

533
Q

Hip Fracture management

Subtrochanteric

Reverse Oblique

Inter-Trochanteric

A

Subtrochanteris - Intramedullary Nail

Reverse Oblique - Intramedullary Nail

Inter-trochanteric - DHS / IM Nail if unstable

534
Q

Spinal Cord Lesions: Signs and causes

Dorsal Column

Spinothalamic

Central Cord Lesion

Osteomyelitis

Infarction

Cord Compression

Brown- Sequard

A

Dorsal Column - Vibration and proprioception lost. Tabes Dorsalis, SACD

Spinothalamic - Loss of pain/temp. Syringomyelia

Central Cord Lesion - Syringomyelia

Osteomyelitis - Cervical region / Thoracic Region. Usually back pain

Infarction - 2o to aortic surgery..Doral Columns Signs

Cord Compression - UMN signs. Malignancy, haematoma, fracture

Brown- Sequard - Hemisection of spinal cord. Ipsilateral paralysis, loss of proprioception and fine discrimination. Contralateral loss of pain and temp

535
Q

What test can be used to compare two or more sets of non-parametric data?

A

Kruskal Wallis One way variance test

536
Q

Relations of the IVC

A

Anterior:

Small Bowel,

1 + 3 of duodenum

Head of pancreas,

Liver, Bile Duct

RIght common iliac, Right gonadal artery

Posterior:

right renal artery, right psoas, right sympathetic chain, coeliac ganglion

537
Q

Borders of anatomical snuffbox

A

Posterior - EPL

Anterior - APL, EPB

Proximal- Radial Styloid Process

Distal - Apex of snuffbox

Floor - Scaphoid + trapezium

538
Q

layers of periosteum

A

Outer -Fibrous layer (Fibroblasts)

Inner - Cambium layer ( osteogenic - containing osteoid progenitor cells)

Sharpey’s fibers connect it to bone

539
Q

What are the compartments of the knee joint

Bursae of knee joint

Anterior

Lateral

Medial

Which meniscus is attached to respective collateral ligament

A

Compartments

Tibiofemoral

Patellofemoral

Bursae of knee joint

Anterior - Prepatellar Bursa, Deep Infrapatellar bursa (tibia and patellar ligament, Superficial infrapatellar bursa (tibial tuberosity and skin)

Lateral - Between: i) lateral Gastroc and joint capsule, ii) lat colat lig + biceps tendon, iii) lat colat lig + popliteus tendon

Medial - Between: i) medial gastroc + joing capsule ii) medial colat lig + pes anserius tendons, iii) membranosus + medial tibial condyle + medial gastroc head

Medial meniscus is attached to respective collateral ligament

540
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve continues into the forearm as the..

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm

541
Q

Adductor Canal

A

Lateral- Vastus Medialis

Posterior - ADductor Longus and MAgnus

Anterior - Sartorius

Contents - Saphenous Neve, Superficial Femoral Vein, Superficial Femorl ARtery

542
Q

Drugs to manage VT

A

Amiodarone

Lidocaine

Procainamide

543
Q

Brachial Plexus

What are the roots of the BP ensheathed within in neck?

What structures overly the brachial plexus in the neck?

A

In the neck the BP is enclosed within an extension of the prevertebral fascia

In the neck the brachial plexus is deep to:

Platysma, Supraclavicular Nerves, Inferior belly of omohyoid, Transverse Cervical Artery.

They then pass deep to the clavicle and suprascapular vessels on the way into the axilla

544
Q

Why is facial vein more at risk than facial artery in submandibular gland surgery?

A

The facial vein is more superficial a structure - it descends on the surface of the mandible and then superficial to the gland itself.

The facial artery ascends from deep to the artery. then overlies the mandible

545
Q

Branches of the mandibular nerve

A

Auriculotemporal

Lingual

Inferior Alveolar

Nerve to mylohoid

Mental

546
Q

What are the subtriangles of teh anterior neck triangle?

A

Submandibular (Digastric) - Gland, Nodes, Facial A+V, CNXII

Digastric Muscle

Muscular - Strap Muscles, EJV

Omohyoid Muscle (Anterior - Mylohyoid(CN V3), Posterior - Facial)

Carotid - Sheath, Ansa Cervicalis

547
Q

List Some Cardiac Inotropes

A

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

Adrenaline

Noradrenaline

Dopamine

Dobutamine

548
Q

Bladder cancer Treatment

A

Superficial - TURBT

Superficial but high grade/risk, recurrence - intravesical chemotherapy

>T2 - radical cystectomy

549
Q

Lymphatic Drainage of:

Scrotum

Testes

Prostate

A

Scrotum - Inguinal

Testes - Para- Aortic

Prostate - Internal Iliac

550
Q

Ligaments of the Liver

A

Ligamentum Teres

Remnant umbilical vein - joins left portal vein branch in porta hepatis

Ligamentum Venosum (Posterior)

Remnant of ductus venosus -

Falciform Ligament

Double peritoneal fold from umbilicus to anterior hepatic surface where divides into coronary and left triangular ligaments

551
Q

Pelvic Floor Muscles

Floor

Lateral Wall

Where is the perineal body

A

Pelvic Floor:

Floor - Levator Ani (Pudendal Nerve - Pubococcyg., iliococcyg, puborectalis), Coccygeus

Lateral Wall - Piriformis + Obturator Internus

The perineal body is inbetween the urogenital and rectal hiatus

552
Q

Anatomical boundaires of the perinuem

A

Diamond shaped structure

Anteriorly - Pubic Symphysis

Posteriorly - Tip of coccyx

Laterally - inferior pubic rami, inferior ischial rami and sacrotuberous ligament

553
Q

Muscles of the perineal body

A

Levator Ani

Bulbospongiosus

Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles

external anal sphincter

external urethral sphincter

554
Q

Nerves associated with pharyngeal arches

A

I - Trigeminal

II - Facial

III - Glossopharyngeal

IV - Vagus

VI - Vagus + RLN

555
Q
A
556
Q

Which abdominal viscera are retroperitoneal?

A

Adrenals, Kidneys, Ureters

Aorta + IVC

Rectum

Duodenum ( except proximal 2cm ), oesopahgus, pancreas

Colon - not transverse or sigmoid

557
Q

Which muscles cross the internal jugular vein?

A

Omohyoid

Sternocleidomastoideus

558
Q

Lymph Drainage of the female urethra

A

Internal Iliac Node (Whole length of the urethra)

559
Q

Branches of thoracoacromial artery

A

Pectoral - Breast and Pectorals

Acromial - Deltoid and joint capsule

Clavicular - sternoclavicular joint

Deltoid - travels between pec major and deltoid in deltopectoral groove

560
Q
A
561
Q

Structures passing behind the medial malleolus:

Anterior to Posterior

A

Anterior :

Tibialis Posterior

Flexor Digitorum Lonugs

Posterior Tibial Vein

Posterior Tibial Artery

Nerve

Flexor Hallucis Longus

562
Q
A
563
Q

Treatments for extravasation injury

Doxirubicin

Contrast media, TPN, Vinca Alkaloids

Vinca Alkaloids ALone

A

Doxirubicin - COld Compress

Contrast media, TPN, Vinca Alkaloids - Hyaluridonase

Vinca Alkaloids ALone - Warm Compress

564
Q

Breast Treatment

When to use chemo

When to use radio

A

Chemo:

Downstaging

>Grade 3 Lesions

Axillary node Disease

Radio:

WLE

Post Mastectomy - Large lesion, High Grade Lesion, vascular invasion

565
Q

What is in the middle mediastinum (5)

A

Pericardium

Heart

Aortic Root

Arch of azygos vein

Primary bronchi

566
Q

Defect in osteopetrosis

A

Osteoclast function impaired

  • So defective bone resorption
567
Q

Cardiac Surgery Qs

Incisions

Cardiopulmonary bypass - What is cannulated

How much heparin

Conduits for bypass

A

Incisions - Midline sternotomy/ Left Submammary Incision

Cannulated - Aortic Roots + Right Atrium

Heparin - 30,000 iU of unfractionated

Bypass Conduits-

Internal mammary, Radial, Long saphenous

568
Q

Borders of the triangular interval

Content

A

Medial - Long head of triceps

Lateral - Shaft of humerus

Superiorly - Teres major

Transmits the radial nerve from the axilla into the arm

569
Q

HIV Testing: Window for positivity

p24 antigen

Antibody

A

p24 antigen : 3-4 weeks

Antibody: 4-6 weeks

570
Q

Glasgow Pancreas Score

A

P - PaO2 <8

A - Age >55

N - Neutrophils >15

C - Calcium <2.0

R - enal Urea >10

E - Enzymes LDH Raised / AST raised

A - ALbumin >32

S - Hyperglycaemic

571
Q

Stucturs in the right atriu

A

Musculi Pectinati

Crista Terminalis

Opening of coronary sinus

Fossa Ovalis

572
Q

Artery Locations:

Anterior Tibial

Posterior Tibial

Peroneal

A

Anterior TIbial - In the anterior compartment (very close to deep peroneal nerve)

Posterior Tibial - In the deep posterior compartment - more medial

Peroneal - In the deep posterior compartment - more lateral

Both of these are very close to the fibula + tibial nerve (their veins are either side of the tibial nerve)

573
Q

Difference histologically between necrosis apoptosis

A

Necrosis:

Cell Membrane Problems

Lysosomes

Cellular Swelling

Inflammation

Apoptosis:

Fragments of nucleus

No inflammation

Cell Membrane Intact

No lysosomes

574
Q

Structures posterior to medial malleolus:

Anterior to posterior

A

Tom Dick and Very Nervous Harry

Tibialis Posterior

Flexor Digitorum Profundus

Tibial Artery and Vein

Tibial Nerve ( supplies all intrinsic foot apart from Extensor hallucis Longus - Common peroneal Nerve)

Flexor Hallucis Longus

575
Q

Borders of the tympanic cavity

A

Lateral - Tympanic membrane

Medial - Bulge formed by facial nerve/ lateral wall of inner ear

Roof - Temporal bone

Floor - Temporal Bone (known as jugular wall) related to internal jugular

Anterior Wall - bony plate. auditory tube + tensor tympani. related to ICA

Posterior wall - mastoid wall borders the cavity from mastoid air cells. Mastoid antrum is a connection the air cells

576
Q

Borders of the antecubital fossa

Where does the brachial artery bifurcate

Where does the ulnar artery lie in relation nerve

A

Lateral - Brachioradialis

Medially - Pronator Teres

Superiorly - Line between the humeral condyles

Floor - Supinator + Brachialis

Contents - Medial to lateral - bicept tendon -> brachial artery -> median nerve

Brachial artery bifurcates - radial head

Ulnar artery is lateral to ulnar nerve

577
Q

Layers of the SCALP?

A

Skin

Dense Connective Tissue

Epicranial APoneurosis

Loose Areolar Tissue ( Emissary Veins here)

Periosteum

578
Q

Pterygopalatine Fossa

Borders

Contents

A

Borders:
Anterior
- Posterior wall of maxillary sinus

Posterior - Sphenoid bone (pterygoid process)

inferior - palatine bone and canal

Superior - inferior orbital fissue

medial - perpendicular plate of palatine bone

lateral - pterygomaxillary fissure

Contents:

Maxillary Nerve (Foramen Rotundum opens here)

Maxillary artery

Pterygopalatine ganglion (Greater petrosal nerve of VII)

579
Q

Infratemporal Fossa

Borders

Contents

A

Borders:

Lateral - Mandible condyle/ramus

medial - lateral pterygoid plate, palatine + superior constrictor muscles

anterior - posterior body of maxillary sinus

posterior - carotid sheath

roof - sphenoid wing

floor - medial pterygoid

contents

related to ovale and spinosum

medial and lateral pterygoids

mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, chorda tympani,

maxillary artery + vein

Middle Meningeal vein (Artery is associated with the roof)

580
Q

vertebral Column

Arches-

Pedicles -

Lamina -

Spinous Processes -

Rib articulations

A

Arches - exend posteriorly from the body to create the vertebral foramen through which spinal cord is transmitted

Pedicles - Body to transverse process

Lamina - transverse to spinous process

SPinous Processes - Posterior most structure in the vertebrae. Cervical are bifid

Rib -

Superior + inferior demi facet - either side of vertebral body articulates with inferior/superior rib

Costal facet of transverse spinous process - articulates with rib corresponding to that vertebrae

581
Q

Which back muscles are involved in rotating the head?

Of the deep spinal muscles:

What are the intermediate and deep ones

A

Splenius Capitis + Cervicis

Intermediate : Medial to lateral

Spinalis, Longissimus, Iliocostalis

Deep:

Multifidus + Semispinalis

582
Q

Forearm Compartments

A

Anterior Superficial:

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Palmaris Longus (median nerve deep to this near wrist)

Flexor carpi Radialis

Pronator Teres

Anterior Intermediate:

Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Anterior Deep:

Flexor Digitorum Profundus, Flexor Pollicis Longus, Pronator Quadratus

Posterior Superficial:

Brachioradialis

Extensor Carpi Radialis longus + brevis

Extensor Digitorum

Extensor Digiti Minimi

Extensor carpi ulnaris

Anconeus

Posterior Deep:

Supinator

Abductor Pollcis Longus

Extensor Pollicis Longus + Brevis

Extensor indicis proprius

583
Q

Which flexor of the arm is innervated atypically?

A

Brachioradialis - innervated by the radial nerve

584
Q

Nerves of lumbar plexus (6)

A

Lumbar Plexus : L1-L4

IlioHypogastric - L1. Internal Oblique + Transversus Abdom.

Ilioinguinal - L1. Internal Ob + Transvers. Abd. Enters inguinal canal by piercing through the internal oblique

Genitofemoral - L1-L2. Genital Branch - Cremaster Musc.

Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of Thigh - L2-L3

Obturator Nerve- L2-L4. Obt. Extern, Adduct Long + Mag + Brev. (sometimes pectineus) + Gracilis

Femoral Nerve - L2-L4. Quad Femor. Vastus Musc. Sartorius. Pectineus. Iliacus

585
Q

Branches of thyrocervical trunk

A

Inferior Thyroid

Suprascapular

Transverse Cervical

The subscapular artery from the axillary artery (3rd part) anastamoses with the suprascapular + transverse cervical

586
Q

Branches of the costocervical trunk

A

superficial intercostal

deep cervical

587
Q

What happens to the dorsal scapular artery?

A

Dorsal Scapular Artery:

Joing the superficial cervical artery (Thyrocervical Trunk and becomes:

Transverse Cervical This has superficial and deep branches

588
Q
A
589
Q

Branches of the sacral plexus

A

S1-S4 (sciatic receives lumbar roots L4-L5)

Superior Gluteal Nerve - L4, L5, S1 Glut Med+ Min. TFL

Inferior Gluteal Nerve - L5 S1 S2. GLut Max

Sciatic Nerve - L4 - S3. Posterior thigh muscles + Part of aductor magnus. All muscles of lower leg via common peroneal + tibial branches

Posterior Cutaneous nerve of the thigh - S1 - S3

Pudendal Nerve - S2-S4. External urethral + anal sphincter. Levator Ani + perineal muscles

Nerve to piriformis

Nerve to quadrator femoris

Nerve to obturator internus

590
Q

Piriformis

A

Nerve - Nerve to piriformis

S2-S4 to Lesser trochanter

591
Q

What do the following anastamose with + Signficance:

Inferior Thyroid Artery

Deep Cervical Artery

Dorsal Scapular Artery

A

Inferior Thyroid Artery

Anastamoses with the superior thyroid artery –> This is significant in Subclavian Steal as retrograde flow happens through this link

Deep Cervical Artery

Descending branch of occipital artery –> Again another site of collateralisation in Subclavian Steal

Dorsal Scapular Artery

Circumflex Scapula Artery (from subscapular artery) + Suprascapular artery –> Forms the scapular anastamosis.