Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ops Notes > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

0
Q

What’s the minimum weight of attack for a high rise fire?

A

45mm jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Fire can travel internally but more commonly occurs externally when fire breaks out of windows this may lead to rapid spread to other compartments and floors. This is known as?

A

Coanda effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Wind speeds are likely to increase with the height of the building and can be affected by the position of any nearby buildings. What effect can be created by high wind speeds for the products of the fire from the compartment sometimes in unpredictable directions resulting in rapid fire spread

A

A blowtorch type affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Building regulations require all buildings over what height to make provision for firefighting

A

18 m for dry risers 60 m Wet wet risers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A dry rising main can deliver how much water per minute

A

1500 L of water per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where should the Fire lift remain during a high-rise fire

A

At the established bridgehead so that rescued persons can be quickly brought to ground floor level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where should the Bridgehead be located

A

Two floors below the fire floor unless planning arrangements have determined a more appropriate position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where should the bridgehead be established two floors below the fire

A

In a lobby and not a corridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the minimum rank that can take charge of the Bridgehead

A

Crew manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

As the water supply is being secured what is the minimum amount of personnel that should be dispatched to the bridgehead

A

4 people consisting of a Crew Manager 2 BA wearers and an entry control officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What equipment must be taken to the bridgehead

A 
Two length of 45mm
One BA board
Two BA sets
First aid and resuscitation equipment
Breaking in gear
Thermal image camera
FIRE bag
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should the emergency team consist of for a high-rise incident

A

The same size as the largest committed crew and rigged to at least the same level of protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All personnel proceeding beyond the bridgehead should wear BA except when

A

In exceptional circumstances where the crew safety can be established beyond reasonable doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should the Bridgehead commander do before committing any BA teams

A

Inform the officer in charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where should the initial BA teams charge their branch from where possible

A

The floor below the fire if this is unavailable the nearest available outlet below should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where should the covering jet team hose be plugged into

A

The fire floor and if this is unavailable the next outlet below the fire floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long should the hose be for the covering jet team

A

One hose length longer than the attack jet in order to allow rescue of the committed crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If signs and symptoms or conditions that may lead to backdraught flashover or other abnormal fire development what should be in place

A

A covering jet and BA team must be present before search and rescue firefighting teams are committed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Any building ventilation system operating on arrival should be left switched on and to when

A

The incident commander is satisfied as a result of discussion with on-site engineer or senior fire safety officer that switching off the system will not cause an escalation of the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When will a senior fire safety officer attend a high-rise incident

A

A senior fire safety officer will be informed at all 4 pump fires and will attend all 6 pump fires And can be requested when ever specialist advice is required by the incident commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where should the incident Commander remain during a basement fire

A

At surface level unless preplanning arrangements have located a more appropriate location such as the designated fire control centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must be considered prior to committing BA teams to a basement fire

A

Ventilation of the basement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who should the incident commander request to gain advice before operating ventilation or smoke extraction systems

A

A senior fire safety officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BA teams committed to basement fires should have a sufficient weight of attack consisting of what

A

45 mm jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The incident commander should ensure what during a basement fire

A

Access and egress routes are kept clear and suitably protected with a minimum of a 45 mm jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Early consideration should be given to the implementation of what during a basement fire

A

Stage 2 breathing apparatus
Use of EDBA
Use of guidelines for complex basements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Once the incident commander has committed BA teams to the basement area with a minimum of 45 mm jet and a support crew to protect the egress route with a minimum of 45 mm jet what message should be sent to Control

A

Basement procedure implemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Once a basement procedure implemented message has been completed what should the incident commander ensure is implemented if appropriate

A

Stage 2 entry control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can a BA teams be recommitted to a basement fire

A

Only in exceptional circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prior to committing BA teams to a basement fire what should be in place

A

A suitable, sufficient and sustainable water supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prior to committing BA teams to a basement fire what must happen to the water supply

A

If working from a hydrant the pump must be supplied with twinned 70 mm hose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When should ventilation of basements be carried out

A

Under the strict supervision and only on the order of incident commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Prior to ventilation taking place during a basement fire what should be in position

A

Covering jets adjacent to any openings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If practical and when the immediate rescue of person is not required during a basement fire what should take place prior to committing BA teams in order to provide a safe working environment and

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

BA teams should only operate manual ventilation systems in a basement fire in what situation

A

On the order of the officer in charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During basement firefighting what can be used to locate both the seat of fire and casualties

A

A thermal image camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In order to enter a basement that is alight BA teams may need to pass through a thermal barrier What should BA teams do to make this easier

A

BA teams should descend as speedily as practical with the branch set to spray to protect them from heat and smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where should the incident commander remain at a silo incident

A

At ground level unless preplanning identifies a more suitable location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Should personnel enter a silo incident

A

Only if there is an immediate threat or serious injury or loss of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If a decision is made to commit personnel into a silo the incident commander must do the following

A
  • Seek advice from a technical rescue advisor
  • appoint and brief a safety officer
  • Implement level one or two line operations
  • Use appropriate DIM equipment to confirm safe environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Crews entering a silo must be led by what rank

A

A crew manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What must be worn by the crews entering a silo

A

BA with consideration given to using EDBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What must be implemented to all personnel entering a silo

A

Line rescue procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What must a firefighter who has been nominated and fully briefed and remain adjacent to at all times during a silo incident

A

The mechanism of the silo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Can a firefighter enter a silo during a fire situation

A

Only if performing a live rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why should the incident commander be cautious of using water or foam on a silo incident

A

It has the potential to cause structural collapse due to the increased weight and volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Are multiple FSG calls treated the same by control

A

All calls are treated with the same level of urgency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What will control use in its attempt to gather all information for FSG calls

A

Control information form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What should the incident command post radio operator write down the information on passed to them from control for FSG calls

A

Control information form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What colour of the control information form must be retained at the ICP for passing to the command unit

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What must the incident command post radio operator do with the information given to him by control

A

Repeated back to confirm it is correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the expectation of the incident commander with regard to FSG calls

A

The incident commander will treat all FSG calls as a priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What will Control do if they get no response from the incident command pump

A

Control will pass FSG information to the on coming pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What should the role be of the first command unit on scene during an FSG call

A

The command unit only deal with FSG calls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What should the incident commander consider to pass information about FSG calls to the incident ground

A

Allocation of a dedicated handheld radio channel e.g. channel 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the two levels of resources for FSG calls

A

A single FSG call to a house or building will be treated as persons reported and control will mobilise the appropriate response for a persons reported fire

Two or more FSG calls or a single FSG called to a high-rise incident will attract the addition of a dedicated pump ladder a command unit and Station Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do command units carry to record information on all separate FSG calls

A

A casualty information poster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

As soon as resources allow the incident commander should give priority to appointing a dedicated officer for FSG calls called a FSG Cordinator what is the minimum rank of this officer

A

Station Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the first action of the dedicated FSG Cordinator to do

A

Telephone a supervisor at Control to gather the latest information on the progress of FSG calls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the command unit have for passing a life critical information

A

A command unit critical phoneline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the four principles that control officers will use as guidance for FSG callers

A

Escape assess protect and rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is radio channel one used for

A

Initial Incident command communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is radio channel 2 used for

A

Command channel at-large incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is radio channel 3 used for

A

During sector operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is radio channel 5 use for

A

Subsurface communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is radio channel 6 used for

A

BA communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are radio channels seven and eight used for

A

The police service is responsible for the deployment and supervision of channels seven and eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is radio channel 10 used for

A

Command support officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is radio channel 11 used for

A

Monitoring BAA Fire crews at Heathrow airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the duplex radio channels

A

Channels two, five and eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get at a 4 pump fire

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get at a 6 pump fire

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get at a persons reported fire

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get at an explosion

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get on request for an ambulance

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How many fire investigation units will you get at a fatal fire

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the three types of attendance the fire investigation officer and incident commander will agree on

A

Immediate attendance
Deferred attendance
Data collection only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The incident commander must request a fire investigation unit if

A

The incident commander cannot determine the cause of the fire

A possible re kindling from a previous brigade attendance

If the incident commander is refused entry to an incident for the purposes of fire investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When can cause of a fire be recorded as unknown

A

By agreement with the fire investigation officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When does the incident commander not need to request the attendance of a fire investigation unit

A

If there is evidence that the fire is deliberate and assistant is not needed to determine the cause of the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the name of the form the incident commander must make sure is completed when liaising with the police during a fire of suspicious or delivered origin

A

RRF1 form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does and IED look like

A

It may look like many things but it is unlikely to look like a bomb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Will a secondary IED be smaller or bigger

A

Secondary does not mean smaller or lesser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What three categories will a call to a bomb or terrorist related incident fall into

A

No warning device actuated
Warning given device actuated
Warning given device not actuated made safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Regardless of what criteria the call received for them to what should crew managers Think

A

Think secondary devices
Think safety Cordon distances
Think safety do not touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the cordon distance for main scheme radios during a terrorist related incident In

A

50 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the cordon distance for handheld radios during terrorist related incidents

A

10 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the cordon distance for a suitcase size bomb

A

100 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the cordon distance for a car vehicle size bomb

A

200 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the cordoned distance for an HGV lorry size bomb

A

400m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the default distance if in doubt of the cordon size to a terrorist related incident

A

400 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How should appliances be cited during a terrorist related incident

A

Facing away from the bomb with their windows open and under direction of the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Until an area is declared safe how many personnel should be used to carry out rescues or other tasking necessary to secure public safety

A

The minimum number of personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is an example of actions deemed necessary During a terrorist related activity

A

Actions necessary to fight an outbreak of fire Or prevent the fire becoming a greater risk to public and firefighter safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Should brigade personnel carry out a search for suspect devices

A

Only if on a fire station premises Or premise to which the personal undertaking the search or attached to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the two halves of the decision-making model

A

Deciding and acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What three things should we gather information on on the Decision-making model

A

Information on the task or event
Information on resources
Information on the risk and benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What do we do with the three boxes of information on the decision-making model

A

We gather the information and think about it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Once we’ve gathered and thought about the information what do we do next On the decision-making model

A

We come up with some objective and then a plan we communicate and control the plan to achieve an outcome we then evaluate the outcome and using information on progress We come up with new objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is a hazard

A

A Hazard is something that has the potential to cause harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is a risk

A

A risk is a measure of the likelihood that the harm from a particular hazard will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the five stages of a dynamic risk assessment

A 
Evaluate the situation
Implement safe systems of work
Evaluate safe systems of work
Introduce additional control measures
Reassess systems of work and additional control measures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How long will the walls and floors separating a substation from the remainder of the building burn for To provide fire resistance

A

Four hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Why will switching off the current to a high or low voltage insolation not render it safe

A

Because the still a residual charge of electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Can crews pass warning signs to gain access into areas which have restricted access

A

Crews must not pass warning signs until the responsible authorise persons in attendance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are London Fire Brigade electrical gloves rated to protection wise

A

3300 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the minimum safe approach distance to a pylon when carrying out a rescue

A

5 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the minimum safe approach distance when using ladders aerial appliances For an electrical pylon

A

10 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the minimum safe approach distance when using ladders or area appliances in dense smoke of flames approaching the conductor of a Pylon

A

10 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the minimum safe approach distance when using handheld jets near a Pylon

A

20 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the minimum safe approach distance when using ground monitors or aerial monitors In a Pylon

A

30 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the definition of a firefighter and emergency

A

When there is strong evidence to suggest that one or more firefighters or personnel working under the control of the LFB unaccounted for and or in need of rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What message must the incident commander send for a firefighter and emergency

A

From the OIC at the address of the incident firefighter emergency tactical mode Oscar Or delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

As soon as possible after sending a firefighter emergency message and informative message is to be sent which will include

A 
Description of the circumstances
Number of persons unaccounted for or in need of rescue
Details of actions being taken
Declaration of the size of the incident
Tactical mode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

If a DAC is mobilise to the incident What role will he take

A

The DAC will either take over and become incident commander or if a DAC or an AC is in charge take responsibility for firefighter and emergency search and rescue operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the definition of an emergency evacuation

A

An emergency evacuation is the immediate and control withdrawal of all personnel from the scene of operations to a place of safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How will in emergency evacuation be initiated

A

Repeated short blast of the Acme thunder whistle
BA teams can be either actuated fire the telemetry entry control board evacuate all function
A priority message to be transmitted to all crews fire fire ground radios ordering evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the incident commander to ensure during an emergency evacuation

A

Ensure crews closest to the danger withdraw first whilst maintaining crews to protect exit routes and maintain safe egress until all crews have been withdrawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the definition of a tactical withdrawal

A

A tactical withdrawal Is the removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

At the rollcall of a tactical withdrawal firefighter and emergency or an emergency evacuation each appliance commander will

A

Report to the booking point and retrieve their appliance nominal roll board
Take a rollcall of their appliance crew and report the outcome to the office are in charge
Outcome of the Roll Call must be included in informative message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What does the road traffic act grant exemption to Fire Brigade personnel from doing The

A

Wearing a seatbelt whilst donning their personal protective equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What must drivers of fire appliances and other vehicles do whilst driving

A

Wear footwear that will not hinder or obstruct the safe and affected operation of the footpedals when driving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The wearing of seat belts may be relaxed in what instances

A

A driver performing a manoeuvre which includes reversing
A driving instructor supervising a learner driver while the latter is performing a manoeuvre which includes reversing
A driver examiner conducting a test when wearing a seatbelt would endanger him or another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In normal circumstances should brigade appliances leave the carriageway or hardstanding

A

If the nature or severity of the incident being attended justifies an appliance traversing soft on uneven ground. Appliance and incident commanders must ensure that the utmost care is taken to ensure that it does not become damaged bogged down or stranded on these occasions The minimum number of appliances required to achieve the objective should leave the hardstanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If an appliance leaves hard standing what should crew members do

A

Crewmembers are to dismount the vehicle to act as lookouts and continually observe the appliance wheels for signs of sinking and to ensure the ground is free from obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the minimum number of seat belts allowed to be defective before the appliance comes off the run

A

Four including two in the rear cab or one in the front cab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

How heavy is the hose laying unit

A

16 tons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

How much hose does the Hose laying unit carry

A

4km in two 2km pods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the minimum amount of hose the hose Laying unit will stay on the run with

A

600m or 20 lengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The hose layer unit driver will require the assistance of how many crew in laying the hose

A

Four in laying the hose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the maximum speed the hose layer can lay hose at

A

30 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

In addition to the driver What is the minimum personnel required to undertake hose retrieval

A

Two trained members in the hose recovery pod and three non-trained members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Structural collapse can be broken into two causes

A

Natural and human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What type of building has the greatest resistance to collapse

A

Framed buildings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Collapse can be categorised as being what

A

Internal external or total collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What other four types of internal collapse

A

Pancake
Lean to
V
Tent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the Three types of external collapse

A

90° angle
Curtain fall
Inward and outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the six stages of rescue

A 
Reconnaissance and survey
Elimination of utilities
Primary surface search and rescue
Exploration of voids and spaces
Access bite selected debris removal
Terminate by general debris removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the term for an explosive hazards

A

Yankee Hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are the two types of explosive material

A

Detonating and Deflagrating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the most common cause of accidental explosion

A

Mixture of natural gas and air following a gas leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

When are all explosives at greatest risk

A

When they are subject to heating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

NATO guidance is to prohibit radio signals within how much of explosive material

A

600 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What does a Yankee Hazard look like on the MDT

A

A red triangle with a black exclamation mark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Should an attempt to be made to investigate inside a compartment where explosives are subject of being heated up

A

No because an introduction of fresh air could induce an explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

When should fire crews handle explosives

A

When it is operationally imperative to move the explosives to prevent them from becoming involved in an incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the maximum storage of fireworks for domestic use

A

250 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the maximum storage of black powder For gun enthusiasts

A

20 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Radios should not be used within how much of the explosives

A

60 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the hazard zone for up to 250 kg of explosives

A

200 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the hazard zone for 251 to 2000 kg of military explosives

A

600 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is the Hazard zone for over 2000 kg of explosives

A

1000 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What powers does the fire and rescue service act 2004 give us in relation to road traffic accidents

A

Move or break into a vehicle without consent of the owner
Close a highway
Stop and regulate traffic
Restrict the access of persons to the place concerned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What should the incident commander do if the police are not in attendance

A

Via priority message requested the attendance of the police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Can fire crews across the central reservation to approach an incident on the opposite carriageway

A

Motorways or other dual carriageways central reservation must not be crossed approaching incident on the opposite carriageway an exception to this is where traffic has been stopped by the police Or highways agency traffic officer and crossing will be undertaken under their direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Can an appliance stop on the outside lane of the motorway or dual carriageway at any time to deal with an incident on the opposite carriageway

A

Only when the incident has spread across the central reservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Where should pumping appliances park and where should special appliances park at a road traffic accidents

A

Pumping appliances should park before the incident specialist appliances should park after the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What should all appliances do when parked at an incident

A

Have their blue lights on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the exception of wearing high visibility jackets at an RTA

A

BA crews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

When should the police accident sign be deployed

A

Only when it is safe to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

If it is unsafe to deploy the police accident sign what should the incident commander to do

A

Requested attendance of the police for assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

If hazardous materials are suspected to be involved in an RTA incident what should the incident commander do

A

Requested the attendance of the HMEPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Can FRU be returned if a persons trapped informative message has been sent

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the size of the inner cordon at an RTA

A

2 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the size of the outer cordon at an RTA

A

5 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

If Respiratory protection is required during an RTA what should be used

A

BA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

After isolation how long could of vehicles SRS system remain active

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What colour is the SRS power connections in a vehicle

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

When the vehicle is fitted with an LPG system and it is involved in fire the incident should be treated as what

A

A cylinder incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

If a vehicle is fitted with an LPG system and is not involved in fire and is leaking what should the incident be treated as

A

A hazmat incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What colour is the high-voltage cables in dual fuel vehicles

A

Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

When should the first message be received by Control after arrival at an incident

A

20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

And informative message should be sent every how long at an incident under eight pumps

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

At an incident over eight pumps how often should informative message be sent

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How should we identify ourselves when crossing the border

A

London Fire Brigade Paddington pump ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the sequence of messages at an incident

A

Assistance message
Informative message
Further assistance and informative message
Fire surrounded messages at six pumps and above
Stop message
Further informative message
Relief Request messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

A full stop message should be used when

A 
More than 1 hose reel has been used
An informative message has been sent
Member of the public injured/rescued
An unusual incident 
Where further assistance has been requested
4 or more appliances were in attendance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the order of equipment in stop messages

A

Main jets followed by number of Hose reels Aerial jets ground Monitors and Foam branches should be mentioned separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

When will the term apparently dead be used in a message

A

Where a fatality has occurred but a doctor has not certified it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

How often are reliefs implemented

A

Every three hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

When would an immediate relief be requested

A

When there is a need to replace crews with some urgency for example crews PPE being contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What responsibility does the London Fire Brigade have in hazmat incidents

A

London Fire Brigade has a responsibility to control any spillage or release to mitigate harm to the public and the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is the hazard zone for a hazmat incident

A

25 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What tactical mode is the incident commander to adopt while information gathering

A

Delta mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is a level one hazmat incident

A

One pump attendance
Small spills of fuel and engine oil
Natural gas leak or carbon monoxide detector actuating
mercury spill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is a level two hazmat incident

A

Two pumping appliances and a FRU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is a level three hazmat incident

A

An incident where full wet firefighter decontamination or dry safe undress procedure is required After consultation with the HMEPO or scientific advisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is a level four hazmat incident

A

An incident attracting a special mobilising criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What should be in place before committing crews with DIM equipment

A

The appropriate firefighter and equipment decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What should crews be committed in for life-saving or urgent actions During a hazmat incident

A

Gas tight chemical protection suits however BA and full firefighting gear may be considered when the risk-benefit analysis deems it necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What Decon code Should the incident commander choose if it is necessary to decontaminate before advice is available

A

Code 3 safe undress procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

If persons are involved in a hazmat incident what level should the incident be made

A

Minimum level two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Is London Fire Brigade responsible for arranging recovery of hazmat waste

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

For a hazmat incident what is considered a small spillage

A

Under 100 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the default Emergency action and code

A

4WE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What does 4WE stand for

A

Dry agent
Liquid tight suits
Public safety hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What pressure is natural gas distributed throughout the UK

A

85 bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What pressure is gas supplied to domestic customers

A

One bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How long could a high-pressure gas system take to shut off The

A

Up to 1 hour due to a stage shutdown to prevent rupture in the system from sudden shock of files being closed

199
Q

Is natural gas lighter than air

A

Yes and it will readily disperse

200
Q

What is the name of the stenching agent added to natural gas

A

Ethyl Marcaptan

201
Q

What is the explosive range of ethyl mercaptan

A

2.8% to 18.2%

202
Q

Is ethyl mercaptan harmful

A

Yes and it should not be allowed to enter the watercourse or drains

203
Q

How far should the appliance be parked at an suspected gas leak

A

25 m

204
Q

How should an appliance be parked at a suspected gas leak

A

Not in direct line of sight And at an angle of 45°

205
Q

At a gas leak who should be requested via control

A

The gas authority

206
Q

If a high-pressure natural gas pipeline has ruptured what is the minimum hazard zone

A

200 m

207
Q

Should fire crews attempt to control the leak of a high pressure natural gas pipeline rupture

A

No

208
Q

Should any attempt be made to extinguish a fire where a leak from a high-pressure natural gas pipeline has ignited

A

No

209
Q

What is the minimum hazard zone where there is an uncontrolled leak from a mass of gas storage site

A

1000 m of

210
Q

Should crews be committed to shut off the gas supply from a domestic property

A

Only where they are not put at risk from a gas explosion and must have donned BA and full structural PPE

211
Q

Should Crews be committed to shut off a domestic gas supply If there is a risk to life

A

yes

212
Q

Does the Fire service have Powers of entry at gas leak incidents

A

No only the gas authority

213
Q

What actions should take place if a natural gas leak has ignited

A

Flames should not be extinguished but surrounding risks should be protected by lashing jets in place and evacuating the area until the gas supply has been isolated

214
Q

When a carbon monoxide detector is actuating who should be requested

A

The gas authority

215
Q

When a carbon monoxide alarm is actuating What should be committed

A

A single breathing apparatus crew to ventilate The

216
Q

Can the incident commander rely on the gas authorities detection equipment if crews are committed to the risk area

A

No

217
Q

At the end of a gas incident Who should it be handed over to

A

The gas authority or its representative

218
Q

Who should the incident commander consult with during all cylinder incidents

A

The HMEPO

219
Q

How should A cylinder be treated if it is not possible to confirm whether its contents is acetylene

A

The cylinder should be treated as a acetylene

220
Q

When a cylinder is discovered at a fire regardless of the content what should the incident commander make every effort to do

A

Extinguish the fire And applied a cooling spray directed onto any cylinders

221
Q

When a composite cylinder is involved in fire and has failed What should the content be allowed to do

A

Burn off before extinguishing the fire

222
Q

After cooling a cylinder the incident commander should send what message stating

A

The highest recorded temperature and tactical mode

223
Q

Is a hazard zone and exclusion zone

A

No crews may work in this area

A risk assessment where crews are working within 25 m of a heated cylinder BA should be worn

224
Q

Once the fire has been extinguished crews should continue to cool a non acetylene cylinder Until when

A

Until it has returned to ambient temperature

225
Q

If a cylinder has been identified as a Acetylene all the incident commander suspects that the cylinder may be acetylene what should the size of the hazard zone be

A

200 m per

226
Q

How long should substantial cooling last after the fire has been put out

A

One hour

227
Q

The wetting test in conjunction with a thermal image camera is known as what

A

Cylinder assessment process

228
Q

If a cylinder fails the cylinder assessment process what actions should be taken

A

Cooled for one hour

229
Q

Describe the cylinder assessment process

A

Stop the application of cooling water after one hour
Monitor the cylinder with a thermal image camera and record temperature
Observed for any violent steaming all Rapid drying out of the cylinder surface
Leave cooling water off for 15 minutes

230
Q

How many times should the cylinder assessment process be completed

A

Four times in one hour

231
Q

If a cylinder is discovered to be leaking What should happen in

A

It should be shut down if the cylinder valve is undamaged

232
Q

What temperature will an aluminium cylinder fail at

A

200 to 250°C

233
Q

What are the four way cylinders are constructed

A

Welded steel cylinders
Drawn steel
Aluminium cylinders
Composite cylinders

234
Q

What temperature will steel cylinders lose its strength

A

300°C

235
Q

What type of incident the environment agency be informed

A 
All hazardous materials
Pesticides or fertilisers
A major incident is declared
For pumps or two or more jets in use and high-volume pumps in use
Firefighting foam is used
A controlled burn is being undertaken or considered
Flooding of property from watercourse
CCBRN decontamination procedures
Hazardous fly tipped waste
Illegal burning of waste
236
Q

What quantities of products Are involved in an incident should the environment agency be informed

A

25 L of anything that can’t be eaten
250 L of anything that can be eaten
250 L of organic liquids or farm slurry
500 kg of sand silt cement chalkboards gypsum plaster

237
Q

What is the hierarchy of containment

A 
Contain at source
Contain close to source
Contain on the surface
Contain in the drainage system
Contain in the watercourse
238
Q

Who has responsibility For incidents on main rivers that nontidal

A

The environment agency

239
Q

Who has responsibility for incidents on main rivers that are tidal

A

The Port of London authority

240
Q

What are Level One water operations

A

Operations with firefighters work within 3 m of an unprotected waters edge or enter water that is both shallow enough not to compromise their PPE or slow moving enough that there is no foreseeable risk they will be swept off their feet

241
Q

What is level 2 water operations

A

Where firefighters may have to commit to the water which can be still or moving to affect a rescue

242
Q

Can non FRU SRT firefighters enter the water

A

Only to carry out a rescue as a very last resort where the situation is so critical that to await the arrival of further resources is likely to result in loss of human life

243
Q

What are level 3 water operations

A

Operations which involve the deployment of flood response kits

244
Q

When will a water TRA attend an incident

A

Informed at level 1 and will attend level 2 incidents

245
Q

If the IC is in doubt as to which water operations level it is what should he do

A

Escalate to level 2

246
Q

What is the minimum PPE for firefighters entering the water

A

Full fire kit and PFD

247
Q

Should fire helmets be worn when entering the water

A

No unless There is a risk of a head injury and then it should be worn with chin strap undone

248
Q

What should the IC do when working near water

A

Deploy down stream spotters equipped with throw lines and a safety officer

249
Q

What is the hierarchy of rescue for water operations

A 
Talk
Reach
Throw
Wade
Go/tow
250
Q

If a non FRU SRT trained firefighter needs to enter the water what control measures must be in place

A

Firefighter must be competent and capable
Fully briefed
Floating safety line supervisor must be in place
Rigged correctly
Consider floating hose
Effective comms established

251
Q

What’s the minimum personnel for emergency rescue boat ops

A

2 power boat handlers

252
Q

What’s the capacity of the emergency rescue boat

A

2 rescuers plus 5 casualties

253
Q

Can non FRU SRT firefighter be committed to mud or ice

A

Only if the situation is so critical that to await the arrival of trained personnel will likely result in the loss of human life

254
Q

Can firefighters affect sub surface rescues

A

No

255
Q

What are the types of floods

A

Tidal
Fluvial
Pluvial

256
Q

What are the phases of floods

A

Phase 1- immediate critical rescues
Phase 2- rescue from places of temporary safety
Phase 3- body recovery

257
Q

What is the minimum team size for firefighters working at level 3 water ops

A

5 which includes one JO and a FRU SRT acting as safety officer

258
Q

Firefighters working at level 3 are classed as first responders what colour helmet will they wear

A

Yellow

259
Q

What colour helmets will FRU SRT wear

A

Red

260
Q

What is the maximum depth firefighters should work to at level 3 water ops

A

60cm or 2 feet which is knee height

261
Q

What is the capacity of fire rescue boats on the FRK

A

8 adults

262
Q

Within the brigade area what three key organisations are they in respect of railway operations and

A

Network rail infrastructure
Train operating companies
London underground limited

263
Q

What are the types of rail vehicles found in London

A

Battery operated trains
Electric trains network rail
Electric trains LUL
Electric trains DLR

264
Q

Who can use SCDs in the absence of railway personnel

A

FRU trained firefighters

265
Q

Where are SCDs found

A

In train driving cabs and maybe station premise

266
Q

What speeds can trains run at under caution

A

5-50mph

267
Q

When a person that needs to be rescued or assisted to a place of relative safety is not at immediate risk should firefighters enter the track

A

Until the appropriate control measures are implemented the person should be comforted and reassured

268
Q

If a person is in immediate risk can firefighters be committed to the track

A

Persons trapped injured unconscious or in distress and in immediate danger can be considered to require urgent action

269
Q

When firefighters enter the track what should the OIC do?

A

Send a priority message with

Nature of incident
If trains need to be stopped
If trains need to run a caution
Traction isolation required 
Action OIC is considering
270
Q

What is the cordon distance for rail incidents

A

3m

271
Q

What should brigade lookouts do

A

Have a hand held radio with dedicated comms channel
Have a whistle and lamp
Remain in contact with safety officer
Stand 3m away from track

272
Q

How should look outs alert train drivers

A

Holding both arms above head in daylight

Waving a torch violently from side to side at night

273
Q

What do trackside telephones look like

A

Red telephone on a white background with electrification written on it

274
Q

How long must the ringing button be pressed for on track side telephone

A

4 seconds

275
Q

What do signal post telephones look like

A

Black and white stripes diagonally

276
Q

How can intervention points be identified

A

Black IP letters on a white background

277
Q

How can traction current be isolated in LUL

A

Lifting the headwall telephone handset

278
Q

What is an indication the power has been isolated in the LUL

A

Tunnel emergency lights activate

279
Q

What radio channel should be used subsurface

A

Channel 5

280
Q

How high are the platform edge doors on the jubilee line

A

2.5m

281
Q

How often would you find fixed falling firefighter mains outlets in tunnels

A

60m

282
Q

What is the safe working distance on the DLR

A

2m

283
Q

How can train doors on the DLR once it has left the station

A

The door to the left of the articulation joint

284
Q

What is the voltage of the third rail on the post office rail link

A

450v

285
Q

What is the voltage of the third rail system

A

1200v DC

286
Q

What is the voltage of overhead line equipment

A

2500v AC

287
Q

What is the voltage of the fourth rail system

A

750v DC

288
Q

What must the incident commander do during a chimney or ducting fire?

A

Ensure that the entire length of the ducting or flue is thoroughly checked for fire spread

289
Q

What should be in place before opening and inspection and access panel on a ducting fire?

A

Appropriate extinguishing media must be in position to cover possible fire spread

290
Q

What must the incident commander ensure if the ducting has electrical powered electrostatic filters or extractor is in place?

A

The incident commander must ensure they have been isolated if electrically conductive extinguishing media is likely to come into contact with them during firefighting operations

291
Q

Where if possible should fire crews deal with ducting or chimney instance from?

A

They should extinguish the fire for the base of the structure

292
Q

What should the incident commander do before removing fibrous insulation material from a ducting fire?

A

The incident commander should identify the material involved and consider seeking advice from a hazardous materials and environmental protection officer and in this circumstance RPE must be considered

293
Q

What is the jack down pressure for four and ALP HP and TL?

A

ALP 15 tons
HP 8 tons
TL 4.5 tons

294
Q

What is the safe working distance is when working in a high voltage cables with an aerial appliance?

A

10 m operationally (no water)
20 m during training
30 m for a water tower

295
Q

How close should I dedicated pump and appliance recited to an aerial appliance?

A

No more than one hose length away

296
Q

Can an aerial appliance direct water onto the building where firefighters are working?

A

The jet from an aerial appliance must never be directed into a compartment where firefighters are working but maybe directed onto other parts of the building depending on the location and effects of large quantities of water on the fire building and floors

297
Q

What should aerial bass operators ensure when BA is being used in the cage?

A

On all occasions where BA is being used on aerial appliances the base operator should ensure a clear view of the cage whenever possible

298
Q

What should aerial appliance cages not to be used as?

A

BA entry control points

299
Q

When an aerial appliance is used to provide a means of access for using BA what should not happen?

A

Under no circumstances should the aerial cage or ladder removed when used for this purpose this is on order to maintain the access and egress because committed

300
Q

When using BA at the head of an airing appliance what points must be adhered to?

A

All BA come on control procedures the ECO should make an entry in the remarks column of the location of the wearer and the fact they are working alone

301
Q

In high winds what should Aerial appliances not be used for?

A

Training or display purposes

302
Q

When requested and an aerial appliance if no preference is stated by the incident commander what will Control mobilise?

A

Control mobilise the nearest available aerial appliance if the incident commander requires a specific type this must be specified in the assistance message

303
Q

What are the working height of the aerial appliances?

A

HP 23.5 m
TL 32 m
325ALP 32 m
320ALP 32 m

304
Q

What are the water tower outputs of the aerial appliances?

A

HP 2275 L a minute
TL 2000 L a minute
325ALP 2450 L a minute
320ALP 1700 L a minute

305
Q

When will an incident be sectorised ?

A

Sectors will only be established on instruction of the incident commander

306
Q

What two types of sectors are there at an incident?

A

Operational sectors

Functional sectors

307
Q

Who is responsible for the tactical mode of the whole incident and for that of each sector?

A

The incident commander is responsible for the tactical mode of the whole incident and for that of each sector

308
Q

When an incident has been sectorised and each sector is in offensive mode what is the overall mode of the incident?

A

Offensive mode

309
Q

When an incident has been sectorised and each sector is in defensive mode what is the overall mode of the incident?

A

Defensive mode

310
Q

When designing sectors what should the incident Commander clearly do?

A

When designing sectors the incident commander must clearly identify their boundaries

311
Q

What will the main scene of operations at an incident be Designated as?

A

The main scene of operations at an incident will be identified as sector one and will often but not always be the main entrance

312
Q

If an incident has two sectors should each sector have a sector commander as well as an incident commander?

A

It is important to note that where a sector commander has been appointed for an example to the rear of a building this does not necessarily mean that a separate sector commander has to be allocated to the front of the building if the incident commander is satisfied they can retain a satisfactory level of command

313
Q

What are the sectors for a high-rise incident?

A

Fire sector this consists of the five floor and one floor above and one floor below
Search sector- above the fire sector
Lobby sector-ground floor to the fire sector including the bridgehead

314
Q

At a high-rise incident is the bridgehead a sector?

A

The bridgehead is normally two floors below the fire flow it is the location rather than the sector on its own

315
Q

Who will assume command on an incident?

A

The watch manager on whose ground the incident Occurs will assume command unless a watch manager of equal rank is in attendance prior to their arrival

316
Q

If a temporary and a substantive watch manager are in attendance who would assume command?

A

The substantive watch manager will assume command

317
Q

Where land appliances and the fireboat form the initial attendance who will assume command?

A

The incident commander will be the senior land based appliance commander

318
Q

At an incident that attracts a watch manager at incident commander when should the stop message be transmitted?

A

Stop message should be transmitted when the watch manager has attended and completed an assessment of the incident

319
Q

If the highest ranking officer on the five ground is from a support unit such as an FRU should they assume command?

A

They will only take command if there are immediate concerns over the safety or the incident appears to be beyond the capacity of the incident commander and no other officer is available

320
Q

What colour is the incident commander Tabard?

A

White

321
Q

What should the Officer taking over the incident say when taking over the incident?

A

I am taking over

322
Q

What should an Incident commander do when he newly takes over an incident?

A

At all incidents the new incident commander must communicate to both the gate control and the incident ground that they are taking over

323
Q

The incident commander will at all times ensure the actions being taken complement the primary purposes of the operational incident command what are these?

A 
To save life
To prevent further spread loss risk of injury
To mitigate damage
To mitigate damage to the environment
Minimise disruption to the community
324
Q

Where should the key to the station safe be kept?

A

The station safe key should be separate from the station keys and kept in the personal possession of the watch manager during the tour of duty

325
Q

What should happen if the safe key is mislaid or lost?

A

The station manager or group manager should be informed by telephone immediately and report forwarded as soon as possible by the watch manager

326
Q

Can a manager open a personal locker without the permission of the user?

A

The manager must not open a personal locker without the permission of the user if the user is not available or contactable to give consent if the opening of the locker is part of a discipline the manager is required to open the locker and conduct an inspection and inventory of the contents must be recorded in the presence of a witness

327
Q

With regard to lockers utilise by non-Brigade individuals were concerned exist the lock-up may contain items contrary to the Brigade policies and procedures can the lock up be opened?

A

The lock-up may be opened by a member of the youth engagement management team with out the individual’s permission and inventory of the lockers content should be made in presence of a witness

328
Q

What should happen to collectors of money for welfare fund national saving groups or other fund if they are to be stored in a safe?

A

They must be handed to the watch manager in a sealed container

329
Q

What should happen if there are lots of brigade or personal property?

A

The loss is to be investigated and reported by telephone to the station or group manager with minimum delay if that is suspected or indicated the police are notified immediately and a crime number of attaint details of the loss must be sent to mailbox ‘station security’

330
Q

What time must external group visits to fire stations be concluded by?

A

22:00 hours

331
Q

The PR0 process is designed to aid the improvement of service delivery by identifying what?

A

Best practice

Areas of underperformance

332
Q

A record of exceptions of best practice and underperformance are to be captured through what database?

A

IMPD

333
Q

What type of incident must PRO take place?

A

All make up incidents

Incidents that involve persons reported or trapped

334
Q

Under what circumstances can a PRO take place at the scene?

A

When the attendance at the incident has not exceeded for pumps

335
Q

When must the occurrence of a PR0 be recorded?

A

IMPD

336
Q

How long do you have to record the outcomes of the PR0 on the IMPD?

A

28 days

337
Q

When is it acceptable for the incident commander to facilitate the PR0?

A

At incident attended just by the predetermined attendance Or below four pumps

338
Q

At what stage does a PR0 require an independent facilitator?

A

And incident over four pumps The attending station manager is responsible for organising the PR0 but should be facilitated by an independent officer

339
Q

What should happen if you experience antisocial behaviour at a waste recycling site?

A

Fire appliances should be reversed and if possible and lockers closed when not in use this provides easy exit if necessary from hostile behaviour

340
Q

What must the incident commander request at all incidents at sites involving waste recycling or refuse derived fuel handling and storage?

A

HMEPO
Environment agency
Public health England

341
Q

What should be the size of a hazard zone around each stack of recycled waste at a recycling site?

A

50 m

342
Q

Can personal client or walk on rubbish bails or stacks at re-cycling sites?

A

Only in exceptional circumstances i.e. to save life and under the approval of the incident commander

343
Q

What is the definition of a compartment?

A

A compartment is an enclosed space within a structure that is capable of allowing fire develop and is able to contain the products of combustion such as heat smoke and gases

344
Q

What are the two types of tactical ventilation?

A

Defensive ventilation refers to the ventilation of adjoining and outer compartments after the fire compartment has been isolated

Offensive ventilation is undertaken within the fire compartment to limit fire spread and improve conditions

345
Q

What is direct application of water?

A

The tactic of applying water directly onto the file in the form of spray or a jet

346
Q

What is indirect application?

A

The tactic of applying water indirectly by deflecting a spray or solid jet of water onto the wall and then onto the fire

347
Q

What is it backdraught?

A

A backdraught happens when I compartment is unventilated and oxygen starved. opening the compartment allows fresh air to be drawn into the compartment allowing the ignition of in burnt gases leading to rapid increase in temperatures heat and flame propagation the resulting conflagration will expand following the path of fresh air

348
Q

What is a flashover?

A

I flashover occurs when the products of combustion released from heating material within the compartment reaches a sufficient temperature allowing fire to develop rapidly and in some cases explosively where an ignition source is present

349
Q

When should the incident commander switch off fixed installations?

A

When they are confident with Regard to the impact that actions will have on the fire where any doubt exists that incident commander should consult with a responsible person or seek advice from senior fire safety officer

350
Q

At a compartment for what does the watersource need to be?

A

The incident commander must secure a suitable and sustainable water supply

351
Q

For a compartment Fire what is the minimum weight of attack?

A

The initial preferred weight of attack unless the incident commander has been reliably informed that the use of a hose reel or handheld portable equipment is suitable and sufficient

352
Q

Can you use a hose reel on a compartment fire

A

Where there is a known small and readily accessible fire and there are no signs indicating a larger five developing the incident commander may decide that hose reels on the most appropriate way to attack

353
Q

When using 70 mm hose during a compartment fire how many links of 45 mm hose should I be on the end of it?

A

The final two lengths should be 45 mm hose

354
Q

What is the criteria for supporting hose lines and I compartment fire?

A

There should be at least one additional length to that of the primary attack hose line

355
Q

When should ventilation of a compartment take place?

A

Only under the direction of the OIC

356
Q

What must the incident command to consider when making the decision to ventilate a fire compartment?

A

The incident commander must consider the risk for fire spread and rapidfire development against the potential benefit of improved conditions within the compartment

357
Q

Where possible and with sufficient resources allow watching ventilation openings have?

A

They should be covered with covering jets

358
Q

What should covering jet crews not do?

A

They must not direct the jet into the outlet vents as this will push the products of combustion towards the crews working inside the compartment

359
Q

What is essential to do outside the compartment before entry is made?

A

The area must be directly cooled outside the compartment using pulse spray

360
Q

What may be a sign of gases breathing in and out of small openings during a fire situation?

A

A potential backdraught

361
Q

If and unventilated fire compartment is suspected and signs of a backdraught are observed what should happen?

A

This should be communicated to the incident commander and consideration should be given to withdrawing and commencing firefighting operations externally

362
Q

What is the informal stage of discipline?

A

This is the when the line manager will speak to the employee about their conduct attendance or performance and may put this in writing although it would not form part of the disciplinary record

363
Q

Who investigates and conduct the hearing at the first formal stage of discipline?

A

I watch manager will investigate a Station Manager conduct the hearing

364
Q

Where following a disciplinary meeting the employee is found guilty of misconduct what would the usual first that be?

A

Usual first step would be to give them a warning and warning must give details and an explanation of the decision

365
Q

How long will a warning be disregarded at the first stage of discipline?

A

Six months

366
Q

Who conduct investigation and who conduct the hearing at the second formal stage of discipline?

A

I Station Manager does the investigation a group manager will conduct the hearing

367
Q

What is the likely outcome at the second stage of a disciplinary procedure process

A

A final written morning

368
Q

How long can a final written warning last

A

18 months

369
Q

Who conduct investigation and who conduct the hearing at the third formal stage of discipline?

A

A group manager conduct the investigation a DAC conduct the hearing

370
Q

What is a possible outcome of the third formal stage of disciplinary?

A

Possible dismissal

371
Q

How much notice should the employee be given at each stage of disciplinary for the hearing?

A

First formal stage seven days
Second formal stage 10 days
Third formal stage 21 days

372
Q

Before making a decision on the outcome of the disciplinary hearing what should be taken into account?

A

The employees disciplinary and general record length of service and actions taken in similar cases the explanation is given by the employee and other relevant factors

373
Q

Following a disciplinary hearing how should decisions be confirmed?

A

I should be confirmed in writing as soon as possible within seven days

374
Q

What is the lowest level of line management you can take action within the disciplinary process?

A

It will be at the informal stage and can be a crew manager

375
Q

What are the employees statutory right regarding representation at a disciplinary hearing?

A

I can be accompanied by a fellow employee or a trade union official

376
Q

How long can an employee appeal after the decision of a disciplinary hearing?

A

Seven days

377
Q

Who should hear the appeal of a disciplinary hearing?

A

Appeal should be heard by a higher level of manager

378
Q

What are the grounds for appeal during a disciplinary outcome?

A

There was a defect in the procedure
The issue is not proven on the balance of probabilities
The disciplinary sanction was too severe
New evidence has come to light since the hearing

379
Q

If an employee raises a grievance during a disciplinary process what should happen?

A

The discipline process should be suspended and the grievance should be dealt with

380
Q

If an employee is charged with or convicted of a criminal offence not related to work should disciplinary action be taken?

A

This is not itself reason for disciplinary action remains a consideration should be whether the offence or alleged offence is one that makes the employee on suitable for the type of work

381
Q

Should and employee be dismissed Soley because they are absent from work as a result of being remanded in custody?

A

Not necessarily

382
Q

How should initial contact be made when reporting illness?

A

Initial contact must be made by employees themselves and by telephone text message and email is not permitted

383
Q

Can employees get somebody else to phone the illness into the watch?

A

Only in exceptional circumstances

384
Q

Whose responsibility is it to make sure employees are fully aware of what is expected of them regarding reporting sickness?

A

It is the manager’s responsibility

385
Q

What is short term sickness defined as?

A

Less than 28 days

386
Q

What is long-term sickness defined as?

A

28 days or more

387
Q

How long before the start of shift should sickness been reported?

A

One hour or as soon as reasonably practical prior to commencement of the shift

388
Q

How long can An employee be off sick without any certificating?

A

1 to 4 days

389
Q

How often should be employee call in sick in the first four days?

A

Every day for the first four days unless the manager has been informed that the sickness is likely to extend to day 4

390
Q

What should happen on days 4 to 7 of sickness?

A

The employee shall on return to work complete a self certificate covering the full period of sickness

391
Q

What should the employee do to cover sickness beyond the first seven days?

A

The employee or submit a statement of fitness for work note from my GP or hospital certificate

392
Q

What is the maximum period a sickness certificate will be accepted for?

A

Three months

393
Q

Can outside employment be undertaken all the employee is off sick?

A

In normal circumstances this will not be permitted however if an employee believes that outside employment does not affect the current medical conditions and will not aggravate or restrict the employees ability to recover and return to work the manager or review this request

394
Q

If the employee book sick within the first hour of their shift how should this be recorded?

A

This will recorded as sickness absence for the whole day

395
Q

If the employee books sick after the first hour of their shift how should this be recorded?

A

This should be recorded as an incomplete duty

396
Q

If and employee becomes ill during a period of leave Are they entitled to claim this back?

A

Yes if they inform their manager in line with normal sickness procedures and provide a medical certificate covering the full period of their illness

397
Q

For a period of long-term sickness can the employee take any outstanding annual leave into the next leave year?

A

The brigade will allow the employee to carryforward Stata tree leave into the next holiday year but it must be taken up 15 months from the end of believe year in which it is earned

398
Q

When is an attendant support meeting triggered?

A

Six months
Three separate instances or a total of six working days

12 months
Five separate instances
A total of eight working days

399
Q

What must employees receive before they attend and attendance support meeting?

A

Written notification

400
Q

What causes an automatic referral to occupational health?

A

On an employee site work related stress or anxiety or depression

401
Q

What should A manager do when and employee proactively discloses they have a potential substance or alcohol misuse problem?

A

Refer to occupational health

402
Q

What points cause an automatic referral to occupational health?

A

Continuous absence between seven and 35 days

Reports of an injury at work

Sickness recorded as due to service which extends beyond seven days

Cardiovascular conditions
Stress anxiety or depression

403
Q

How should disability treatment leave be recorded if it doesn’t last the whole shift?

A

GTV

404
Q

What are the triggers for a capability meeting?

A

Six months for the first stage
Nine months For second stage
12 months the third stage

405
Q

What are the three main components of an IED?

A

The packaging
The main filling ie explosive
The means of initiation ie detonator

406
Q

When is it only acceptable to commit additional crews during a terrorist incident or when the device has been actuated?

A

Additional crews may only be deployed solely to safeguard the means of escape in the event of further devices activating

407
Q

Whose responsibility is it to brief the progress during a terrorist incident?

A

The police

408
Q

Who can the use of our appliances benefit during a telephone terrorist incident?

A

Aerial appliances can be of assistance to both the police and ambulance service in aiding with evidence gathering and casualty handling

409
Q

Do you need to wear BA at a car fire?

A

Personnel are reminded that the products of combustion a car fire are particularly hazardous Are should always be worn

410
Q

Can a BA team be made up of one team member?

A

In exceptional circumstances BA teams can have one member as long as it’s in line of site and stage 1 entry control is set up.

Car fires
Rubbish fires
Working at the head of a Ariel

411
Q

Can a BA team be committed without Extinguishing media?

A

Only as a support function such as hose management or ventilation

412
Q

Who is responsible for briefing and de briefing BA teams?

A

The oic

413
Q

If communication is lost with a BA team without warning what should happen?

A

A BA team will be committed to investigate.

414
Q

What should happen if telemetry and radio signal is lost with a BA team?

A

The BA team must withdraw.

415
Q

For what reason must an ECO immediately commit a BA emergency team and inform the oic?

A

A BA team has not returned to entry control by the lowest time of whistle

An ADSU has actuated

A BA wearer is in distress

416
Q

Can EDBA wearers be used for a re-entry or new entry?

A

Only in exceptional circumstances

417
Q

When committing BA to high expansion foam what must be in place?

A

Guidelines

418
Q

Who has a list of all the permitted waste recycling storage sites?

A

Fire safety regulation team

419
Q

What distance are proximity keys still active?

A

20m

420
Q

What is aide memoir number 10?

A

BA manual log on and log off

421
Q

What are the initial actions of the OIC at a compartment fire?

A

Locate the responsible person and conduct an initial assessment of the incident to gather information to devise an initial firefighting and rescue plan

422
Q

What form number is the KDL?

A

Form F6182

423
Q

If securing a water supply from an open water source what should you ensure?

A

The supply must be virtually inexhaustible eg river or canal

424
Q

What are composite cylinders mainly used for?

A

LPG

425
Q

Who do you report a theft from station to?

A

The watch manager who investigates and reports to the station manager

426
Q

Who can help an IC at a ducting fire?

A

Fire safety officer

427
Q

Who should be in place before FF enters the water?

A

A floating safety line supervisor

428
Q

Who needs to authorise the use of non government organisations (NGO) at a buildings collapes?

A

Assistant Commissioner via the officer of the watch

429
Q

How high is the aerial appliance go? So it

A

32 m

430
Q

What colour is a fire engine

A

Red

431
Q

How many UK Terror threat levels are there

A

Five

432
Q

What are the UK terror threat levels

A

Low an attack is unlikely

Moderate and attack is possible but not likely

Substantial and attack is strong possible

Severe and attack is highly likely

Critical and attack is expected imminently

433
Q

What colour tabard does an National inter-agency liaison officer wear

A

Red

434
Q

When will crews be committed to an area for firefighting and rescue purposes during a ballistic threat

A

Once a joint understanding of risk between all three emergency services has been undertaken and the ballistic threat has diminished

435
Q

What is step 123+

A

Step one one person incapacitated with no obvious reason- approach using standard protocols

Step 2 two people incapacitated with no obvious reason- approach with caution using standard protocols

Step 3 three or more people in close proximity incapacitated with no obvious reason- use caution and follow step plus

Step plus follow the CB R.N. first responder flowchart use the following principles

Evacuate
Communicate
Disrobe
Decontaminate improvise decontamination

436
Q

What are the 5C is used in preparation for arrival of an EOD officer

A 
Confirm
Clear
Corden
Control
Check
437
Q

What are the five double Ws used in preparation for the arrival of an EOD officer

A 
What
Where
When
Why
Who
438
Q

What does the usar capability consist of

A

Five modules plus prime mover

439
Q

Who need to give permission for the use of non-government organisations

A

Assistant Commissioner via the officer of the day

440
Q

How can crews isolate the power of a train that uses overhead line equipment

A

By getting a competent qualified person to lower the pantograph

441
Q

What colour is the warning line applied to rail vehicles to warn staff of the safe limits when working with traction current of overhead line equipment is on

A

The warning line is normally painted orange unless the train livery contrast with it and it may either be black or white

442
Q

What are the two excepted methods of confirming power off and all trains stopped

A

Where a competent qualified person is present at the scene such as an LUL station supervisor a request should be made directly to that person as soon as the competent qualified person confirms power is off crews can go trackside and not wait for a message to be sent to Control

If a competent qualified person is not available a priority message should be sent to Control requesting power to be isolated crews must await Control’s confirmation before they can go trackside

443
Q

What is the safe person concept

A

The right person doing the right job with the right equipment at the right time

444
Q

What are the three types of risk assessments

A

Generic risk assessments

Locally produced risk assessments

Dynamic risk assessments

445
Q

When will it not be necessary to implement a 200 meter hazard zone during a cylinder incident

A

When all of the following can be established

The fire has been extinguished

The cylinders are definitely not acetylene

All cylinders present have been located

The cylinders involved are receiving direct cooling

446
Q

During a PRO facilitator should highlight both good practice and areas open to improvement in what

A

Individuals
Teams
Equipment
Procedures

447
Q

When would a PRC be held

A

All incidents of six pumps and above and other incidents and training events at the discretion of the DAC in addition a PRC must be held for any incident that has been subject to senior accident investigator irrespective of incident size

448
Q

When will brigade control be invited to a PRC

A

12 pumps and above

449
Q

All station TV and lecture rooms with armchairs suitable for a PRC

A

No

450
Q

What rank should chair a PRC up to and including 10 pumps

A

Group commander

451
Q

When will a deputy assistant commissioner chair a PRC

A

An incident over 10 pumps or when an SAI is involved

452
Q

Who are PRC is to be chaired by

A

An independent officer who did not attend the incident

453
Q

When will the station officer take command of an incident

A

When the incident exceeds four pumps in attendance

454
Q

Is there any differentiation in authority levels for station officer senior or principal offices on the Incident ground

A

No- Substantive is not senior to one in a temporary or development role

455
Q

Who will take charge of an incident when a temporary and a substance of sub officer are in attendance

A

The substantive sub officer will assume come on

456
Q

When will officers attending in a support specialist capacity role take command of an incident

A

There are immediate concerns over safety

The incident appears to be beyond the capability of the incident commander

They are competent to do so or are of a more senior rank

No other suitable officer is immediately available

457
Q

What is the maximum span of control or any tactical role at an incident

A

Five lines of direct communication

458
Q

What is the colour of the tabard the monitoring officer

A

A white yolk and a yellow lower body and marked monitoring officer

459
Q

When with the monitoring officer make any command decisions on behalf of the officer in charge

A

If they are risk critical

460
Q

What is the size of the restricted zone on an asbestos incident

A

25 m

461
Q

What message should be sent when it is known or suspected asbestos is involved

A

Asbestos reported

462
Q

If asbestos is known or reasonably suspected to be involved what should the level of PPE be to enter the restricted zone

A

BA and gas tight suits and the screws are designated for firefighting

463
Q

During an asbestos incident what should personal not be allowed to do until the decontaminated

A

Eat drink or smoke

464
Q

What should the level of Respiratory protection be in a cement asbestos incident

A

BA or respirators fitted with a P3 filter

465
Q

Who has the statutory duty to coordinate search and rescue activities on the tidal Thames and the nontidal areas

A

The Maritime Coast Guard agency has a statutory duty to coordinate search and rescue on the tidal Thames with the police providing this duty on nontidal areas

466
Q

What is the primary rescue service on a tidal river Thames

A

RNLI

467
Q

When should incident commanders commit and ERB to the tidal Thames to carry out a rescue activity

A

Only in circumstances went to await arrival of further resources is likely to result in the loss of human life

468
Q

What’s your crews do before launching on airwave channel Thames one

A

Confirm Launch point activity personnel a number of boats

469
Q

After how long will search operations for a person Missing in the Thames last for

A

90 minutes after the casual tea was seeing dropping below the surface of the water

470
Q

What is the minimum number of ERB boat needed to train on the tidal Thames

A

Two

471
Q

When can you send high-rise procedures implemented

A

The location of the bridgehead has been risk assessed as appropriate for the incident

Access and egress to and from the bridgehead is secured and maintained

The bridgehead is established with two charge jets deployed

472
Q

When can crews work above the bridgehead and not in BA

A

In a situation which is not affected by fire or smoke an incident commander has confirmed the buildings construction and any fire engineered solutions have not been compromised

These teams must maintain communication with bridgehead and a safety officer must be deployed in the stairwell and be in contact with other safety officers outside the building

473
Q

Can the incident commander change controls FSG advice to callers

A

In exceptional circumstances the incident commander may consider informing Control that their advice to FSG callers should be altered for example attempt to leave their property

474
Q

What should happen if I be a team loses radio contact with the entry control officer in a high-rise incident

A

To be a team leader decide whether to withdraw

It’s both telemetry and radio signal is lost the BA team must withdraw if communications or contact is lost with any BA team without warning a BA team will be committed to investigate

475
Q

Should crews lift payment covers to investigate during a smoke issuing from a pavement incident

A

Under no circumstances should cruise seat lift covers to further expose pavement cables

476
Q

Will switching off current too high or low voltage installation such as a cable transformer or switchgear render it safe

A

No due to residual charge

477
Q

What should the incident command to do at a wind turbine site

A

Liaise with on-site personnel and request the isolation of any power supplies to the wind turbine and have it confirmed that the blades have been locked out prior to taking offensive action

478
Q

What is the cordon distance to win turbine incidents

A

And 300 m in diameter

479
Q

What should you do if you saw a person lying on top of an electrical transformer switch

A

They must not be touched until word is received from authorised person of the electrical authority that is safe for rescue work to be carried out

480
Q

What is the operating range of proximity keys to vehicles

A

20 m

481
Q

Before reverse access up on motorway can be implemented what must apply

A

Please highways England commander has control of the head of the scene

Confirm no vehicles after downstream of the incident seem to chose an access point

482
Q

How should you gain authority to proceed the wrong way up a motorway

A

The incident commander is to obtain the name of the officer giving authorisation and this is to be transmitted to Brigade control

If no traffic officer is in attendance the appliance commander is to contact Control to obtain permission to proceed them in the wrong direction

483
Q

What should be a teams do if they experience a loss of water at any stage you in a compartment fire

A

Withdraw immediately

484
Q

What is the level of PPE to my hazmat incident in the absence of any information

A

Gas tight suits

In exceptional situations and the incident commanders risk benefit analysis deems it necessary to make cruise to the incident prior to receiving specialist advice BA and for firefighting gear may be considered

485
Q

What is the maximum time for wearing gas tight suits

A

20 minutes and this is to include decontamination

However an agreement between the incident commander and gas tight suit wearer wearer may extend this time

486
Q

What is the incident commander responsible for when Hart are on the incident

A

Permitting Hart to enter that the incident

Including Hart on the entry control board

Providing an emergency team for heart

487
Q

Who is responsible for covering hazardous waste

A

The on-site owner

488
Q

What colour plate the vehicle car and dangerous goods having a front and rear of it

A

Plain orange

489
Q

Whenever a KDL is completed what must also be completed

A

A risk assessment of the activity must be made and the risk ranking matrix completed

490
Q

When will the KDL be used

A

Where a decision is made to carry out actions that amend or change the current operational procedure

491
Q

How long are KDL is kept at stations

A

Three years and then they are sent to HQ

492
Q

During an incident with a property involving solar power what should crews do

A

Isolate the direct current inverter

The solar panels and the wiring to the inverter will still remain live even after the system is Isolated

493
Q

What type of current do solar panels produce

A

Direct current in excess of 1000 V dc

494
Q

What will inverter do in conjunction with the solar panel

A

Inverters isolate power to the consumer supply however the DC wiring from the panel to the inverter will still be live

495
Q

What is high-voltage considered as

A

1000 volts AC

1500volts DC

Ops Notes (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions