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G450 > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

When is the wind shear warning active?

A
  • on takeoff - ground to 1500’
  • on landing - 1500’ to 10’ agl
  • on missed approach - up to 1500’
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2
Q

When is RNP in terminal?

A
  • 30 miles from departure or destination
  • at the first fix of a STAR
  • until the last fix of a SID
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3
Q

When does warning inhibit function?

A
  • on take-off up to 400 agl
  • on landing until it is deselected
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4
Q

When should you check the engine oil.

A
  • 5 to 30 minutes after shutdown

- not to exceed 14 hours of cumulative flight time between checks

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5
Q

Are the auto-throttles available in ALT control mode?

A

No

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6
Q

What does a red “PYLON HOT” CAS message mean?

A

Bleed air leak in the pylon. Temp above 250°C

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7
Q

Engine Ice shedding procedure

A
  • Power to idle for 5 seconds then 85% LP for 2 seconds

1 engine at a time

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8
Q

The FADEC keeps the engine on High Idle for landing for _____ seconds.

Why?

A
  • 5 seconds

Facilitate T/R’s on touchdown

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9
Q

Amber CAS “L-R Wing Hot” means?

A

Duct temp > 180°C

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10
Q

Amber CAS “L-R Wing Temp Low” means?

A

Duct temp < 100°C

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11
Q

Potable water tank capacity is __ US gallons.

A

30 US Gallons

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12
Q

What is required for in-flight IRS alignment?

How can you make in-flight alignment go faster?

A
  • GPS (only 1 is needed)

- Make turns, accelerate, and decelerate

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13
Q

Why are some CB’s red and others black?

A
  • Red CB’s - Essential

- Black CB’s - Non-essential

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14
Q

What is the engine airstart procedure and altitude/speed limitations?

A
  • Windmilling start
  • Speeds > 250 knots
  • Maximum altitude for airstart is 25,000’
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15
Q

What conditions must exist for the activation of the automatic emergency decent mode (EDM)?

A
  • Aircraft altitude at or > 40,000’
  • Auto-pilot engaged
  • Red CAS message “Cabin Pressure Low”
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16
Q

Warning inhibit switch will inhibit all aural tones associated with CAS messages except:

A
  • Red CAS messages
  • Coupled Data Invalid (Lateral or Vertical)
  • CAT II Invalid
  • LPV Invalid
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17
Q

What are the 2 idle settings and when are they active?

A
  • Low idle - Flaps < 22°
  • High idle - Flaps > 22°
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18
Q

What function does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve provide (PRV)?

A
  1. Positive differential pressure relief
  2. Negative differential pressure relief
  3. Cabin re-pressurization rate limiting
  4. Ground pressurization limiting
  5. Opens fully 1 minute after WOW (landing)
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19
Q

What is the emergency landing gear nitrogen blowdown bottle pressure?

A

3100 psi @ 70°F

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20
Q

What are the 2 types of windshear warnings?

A
  • Caution (Amber) - increasing performance
  • Warning (Red) - decreasing performance
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21
Q

What is the normal cabin differential pressure at FL450?

A

9.64 psi

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22
Q

What does the blue CAS message “Start Switch Config” mean?

A

Both Start and Crank master switches selected

*FADEC will not allow engine start

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23
Q

If the nose wheel steering fails, the rudder pedals go from ___° NWS authority to ___° NWS authority.

A

7° to 16°

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24
Q

The combined WOW gets its information from which WOW switches?

A

Main wheel switches

*If 1 main switch is “Air” combined is “Air”

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25
Q

The Bleed Air Augmentatin valve (BAAV) operates above ______ feet.

A

35,000 feet

  • Puts 400°C air into the APU inlet
  • Delays the start for 15 seconds
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26
Q

Where can the fuel quantity can be found with only E-Batts?

A

MCDU #1

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27
Q

Can you use the auto-pilot for a single engine approach?

A

Yes

But, auto-pilot is not authorized for a single engine go-around

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28
Q

How high must an obstacle be in order to appear on the IMap?

A

1000’ agl

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29
Q

TCAS should be set to _____ for single engine ops.

A

TA only

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30
Q

When VGP mode is used, vertical guidance will ignore: ?

A

Altitude pre-selector

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31
Q

What is RNP for Approach, Terminal, and Enroute?

A

Approach 0.3
Terminal 1.0
Enroute 2.0

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32
Q

Which DU can you dispatch without?

A

DU #3

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33
Q

The bleed air controller (BAC) will try to maintain a wing leading edge temperature of _____°F.

A

130°F

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34
Q

The Engine Fire Handle shuts off what associated side items?

A

Fuel
Hydraulics
Electrics

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35
Q

What are the 4 ways to open the Bleed Air Isolation Valve?

A
  1. Start Master
  2. Crank Master
  3. APU bleed air selected on
  4. Isolation valve selected on
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36
Q

What is the cabin temp range in Auto?

What is the temp range in Manual?

A
  • Auto 60°F - 90°F

Manual 35°F - 230°F

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37
Q

When may the auto-throttles be used?

A

AT’s are approved for use from takeoff to landing

*Prohibited for use during single engine approaches and single engine go-arounds.

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38
Q

Nose wheel steering starts reducing authority to the tiller to avoid over-steering at ____ knots.

A

18 knots

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39
Q

When is the Ground Service bus light on?

A

Anytime the ground service bus is powered by anything but the right main DC bus.

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40
Q

The Glideslope cancel switch on the Master Warning Panel will cancel glideslope alerts when activated below ______?

When does it reset?

A
  • 2000’ agl

Descend below 30’ agl or climb above 2000’ agl.

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41
Q

How long after APU start will the APU Load Control Valve allow APU bleed air for engine start and bleed air?

A

90 seconds once the APU has reached 95%rpm

*No delay time during air starts

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42
Q

When is AGM reversion available?

A

On the ground below 60 knots

*Above 60 knots the DU’s revert automatically.

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43
Q

Auto-throttles stay in Hold mode up to ____ .

A

400’ agl

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44
Q

What items are boxed by default on the Map?

A

Terrain
Obstacles
Traffic
Weather

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45
Q

The O2 relief value triggers at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ °F.

A

90 psi
2600 psi
225° F

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46
Q

Standard auto cabin rate of change?

A

500 fpm climbing

300 fpm descending

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47
Q

What is the temp scale limit on the engine start page before and after start?

A

800° before start

1000° after start

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48
Q

When is TOGA available?

A

Below 16,500’ MSL and below 2000’ agl

and/or Airspeed < 200 knots

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49
Q

Where does the SFD (Stand-by Flight Director) get it’s information?

A
  • Heading info - Magnetometer in the tail
  • Static info - static ports on each side of aircraft
  • Pitot info- pitot tube on L side of aircraft
  • Nav info - Nav #1
  • Attitude info - Internal AHRS
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50
Q

The Stall Barrier System is activated at what AOA?

A

0.70 - PLI
0.85 - Stick Shaker
1.0 - Stick Pusher

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51
Q

How do you turn on the radar on the ground?

A

Push “STAB” 4 times in 3 seconds

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52
Q

Which 5 lights do not test during the warning light test?

What else does it test?

A
  • 2 lights in Engine Fire Handles, 2 lights in Engine Fuel Control Switches, 1 passenger Oxygen green light
  • Cabin rate to full deflection
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53
Q

The APU is intended for use in flight for what emergency situations?

A
  • Dual engine flame out
  • Single engine failure
  • Dual generator failure
  • Single generator failure
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54
Q

GPWS Override inhibits all call outs except ________

A

Windsheer (Mode 7)

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55
Q

What does “ON BATT” on the IRS switch mean?

A

The IRS is not on its primary power source.

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56
Q

The Flight Director command bar for takeoff is at _____ pitch angle.

A
  • 2 Engine V2 + 10 nose up
  • 1 Engine V2 to V2 + 10 nose up
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57
Q

The Aileron Hardover Protection System (HOPS) shuts off hydraulic power to what surfaces?

A

Both aileron actuators and both spoiler actuators even if only on actuator sensed a hardover

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58
Q

The nose WOW switch information is used by what system?

A

Nose wheel steering

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59
Q

What does the FQSC do?

(Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner)

A
  • Balances fuel during pressure refueling.

- If a 500 lb imbalance is sensed, it shuts off fuel to the heavy wing until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.

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60
Q

“L-R Fuel Level Low” Amber CAS means?

A

Less than 650 lbs of fuel in the Hopper Tank

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61
Q

How much fuel does each hopper tank hold?

A

190 gallons / 1283 lbs

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62
Q

External AC power is capable of powering what buses?

A

All buses (Main batteries will also be charged)

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63
Q

How long will the batteries power the L and R Essential DC buses after 2 APU start attempts?

A

30 minutes

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64
Q

How many Ground Service Bus switches are there, and where are they located?

A
  • 3 switches

- Forward switch panel, tail compartment , system monitor test panel

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65
Q

What controls the No Break Power Transfer system?

A

BPCU - Bus Power Control Unit

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66
Q

APU generator will come on line on start up at _________.

A

95% after 4 seconds

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67
Q

All automatic power transfers will be NBPT’s except between _______ and _______.

A

External AC power and APU generator

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68
Q

Main batteries switches illuminate ON when?

A
  • Main batteries are powering the essential DC buses
  • APU start
  • Aux pump is running
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69
Q

With the main batteries on, what is a good way to check to E-Invertor?

A

Pressurization Panel

- 2 green lights (Flight/Land)

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70
Q

What is the dead bus logic for the AUX TRU?

A

Left before Right
Essential before Main

71
Q

What are the battery charger specs in charge mode and TRU mode?

A
  • Charge mode - 38 amps, up to 32.2 volts, drops to 28.7 volts
  • TRU mode - 40 amps, 28.7 volts
72
Q

What bus charges the E-Batts?

A

Standby AC bus

73
Q

What is powered by the avionics E-Batts?

A
  1. 2 clocks
  2. SFD(Standby Flight Display)
  3. EBDI
  4. Gear handle and indicator lights
  5. MCDU 1 (Standby engine instruments)
  6. MCDU 3 (Standby radio tuning)
  7. Captain’s audio panel
74
Q

How many power sources does each MAU have?How many CB’s?

A
  • 4 sources - 4 CB’s
    Each has a primary and secondary
    1A has 2 and 1B has 2
75
Q

What will cause a Break Power Transfer?

A
  • Engine fail
  • Generator fail
  • Power transfer between APU generator and an AC power cart
76
Q

What 2 sources can power ESS DC buses simultaneously?

A
  • L/R Batteries

- Aux TRU (when powered by the HMG)

77
Q

What are the E-Batt specs?

A

24 volt
9 amp
lead-acid

78
Q

What are the E-Inverter specs?

A

1 kva
115 volts AC
400Hz
Phase A only

79
Q

What is the normal AC power source for the Aux TRU and ESS AC bus?

A

Left Main AC bus

Ess AC bus pictured on the AC Synoptic page
80
Q

What are the power sources for each DU?

A

DU 1 - L-Ess DC
DU 2 - L-Main DC
DU 3 - R-Main DC
DU 4 - R-Ess DC

81
Q

What indicates an AGM failure?

A

Red “X” on the DU

82
Q

What is the power source for the STBY instruments?

83
Q

When will the E-Batts activate when the system is armed?

A

Any time either L or R Ess DC bus drops below 20 volts

84
Q

What are the specs of the IDG’s (Integrated Drive Generators).

A 
40 kVa 
115 volts
400 HZ
3 phase AC
*Limited to 45% when outside temps are greater than 110°F/43°C
85
Q

How many E-Batts are there?

A

4 total - 2 Avionics and 2 Lighting

86
Q

The main aircraft batteries are rated at ____v/____amp/hours.

A

24 volt / 45 amp/hours

87
Q

What are the power sources for the fuel pumps?

A
  • L Main / L Ess DC
  • R Main / R Ess DC
  • L Aux / L Main DC
  • R Aux / R Main DC
88
Q

Where does the EBDI get its information from?

A
  • Heading info - IRU 1, IRU 2, SDF
  • Nav info - NAV 1, NAV 2
89
Q

Service the left hydraulic system to _____ gallons.

Right system?

A

Left - 2.8 Gallons
Right - 0.7 Gallons

90
Q

Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?

A

Opposite side fuel hopper tank

91
Q

When armed, what will cause the Aux hydraulic pump to turn on automatically

A
  • Brake pedal depressed > 10° with no other source of power to the brakes
92
Q

HMG provides what type of electrical power?

A

5 kVa, 400Hz AC

93
Q

Hydraulic accumulators are pre-charged to _____ psi.

