General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Parkland Formula used for?

A

To calculate the amount of fluid to give in the first 24 hours following burn injury
LR = 4mL x Body weight (kg) x % TBSA burned (partial or full thickness only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Parkland Formula used for?

A

To calculate the amount of fluid to give in the first 24 hours following burn injury
LR = 4mL x Body weight (kg) x % TBSA burned (partial or full thickness only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference in fluid resuscitation for the pediatric patient vs adults?

A

Parkland formula 4mL for adults, decreases to 3mL for pediatrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neutralization agent for hydrofluoric acid burns

A

Calcium chloride gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutralization agent for tar and asphalt burns

A

Petroleum products (mineral oil or neomycin sulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neutralization agent for tar and asphalt burns

A

Petroleum products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neutralization agent for phenol burns

A

50% polyethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is sulfamylon cream used for burn wound care?

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is silvadene used for?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic cream that is painless, used for burn wounds (without infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Goal urine output for burn patients (adults and children)

A

30-50 ml/hr for adults (0.5-1 ml/kg/hr)
1-2 ml/kg/hr for children under 30 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does hyperchloremia metabolic acidosis affect the anion gap?

A

It does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the affect of increased tissue metabolism in burn patients?

A

Tissue oxygen deficit
(Increasing oxygen demand and decreased supply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a pulmonary complication for victims of fires in small spaces?

A

Asphyxiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why would a pulse ox read 100% while an saO2 reads 82%?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you treat cyanide poisoning in house fire inhalation injury patients?

A

Inhaled amyl nitrate and IV sodium nitrate to correct loss of ATP production (side effect of hypoxemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is base deficit?

A

Amount of base needed to titrate 1L of whole blood to a pH of 7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which labs could be used to identify shock in a normotensive patient?

A

Lactate and base deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An increase in bands greater than what percent indicates severe sepsis?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What on tests beyond CBC can be used to determine presence of infection?

A

CRP and prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should corticosteroid therapy be considered in sepsis patients?

A

With ongoing vasopressor therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What tool can be used to determine the rate and extent of organ failure

A

SOFA, sequential organ failure assessment

22
Q

What type of injury should have limited fluids provided prehospital?

A

Penetrating injury to torso (r/t permissive hypotension)

23
Q

What lab value can be used as an end point to resuscitation?

A

Base deficit

24
Q

What is the antidote for a nerve agent?

A

Atropine and 2-PAM Co.

25
What is the antidote for vesicants?
Dimercaprol
26
What is the lab test beta 2 transferrin used for?
Accurately identifying CSF in bodily fluids
27
What causes vasogenic cerebral edema?
Direct tissue injury
28
What causes cytotoxic cerebral edema?
Hypoxia and anoxic brain injuries
29
What is potential long term complication commonly associated with basilar skull fractures?
Loss of smell CN I injury Also injury to CN II OR VII
30
What is the treatment for a parotid duct injury?
Tube cannulation for 3-6 months
31
What type of dressing is appropriate for a corneal abrasion?
Light semi pressure dressing
32
In an orbital blowout fracture, how is it determined that a patient with limited extraocular eye movements has muscle paralysis versus entrapment?
Forced duction
33
What is a hyphema?
Collection of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye
34
What medication may be given in a pt with a thoracic aortic dissection who is hypertensive and tachycardic?
Beta blockers
35
What physiologic sign consists of LUQ pain and radiation to the neck?
Positive Saegesser’s sign
36
What would be an expected finding in a pregnant patients ABG?
Compensated respiratory alkalosis
37
What does a Kleihauer-Betke test detect?
To detect fetal blood cells in maternal circulation, especially in Rh negative mothers
38
Pulmonary signs of fat emboli
Productive cough with coarse crackles
39
What urine output is the target for electrical burn patients?
75-100 ml/hr
40
What is a common treatment for postreimplantation venous congestion?
Medicinal leech therapy
41
Which is more dangerous AC or DC voltage?
AC
42
A trauma patient repeating their story is a step toward…
Acceptance
43
Can spontaneous motor movements occur in brain death patients?
Yes
44
What type of injury indicates the need for limited fluid resuscitation prehospital?
Penetrating abdominal injury
45
What is the best way for the nurse to explain the difference in PT and OT?
PT mostly works with the legs and OT mostly works with the arms
46
What type of research methods have more biases?
Retrospective
47
What type of herniation affects respiratory patterns and LOC?
Central
48
What is an ethics committees first step in assisting with a dilemma?
Data collection
49
What abdominal compartment is the bladder most likely to rupture in to during MVC?
Intraperitoneal
50
What is the term for an avulsion injury of the renal artery?
Pedicle injury
51
What is the most common cause of urethral injury?
Straddle injuries
52
What is the most common cause of urethral injury?
Straddle injuries