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Flight Examiner Rating PPL > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What does “Placement Evaluation”

A

Placement evaluation is concerned with the pupils entry performance and typically focus on… does the pupil possess the general knowledge and skills needed to begin the planned instruction?”

Typically used by a CFI assess a new student into the organization.

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2
Q

What does “Formative Evaluation” mean?

A

Formative evaluation is used to monitor learning progress during instruction. Its purpose is to provides continuous feedback to both pupil and teacher concerning learning successes and failures. This type of evolution is an on going process.

It is used throughout the students training, during every instructional period.

Since formative evaluation is directed toward improving leaving and instruction, the results are typically NOT used for assigning course grades.

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3
Q

What does “Diagnostic Evaluation” mean?

A

The main aim of diagnostic evaluation is to determine the cause of persistent learning problems and to formulate a plan for remedial action.

This type of evaluation is used by flight instructors to determine why a student is having problems executing a TASK, for example, losing height in a turn.

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4
Q

What does “Summative Evaluation” mean?

A

Is used primarily… for certifying pupil mastery of the intended learning outcomes.

Used by flight examiners to asses the candidates performance against stated minimum standards.

Wherever possible, summative evaluation should be carried out by an independent examiner (not directly involved in the candidates training).

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5
Q

How should PPL flight test be logged in log books for student/examiner?

A

If it is a pass, both may log it as PiC, however the examiner shall not log it as instructing.

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6
Q

How should PPL BFR flight test be logged in log books for instructor?

A

PiC and can be logged as instructing.

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7
Q

What should the examiner brief the student on before the flight test to minimize the risk of misunderstanding?

A

a. Ask the candidate to verbalize all checklists and nominated speeds.
b. Brief the candidate on the flight format.
c. brief the candidate as to who is PiC.
e. Brief the candidate as to who will command ‘go around’ during forced landing exercises.

Reference FTSG PPL

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8
Q

What C of A for an aircraft is acceptable for license issue?

A
  1. Standard Category
  2. Special Category - LSA
  3. Special Category - Amateur built (where the candidate is the owner).
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9
Q

What are the balance requirements for PPL?

A

Flight with no more than 1/4 ball sustained deflection in slip or skid.

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10
Q

What is the maximum amount of attempts allowed for “unsatisfactory performance?”

A

The examiner may permit a second attempt at any (maximum 3) task(s) or elements(s) (other than critical items), provided that, on the opinion of the examiner, the safety of the aircraft was not compromised, the stranding of the license would not diminished or a clear misunderstanding of the examiners requirements occurred.

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11
Q

What are the prerequisites for sitting a PPL?

A

a. Have a logbook record of the requisite flight training and experience, and
b. hold appropriate current written examination credit(s), and
c. Have proof of their identity, and
d. be at least 17 years old, and
e. Hold a current medical certificate (DL9) issued in accordance with rule 44(1) of the Land Transport (Drivers Licensing) Rule or a class two medical certificate (or higher)as applicable..

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12
Q

Minimum requirements of an aircraft to be used for flight testing?

A

a. Fully functioning dual flight controls, and
b. those instruments essential to the maneuvers planned to be demonstrated during the flight visible to both pilots without excessive parallel error, and
c. at least three-point lap-and-sash harness, and

The candidate is required to provide adequate and private facilities for briefing prior to and after the flight test.

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13
Q

Airspeed limits for a climb

A

+/- 5 kts

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14
Q

Height, direction, and balance limits for straight and level, turning.

A

+/- 100 ft, +/- 5 degrees, +/- 1/4 ball deflection

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15
Q

What speed should be generically nominated for slow flight? (FTSG)

A

1.2 Vs

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16
Q

Compass turn limitations

A

Turning onto a compass heading initially +/- 10 degrees, reducing to +/-5 degrees after one correction.

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17
Q

What is the minimum height an examiner may simulate an FLWOP during a PPL flight test?

A

2000ft AGL

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18
Q

FLWOP, when should the candidate be able to reach the 1/3 aiming point?

A

500 ft AGL

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19
Q

What is the PA38 Group Rating?

A

6

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20
Q

PA38 Horse Power?

A

112 hp

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21
Q

PA38 total and usable fuel?

A

121.1 lts total
113 Usable
8 unusable

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22
Q

PA38 max and min oil capacity?

A

6-2

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23
Q

PA38 maximum floor loading in baggage area?

A

25 lbs. per square foot

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24
Q

PA38 VA, MAUW and 1277 lbs.

A

MAUW = 103
1277 lbs. = 90

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25
Q

PA38 VNE

A

138

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26
Q

PA38 VNO

A

110

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27
Q

PA38 VFE

A

89

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28
Q

PA38 Vs

A

52

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29
Q

PA38 Static RPM

A

220-2350 rpm

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30
Q

PA38 maximum baggage weight?

A

100 lbs.

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31
Q

PA38 CoG limits MAUW normal category?

A

73.5-78.5

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32
Q

PA38 max g loading flaps up and down (normal and utility)?

A

Flaps up = 3.8 (normal0, 4.4 (utility)
Flaps down= 2.0 (normal and utility)
No negative or inverted maneuvers

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33
Q

PA38 Vso

A

49

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34
Q

PA38 glide

A

70

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35
Q

PA38 for an unintentional spin recover, when do you retract the flaps?

A

After recovering from the spin

36
Q

PA38 Vx

A

61

37
Q

PA38 Vy

A

70

38
Q

PA38 max demonstrated crosswind

A

15

39
Q

PA38 short field landing

A

67

40
Q

PA38 drop of rpm with magneto check?

A

Max drop 175 rpm, max difference 50 rpm

41
Q

PA38 suction range

A

@2000 rpm 5.0 “Hg +/- 0.1

42
Q

PA38 what cruise power should you use?

A

75% of the rated horsepower

43
Q

PA38 weight and balance reference datum?

A

Nose spinner

44
Q

PA38 pilot/passenger, fuel and baggage arms for weight and balance?

A

Pilot and passenger = 85.5 “
Fuel (full tanks 30 gallons)= 75.4 “
Baggage area= 115 “

45
Q

PA38 State the electrical system

A

14 volt, 60-ampere alternator, a voltage regulator, an over voltage relay, a battery contractor and a 12-volt 25 ampere hour battery.

46
Q

PA38 state the components of the fuel system

A

Fuel tanks,
Fuel selector,
Fuel filter,
Electric fuel pump
Engine driven fuel pump,
Fuel pressure sender,
Carburetor.

Throttle and mixture control levers connect to the carb.
Primer draws through the fuel filter, and primes fuel directly into the primer nozzles

47
Q

PA38 how much before the stall should the stall horn come on?

A

5-10 kts before

48
Q

What section of the rules is PPL found in?

A

Rule 61, subpart D

49
Q

Rule 61 subpart D, Eligibility requirements PPL

A

a. 17 years old
b. hold class 2 or DL9
c. 50 flight time, or 40 if not seeking the cross country flight privileges
d. if seeking nigh privileges, have met night requirements.
e. passed the 6 written exams
f. have passed a flight test with an examiner including\
i. showed KDRs
ii. knowledge of P & L
iii. Competently operate the aircraft within limits, normal and emergency.
v. competent in FRT procedures and phraseology
vi. control the aircraft at all times without doubt

50
Q

PPL Privileges

A

a. act as PiC on aircraft that they are rated for, and may carry passengers
b. act as co-pilot for aircraft of the category for which the license was granted for for which the pilot holds a type rating, and which is required to be operated with a co-pilot

51
Q

PPL Limitations

A

A holder of a PPL must not act as PiC or co-pilot of an aircraft
a. for remuneration, or
b. if the aircraft is being operated for hire or reward, or
c. if the aircraft is being operated at night or on a X/C unless they have those privileges certified in their log book

52
Q

PPL Limitations Rule 61, subpart D. Restrictions for DL9 medical holders

A

PPL on a DL9 may not act as PiC or co-pilot of any aircraft
a. exceeding MCTOW 2730 kgs
b. any pressurized aircraft exceeding 25 000 ft AMSL
d. Operate outside of NZ unless permitted by a foreign country.
e. operate under IFR
f. ag fly
g. banner tow below 500 ft AGL
h. Droge tow below 500 ft AGL
i. Parachute drop above 10 000 ft AMSL
j. exercise the privileges of an aerobatics rating, must not carry passengers while performing aerobatics
k. carry more than 5 passengers
l. at night exceed more than 25 nm from a lit aerodrome

53
Q

PPL currency requirements

A

3 take off and landings every 90 days
BFR every to years
Hold a medical

54
Q

what is the PPL AC number?

A

61-3 PPL

55
Q

What may a candidate use as a form of ID?

A

NZ Drivers License
A full birth certificate
A certificate of NZ citizenship
A refugee travel document used by or on behalf of the NZ government
A NZ or overseas passport
NZ firearms licence
A current certificate of ID
A NZ police or NZ defence force photo ID card issued to non-civilian staff

56
Q

How long is a DL9 valid for?
Younger than 40?
Older than 40?

A

Younger than 40 = 5 years
Older than 40 = 2 years

57
Q

What must be included on the DL9 medical?

A

DL9 with passenger endorsement, class 2, 3, 4, or 5.

58
Q

What are the “written examination credit” requirements for a PPL and reference?

A

AC 61.153
the six exams
All six exams must have been sat within 3 years,

59
Q

What is the minimum level of the “English Language Proficiency: to be held for a PPL?

A

Level 4, reference AC61

60
Q

Exceptions to the PPL written examination credits?

A

A pilot who has completed at least the NZDF basic phase of the ground and flight training, except for PPL law which must be sat.

61
Q

PPL Hour requirements

A

50 hours TT, (40 hrs if they have not done the x/c training)
15 hrs dual
15 hrs solo
5 dual IF (maximum of 2 in an approved sim)
5 TAWA (2 LF, 2 TAWA, 1 of either)
5 hours advanced dual
10 hrs X/C
5 hours night flying (2 dual, 2 solo, one of either)

62
Q

Stickers required prior to PPL

A

IF Sticker
TAWA sticker (AC61-3)
If seeking PPL Night privileges, a night sticker.
If seeking X/C privileges, X/C sticker

63
Q

Limits on cross crediting PPL flight experience

A

Half the PiC time in the preceding 12 months to a maximum of 10 hours may be accredited towards total flight experience but not to the specific experiences.

64
Q

What are the PPL Cross country syllabus requirements for stage 1,2 and 3 cross countries?

A
  1. Hold written examinations. 1 hour dual, 1 hour solo.
  2. 2 hours dual, 2 hours solo, include on landing at a controlled aerodrome, one landing non-controlled aerodrome at least 25nm from point of departure.
  3. 2 hours dual, 2 hours solo. Include diversion requiring low-level nav. Introduce emergencies such as deteriorating weather resulting in low level diversion and unscheduled landing under simulated met conditions 600 ft cloud base and 5000 m vis.

Note: At least one solo cross country is to be made into controlled airspace in an aircraft equipped with a functioning two way radio

65
Q

Met minim requirements for PPL X/C?

A

2000ft ceiling, 16 km vis.

66
Q

Syllabus requirements for PPL X/C Comp Check?

A

A, B or C out of direct supervision.

67
Q

What are the aircraft, equipment and facilities required for the PPL Flight Test?

A

Aircraft to have:
Fully functioning controls
Instruments in view to both pilots without excessive parallax error,
At least a three point lap-and-sash harness
Intercom

Candidate is to provide adequate and private facilities for prior to and after the flight test.

68
Q

What speed should a candidate use for slow flight?

A

1.2 x vs

69
Q

When may you give flight instruction on a Restricted Category airworthiness certificate?

A

Conversation instruction for a type rating
Flight instruction for the issue if an ag rating
Flight instruction for the specific operational purpose for which the aircraft is certificated

70
Q

What categories of Special Airworthiness certificate are there?

A

Experimental
Exhibition
Amateur-built
Primary
LAS
Limited

71
Q

What is the reduced visibility minim for aircraft receiving instruction in a LFZ?

A

less than 5 km, but not less that 1500 m.

Rule 91

72
Q

VFR Met Minima

A

C and D Airspace:
1000 ft vertically, reduced to 500ft in a control zone), 2 km horizontally, 5 km vis below 10 000ft, 8 km vis above 10 000 ft.

G Airspace:
below 3000ft AMSL, or 1000 ft AGL, clear of cloud, in sight of the ground, 5 km vis.

73
Q

Controlled and Uncontrolled aerodrome Take-off Met Minima Day and Night

A

Uncontrolled Day/Night:
600m ceiling, 1500m vis
1500ft ceiling, 8 km vis

Controlled
1500ft ceiling, 5 km vis

74
Q

What is special VFR Minima?

A

Inside a controlled aerodrome,
600 ft ceiling, 1500 m vis
Must be equipped with a two way radio, day only, remain clear of cloud.

75
Q

Minimum Heights VFR

A

1000ft vertically, 600 m horizontally over built up area

500ft vertically, 150 m horizontally, non-built up areas

76
Q

Exceptions to flight below VFR minimum altitudes?

A

Rule 91.311
Holds an instructor rating, and is conducting flight training or practice flights consisting of:
Simulated EFATO below 1000ft AGL
Simulating engine failure above 1000ft to a height below 500 ft into a LFZ.

77
Q

GA Examiner Currency Requirements

A

AC 61-19
Every 24 months demonstrate compentency to the director

78
Q

C-Cat Night Requirements?

A

Must Hold the CPL night requirements.

Must demonstrate competency to in instruction and flying to flight examiner at night.

79
Q

B-Cat Night Requirements

A

25 hours night TT
20 night PiC
15 hours night flight instruction

Log book to be assessed by GA examiner and endorsed.

80
Q

Spin Instructor requirements

A

Demonstrate instructional and flying competency to a flight examiner

81
Q

Aerobatics instructor requirements

A

Required to demonstrate instructional and flying competence in at least the three basic aerobatic manoeuvres, loop, barrel roll and stall turn to flight examiner

82
Q

Eligibility Requirements for Aerobatic Rating

A

Completed a ground course.
Completed an aerobatics flight training course
Demonstrated competence in aeros and spinning to an appropriately qualified flight instructor
Hold class 1 or 2 medical

83
Q

Requirements to instruct aerobatics below 3000 ft but above 1500 ft?

A

50 hours of aerobatic flight instruction experience

84
Q

Requirements to instruct aerobatic below 1500ft?

A

100 hours of aerobatic flight instructor experience

85
Q

How often are the volumes updated?

A

Every 56 days approx

86
Q

How often are supplements issued?

A

Every 28 days (works out to 13 times a year)

Flight Examiner Rating PPL (1 decks)

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