94
Q

Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems?

A
  • L hydraulic system
  • R hydraulic system via the PTU
  • Aux hydraulic system
95
Q

What conditions will prevent automatic PTU operation when the PTU is armed?

A
  • L hydraulic system quantity low
  • R hydraulic system fluid temp indicating high (>104°C)
96
Q

What will cause the PTU to turn on automatically when it is armed?

A

-L system pressure drops below 1500 psi

97
Q

The engine driven hydraulic pump puts out ____ psi @ ____ gallons per minute.

A

3000 psi 25 gallons per minute

98
Q

What items are lost if you lose the right hydraulic system pressure?

A
  • R Thrust Reverser
  • Redundant hydraulics to the flight controls
99
Q

What powers the FADEC?

A
  • Below 35% HP - L/R Ess DC buses
  • Above 35% HP - dedicated generator
100
Q

What does FADEC stand for?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

101
Q

Engine Specs

A

BMW / Rolls Toyce Tay 611-8C medium bypass ratio turbofan rated at 13,850 lbs of takeoff thrust at sea level, standard day

102
Q

Where does the cowl heat get it’s bleed air from?

A
  • Own side 7th stage bleed port
103
Q

—Pressurization System—
How many modes?
How many channels?
How do you switch channels?

A
  • 3 Modes (Auto, Semi, and Manual)
  • 2 Channels
  • Manual to Auto switches channels
104
Q

How many power sources does the outflow valve have?

A
  • 3 power sources

- 2 AC, 1 DC

105
Q

Which AC pack shuts off automatically with Master Crank or Start?
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with individual engine start switch?

A

Right AC pack - Start or Crank Master

Left AC pack - Engine (left or right) start switch

106
Q

If the APU is started in the air, what mode will it be in?

A

Essential mode

107
Q

The APU is supplied fuel from _____?

A

Left wing fuel hopper tank using the left main fuel pump

108
Q

What items should be checked on the APU fire test?

A
  • 2 overhead lights
  • 4 Master caution and warning lights
  • 2 CAS messages
109
Q

Will the APU shut down automatically upon detection of a fire?

110
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

About 190 PPH

111
Q

Which bottle is the APU fire bottle?

112
Q

What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU enclosure?

A

Fuel is shut off at the APU fuel control and at the fuel tank

113
Q

What are the “Cabin Pressure Low” CAS message trips points?

A
  • 8000’ when LFE < 7500’
  • 10,000’ when 7500’ < LFE < 9500’
  • 14,500’ when LFE > 9500’
  • 10,000’ when in Manual mode
114
Q

The left hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:

A
  • Flight controls
  • Flight spoilers
  • Ground spoilers
  • Yaw damper
  • Stall barrier
  • Landing gear
  • Flaps
  • Normal brakes
  • Nose wheel steering
  • HMG- Ground spoiler “pop-up signal”
  • Left thrust reverser
115
Q

The right hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid for:

A
  • Ailerons
  • Rudder
  • Stall barrier
  • Ground Spoilers
  • PTU Motor
  • Elevators
  • Flight Spoilers
  • Yaw Damper
  • Right T/R
116
Q

The Aux hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:

A
  • Flaps
  • Rudder / Yaw damper (550)
  • Nosewheel steering (550)
  • Brakes- Parking / Emergency brakes
  • Main cabin door
  • Ground spoiler “pop-up signal” (G550)
  • Landing gear and doors (Ground only)
117
Q

When do the battery chargers go into TR mode?

A
  • All 3 conditions met -
    1. L and R Main AC buses are powered
    2. L and R Main battery switches on
    3. Essential buses TR’s failed or Aux pump and APU start
118
Q

HMG provides AC power to:

A

Aux TRU and standby AC buses

119
Q

What will occur with the activation of the EDM?

A
  1. Speed target to Vmo/Mmo
  2. Altitude pre-select to 15,000’
  3. 90° left turn set in heading hold
  4. AT power to idle
  5. Descent at Vmo/Mmo to 15,000’
  6. At 15,000’ speed target changes to 250KCAS
  7. AT maintains 250 KCAS
120
Q

Ground service bus is powered by ______ ?Ground:Air:

A 
Ground: 
- R Main DC bus (when avail.)             
- R battery or from Ext DC power 
Air: 
- R Main DC bus
121
Q

???What are the 12th stage bleed air set points. (on triggers to supplement 7th stage air)

A

???- Auto opens to maintain 14 psi

  • Normally regulates to 24 psi
  • 35 psi minimum on single pack ops.
  • Wing anti-ice selected on
122
Q

Name the causes for a red CAS “AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION” message.

A
  • Flap Handle
  • Parking/Emer brake handle
  • Speed Brake
  • T/R’s
  • Elevator trim
  • GPWS/GRN SPLR/FLAP ORIDE switch
  • Gear Handle
123
Q

What are the needed actions for a start valve failure to close?

A
  1. Start Master - Press/light out
  2. L/R engine bleeds - Off
  3. APU bleed air - Off
  4. Wait 30 seconds for bleed air to stabilize
  5. Affected engine - Fuel Off- Amber flashing “SVO” icon next to ground idle HP- Start valve should close by 47% H
124
Q

Altitude Trend Vector shows where altitude will be in _____ seconds at the current rate of climb or rate of descent.

125
Q

What is the CAS message for an Elevator HOPS activation?

A

Amber “ELEVATOR HYDRAULICS OFF”

126
Q
  • What does the “Lateral Control” switch do?

- Is there a CAS message when it is selected?

A
  • Removes all hydraulic power from the spoiler system

- Amber CAS “Spoilers Hydraulics Off”

127
Q
  • What does the EMER STAB switch do?

- What is it’s associated CAS message?

A
  • Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled by movement of the electric pitch trim switches when EMER STAB is selected to ARM.
  • Amber “Emergency Stabilizer On A-B “ CAS message
128
Q

When the “RAD ALT” Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS aural call-outs except …?

A

BANK ANGLE and MINIMUMS

129
Q

When the “GPWS” Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS alerts except …?

130
Q

What is the power source for the Emergency Exit Lights?

A

Emergency Batteries

131
Q

What is the G450 Maximum Useable Fuel Weight?

A

29,500 lbs

132
Q

How many lights / items appear during an APU fire test?

A

-9 total
>2 overhead
>4 master warning/caution panel
>1 red cas, 1 amber cas
Bell on ground

133
Q

Which exterior power source has priority?AC or DC?

134
Q

E-Batts (when armed) will activate when:?

A

An ESS DC bus drops below 20 volts

135
Q

How many Fault Warning Computers (FWC) are installed on the G450?

136
Q

When selected for takeoff, the INHIBIT function is active up to what altitude?

A

400 feet AGL

137
Q

What does ON BATT in the IRS switch mean?

A
  • The IRS is NOT using its primary electrical power source and is being powered by the Emergency Battery system.
138
Q

How many GPS units are on the G450?

139
Q

How many MAU’s are installed?

How many power sources for each MAU?

A

3 MAU’s

4 Power sources each

140
Q

If DU2 and DU3 are failed, how do you change DU4 to a MAP display?

A
  • Push 2/3 button for 3 seconds on either Display Controller
  • Push MAP button on copilot Display Controller
141
Q

What value should be lower for normal RNP operation, RNP or EPU?

A

Epu should always be lower than rnp for normal operations

142
Q

When will the APPROACH label appear on the HSI during FMS operation?

A

2 NM prior to the Final Approach Fix (FAF)

143
Q

What items are selected for display by default on power up on MAP?

A
  • TERRAIN
  • TRAFFIC
  • WEATHER RADAR
  • OBSTACLES
144
Q

With auto throttles engaged on takeoff, HOLD on the PFD appears at what speed?

HOLD memains engaged until what altitude on takeoff?

A

60 knots

400 feet

145
Q

When will auto speeds for performance disappear after takeoff?

A
  • When the flap position is changed or a new vertical mode (FLCH, VNAV) is selected
146
Q

If the HEADING mode is selected on the Guidance Panel. what annunciation will appear on the bottom of the VSD?

A
  • TRACK- Terrain display is located under the TRACK LINE
147
Q

What is the range of operation of the RADAR ALTIMETER?

A

-20 to 2500 feet AGL

148
Q

At what RADAR ALTITUDE will the GROUND REFERENCE TAPE appear on the PFD altimeter?

A

600 feet AGL

149
Q

What is the power logic for auto throttles operation when using FLCH with auto throttles engaged?

A
  • If next altitude is > 6000 feet, auto throttles use CLB EPR
  • If next altitude is < 6000 feet, auto throttles use less than CLB EPR
150
Q

Below what altitude will the TCAS system operate in TA mode only?

151
Q

When is the WINDSHEAR warning system active?

A
  • On Takeoff from Ground to 1,500 feet AGL
  • On Approach from 1,500 feet AGL to 10 feet AGL
  • On Missed Approach to 1,500 feet AGL
152
Q

What GPWS warnings are INHIBITED with the GPWS ORDE switch on the Master Warning Panel?

A

All EGPWS audio warnings except WINDSHEAR

153
Q

What is inhibited with the RAD ALT switch on the Master Warning Panel?

A

RADIO ALTITUDE audio callouts

154
Q

What airport limitations require selection of the TERRAIN INHIBIT button?

A
  • Within 15 NM of a landing airport when:
    >The airport has no published instrument approach
    >The longest runway is less than 3,500 ft
    >The airport is not in the database
    >QFE procedures are used for approach and landing
155
Q

What is the heading source for the SFD?

A

Magnetometer

156
Q

What are the heading sources for the EBDI?

What NAV radios send NAV information to the EBDI?

A
  • Heading > IRS1,IRS2,SFD STBY HDG
  • NAV > NAV 1 and 2, ADF 1 and 2
157
Q

What are the weather radar ground operating limitations?

A
  • Not within 49 feet of personal
  • DO NOT operate when refueling
  • DO NOT operate when within 300 feet of other refueling operations
158
Q

How do you activate the weather radar on the ground?

A

Press the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds

159
Q

The HMG provides:

A
  • AC power to the AUX TRU and Standby AC Buses
  • Rated at 5 KVA, 115 volt 400 HZ, 3 Phase AC
  • It is powered by the left hydraulic system
160
Q

What is the normal AC power source for the AUX TRU and ESS AC Bus?

A

L Main AC Bus

161
Q

What is the purpose of the E INVERTER?

A

Provides AC power to the ESS AC bus (if the bus loses power)

162
Q

If you lose L MAIN AC power, what happens automatically?

A
  • AUX TRU transfers to R MAIN AC bus and powers L ESS DC bus
  • ESS AC bus tranfers to R MAIN AC bus
163
Q

What 2 sources can power the ESS DC bus simultaneously?

A
  • L/R MAIN Batteries
  • AUX TRU (when powered by the HMG)
164
Q

What is the function of BUS TIE ISLN SWITCH?

A
  • Allows you to isolate buses
  • Allows alternate power sources to power failed bus side
165
Q

What will turn of the Ground Service Bus automatically?

A
  • Main cabin door closed
  • Forward external switch panel access door closed
  • Tail compartment door closed
  • NOTE: All doors must be closed for automatic shutoff
166
Q

When the aircraft operates on emergency batteries the crew can only tune:

A
  • Comm 1
  • Nav 1
  • ATC 1 on MCDU 3
167
Q

After APU start and selecting the APU Bleed Air, when does the Crossbleed Isolation Valve automatically open?

A

90 seconds after 95% RPM

168
Q

What is the difference between Essential and Non Essential APU modes?

A
  • Essential - Air
  • Non Essential - Ground
  • Not all AUTO shutdowns are active in Essential Mode
169
Q

The APU is capable of driving the generator when it has reached:

A

95% RPM for at least 4 seconds

170
Q

If the APU is started in the air, what mode is the APU in?How long will it remain in that mode after landing?

A
  • Essential Mode

- 15 Minutes

171
Q

What does APU ESSENTIAL CAS message mean?

A

APU is running while in flight, and a fault is detected which normally would cause APU to shut down if not in ESSENTIAL mode

172
Q

What are the APU starter limitations?

A
  • 3 start attempts
  • 1 hour cool down
  • *For DC exteral starts a 15 minute cool down is required between start attempts
173
Q

APU generator loading is limited to __% between altitudes of _____feet and _____ feet at speeds greater than __ Mach.

A

85% between altitudes of 30,000 feet and 37,000 feet and speeds greater than 0.85 Mach

174
Q

FADEC has how many power channels?

G450 (2 decks)

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