Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Joshua's Paeds > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What would you expect to see on histology of a wilms tumour?

A

small round blue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a condyloma

A

wart caused by HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a hydrocele form between?

A

between the tunica vaginalis layers - comes from a remnant of the processus vaginalis from the peritoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how do you remember vaccines

A

4 2 3 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would be seen on CT/MRI of tuberous sclerosis

A

tubers - calcified subependymal nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you remember tuberous sclerosis signs?

A 
A SHLEAF spots
S hagreen patches
H eart rhabdomyosarcoma
L ung hamartoma
E pilepsy - due to calcifies subependymal nodules
A ngiomyolipoma in kidneys
F acial angiofibroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What other conditions is neurofibromatosis assocaited with

A

MEN1 and 2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis

A 
6 or more cafe au lait by puberty greater than 5mm (tend to grow in puberty so must be over 15mm then )
more than one neurofibroma
axillary feckles
optic glioma
lisch nodule
sphenoid dysplasia
1st degree relative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between a medical and a surgical 3rd nerve pasly

A

Occulomotor nerve. blood supply limitation affects the inner motor supply first before the outer parasympathetic fibres meaning the pupil is still able to constrict - this is a medical palsy

When there is pressure from something compressing it - the parasympathetic nerves are blocked too and so the pupil is blown.and this may also cause pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the guidelines for status epilepticus

A

Midazolam0.5mg/kg/benzo 0.1mg/kg @5mins
Benzo@15mins - 0.1mg/kg IV
phenytoin infusion @25mins 20mg/kg over 20 mins (or phenobarbitol if on phenytoin 20mg/kg over 5 mins)
rapid sequence induction @45mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How would iron overdose present

A

initially vomiting and diarhoea due to gastric irritation and then with haematemeis and malaena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is Hep A a notifiable disease?

A

yes - you should do your best to not admit these patients due to risk of spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a meckels diverticulum

A

an ilael remnant of the embryological vitellointestinal duct which contains gastric mucosa. there is increased risk of ulceration and perf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the first presentation of a migraine in childrren?

A

abdominal pain - it is usually assocaited with a strong family history and is a diagnosis of exclusion - there would be no blood.
It often occurs with a headacahe, and maybe vomiting with a pale face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is toddler diarrhoea

A

Sometimes loose and explosive, other times well formed, most common cause in preschool children around the time of potty training. undigested food is common.

developmental delay of intestinal motility. usually grow out of the diarrhoea by 5 years of age however it can severely delay continence

making suer the diet contains more fat and fibre can help slow transit time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is the classic presentation of coeliac

A

8-24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is acrodermatitis enteropathica

A

associated with zinc malabsorption - is chill when you give them zinc
moist erythematous plaques often symetrical on the buttock regions and are on face too.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does malrotation usually occur and what causes it?

A

Usually in first few days of life with intestinal obstruction due to LADD bands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mcburneys point?

A

over appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is infantile colic

A

few times a day particularly in the evning have to draw feet towards chest to relieve large vlumes of flatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name some causes of crying in a baby which may not be obvious diagnnosis.

A

middle ear infection, fracture UTI, oesophagitis, tortid testicle teething.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the management for pyloric stenosis

A

Admit
intravenous fluids to return acid base and electrolytes to normal
consider pylormyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what should the normal PH of the oesaphagus be

A

above 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is sandifer syndrome

A

dystonic neck posturing due to GORD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the management of GORD

A 
reassurance
Thickening agents
30 degree prone posturing
ranitidine or omeprazole
nissen fundoplication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ertythema toxicum?

A

benign slef limiting rash thought to be due to allergy, colonisation of bacteria such as group b strep and adjustment to heat etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

scalded skin syndrome?

A

staphylococcal scalded skin - due to release of exfoliative toxin. exhibit nikolksy sign - separation of epidermis on gentle sheering pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the conttraindications to the MMR?

A

non-HIV immunodeficiency and neomycin or kanamycin allergy

another live vaccine in the last month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What illnesses predominate in those with t cell deficiencies

A

Virus and fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is duncan syndrome

A

Immune deficiency linked to uncontrollable EBV infection so they succumb to intial infection or develop a burkitts lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is milia

A

white pimples on the nose and cheeks from keratin retention and sebaceous material in the follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is another name fro salmon patches and what are they?

