Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CT Boards > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

Vital Signs

A

temp, pulse, blood pressure, respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

normal body temp

A

97.7-99.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pulse rate for adults

A

60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pulse rate for kids

A

70-120 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

systolic pressure

A

indicates pressure within arteries. should be less than 120 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diastolic pressure

A

measure during relaxation of the heart should be less than 80 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

normal respiration for adults/ kids

A

12-20

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cardiac cycle

A

series of blood flow-related events that occur from the beginning of one heartbeat to that of the next.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

systole vs diastole

A

contraction vs. relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 distinct stages of cardiac cycle

A

atrial systole, ventricular systole, complete cardiac diastole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

atrial systole

A

contraction of the left and right atria.

corresponds to P wave on ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ventricular systole

A

contraction of the left and right ventricles.

corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex on ECG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complete Cardiac Diastole

A

period of relaxation after heart contraction.
consists of ventricular diastole and atrial diastole.
corresponds to the T wave of the ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are cardiac CT images typically acquired

A

diastolic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

preferred heart rate for optimal cardiac imaging on most MSCT systems

A

65 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

A

laboratory value used to indicate renal function.not sufficient indicator by itself. normal range: 7-25 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Creatinine (Cr)

A

lab value used to indicate renal function.

normal levels 0.5-1.5 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BUN/ Creatinine ratio

A

sometimes used to evaluate renal function. normal is 6:1-22:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

GFR

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate: more accurate measure of renal function. approximation of creatinine clearance. normal GFR: men: 70(+-)14
women: 60(+-)10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PT

A

prothrombin time: measure of blood coagulation.

normal range: 12-15 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

normal INR range

A

0.8-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PTT

A

partial thromboplastin time:used to detect abnormalities in blood clotting.
normal range: 25-35 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

elevate D-Dimer =======

A

recently degraded blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aseptic technique

A

practices and procedures used by practitioners to reduce the risk of infection during IV administration of contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

components of aseptic technique

A
  • thorough hand washing between patients
  • wearing of disposable gloves
  • cleaning venipuncture site with alcohol swab
  • gentle pressure with alcohol swab to venipuncture site after removal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sterile Technique

A

establishing a field around area of interest free of all microorganisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

max flow rate for 22G angiocath

A

3 mL/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

single-phase imaging

A

image acquisition occurs at a single specific time during or after the injection of the contrast agent.

29
Q

Multiphase Imaging

A

involves the acquisition of multiple series of CT images over time intervals.

30
Q

RCM

A

radiopaque contrast media.

31
Q

Osmolality

A

characteristic of an iodinated RCM. describes the agents propensity to cause fluid from outside the blood vessel(extravascular space) to move into the blood stream(intravascular space)
greatly effects potential for adverse effects on patient.

32
Q

Ionic Contrast Media

A

salts consisting of sodium and/or meglumine. Each molecule of ionic contrast consists of 3 iodine atoms. When injected into the bloodstream, each molecule disassociates into two charged particles or ions. high osmolar

33
Q

Non-Ionic Contrast Media

A

non-salt chemical compounds that also contain 3 atoms of iodine per molecule. they do not disassociate in solution. low osmolar

34
Q

IOCM

A

iso-osmolar contrast media: same osmolality as blood.

35
Q

rate of serum iodine concentration for adequate opacification during CT exam

A

2-8 mg/mL

36
Q

intrathecal

A

injection into the space surrounding the spinal cord

37
Q

intra-articular

A

injection directly into joint space. performed during CT arthrography.

38
Q

4 H’s as outlined by the ACR

A
  • History
  • Hydration
  • Have (equipment ready)
  • Heads up (constant assessment of patient)
39
Q

CIN

A

contrast induced nephrotoxicity, a severe delayed reaction. considerable decline in renal function after receiving contrast media.risk is directly related to patients preexisting renal function.

40
Q

source detector distance

A

as the distance from the x-ray tube to the detectors decreases, dose increases.

41
Q

Filtration in CT x-ray tube

A

between 6-9 mm (Al) or equivalent

41
Q

Filtration in CT x-ray tube

A

between 6-9 mm (Al) or equivalent

41
Q

bow tie filters

A

added to CT x-ray tube to compensate for no cylindrical nature of most body shapes.

42
Q

bow tie filters

A

added to CT x-ray tube to compensate for no cylindrical nature of most body shapes.

42
Q

Inherent absorption efficiency

A

describes the ability of the detector to capture transmitted x-ray quanta and produce the appropriate response.

43
Q

Inherent absorption efficiency

A

describes the ability of the detector to capture transmitted x-ray quanta and produce the appropriate response.

43
Q

geometric efficiency

A

describes the spatial arrangement of detector elements, including the amount of interspace material required between adjacent elements.

> interspace material=patient dose

44
Q

geometric efficiency

A

describes the spatial arrangement of detector elements, including the amount of interspace material required between adjacent elements.

> interspace material=patient dose

44
Q

beam shape MSCT vs traditional

A

MSCT uses cone shaped beam instead of fan shaped

45
Q

beam shape MSCT vs traditional

A

MSCT uses cone shaped beam instead of fan shaped

45
Q

adaptive filters

A

noise reduction algorithms employed during the reconstruction process to reduce displayed noise within the CT image.

46
Q

dose profile

A

the section of the patient exposed to radiation

46
Q

adaptive filters

A

noise reduction algorithms employed during the reconstruction process to reduce displayed noise within the CT image.

47
Q

3 basic principles of radiation protection of the CT patient?

A

strict clinical indication
protocol optimization
shielding

47
Q

dose profile

A

the section of the patient exposed to radiation

48
Q

3 basic principles of radiation protection of the CT patient?

A

strict clinical indication
protocol optimization
shielding

48
Q

absorbed dose

A

describes the amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a unit of mass. (Gy)

49
Q

absorbed dose

A

describes the amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a unit of mass. (Gy)

49
Q

air kerma

A

describes the amount of radiation in a quantity of air

50
Q

air kerma

A

describes the amount of radiation in a quantity of air

50
Q

effective dose

A

accounts for the type of tissue that the radiation is deposited in. Takes into account different types of tissue. approximates relative risk from exposure. (Sv)

51
Q

effective dose

A

accounts for the type of tissue that the radiation is deposited in. Takes into account different types of tissue. approximates relative risk from exposure. (Sv)

51
Q

CTDI

A

CT dose index, approx measure of the dose received in a single CT section or slice.

52
Q

CTDI

A

CT dose index, approx measure of the dose received in a single CT section or slice.

52
Q

azimuth

A

the angle of the tube and detectors in relationship to the patient position during scout acquisition.

53
Q

azimuth

A

the angle of the tube and detectors in relationship to the patient position during scout acquisition.

53
Q

slip ring technology

A

eliminates the need for cables by utilizing a system of contact brushes that supply electricity to power the system and enable the passage of transmission data to the computer system.

54
Q

slip ring technology

A

eliminates the need for cables by utilizing a system of contact brushes that supply electricity to power the system and enable the passage of transmission data to the computer system.

CT Boards (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions