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Np Exam > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

This anemia results in abnormal hgb production and is microcytic and hypochromic

A

Thalassemia

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2
Q

For a patient over the age of 60 with comorbidities what should be prescribed to treat pneumonia?

A

Fluoroquinolones such as moxifloxacin

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3
Q

Which acid base imbalance would you see with persistent vomiting?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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4
Q

What pupil and motor changes would be expected with a left sided CVA?

A

Left pupil changes and right sided motor changes

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5
Q

In a patient with HIV with a 5 mm purified protein derivative induration what is the recommended treatment therapy?

A

For drug therapy consisting of isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

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6
Q

What do broad T waves with prominent U waves indicate?

A

Hypokalemia

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7
Q

What drug can be used to treat metabolic acidosis?

A

Acetazolomide

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8
Q

What findings would indicate end stage renal disease

A

90% nephron damage, azotemia, and metabolic alterations

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9
Q

What findings represent diminished renal reserve?

A

50% nephron loss and doubled creatinine levels

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10
Q

What findings indicate renal insufficiency?

A

Mild azotemia and 75% nephron loss

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11
Q

If a patient presents with leukocytosis, elevated urine free cortisol, And glycosuria. What is the likely diagnosis

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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12
Q

A decreased T4 can confirm clinical diagnosis of what?

A

Hypothyroid

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13
Q

In elevated T4 indicates what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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14
Q

What will the TSH level be in hyperthyroidism?

A

TSH level will be low

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15
Q

Patients with COPD always demonstrate what degree of lung compliance?

A

High

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16
Q

Written material that causes someone to suffer a damage reputation refers to what?

A

Libel

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17
Q

Spoken defamation refers to what?

A

Slander

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18
Q

What is the failure of a professional to render services with the degree of care, diligence and percussion that another member of the same profession would render under similar circumstances to prevent injury to someone else?

A

Malpractice

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19
Q

Which part of the research process is the most important for the nurse practitioner to participate in?

A

Formulating the research problem

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20
Q

Which area of the bowel is melena generally a complication from?

A

Upper bowel gastrointestinal bleeding

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21
Q

Which third-party payer has benefits for change state to state?

A

Medicaid

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22
Q

Who is Medicaid funded by?

A

Federal and state

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23
Q

Who is Medicare funded by?

A

Federal

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24
Q

Which anemia presents with glossitis, loss of fine motor control and palpitations?

A

Pernicious

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25
Q

Which heart sound occurs when the aortic and pulmonic valves are closed and blood is being pumped through the open mitral and tricuspid valves?

A

S2

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26
Q

During S1 what is happening?

A

The tricuspid in mitral valves are closed

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27
Q

What are common abdominal assessment findings in peritonitis?

A

Hypo active bowel sounds and rigidity

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28
Q

What hearts on when you expect to hear with myocardial infarction, left ventricular hypertrophy, and hypertension

A

S4

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29
Q

Which heart sound sounds like Tennessee

A

s4

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30
Q

What does S III sound like

A

Kentucky

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31
Q

What is the long-term drug of choice for treating patients with generalized convulsive status epilepticus?

A

Phenytoin

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32
Q

What herbal remedy can cause in adverse reaction with aspirin and Coumadin, and increased risk of bleeding, and in creased blood pressure?

A

Ginkgo biloba

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33
Q

Which heart sound corresponds with the R wave on EKG?

A

S1

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34
Q

Which shocks state is indicated by low cardiac output, low CVP, low pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, in low systemic vascular resistance?

A

Anaphylactic shock

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35
Q

What is a normal cardiac output?

A

4-8

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36
Q

What is a normal CVP

A

3-8

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37
Q

What is a normal wedge pressure

A

6-12

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38
Q

What is a normal SVR?

A

800-1200

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39
Q

According to the New York heart Association functional classification of heart failure which class presents with symptoms while at rest?

A

Class IV

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40
Q

In what condition will a patient complained of abdominal pain worse with coughing and pain in the right quadrant when the left quadrant is palpated

A

Appendicitis

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41
Q

Which heart murmur may have an Apical crescendo rumble?

A

Mitral stenosis

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42
Q

And what disorder will you see hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, and leukocytosis?

A

Cushings

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43
Q

Which term refers to measuring the degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure?

A

Validity

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44
Q

What term refers to the degree to which perceptive variability is eliminated from a unit of measurement?

A

Objectivity

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45
Q

What percentage of gastric and duodenal ulcers are associated with H pylori

A

75% of gastric

90% duodenal

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46
Q

Who do peptic ulcer’s affect more men or women?

A

Men

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47
Q

Which herbal remedy can cause visual disturbances and bradycardia?

A

Black cohosh

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48
Q

What is black cohosh meant to treat?

A

Menstrual discomfort

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49
Q

What is the formula for the fluid requirements for an average adult?

A

25 to 30 ml/kg/24 hrs

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50
Q

How often are mammograms done for women ages 40 to 49

A

Every two years

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51
Q

How often should someone over the age of 60 have a complete physical exam

A

Every two years

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52
Q

How often should be HPV co test be done?

A

Every five years for women ages 30 to 65

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53
Q

How often should liquid-based cytology be done for women ages 30 to 65

A

Every three years

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54
Q

What is the term to describe the frequency with which a disease or disorder appears in a particular population or area at a given time?

A

Incidence

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55
Q

What are the top three causes of death for adolescents ages 12 to 19 years old?

A

Mvc, suicide, other accidents

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56
Q

What are the top three causes of death for people ages 20 to 39?

A

Motor vehicle crash, homicide, suicide

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57
Q

What are the major causes of death for middle-aged adults ages 40 to 59?

A

Heart disease, accidents, lung cancer

58
Q

What are the top three causes of death for people over the age of 60?

A

Heart disease, CVA, COPD

59
Q

What percentage of your diet should be made up of fats?

A

Less than 30% total calories with 10% total calories been saturated fats

60
Q

What does the American Heart Association recommends currently for exercise?

A

30 minutes or more on most days of the week, target heart rate should be sustained for 30 minutes

61
Q

What should be done for patients over the age of 35 would never had a program of exercise prior to starting an exercise program

A

Complete history, physical exam, exercise stress test

62
Q

Which herbal agent is used to treat nausea constipation colic and dyspepsia

A

Ginger

63
Q

Which herbal agent can cause increased risk of bleeding, blood pressure changes, mania and depressed patients, and may inhibit opioid effects

A

Ginseng

64
Q

What is St. John’s wort used to treat?

A

Depression, anxiety, sleep disorders, improve BPH symptoms

65
Q

Which herbal agent may increase the risk of clotting, should not be taken with aspirin, has many drug interactions, and may lead to cataract formation?

A

St. John’s wort

66
Q

Which herbal agent that is used to treat the common cold may cause anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and may cause increased sedation during anesthesia?

A

Echinacea

67
Q

Which herbal agent may elevate blood glucose, and could possibly increase the risk of seizures in patients with Seizure disorders

A

Evening primrose

68
Q

Which herbal drug may lead to hypertension, liver damage, visual impairment, and may worsen Parkinson’s symptoms?

A

Kava kava

69
Q

Written statement of the patients intent regarding medical treatment

A

Advanced directive

70
Q

This requires that all patients and during hospital should be advised of their right to execute and advanced directive

A

Patient self-determination act of 1990

71
Q

Type of advanced directive that may or may not include a LivingWell and or specifications regarding durable power of attorney and one or two separate documents

A

Healthcare directive

72
Q

And compilation of statements and document format that specifies which life prolonging that here’s one doesn’t does not want to be taken if here she becomes incapacitated

A

LivingWell

73
Q

This protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs

A

Title I of HIPPA

74
Q

Known as the administrative simplification provisions this requires the establishment of national standards for electronic healthcare transaction the national identifiers for providers health insurance plans and employers

A

Title II of HIPPA

75
Q

Who are the covered entity is required to follow HIPPA

A

Health plans, healthcare providers, health care clearinghouses

76
Q

What are the goals of healthy people 2020

A

Increase the quality and years of healthy life and eliminate health disparities among Americans

77
Q

What are the five diagnoses that are reportable to the health department

A

Gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, HIV, Tb

78
Q

This covers inpatient hospitalization, skilled nursing facility, home health services or hospice and most individuals qualified to receive this at the age of 65

A

Medicare A

79
Q

This covers physician services, outpatient hospital services, laboratory and diagnostic procedures, medical equipment, and some home health services

A

Medicare b

80
Q

Two forms of Medicare that require A premium

A

B and D

81
Q

This says the patients entitled to Medicare part a and enrolled in part B are eligible to receive all their healthcare services the one of the provider organizations

A

Medicare C

82
Q

To qualify to be a Medicare provider in NP must have what?

A

State license, certification my certifying body, MSN

83
Q

Where is incident to billing not allowed

A

Hospital setting

84
Q

For NP home visits billable for Medicare a services do nurse practitioners need a physicians order to bill under the NP provider number?

A

No

85
Q

Federally supported State administer program for low income families and individuals

A

Medicaid

86
Q

When her Medicaid payments made

A

After other insurance or third-party payments have been made

87
Q

Contained key patient care activities and time frames for those activities which are needed for specific case taper diagnosis related group

A

Critical path

88
Q

Blueprint for planning and managing care delivered by all disciplines

A

Care map

89
Q

In the event of a sentinel event what is expected to be conducted by clinicians and institutions?

A

Root cause analysis

90
Q

Delineated by the American nurses Association as authoritative statements by which to measure quality of practice service or education

A

Standards of advanced practice

91
Q

What dictates the level of prescriptive authority allowed

A

State practice act

92
Q

Who granted nurse practitioners admitting privileges to hospitals?

A

The joint commission in 1983

93
Q

Results when the caregiver patient relationship is terminated without making reasonable arrangements with an appropriate person for the care by others can be continued

A

Patient medical abandonment

94
Q

Interventions that are unlikely to produce any significant benefit for the patient

A

Medical futility

95
Q

Where the likelihood that an interventional benefit the patient is extremely poor

A

Quantitative futility

96
Q

Where the quality of benefit in interventional produced is extremely poor

A

Qualitative futility

97
Q

What ally pertains to refusal of care

A

Danforth amendment

98
Q

The duty to do no harm

A

Nonmaleficence

99
Q

The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number

A

Utilitarianism

100
Q

Duty to prevent harm and promote good

A

Beneficence

101
Q

The duty to be fair

A

Justice

102
Q

The duty to be faithful

A

Fidelity

103
Q

The duty to be truthful

A

Veracity

104
Q

The duty to respect and individuals thoughts and actions

A

Autonomy

105
Q

What are the steps for discharging a patient from practice?

A

Send a certified letter with return receipt, provide general health care coverage for the first 15 to 30 days post termination deadline, obtain a release of information to provide copies of all needed records for the subsequent care provider

106
Q

How long do files need to be kept?

A

Uminimum of five years

107
Q

What are obligations and closing her practice due to relocation retirement or other changes?

A

Give the patient adequate time to find another provider, keep all files for five years, provide timely notification of names of other providers for future care

108
Q

Where did the role of the nurse practitioner originally come from?

A

A physician shortage in the area pediatric in the 1960s

109
Q

Why did the movement of an peas to the inpatient setting result?

A

Manage care, hospital restructuring, and decreases the medical residency programs

110
Q

What are the four distinct roles of the nurse practitioner?

A

Clinician, consultant/collaborator, educator, researcher

111
Q

Examples of nonexperimental research

A

Descriptive, ex post facto, cross-sectional, cohort, longitudinal

112
Q

Study that examines a population with a very similar attribute but different one specific variable

A

Cross-sectional

113
Q

Research study that compares a particular outcome in groups of individuals who are alike in many ways the differ by a certain characteristic

A

Cohort

114
Q

Study that involves taking multiple measures of the group/population over an extended period of time to find relationships between variables

A

Longitudinal

115
Q

Type of research that involves manipulation of variables but lacks a comparison group or randomization

A

Quasi experiment

116
Q

Type of research that includes case studies, open ended questions, field studies, participant observation, and ethnographic studies

A

Qualitative

117
Q

What are some problems with qualitative research?

A

Researcher bias, question of generalizability of the findings

118
Q

In interval with limits at either end with a specified probability of including the perimeter being estimated

A

Confidence interval

119
Q

The probability level of which the results of statistical analyses are judged to indicate a statistically significant difference between groups

A

Level of significance a.k.a. P value

120
Q

What does the P value less than .05 represent

A

Experimental and control groups are considered to be significantly different

121
Q

What does a negative one represent in regards to correlation

A

Perfect negative correlation

122
Q

Also with symptoms of burning aching and pressure like pain occurring after eating meals

A

Duodenal

123
Q

Hyper bulimia hypertension and hemodilution is recommended for which type of stroke

A

Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage

124
Q

Dextrose increases the what in TPN

A

Osmolarity

125
Q

First line medication for systolic dysfunction after MI

A

Ace inhibitor

126
Q

Systolic blood pressure of 120 to 139, diastolic blood pressure of 80 to 89 or both is classified as what

A

Pre-hypertension

127
Q

Management of pre-hypertension in a patient with chronic kidney disease is what class of drug

A

ACE inhibitor

128
Q

What is the goal and triple H therapy

A

Prevent cerebral vasospasm

129
Q

What diseases characterized by chronic airway inflammation and superimpose bronchospasm

A

Asthma

130
Q

When is oral prednisone indicated for in asthmatic

A

During in asthma flare with increased use of rescue drug

131
Q

In patients with aortic stenosis with no symptoms and preserve injection fraction what therapy has been proposed as a way to slow the rate of stenosis

A

Statin therapy

132
Q

High-pitched holosystolic murmur at the apex is what type of murmur

A

Mitral regurgitation

133
Q

In a patient with DKA at what point do you change IV fluids from normal saline to D5w 1/2

A

When serum glucose reaches 250

134
Q

Hyper residence can be found on exam during

A

Acute asthma or COPD flare

135
Q

Most elder abuse is committed by who?

A

Adult children

136
Q

What is the go oxygen saturation during a COPD exacerbation

A

88 to 90%

137
Q

In pulmonary function test a decreased if using capacity of the long for carbon monoxide is seen with what disorder

A

Anemia

138
Q

Measurement of the ease of transfer for carbon dioxide molecules from alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cells in the pulmonary circulation is called what

A

If you can capacity of the long for carbon monoxide DLCo

139
Q

Dry crackles at the bases is a sign of what disease?

A

Emphysema

140
Q

What happens to the FEV1/FVc ratio with obstructive lung disease

A

It is reduced. Obstruction of air escaping from the Lungs

141
Q

Decreased FEV one, decrease FVC and increased FEB1/FVC is a pattern consistent with what type of disease?

A

Neuromuscular disease

Np Exam (4 decks)

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