A

stork bite often on eyelids forehead and nape of the neck from distention of dermal capillaires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is another name for neonatal urticaria

A

erythema toxicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a port wine stain and what is the management?

A

darker more well demarkated red patch on the face due to vascular malformation of the capilliaries in the dermis. If they are in the trigeminal distribution they need an MRI to check for brain involvement. (sturge weber syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of a strawberry naevus

A

Watches closely until they are gone. regress after 3-15 months but are associated with complications. eg haemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, can get in way of vision or breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is caput succedaneum?

A

haemorrhage under the skin but above the aponeurosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between subaponeurotic haemorrhage and cephalohaematoma.

A

under the aponeurois and does not bulge so much.
1 layer down under the periostium.

both are above the bone.

cephalohaematoma adheres to the margins of the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What two infections commonly affect eczema?

A

staph and herpes simplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the mechanism for ITP

A

immune breakdown usually IgG to Glp2b/3a they are opsonised and phagocytosed in the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ADAMTS13 gene

A

TTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Does Hep B cause erythema nodosum?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Does OCP cause erythema nodosum?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

You find small white spots along the midline fo the palate in a baby? what are they? are they worrying?

A

epsteins pearls - no

cysts of the gums are not worrying either - epulis or ranula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the phases of growth?

A

Fetal - 30% - mother factors
Infantile - 15% - Nutrition alone
Childhood - 40% - GH, IGF-1, thyroid, vit D, happiness.
Growth spurt - 15% - sex hormones - fusion of the epiphyseal plates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the treatment for NEC

A

Broad spectrum abx and fluids

bowel wall odema, perf, free air? pneumatosis intestinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

flushed appearance with perioral pallor

A

scarlet fever - usually rash on the trunk first like sandpaper. strep pyogenes usually. group A beta haemolytic strep. desquamation of fingers and toes later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the management for scarlet fever?

A

mx

throat swab, pen v , 24 hours off school, notify the PHE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the less well known sequelae of cystic fibrosis?

A 
short
delayed puberty
diabetes
nasal polyps
male infertility and female subfertility

NO ARTHROPATHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the infectivity window of chicken pox

A

4 days before rash and 5 days after onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the incubation period for chicken pox

A

10-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is enucleation?

A

removal of the eye - can be a treatment for retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 4 causes of jaundice in a baby less than 24 hours old?

A

rhesus haemolysis
ABO haemolysis
G6PD
hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the causes of jaundice after 2 weeks?

A 
BBC HUG
biliary atresia
Breast milk jaundice
congenital infection e.g CMV/TOXO
hypothyroidism
UTI
galactosaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What drug is used to stop bleeding in von willebrands disease

A

desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is found in the GI tract of peutz jeugers? what other signs do they show?

A

hamartomatous polyps which need to be kept under close observation

pigmentation around mouth and on hands and soles.

50% die from GI cancer by age 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the name for infection of the umbilicus?

A

omphalitis - usually staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an umbilical granuloma

A

cherry red lesions around the umbilicus

require silver nitrate or corterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

persistent urachus

A

wee out of the umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ASOT titre will help diagnose what? and what is the cutoff?

A

rheumatic fever >200iu/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is keratoconjuctivitis?

A

inflammation of cornea and conjuctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

is infertility assocaited with measles

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what should an unvaccinated child do if the come into contact with measles

A

vaccinate within 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What kind of fever is bronchiolitis assocaited with

A

low grade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is salmeterol

A

long acting beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how does episodic viral wheeze present?

A

wheeze inhale and exhale. often along with an URTI of viral origin.

treatment is symptomatic only
first-line is treatment with short acting beta 2 agonists (e.g. salbutamol) or anticholinergic via a spacer
next step is intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both

If they are symptomatic betwwen URTI’s and it is thought there are other triggers such as exercise then they should be given montelukast and inhaled corticsteroid for 4-8weeks. this is know as a multiple trigger wheeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

congenital syndrome associated with sensorineural deafness

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the most common type of brain tumour in children?

A

astrocytoma can be benign or malignant (glioblastoma multiforme) These account for 40% of the tumours.

20% will be medullablastoma and will be found in the midline of the posterior fossa

mostly infratentorial and prmary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the squamous remnant from rathke’s pouch?

A

craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how does a craniopharyngoma present?

A

bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

gas cysts in bowel wall

A

NEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is riglers sign

A

air inside and outsie the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What would you elicit on palpation of a kidney containing cysts?

A

often pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the features of typhoid

A

relative bradycardia and splenomegaly aswell as rose spots and constipation or diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the features of mono

A 
sore throat
lymphadenopathy
splenomegaly in 50% (no contact sports for 8 weeks or may rupture)
headache
malaise
haemolytic anaemia with cold agglutitins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do you test for mono

A

monospot test in the 2nd week of illness also know as the heterophile antibody test or the paul bunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What bacteria are most likely to cause conjuctivitus in a child

A

HIb and strep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What screening test is used for strabismus

A

corneal light reflection test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the contraindications to lumbar puncture

A 
reduced GCS less than 9 or fluctuating conciousness
focal neurology
dilated pupils
papillodema
abnormal dlls eye movements
relative bradycardia and hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

at whsat time of year does SIDS occur most?

A

winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the risk factors for SIDS

A 
maternal drug use
twin
male sex
bottle feeding
overwrapping
smoking
prematurity
social classes 4 and 5

siblings should be screened for inborn errors of metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the assocaited non-motor problems in CP?

A 
learning difficulties (60%)
epilepsy (30%)
squints (30%)
hearing impairment (20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the treatments used for spasticity relief in CP?

A

oral diazepam, oral/intrathecal baclofen, botox.

83
Q

What is beckwith weidemann syndrome

A

macrosomia
macroglossia
hypoglycaemia

84
Q

what diseases present at birth with macroglossia

A

bekwith weidermann

hypothyroidism

85
Q

what would you find on x ray of a child with TTN

A

hyperinflation and maybe some fluid in horizontal fissure. it usually lasts 1-2 days

86
Q

how do you diagnose pertussis

A

nasal swab

87
Q

what is the management of pertussis

A

Oral macrolide if presents in the first 21 days - only reduces spread.

88
Q

Cows milk protein allergy

A

3-6% of all infants usually resolves by age 5

breastfed less likwly to get it

89
Q

What is the difference between esotropia and exotropia?

A

eso - nose
exo - temporalally
hyper - superior
hypo - inferiorly

90
Q

What causes ebsteins anomaly

A

use of lithium in pregnancy
tricuspid regurg
tricuspid stenosis
RAH

91
Q

How quickly does bilirubin need to be measured in a newborn baby presenting with jaundice

A

within 2 hours if its in the first day and within 6 hours if its after 24 hours

it needs to be reassessed every 6 hours

appropriate levles are relative to age

92
Q

How shoudl bilirubin levels be measured in a newboarn baby

A

transcutaenous bilirubinoeter should be used unless they are born before 35 weeks in which case the serum bilirubin should be used

if the transcutaenous measurement is over 250, or if it is over the threshold for treatment in their age group, use the serum to check it.

93
Q

What should babies with ABO haemolytic disease be given?

A

IVIg 500mg/kg over 4 hours

94
Q

What are the risk factors for kernicterus

A

rapidly rising bilirubin or level over 340micromol/l

95
Q

which immunoglobulins do not cross the placenta

A

IgM (IgG anti A/B hamolysin, but not sure about IgA)

96
Q

what is the treatment for infantile spasms

A

vigabatrin

97
Q

when do most innate reflexes dissapear

A

usually around 4 months

stepping reflex around 2

98
Q

What are the risk factors for surfactant lung defieicny

A 
prematurity
male sex
diabetes
c section delivery
second born of prem twins
99
Q

What are the 4 different types of crisis in sickle cell disease and how do they present?

A

PAINFUL(THROMBOTIC) - vaso-occulsive - precipitated by dehydration and infection or deoxygenation. may occur in hands and feet, lungs, spleen, brain, penis.

SEQUESTRIAN - sickling within organs such as the lung or spleen and cause pooling of blood

APLASTIC - parvovirus infection - suden drop in hb

HAEMOLYTIC - rare - fall in hb due to haemolysis

100
Q

What is the protein defect in HOCM

A

Autosomal Dominant disorder of beta myosin heavy chain or myosin binding protein.
1in500

101
Q

Why do you need to do an x ray in ALL

A

associated with mediastinal mass

102
Q

what are the 5 stages of therapy in ALL

A 
Induction
Consolidation +CNS protection
Interim maintenance
Delayed Intensification
Continuing maintenance - 2years in girls and 3 years in boys.
103
Q

What are the triad of features in mccune albright syndrome and what causes them?

A

precosious puberty
cafe au lait spots
fibrous dysplasia

ovarian cysts secreting oesrtogen

104
Q

in which gender is precocious puberty more likely to be pathalogical?

A

boys

105
Q

Name signs of clinical dehydration

A 
dry mucous memranes
prolonged cap refill
reduced skin turgor
cold extremeties
weak pulse
106
Q

Why should you examine the testicles in suspected precocious puberty?

A

boys tend to have a pathology behind early puberty

enlarged testes - likely to be gnrh dependant and is being secreted from the brain. may indicate tumour

small testes - likely to be an adrenal cause

one large testis - testicular tumour

107
Q

How do you differentiate causes of early puberty in girls

A

based on the order of development. if norml is gnrh dependant rather than if it is wibbly wobbly there may be an androgen excess

108
Q

What ages count for delayed puberty in girls and boys

A

14 and 15 respectively

109
Q

a weak testosterone to use in younger boys to kickstart a bit of catch up growth

A

oxandrolone

110
Q

What is the enzyme missing in Congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

21 hydroxylase - causes female virulisation or male makes them bigger (not usually noticed)

results in hypoaldosteronism in 80% causing a low sodium and a raised potassium

111
Q

What is it called when there is non worrying abnormal growth of the skull?

A

plagiocephaly

need to rotate their position gets better when they become more upright.

112
Q

what is it called when there is premature fusion of bones in the skull?

A

craniosynostosis

most commonly affecting the saggital suture causing a long narrow skull

113
Q

what are the 3 sutures of the skull called?

A

coronal
sagital
lamboid

114
Q

HGow do you differentiate plagiocephaly and craniosynostosis

A

feel the sutures for fusions.

115
Q

What deficiency is seen is prader willi

A

GH as well as?

116
Q

how do you diagnose CAH?

A

raised levels of the 17 alpha hydroxyprogesterone.

in salt losers - 80% - they will have low sodium high potassium, metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemmia.

117
Q

How long should you breats feed for?

A

6 months. if possible.

118
Q

What type of bilirubin is seen in breast milk jaundice?

A

unconjugated

119
Q

malnutrition with and without odema?

A

marasmus without and kwashiorkor with odema

120
Q

What is the optic disc

A

the point where the optic nerve enters the eyeball - swelling here is known as paillodema

121
Q

how would an abducens palsy present

A

Those with sixth nerve palsy therefore experience horizontal double vision which is worse when looking towards the affected side

122
Q

What is the MOST concerning feature which would make you give IM adrenalin ein anaphylaxis

A

wheeze. more so than BP and lip swelling

123
Q

What is seen on histology of hirschprungs

A

absence of ganglion cells with larege acetylcholinesterase positive nerve trunks

124
Q

What should be done to get an emergncy urine dsample in a child?

A

in out urinary catheter with septic technique

125
Q

What is the typical way to catch urine in a child?

A

clean catch by asking th mother to hold the baby over a sterile foil bown until urination occurs.

126
Q

At how many months do group b strep, listeria, and ecoli and other coliforms stop causing meningitis?

A

3 months.

other causes which are more common such as neisseria start causing disease from 1 month upto 6 years (strep and haemophilus)

127
Q

What pathogens use the most and the least sugar in the CSF?

A

Viral doesnt use much atall, where as bacteria udse much more and TB uor mycobacterium use LOADS leaving very little glucose left.

128
Q

What pathogens produce the most protein in the CSF?

A

viral infections are churning out relatively little protein as they arent doing as much without the cell host. bacteria produce much more rapidly and mycobacterium chuck out LOADS of protein.

129
Q

Where is the infection in osteomyelitis and what are the most common sites in children?

A

in the metaphysis

most commonly in the dital femur and proximal tibia

130
Q

How long does it take for x ray changes to show with osteomyelitis? what would you see?

A

7-10 days.

subperiosteal bone rarefaction. soft tissue swelling

131
Q

What is torticollis and what is the most common cause in children?

A

wry neck, due to a sternomastoid tumour

132
Q

What are the similarities and differences between transient synovitis and septic arthritis.

A

SIMILARITIES: Both are a pinful joint which cannot be walked on

DIFFERENCES:
Septic: much more ill, will need cultures and join aspiration showing signs of infection, they will have a high fever and pain will not go on rest. and can cause severe joint damage if not treated.

Transient: often associated with recent or current viral infection but they will be systemically quite well and pain will improve on rest. They should be given rest and analgesia for a week. there is a small risk of developing perthes.

133
Q

What is the definitive test for diagnosing septic arthritis?

A

joint aspiration and culture

134
Q

What are the extra articular signs of systemic onset JIA

A

salmon pink rash with malaise, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplnomegaly, serositis.

they may have high acute phase reactants aswell.

135
Q

How long do you have to have joint swelling for without the presence of underlying infection to be classed as JIA?

A

6 weeks

oligo upto 4 joints
poly more than 4
systemic - other features

other features: morning joint stiffness and pain

chronic inflamation would lead to thivkenin gof the synovium.

complications include lengthening of bones creating discrepancies or valgous knees (knock)

136
Q

How does rickets present in a baby?

A

neuromuscular irritability
apnoea
stridor
seizures

ping pong ball skull

137
Q

what food contains high vitamin D

A

eggs and fish

138
Q

What is the managemtn of an inguinal hernia

A

if it is irreducable then operation straight away

reducable likely to wait for a couple of days after reduction for swelling to go down.

139
Q

What trype of hypospadias is merely cosmetic?

A

glanular

other more ever types include coronal or midshaft

140
Q

What is a phimosis

A

inability to retract the forskin - often presents after 5 years of age. there is often whitish scarring of the foreskin. can cause urethral meatus stenosis too

141
Q

What is a paraphimosis?

A

when th foreskin is retracted but cannot return

often requires GA to return.

142
Q

What is recurrent infection of the foreskin and glans called

A

recurrent balanoposthitis

usually responds to warm baths and broad spectrum abx

143
Q

How do you diagnose ITP

A

by exclusion and therefore blood film is oftewn the most appropriate investigation
OR if there is lymphadenopathy or suspected leukaemia then BM aspirate needs to be done

144
Q

what acid base disturbance is seen in pyloric stenosis

A

hypochloraemic alkalosis

low sodium and potassium

145
Q

What would differentiate between pyloric stenosis and GORD

A

unlikely to lose weight in GORD

146
Q

Galactosaemia

A 
Bilirubinaemia - conjugated
Cataracts
D+V
E.coli sepsis
hepatomegaly and kidney disease
LD
147
Q

What is the management for paracetamol overdose?

A

consider activated charcoal if less than 4 hours.

otherwise plot paracetmaol levels on the chart and start N-acetyl cysteine (this isuaually at about 4-8 hours

148
Q

What are the side effects of metoclopramide?

A

can cause acute dystonias and neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

it is used as an antiemetic and acts at the d2 recepter as an antagonist

149
Q

What is the treatment for an acute dystonia?

A

procyclidine - anticholinergic

150
Q

What is infant respiratry distress syndrome more commonly known as?

A

surfactant deficiency

white out on CXR

151
Q

What are the red flag signs for a sick child?

A

pale/mottled/blue

weak/high pitched continuous cry

unresposive to stimulation

grunbting

RR>60 with severe chest indrawing

reduced skin turgor

<3 months
bulging fontanelle

152
Q

Centor?

A

exudate
fever
lymphadenitis
NO cough

153
Q

Treatment for head lice

A

only if living lice are found - :

MALATHION, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, cyclomethicone

wet combing

154
Q

treatmewnt of nephrogenic DI

A

thiazide

155
Q

How do you diagnose RSV

A

rapid antibody test of nasopharangeal secretions

156
Q

treatment for bronchiolitis

A

supportive - humidified oxygen

157
Q

start toilet traning?

A

2 (takes about a year or more)

158
Q

how long does scabies still have an itch?

A

upto 4-6 weeks

159
Q

distinguisher between b thal and IDA?

A

bilirubin level raised in thal, also a lower mcv which is characteristically too low given the mild anaemia in thal

160
Q

When is Men C first given

A

1 year (along with the HIB instead of everything else

161
Q

What common observation does not come into the sick child guidelines

A

BP

162
Q

pertussis treatment

A

macrolide
clari <1month
azithromysin most
pregnant erythromycin

must be wwithin 21 days of the cough starting

163
Q

What age can children speak in 3-5 word sentences

A

3

164
Q

Cuases of fail to pass mec

A

CF, hirsch

165
Q

how does CF present

A

MEC ILIEUS

166
Q

UTI treatment under 3 months

A

ADMIT

167
Q

Uti treatment over 3 months

A

if lower - as normal

if upper consider admission and give veph/co amoxy for 7-10 days

168
Q

How do you diagnose heart failure in a baby?

A

poor feeding

breathless(worse on exertioni.e feeding)

169
Q

When do left to right shunts present? why?

A

greater than 2 weeks because this is when the pulmonary resistance begins to fall

170
Q

frequent attendance to A and E rather than GP

A

-

171
Q

DDH treatment?

A

check at 3-6 weeks as largely resolve investigate after this

4-5 months = pavlik harness

172
Q

Say mamma and dadda

A

9-10 months

173
Q

Risk of further febrile convulsion after first

A

30%

174
Q

exclusion from school for roseola?

A

none

175
Q

nost common cause of death upto 1 year?

A

SIDS - most common at 3 motnhs

176
Q

do you get infertility with measles?

A

no

177
Q

what temp would make you consider pneumonia over brinchiolitis

A

39 or more

178
Q

look for renal scarring

A

DMSA

179
Q

bekwith weiderman

A

big tongue
hypoglycaemia
macrosomia

180
Q

What do you NOT get in a baby with hypothyroidism

A

hpoglycaemia

you do get a biig tongue and an umbilical hernia and floppiness though

181
Q

percentage of kids with cows milk allergy

A

3-6%

182
Q

choanal atresia presentaiton

A

cyanosis when feeding kind of like a breath holding attack

183
Q

how many doses is Men b

A

3

184
Q

how many doses is IPV

A

5

185
Q

asks who what ?

A

3

186
Q

asks when why how?

A

4

187
Q

how do you recognise diaphagmatic hernia

A

shifted apex beat

insert NG tube.

188
Q

PPHN recognition?

A

high presure
cyanosed
left ot right shunting

OLIGAEMIA

189
Q

signs of a frontal lobe seizure

A

repetitive jerky cyclical movements which may be missed

190
Q

what is SUDEP

A

sudeen unexpected death in epilepsy

191
Q

threadworm organism

A

enterobius vermicularis

192
Q

scaphoid chest

A

diaphragmatic hernia

193
Q

ground glass lungs in newborn

A

surfactant deficiency

194
Q

3 primary features of ASD?

A

global language impairment and communication

ritualistic behaviours

impairment of social relationships

195
Q

what are the aerly signs of CP

A

asymetric hand function before 12 months

delayed motor milestones

abnomral limb tone or posture

196
Q

what is the maximal dose of beta agonists

A

10 puffs every 10-20 mins

likely need to refer to hospital if this does not resolve it

197
Q

what lewvels of saturations distinguish moderate attack from lifethratening or severe

A

less than 92 percent

use PEF to distinguish these two 33% cutoff

198
Q

when does laryngomalacia present

A

4 weeks and has likely been since

199
Q

kasai procedure

A

biliary atresia

200
Q

What is reflex anoxic also known as?

A

breath holding or response to pain or emotional stimulus

us7ually between 6 months and 3 years

201
Q

what are petit mal seizures

A

absence

202
Q

drop attacks?

A

lennox gustaut

203
Q

hysarrythmia

A

infantile spaspms

vigabitran

204
Q

what is irritable hip also known as

A

transient synovitis

most common - may need to aspirate to rule out septic

Joshua's Paeds (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions