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G550 > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

When is the wind shear warning active?

A
  • on takeoff- ground to 1500’
  • on landing- 1500’ to 10’ agl
  • on missed approach- up to 1500’
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2
Q

When is RNP in terminal?

A
  • 30 miles of departure or destination
  • first fix of a STAR
  • until the last fix of a SID
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3
Q

When does the warning inhibit function?

A
  • on take-off up to 400 agl

- on landing until it is deselected

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4
Q

When should you check the engine oil.

A

5 to 30 minutes after shutdown

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5
Q

Do you have auto-throttles in ALT control mode?

A

No

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6
Q

What does a red “PYLON HOT” CAS message mean?

A

Bleed air leak in the pylon. Temp above 250°C

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7
Q

The Auto Fuel Return turns on/off at ____/____?

A
  • on at 0°C fuel tank temp

- off at 10°C fuel tank temp

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8
Q

Engine Ice shedding procedure

A
  • 1 engine at a time

- Power quickly to idle for 5 seconds then 90% LP

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9
Q

The FADEC keeps the engine on High Idle for landing for _____ seconds. Why?

A
  • 5 seconds

- Facilitate T/R’s on touchdown

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10
Q

Amber CAS “L-R Wing Hot” means?

A

Duct temp > 180°C

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11
Q

Amber CAS “L-R Wing Temp Low” means?

A

Duct temp < 100°C

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12
Q

Potable water tank capacity

A

30 US Gallons

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13
Q

What is required for in-flight IRS alignment?

How can you make in-flight alignment go faster?

A
  • GPS (only 1 is needed)

- Make turns, accelerate, and decelerate

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14
Q

Why are some CB’s red and others black?

A
  • Red CB’s - Essential power

- Black CB’s - Non-essential power

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15
Q

Auto speeds display up to what altitude?

A

1500’ agl

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16
Q

What is the preferred engine airstart procedure and altitude/speed limitations?

A
  • Automatic air start is preferred.
    • Starter assisted for speeds < 250 knots
    • Windmilling start for speeds > 250 knots
  • Maximum altitude for airstart is 25,000’
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17
Q

What conditions must exist for the activation of the automatic emergency decent mode (EDM)?

A
  • Aircraft altitude > 40,000’
  • Auto-pilot engaged
  • Red CAS message “Cabin Pressure Low”
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18
Q

Warning inhibit switch will inhibit all aural tones associated with CAS messages except:

A
  • Red CAS messages
  • Coupled Data Invalid (Lateral or Vertical)
  • CAT II invalid
  • LPV invalid
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19
Q

What are the 2 idle settings and when are they active?

A
  • Low idle - Flaps < 22°

- High idle - Flaps > 22°

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20
Q

What function does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve provide (PRV)?

A
  1. Positive differential pressure relief
  2. Negative differential pressure relief
  3. Cabin repressurization rate limiting
  4. Ground pressurization limiting
  5. Opens fully 1 minute after WOW (landing)
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21
Q

What is the emergency landing gear nitrogen blowdown bottle pressure?

A

3100 psi @ 70°F

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22
Q

What are the 2 types of windshear warnings?

A
  1. Caution (Amber) - increasing performance

2. Warning (Red) - decreasing perforance

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23
Q

What is the normal cabin differential pressure at FL510?

A

10.17 psi

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24
Q

What does the blue CAS message “Start Switch Config” mean?

A

Both Start and Crank master switches selected

*FADEC will not allow engine start

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25
Q

If the nose wheel steering fails, the rudder pedals go from ___° NWS authority to ___° NWS authority.

A

7° to 16°

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26
Q

The combined WOW gets its information from which WOW switches?

A

Main wheel switches

*If 1 main switch is “Air” combined is “Air”

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27
Q

The Bleed Air Augmentatin valve (BAAV) operates above ______ feet.

A

35,000 feet

  • Puts 400°C air into the APU inlet
  • Delays the start for 15 seconds
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28
Q

With only E-Batts, the fuel quantity can be found where?

A

MCDU #1

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29
Q

Can you use the auto-pilot for a single engine approach?

A

Yes, but it must be off for a go-around

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30
Q

How high must an obstacle be in order to appear on the IMap?

A

1000” agl

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31
Q

TCAS should be set to _____ for single engine ops.

A

TA only

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32
Q

When VGP mode is used, vertical guidance will ingnore: ?

A

Altitude pre-selector

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33
Q

What is RNP for Approach, Terminal, and Enroute?

A

Approach 0.3
Terminal 1.0
Enroute 2.0

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34
Q

Which DU can you dispatch without?

A

3

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35
Q

The bleed air controller (BAC) will try to maintain a wing leading edge temperature of _____°F.

A

130°F

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36
Q

The Engine Fire Handle shuts off what associated side items?

A

Fuel
Hydraulics
Electrics

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37
Q

What are the 4 ways to open the Bleed Air Isolation Valve?

A
  1. Start Master
  2. Crank Master
  3. APU bleed air selected on
  4. Isolation valve selected on
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38
Q

What is the cabin temp range in Auto?

What is the temp range in Manual?

A
  • 60°F - 90°F Auto

- 35°F - 230°F Manual

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39
Q

When may the auto-throttles be used?

A

AT’s are approved for use from takeoff to landing

*Prohibited for use during single engine approaches

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40
Q

Nose wheel steering starts reducing authority to the tiller to avoid over-steering at ____ knots.

A

18 knots

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41
Q

When is the Ground Service bus light on?

A

Anytime the ground service bus is powered by anything but the right main DC bus.

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42
Q

The Glideslope cancel switch on the Master Warning Panel will cancel glideslope alerts when activated below ______?

When does it reset?

A
  • 2000’ agl

- Descend below 30’ agl or climb above 2000’ agl.

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43
Q

How long after APU start will the APU Load Control Valve allow APU bleed air for engine start and bleed air?

A

60 seconds

*No delay time during air starts

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44
Q

Manifold pressure regulating valves regulate air to _____ psi.

A

40 psi

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45
Q

When is AGM reversion available?

A

On the ground below 60 knots

*Above 60 knots the DU’s revert automatically.

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46
Q

Auto-throttles stay in Hold mode up to ____ .

A

400’ agl

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47
Q

What items are boxed by default on the Map?

A

Terrain, Obstacles, Traffic, Weather

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48
Q

The O2 relief value triggers at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ °F.

A
  • 90 psi
  • 2600 psi
  • 225° F
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49
Q

Standard auto cabin rate of change?

A
  • 500 fpm climbing

- 300 fpm descending

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50
Q

Normal bleed air pressure In flight.

A

14-40 psi

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51
Q

What is the temp scale limit on the engine start page before and after start?

A

800° before start

1000° after start

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52
Q

When is TOGA available?

A
  • Below 16,500’ MSL and below 2000’ agl
    or
  • Airspeed < 200 knots
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53
Q

Where does the SFD (Stand-by Flight Director) get it’s information?

A
  • Heading info - Magnetometer in the tail
  • Static info - Left lower and right upper probes
  • Nav info - Nav #1
  • Attitude info - Internal AHRS
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54
Q

The Stall Barrier System is activated at what AOA?

A
  • 0.70 - PLI
  • 0.85 - Stick Shaker
  • 1.0 - Stick Pusher
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55
Q

How do you turn on the radar on the ground?

A

Push “STAB” 4 times in 3 seconds

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56
Q

Which 5 lights do not test during the warning light test?

What else does it test?

A
  • 2 lights in Engine Fire Handles
    2 lights in Engine Fuel Control Switches
    1 passenger O2 green light
  • Cabin rate to full deflection
57
Q

The APU is intended for use in flight for what emergency situations?

A
  • Dual engine flame out
  • Dual generator failure
  • Single engine failure
  • Single generator failure
58
Q

GPWS Override inhibits all call outs except for ________.

A

Windsheer (Mode 7)

59
Q

What does “ON BATT” on the IRS switch mean?

A

The IRS is not on its primary source.

60
Q

The Flight Director command bar for takeoff is at _____ pitch angle.

A
  • 2 Engine V2 + 10 nose up

- 1 Engine V2 to V2 + 10 nose up

61
Q

The Aileron Hardover Protection System (HOPS) shuts off hydraulic power to what surfaces?

A
  • Both aileron actuators, even if only one sensed a hardover
  • CAS - “L-R Aileron Hydraulic Off”
  • spoiler actuators still have power
62
Q

The nose WOW switch information is used by what 2 systems?

A
  • Nose wheel steering

- Standby rudder

63
Q

What does the FQSC do?

Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner

A
  • Balances fuel during pressure refueling.

- If a 500 lb imbalance is sensed, it shuts off fuel to the heavy wing until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.

64
Q

“L-R Fuel Level Low” Amber CAS means?

A
  • < 650 lbs of fuel in the Hopper Tank
65
Q

How much fuel does each hopper tank hold?

A
  • 190 gallons

- 1283 lbs

66
Q

What does “Fuel Tank Temp” RED CAS message mean?

A
  • Fuel tank temp is too low or too high
67
Q

External AC power is capable of powering what buses?

A
  • All buses

- Main batteries will also be charged

68
Q

How long will the batteries power the L and R Essential DC buses after 2 APU start attempts?

A
  • 30 minutes
69
Q

How many Ground Service Bus switches are there, and where are they located?

A
  • 3 switches

- Forward switch panel, tail compartment , system monitor test panel

70
Q

What controls the No Break Power Transfer system?

A

BPCU - Bus Power Control Unit

71
Q

APU generator will come on line on start up at _________.

A

99% after 2 seconds

72
Q

All automatic power transfers will be NBPT’s except between _______ and _______.

A

External AC power and APU generator

73
Q

Main batteries switches illuminate ON when?

A
  • Main battery is powering essential DC buses
  • Starting APU
  • Aux pump is running
74
Q

With the main batteries on, what is a good way to check to E-Invertor?

A

Pressurization Panel

- 2 green lights (Flight/Land)

75
Q

When do you push the AC/DC Reset?

A
  • CAS Message

- Checklist calls for it

76
Q

What is the dead bus logic for the AUX TRU?

A

Left before right

Ess bus before Main

77
Q

What are the battery charger specs in charge mode and TRU mode?

A
  • Charge mode - 38 amps, up to 32.2 volts, drops to 28.7 volts
  • TRU mode - 50 amps, 28.7 volts
78
Q

What bus charges the E-Batts?

A

Standby AC bus

79
Q

What is powered by the avionics E-Batts?

A
  1. 2 clocks
  2. SFD(Standby Flight Display)
  3. EBDI
  4. Gear handle and indicator lights
  5. MCDU 1 (Standby engine instruments)
  6. MCDU 3 (Standby radio tuning)
  7. Captain’s audio panel
80
Q

How many power sources does each MAU have?

How many CB’s?

A
  • 4 sources

- 4 CB’s

81
Q

What will cause a Break Power Transfer?

A
  • Engine fail
  • Generator fail
  • Power transfer between APU Gen and AC power cart.
82
Q

What 2 sources can power ESS DC buses simultaneously?

A
  • L/R Batteries

- Aux TRU (when powered by the HMG)

83
Q

What are the E-Batt specs?

A

24 volt
9 amp
lead-acid

84
Q

What are the E-Inverter specs?

A

1 kva
115 volts AC
400Hz
Phase A only

85
Q

What is the normal AC power source for the Aux TRU and ESS AC bus?

A

Left Main AC bus

86
Q

What are the power sources for each DU?

A

DU 1 - L-Ess DC
DU 2 - L-Main DC
DU 3 - R-Main DC
DU 4 - R-Ess DC

87
Q

What indicates an AGM failure?

A

Red “X” on the DU

88
Q

What is the power source for the STBY instruments?

A

E-Batts

89
Q

When will the E-Batts activate when the system is armed?

A

Any time either L or R Ess DC bus drops below 20 volts

90
Q

What are the specs of the IDG’s (Integrated Drive Generators).

A

Rated at:

  • 40 kVa
  • 115 volts 400 Hz
  • 3 phase AC
91
Q

How many E-Batts are there?

A

4 total - 2 Avionics and 2 Lighting

92
Q

The main aircraft batteries are rated at ____v/____amp/hours.

A

24 volt / 53 amp/hours

93
Q

What are the power sources for the fuel pumps?

A
  • L Main / L Ess DC
  • R Main / R Ess DC
  • L Aux / L Main DC
  • R Aux / R Main DC
94
Q

Where does the EBDI get its information from?

A
  • Heading info - IRU 1, IRU 2, SDF

- Nav info - NAV 1, NAV 2

95
Q

Service the left hydraulic system to _____ gallons.
Right system?
How many gallons does the hydraulic reservoir hold?

A

Left - 4.8 Gallons
Right - 1.6 Gallons
Reservoir - 1.5 Gallons

96
Q

Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?

A
  • Opposite side fuel hopper tank
97
Q

When armed, what will cause the Aux hydraulic pump to turn on automatically

A
  • Brake pedal depressed > 10° with no other
    source of power to the brakes
  • Standby rudder selected
98
Q

What is the brake accumulator pre-charge?

A

1200 psi

99
Q

HMG provides what type of electrical power?

A

10 kVa, 400Hz AC

100
Q

Hydraulic accumulators are pre-charged to _____ psi.

A

1200 psi

101
Q

Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems?

A
  • L hydraulic system
  • PTU via the R hydraulic system
  • Aux hydraulic system
102
Q

What conditions will prevent automatic PTU operation when the PTU is armed?

A
  • L hydraulic system quantity indicating
    < 1.5 gallons
  • R hydraulic system fluid temp
    indicating 104°C or greater.
103
Q

What will cause the PTU to turn on automatically when it is armed?

A

-L system pressure drops below 1500 psi

104
Q

The engine driven hydraulic pump puts out ____ psi @ ____ gallons per minute.

A

3000 psi

26 gallons per minute

105
Q

What items are lost if you lose the right hydraulic system pressure?

A
  • R Thrust Reverser

- Redundant hydraulics to the flight controls

106
Q

What powers the FADEC?

A
  • Below 35% HP - L/R Ess DC buses

- Above 35% HP - dedicated generator

107
Q

What does FADEC stand for?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

108
Q

Engine Specs

A

Rolls Royce BR710C4-11

15,385 lbs of thrust at sea level

109
Q

Where does the cowl heat get it’s bleed air from?

A
  • Own side 5th stage bleed port
110
Q

Pressurization System
How many modes?
How many channels?
How do you switch channels?

A
  • 3 Modes (Auto, Semi, and Manual)
  • 2 Channels
  • Manual to Auto switches channels
111
Q

How many power sources does the outflow valve have?

A
  • 3 power sources

- 2 AC, 1 DC

112
Q

Which AC pack shuts off automatically with Master Crank or Start?
Which AC pack shuts off automatically with individual engine start switch?

A
  • Right AC pack (Start or Crank Master)

- Left AC pack (Engine start switch)

113
Q

If the APU is started in the air, what mode will it be in?

A

Essential mode

114
Q

The APU is supplied fuel from _____?

A

Left wing fuel hopper tank using the left main fuel pump

115
Q

How high can the APU start an engine?

A
  • 30,000’

- Max engine start limit is 25,000’

116
Q

What items should be checked on the APU fire test?

A
  • 2 overhead lights
  • 4 Master caution and warning lights
  • 2 CAS messages
117
Q

Will the APU shut down automatically upon detection of a fire?

A

Yes

118
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

264 PPH

119
Q

Which bottle is the APU fire bottle?

A

Left (#2)

120
Q

What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU enclosure?

A
  • Fuel is shut off at the APU fuel control and at the fuel tank
121
Q

What are the “Cabin Pressure Low” CAS message trips points?

A
  • 8000’ when LFE < 7500’
  • 10,000’ when 7500’ < LFE < 9500’
  • 14,500’ when LFE > 9500’
  • 10,000’ when in Manual mode
122
Q

The left hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:

A
  • Flight controls
  • Flight spoilers
  • Ground spoilers
  • Yaw damper
  • Stall barrier
  • Landing gear
  • Flaps
  • Normal brakes
  • Nose wheel steering
  • HMG
  • Ground spoiler “pop-up signal”
  • Left thrust reverser
123
Q

The right hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid for:

A
  • Flight controls
  • Flight spoilers
  • Ground spoilers
  • Yaw damper
  • Stall barrier
  • Right thrust reverser
  • PTU
124
Q

The Aux hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to:

A
  • Flaps
  • Rudder / Yaw damper
  • Nosewheel steering
  • Brakes
  • Parking / Emergency brakes
  • Main cabin door
  • Ground spoiler “pop-up signal”
  • Landing gear and doors (Ground only)
125
Q

When do the battery chargers go into TR mode?

A
  • All 3 conditions met -
    1. L&R Main AC buses are powered
    2. L&R Main battery switches on
    3. Essential buses TR’s failed
    or
    Aux pump and APU start
126
Q

How much power do the battery TR’s provide?

A

50 amps

127
Q

HMG provides AC power to:

A

Aux TRU and standby AC buses

128
Q

What will occur with the activation of the EDM?

A
  1. Speed target to Vmo/Mmo
  2. Altitude preselect to 15,000’
  3. 90° left turn set in heading hold
  4. AT power to idle
  5. Descent at Vmo/Mmo to 15,000’
  6. At 15,000’ speed target changes to 250KCAS
  7. AT maintains 250 KCAS
129
Q

Ground service bus is powered by ______ ?

Ground:

Air:

A

Ground - R Main DC bus (when avail.)
- R battery or from Ext DC power
Air - R Main DC bus

130
Q

What are the 8th stage bleed air set points. (on triggers to supplement 5th stage air)

A
  • Auto opens to maintain 14 psi
  • Normally regulates to 24 psi
  • 35 psi minimum on single pack ops.
  • Wing anti-ice selected on
131
Q

Name the causes for a red CAS “AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION” message.

A
  • Flap Handle
  • Parking/Emer brake handle
  • Speed Brake
  • T/R’s
  • Elevator trim
  • GPWS/GRN SPLR/FLAP ORIDE switch
  • Gear Handle
132
Q
  • What are the steps for a start valve failure to close?
  • What are the indications?
  • When should the start valve close?
A
    1. Start Master - Press/light out
    2. L/R engine bleeds - Off
    3. APU bleed air - Off
    4. Wait 30 seconds for bleed air to stabilize
    5. Affected engine - Fuel Off
  • Amber flashing “SFO” icon next to ground idle HP
  • Start valve should close by 47% HP
133
Q

Altitude Trend Vector shows where altitude will be in _____ seconds at the current rate of climb or rate of descent.

A

6 seconds

134
Q

What is the CAS message for an Elevator HOPS activation?

A

Amber “ELEVATOR HYDRAULICS OFF, L-R”

135
Q

What is the CAS message for a single and double rudder HOPS activation?

A
  • Single rudder HOPS - Amber “RUDDER HYDRAULICS OFF” and Blue “SINGLE RUDDER”
  • Double rudder HOPS - Amber “RUDDER HYDRAULICS OFF”
136
Q
  • What does the “Spoiler Control” switch do?

- Is there a CAS message when it is selected?

A
  • Removes all hydraulic power from the spoiler system

- Amber CAS “Spoilers Hydraulics Off”

137
Q
  • What does the EMER STAB switch do?

- What is it’s associated CAS message?

A
  • Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled by movement of the electric pitch trim switches when EMER STAB is selected to ARM.
  • Amber “Emergency Stabilizer On A-B “ CAS message
138
Q

When the “RAD ALT” Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS aural call-outs except …?

A

BANK ANGLE and MINIMUMS

139
Q

When the “GPWS” Voice Override Switchlight on the Master/Caution/Inhibit panel is pushed in, it inhibits all EGPWS alerts except …?

A

WINDSHEER

G550 (2 decks)

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