Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PICU > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

0
Q

anticholinergics

A

hold all in

Rx: supportive, bicarb if arrythmis, wide qrs
benzo for sz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

general work for toxicology

A

gluc
ECG
lytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Opiates - morphine, heroine, methadone

A

sedation
miosis
cinfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cholinergic treatment

A

decontaminant
supportive
atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are syndromes associated with pyloric stenosis?

A

Cornelia de Lange
Smith lemli Opitz
Apert syndrome
T 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

alt mental status
neuromuscular hyperactivity
autonomic instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rx SSRI OD

A

supportive care

cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

rabies Rx

A

rabies vaccine(5 dose) and rabies Immunoglobilin - administer into the wound or IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 contraindication to ketamine

A

allergic
uncontrolled HTN
neuropsychiatry state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

retropharyngeal abscess on xray

A

air fluid level

widened preveretbral space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ibuprofen OD

A

non anion gap metabolic acidosis
apnea
polydipsia
renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pseudoporphyria causes

A

small hypopigmented scars after small trauma
vesicles in sun exposed areas

caused by NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what med taken in pregnancy causes fetal hypothyroidism

A

amiodarone + goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the clinical features of SLE

A

MD SOAP BRAIN
Malar rash – butterfly rash, sparing of nasolabial folds
Discoid rash –basement mb involved, may cause scarring
Serositis – pleuritis/pericarditis
Oral ulcers
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) – very sensitive test
Photosensitivity – skin rash to sunlight
Blood – haemolytic anaemia, leukopaenia, low PLT
Renal disorder – proteinuria and cell casts
Arthritis – symmetrical, 2+ small or large peripheral joints
Immunological disorder – anti-dsDNA
Neurological – seizures, psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what urological condition should be ruled out in a pelvic fracture?

A

urethral transection injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Post renal injury, what is a child at risk for?

A

HTN, needs periodic BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the CP of cardiac tamponade

A 
tachycardia
low arterial BP
narrow pulse pressure
pulses paradoxus-excessive fall of systolic blood pressure (>10 mm Hg) with inspiration
muffled HS
distended neck veins - inc JVP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are clinical features of Carbon monoxide poisoning

A 
HA
confusion/dizzy
Nausea
arrythmia - cardiac arrest
rhabdo
cherry red skin
Sz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you treat CO poisoning?

A

worry if carboxyHb > 25%

  1. 100% O2
  2. if CarbHb > 25% - hyperbarric chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the clinical features of cholinergic overdose (organophosphates/carbamates)

A 
DUMBELLS
Diaphoresis
Urinary and fecal incontinence
Miosis
Bradycardia/bronchorrhea
Emesis
Lacrimation
Lethargy
Salivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the mgnt of organophosphate poisoning

A
  1. decontaminate - remove clothing
  2. Atropine to competitively inhibit Ach at muscarinic receptor
  3. Pralidoxine - breaks bong btw OP and enzymes - helps clear
  4. PICU monitoring for nicotinic effects - Sz, delirium, HTN, inc HR, arryth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the clinical features of TCA OD

A
  1. anticholinergic toxidrome:
    - delirium,
    - mydriasis - dilated
    - dry mucous membranes,
    - tachycardia,
    - hyperthermia,
    - urinary retention, and slow GI motility.
  2. CNS toxicity - lethargy, coma, myoclonic jerks, and seizures
  3. Blockade of fast Na channels - wide QRS, arrythmia
23
Q

how do you manage TCA OD

A
  1. activated charcoal if possible
  2. Alkalinalize - HCO3
  3. Treat arrythmia - lidocaine or MgSo4
  4. Sz with benzo
  5. Low BP with Norepinephrine
    MUST avoid Na blocking agents
24
Q

is dialysis effective in TCA OD

25
after how long can you DC a ? TCA OD if they remain asymptomatic?
can DC after 6 hours if well
26
what are poor prognostic factors when dealing with submersion injury
Orlowski scale: 1. submersion> 5 min 2. Age < 3 3. time to CPR initiation > 10 min 4. Coma 5. Ph < 7.1 in ED
27
what are good prognostic factors for submersion injuries?
ROSC in < 10 min Sub < 5 min PERL at scene NSR at Scene GCS improvement in first 24-72 - best for CNS outcomes
28
if pt post head trauma has one asymmetrical pupil that is not responding to light, what CN is effected
CN III due to temporal herniation
29
how do you treat a hypertensive crisis?
continuous infusion of labetalol or nicardipine | gaol to decrease BP by 20-25 % over the first 8 hours
30
what is a hypertensive emergency?
symptomatic HTN
31
what is the most common cause of pediatric deaths in children ged 12-24 mnths
submersion injury
32
how do you manage a submersion injury
``` C-spine!!!!! if diving, alcohol, ? trauma give cricoid pressure if doing BMV try to decompress stomach rewarm correct hypoglycemia monitor for coagulopathy ```
33
what parts of the skin are involved if superficial burn and what would it look like
``` Epidermis only red pain NO BLSITERS heal 3-5 days ```
34
What does a superficial partial burn look like and what parts of the skin are affected
``` epidermis + 1/2 of dermis pain MOIST BLISTERS heals in 2 weeks ```
35
what layers are involved in a deep partial thickness burn and at does it look like?
``` epidermis and >1/2 dermis pale dry less pain speckled need graft ```
36
WHat layers are involved in a full thickness burn and what does it look like?
``` into subcutaneous tissu pale charred leathery NO PAIN ```
37
what are important steps when managing burns
``` cover with steriledressing early cooling to prevent further injury Tetanus analgesia measure COHb monitor for low glucose NO ABX ```
38
when do we intubate a burn?
singed nasal hair soot in airway soot in sputum hoarsness
39
what is the parkland formula?
for > 5 yrs 4cc/kg/BSA over 24 hours - 1st hlf in 8 hours, 2nd half in 16 hours ADD TO MAINTENANCE use NS
40
what are the admission criteria for burns? 8
1. Suspected non accidental 2. > 10% BSA fr partial thickness 3. > 2% BSA full thickness 4. > 1% BSA of hands/feet/face/perineum 5. circumferencial 6. inhalation injury 7. electrical injury with high tension wire 8. Associated trauma
41
what are the 3 criteria for an ALTE?
apnea colour change tone change frightening for care taker
42
patient has spinal shock - what HR and/or BP support will you give
if brady - Dopamine and Epi | if hypotensive - Norepinephrine
43
what lab values will be consistent with a chylothorax?
high TGL lymphocytes labs similar to serum high Ig
44
if pre-renal failure, what is your FeNa
< 1% Urine Na < 20 Serum BUN/Creat > 20:1 Urine Osm > 500
45
if your cause is a acute tubular necrosis, what is you Fraction excretion of Na
> 2% Urine Na > 40 serum BUN/crea < 20:1 urine Osm > 300
46
what is the WU for acute renal failure
``` U/A and R&M Lytes BUN, creat Lytes Urine lytes and Osm Cytstatin C, iCa, Mg, PO4 VBG AUS ECG for high K ```
47
what are the indications for dialysis?
``` AEIOU Acidosis Electrolytes - HIGH K, HIGH PO4, low Na Ingestion - methanol, ethylene, ASA, Li Overload Uremia - pericarditis, SZ... ```
48
how do you declare brain death?
1. Established etiology capable of causing neurological injury in absence of reversible conditions 2. No confounders including: 3. Deep unresponsive coma (GCS 3) Absent brainstem reflexes: Fixed, dilated pupils, Cough, Gag, Corneal, Vestibulo-ocular (eg cold caloric), Motor response 4. Absent respiratory effort as measured by apnea test 5. Ancillary tests: if cannot perform an element of clinical NDD (angiography or nuclear med)
49
what is the apnea test?
Preoxygenate Disconnect from vent Observe for absence of resp effort AND PaCO2 ≥ 60mmHg AND rise ≥ 20mmHg
50
what are the differences in brain death declarations?
Children ≥ 1yo = no difference Children ≥ 30d and < 1yo = 2 separate exams separated by time interval (interval not specified) Children < 30 days: minimum time from birth 48h, 2 exams separated by at least 24h
51
what are complications post submersion injury
``` Cerebral edema - ICP is bad ARDS - myocardial dysfunction DIC ischemic bowel ```
52
what ECG findings are consistent with Hypothermia
``` bradycardia flipped T wave 1st degree AV block Osborn J wave - VF ```
53
reasons to transfer a burn to a burn center?
``` Partial or full thickness burns: >10% in pt < 10 yrs 20% in other age groups Burns of face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum or major joints. Electrical/chemical burns Inhalation injury Pre-existing conditions that may complicate mgmt. Concomitant trauma Special social, emotional, rehab support ```

PICU (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions