general Flashcards

1
Q

Harms of periodic screening

A

Overdiagnosis

False positive, anxiety, quality of life and consequences

Follow-up testing (infection, bleeding), medical intervention, hospitalization

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2
Q

cervical cancer screening age

A

25-69

≥ 70yo, stop if 3 successive negative Pap tests in last 10 years

Consider 21-69yo as per SOGC

Consider 21-65yo as per INSPQ

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3
Q

mammography screening age

A

Women 50-74yo q2-3y

recommends shared decision-making with women

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4
Q

colorectal cancer screening age and frequency in general population

A

50-74yo FOBT (or FIT) q2y or flexible sigmoidoscopy q10y (weak recommendation 50-59yo, strong recommendation 60-74yo)

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5
Q

risk factors of colon cancer and age of screening

A

1st degree relative ≤60yo CRC, high risk adenomas, or 2+ relatives

40yo or 10y prior to index case

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6
Q

lung cancer screening age and criteria

A

55-74yo with ≥30 py smoking history (current or quit <15y ago) low-dose CT q1y x 3 (weak recommendation; low quality evidence)

: USPSTF 2021 recommends annual screening with low-dose CT for 50-80yo with 20py smoking history, and to discontinue once a person has not smoked for 15 years or develops a health problem that limits life expency or ability/willingness to have curative lung surgery

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7
Q

age and criteria of screening for AAA

A

Men 65-80yo with one-time screening ultrasound for abdominal aortic aneurysm

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8
Q

age and frequency of db screening

A

≥40yo A1C or FPG q3y or earlier if high risk

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9
Q

age and frequency of DLP screening

A

≥40yo non-fasting lipids q5y (annually >20%) or earlier if risk

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10
Q

vit D and ca supplement doses

A

vitamin D 400-2000 IU daily, if age>50 years (or risk) 800-2000IU daily

Calcium 1200 mg/d from diet (increase to 1500-2000 mg/d if pregnant or lactating)

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11
Q

when to screen for osteoporosis and risk factors

A

All men and women ≥ 65yo

≥ 50yo if risk factor:
Fragility fracture after age 40 (low trauma fractures) and risk of future fractures
Vertebral compression fracture or osteopenia on X-ray
Parental hip fracture
Prolonged use of glucocorticoids (3mo of >7.5 mg prednisone daily in past year)
Rheumatoid arthritis, malabsorption syndrome
Current smoker
High alcohol intake (>3 units/day)
Major weight loss (10% below body weight at age 25)
<50 yo if disorder associated with rapid bone loss
Fragility fractures
High-risk medications
Malabsorption
Inflammatory
Primary hyperparathyroidism

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12
Q

tests for secondary causes of osteoporosis

A

Calcium, Albumin
CBC
Creatinine
Alk phos
TSH
SPEP (if vertebral fractures on X-ray)
25-OH Vitamin D checked once after 3 month of supplementation in impaired instesinal absorption, or osteoporosis requiring pharmacotherapy

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13
Q

ways to prevent osteoporosis

A

Smoking cessation, alcohol reduction <3 drinks/day
Vitamin D 1000-2000 IU PO daily
Calcium intake 1200mg/day from diet (three servings of low fat milk products)
Can consider Calcium supplement ≤500mg PO daily in those who cannot meet recommended dietary allowance at high risk of fractures
Sufficient protein intake (1g/kg/day)
Exercise Multicomponent program includes
Resistance training ≥ 2x/wk
Back extensor muscles daily
Balance training daily
Aerobic physical activity 150 mins/week of moderate intensity
Fall awareness and prevention
Assistive devices
Medication review (fall risk)
Environmental hazards
Hip protectors
Urinary incontinence

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14
Q

Name 6 classes of medication for osteoporosis treatment and an example

A

Oral bisphosphonate: Alendronate 70mg PO weekly or Risedronate 35mg PO weekly or 150mg PO monthly
Take 1 hour before breakfast with 250mL water, upright 30 mins, avoid any calcium for 2-3h
Adverse: Osteonecrosis of the jaw, atypical femur fractures, esophagitis, esophageal ulcers
Consider oral bisphosphonate holiday after 5y (10y in high risk, eg. previous fracture and T<-2.5)
IV bisphosphonate: Zoledronic acid 5mg IV once yearly if GI/esophageal disorders, or inability to tolerate (eg. sit upright for 30-60 mins)
Consider Drug Holiday after 3y (6y in high risk)
Monoclonal Ab (RANKL inhibitor): Denosumab (Prolia) 60mg sc twice yearly if impaired renal function
No drug holiday on Denosumab
Adverse: Joint/muscle pain, osteonecrosis of jaw, contraindicated in pregnancy
PTH Analog: Teriparatide (Forteo) 20mcg sc daily in severe osteoporosis who cannot tolerate bisphosphonate
Adverse: Hypercalciuria/emia, angioedema
SERM (Selective estrogen receptor modulators ): Raloxifene
Risk of thromboembolism
Other: Calcitonin intranasal, Hormone therapy (in menopausal symptoms)

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15
Q

when to refer osteoporosis to a specialist

A

Multiple fractures despite adherence to therapy
Secondary causes of osteoporosis/metabolic bone disease outside expertise
Extremely low BMD not explained by risk factors
CKD (eGFR<30mL/min)

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16
Q

age group in croup

A

6m-3yo

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17
Q

differential ddx of croup, name 6

A

bacterial tracheitis
retropharyngeal/ peritonsillar abscess
epiglottitis
aspiration of foreign body
allergic reaction

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18
Q

treatment of croup

A

Dexamethasone 0.6mg/kg po or IM x 1

mod severe: nebulized epi over 15 min

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19
Q

when can u d/c croup

A

after observing 2- 4h after meds

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20
Q

T or F:
No evidence for Heliox (or helium-oxygen mixture), antibiotics, short-acting beta-2-agonist bronchodilators in treatment of croup

A

True

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21
Q

3 categories of croup and their caracteristics

A

Mild: no stridoe or significant wob - dex + d/c

Mod: stridor and chest wall indrawing at rest but no agitation - dex + observe

severe: stridor and chest wall indrawing at rest with lethargy or agitation : dex + epi + observe

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22
Q

when to give antibiotics in acute bronchitis

A

consider antibiotics in ≥ 75 years, >3 weeks or suspect B. pertussis (Whooping cough, >3 weeks, vomiting (related to coughing), exposure to pertussis, not vaccinated)

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23
Q

name 6 symptomatic therapies for an URTI

A

Analgesics (Acetaminophen/NSAIDs)
Combination products (Antihistamine, decongestant, analgesics)
Consider Zinc lozenges 75mg PO daily, Pleragonium sidoides, Andrographis paniculata
Risk of irreversible anosmia in intranasal zinc preparations
Nasal symptoms
Nasal saline irrigation (poor evidence)
Intranasal cromolyn sodium 1 spray (5.2mg) in each nostril q2h PRN x 2 days then 4 times daily x 5 days
Intranasal ipratropium bromide 0.06% solution two sprays (42mcg/spray) in each nostril 3-4 times daily PRN x 4 days
Cough suppressant
Brompheniramine plus sustained-release pseudoephedrine
Ipratropium bromide inhaled
Dextromethorphan 30mg PO q6-8h PRN

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24
Q

two medication to help with flu

A

Zanamivir (Relenza) two inhalations (10mg) PO BID x 5d or oseltamivir (Tamiflu) 75mg PO BID x 5d

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25
Q

when to consider antiviral in elderly

A

Severe disease (requiring hospitalization or evidence of lower respiratory tract infection, eg. dyspnea, tachypnea, oxygen desaturation)
High risk for complications (pregnancy)

start within 48h

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26
Q

5 indication to consider CXR in URTI

A

Hemoptysis
Pleuritic chest pain
Dyspnea
Systemic symptoms (fever, tachycardia >100, tachypnea>24)
Abnormal physical exam (crackles, decreased breath sounds, bronchial breathing)

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27
Q

4 criterias for complicated UTI

A

Anatomic or functional abnormality of urinary tract (enlarged prostate, stone, diverticulum, neurogenic bladder)

Immunocompromised host

Multi-drug resistant bacteria

Pyelonephritis

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28
Q

name 5 common bacterias for UTI

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

E Coli – most common (75-95%), especially in women

Enterococci – most common in LTC facilities

Proteus mirabilis – most common in men

Staph saprophyticus

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29
Q

6 risk factors for UTI

A

Age

Female

Neurogenic bladder/urinary incontinence, vesicoureteral reflux, posterior urethral valves, prolapse, BPH

Indwelling catheter, recent surgery/instrumentation

Diabetes, other comorbidities

Sexual activity

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30
Q

name 7 DDx of UTI

A

Infectious

Cystitis, Pyelonephritis, Urethritis

Vulvovaginitis, Cervicitis

Prostatitis, epididiymo-orchitis

Foreign body

Urolithiasis

Dermatologic

Irritant/Contact dermatitis, lichen sclerosus, lichen planus, psoriasis, Stevens-Johnson, Behçet syndrome

BPH, urethral stricture

Neoplastic

Trauma/surgery

Interstitial cystitis (bladder pain syndrome)

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31
Q

name 4 conditions that can put UTI at risk of complications

A

pregnant, co-morbidity, exposure to antibiotics in past 3 months, travel, previous drug-resistant infection, children, diabetes, urolithiasis

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32
Q

name 3 causes of underlying causes of reurrent UTI

A

post-coital urinary tract infection, atrophic vaginitis, retention

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33
Q

T or F:
A woman with dysuria/frequency, no risk factors for complicated infection, and no vaginal discharge had a 90% probability of UTI (LR+ = 24.6) and can be treated without :UA or UCx

A

true

When a diagnosis of uncomplicated urinary tract infection is made, treat promptly without waiting for a culture result.

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34
Q

When should u order UA for UTI

A

if history not clear

Both LE/Nitrites PPV+ 95%

LE alone consider urethritis

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35
Q

when is UCx considered positive for UTI

A

Urine culture indicates UTI only if accompanied by symptoms

Without indwelling catheter >10^5 cfu/mL of <2 species by void, or >10^2 by in-and-out

With indwelling catheter >10^5 cfu/mL taken from new catheter or <14d since insertion

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36
Q

simple cystitis tx

A

Nitrofurantoin 100mg PO BID x 5-7d (careful in reduced creatinine clearance)

TMP-SMX DS 1 tab BID x 3d (if resistance <20%, Quebec has 15% resistance)

Fosfomycin 3g PO x 1 (appropriate but inferior efficacy)

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37
Q

cystitis in pregnancy tx

A

Nitrofurantoin 100mg PO BID x 7d

Amoxicillin 875mg PO BID x 3-7d

Avoid TMP-SMX in first trimester and at term

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38
Q

acute Pyelonephritis or complicated cystitis tx

A

Acute Pyelonephritis or complicated cystitis

Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO BID x7d or Levofloxacin 500mg PO daily x 7d

Can consider initial intravenous dose: Ceftriaxone 1g IV or 24h dose of aminoglyocoside

If complicated pyelonephritis consider inpatient IV antibiotics initially and longer 14d course

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39
Q

treatment of UTI in men

A

Consider r/o prostatitis, urethritis

Empiric antibiotics

Fluoroquinolones (eg. Cipro 500mg PO BID or Levofloxacin 500mg PO daily) x 7-14d

If afebrile, consider 7d course rather than 14d as per latest JAMA 2021

Consider shorter courses of fluoroquinolones for uncomplicated pyelonephritis (eg. 7d as per ACP)

Consider TMP-SMX DS 1 tab BID if culture sensitive

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40
Q

how to properly tx uti with urinary catheter

A

Ideally remove catheter prior to antibiotics

Otherwise intermittent catheterization if possible

Otherwise replace catheter after antimicrobial therapy started

7-14 day antimicrobial treatment generally adequate

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41
Q

8 tips for prevention of UTI

A

Hydration, nutrition

Perineal hygiene

Healthy voiding habits

Avoid unnecessary urinary catheters (consider intermittent cathterization)

Aseptic technique for urinary catheters

May consider cranberry prophylaxis (eg. juice or tablet)

May consider discussing antibiotic prophylaxis (continuous x 1 year or postcoital) vs. self-treatment in recurrent UTI (eg. 2+/6mo, 3+/12mo)

May consider vaginal estrogen therapy in peri/post-menopausal women

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42
Q

Name FOUR medical conditions that could be contributing to insomnia?

A

Mental health disorders/Anxiety/Depression/Stress/Adjustment

Hormonal changes/perimenopause/menopause

Substance use/alcohol/illicit drugs/caffeine

Pain

Restless Legs Syndrome

Obstructive sleep apnea

Hyperthyroidism

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43
Q

What advice about sleep hygiene do you discuss with Michelle. Name SIX.

A

Keep a sleep diary

Regular exercise: 150 mins/wk of moderate intensity cardiovascular exercise + resistance training 2 days per week

Avoid large meals close to bedtime

Develop/Engage in a wind-down routine

Turn off electronics 1/2 hour before bedtime

Do not watch the clock

Ensure comfortable temperature

Sleep in a dark room

Minimize alcohol use

Use bedroom only for sleep and intimacy

Keep regular sleep-wake schedule 7 days per week

Avoid caffeine later in the day

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44
Q

Name ONE non-pharmacologic therapy that has been shown to be helpful for insomnia.

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy

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45
Q

Name THREE prescription medications, each from a different class, that could be used to treat insomnia?

A

Trazodone (FYI: Serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI),

Mirtazepine (FYI: Atypical antidepressants/tetracyclic antidepressants),

triazolam/lorazepam/temazepam/nitrazepam (FYI: Benzodiazepines),

zopiclone/zolpidem (FYI: Benzodiazepine receptor agonists),

amitriptyline/doxepin (FYI: Tricyclic antidepressants),

tryptophan (FYI: Serotonin precursors)

Writing Benzodiazepines (BDZ) as an answer might have made you nervous, and for good reason! These are not good medications, but the way the question is worded (“drugs that could be used to treat her insomnia”) makes them applicable answer. If the question was worded, “what are the preferred mediations to prescribe when someone has exhausted non-pharmacologic approaches?” then BDZs are not on the list.

Also, suggest avoiding meds that are often used for sleep but are off-label, such as quetiapine (atypical anti-psychotics). In this case you also might have wondered about using hormone replacement therapy or oral contraceptive pills to normalize hormonal patterns. Those medications did not make the answer key because there is not enough information to know if they are appropriate. Melatonin is not on the answer key because it is over-the-counter.

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46
Q

What ocular symptoms are important to inquire about? List FOUR.

A

Blurred vision/visual acuity
Photophobia
Exudate/Discharge
Itching
Coloured halos in the visual field
Sensation of a foreign body
Double vision/Diplopia
eye pain
redness

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47
Q

name 8 ddx of red eye

A

Autoimmune: Iritis
Keratitis
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Foreign body
Blepharitis
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Pterygium
Abrasion/trauma
Chalazion/Hordeolum/Stye
Chemical burn/irritant
Allergic

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48
Q

3 potentially serious ocular side effects of prolonged use of topical corticosteroid drops

A

Cataracts
Elevated intraocular pressure
Optic nerve damage

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49
Q

if a patient were elderly, were complaining of acute pain in the eye, and had visual acuity of 20/200, what ophthalmic diagnosis would you be MOST concerned about? Be specific.

A

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

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50
Q

What technique is the “gold standard” for diagnosing glaucoma

A

Measurement of intraocular pressure/Tonometry

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51
Q

What is the DEFINITIVE treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma

A

Surgical peripheral iridectomy/ Laser peripheral iridectomy/Iridectomy

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52
Q

You diagnose viral conjunctivitis. How do you educate her about her request for antibiotic eye drops?

Describe TWO points of discussion

A

Since there is no evidence of a bacterial infection, and that viral conjunctivitis is far more common, there is no indication for antibiotic drops.

She will likely get better at the same rate with or without drops

Even if it was bacterial, it is usually a self-limiting condition

Bacterial super-infection in viral conjunctivitis is uncommon

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53
Q

How do you counsel about return to work, preventing transmission to her other eye, and preventing transmission to others in terms of viral conjunctivitis? Name THREE.

A

Return To Work: Do not return to work until symptoms have resolved.
Prevention of transmission to her other eye: Recommend do not touch her eyes.
Prevention of transmission to others: Recommend frequent hand washing

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54
Q

otalgia DDx

A

AOM, acute mastoiditis, acute facial nerve palsy, labyrinthitis, venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, trauma, cholesteatoma, tumor, otitis externa, r/o necrotizing/malignant otitis externa, Herpes zoster , Secondary otalgia, otitis media with effusion, otitis externa

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55
Q

name 3 patogens of AOM

A

S pneumoniae , M catarrhalis and H influenzae

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56
Q

name 6 risk factors of AOM

A

Smoking exposure

Upper respiratory tract infection

Daycare (sick contacts)

Bottlefeed

Pacifier

Personal history, family history of AOM

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57
Q

name 3 alternative antibiotics to amoxicilline for tx of AOM in case of allergy

A

Non-anaphylactic: Cefuroxime 30 mg/kg/day ÷ BID-TID

Anaphylactic: Clarithromycin 15mg/kg/day PO ÷ BID x5-10d or Azithromycin 10mg/kg PO day 1, then 5mg/kg PO x 4d

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58
Q

criterias for ENT referral for ear problems

A

recurrent AOM 3x/6 months or 4x/1 year

Chronic OME >3 months
With risk of speech/learning problems
Bilateral OME with Hearing loss
Symptoms attributable with OME (vestibular problems, poor school performance, behavioural problems, ear discomfort)

AOM resistant to second-line antibiotics

Perforated TM non-resolved after 6w

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59
Q

T or F: Water precautions should not be encouraged routinely in patients with tympanostomy tubes

A

T

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60
Q

Topical antibiotic eardrops (Eg. Ciprofloxacin (Ciprodex) = 4 drops BID x 5 days) without oral antibiotics should be prescribed for children with uncomplicated acute tympanostomy tube otorrhea

A

True

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61
Q

name 6 cognitive domainsLearning/memory

A

Language

Executive function

Complex attention

Perceptual-motor

Social cognition

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62
Q

name examples of Activities of Daily Living (ADL)

A

dressing, eating/self-feeding, ambulating/transferring, toileting, hygiene/grooming, bath/shower)

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63
Q

name exemples of Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)

A

shopping, housework, accounting/finances, food prep, telephone, transportation, taking meds

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64
Q

name 6 MNCDs

A

Alzheimer (most common 50%)

Gradual onset, normal CNS, initial and most prominent deficit = amnestic (associated with impairment in learning and recall of recently learned information)

Mixed Alzheimer and vascular (20%)

Vascular (15%)

Abrupt, stepwise, cardiovascular risks (HTN, DLP), dysexecutive syndrome, focal neurological features

Lewy Body (5%)

Core features: Fluctuating cognition, detailed visual hallucinations, REM sleep behaviour disorder, Parkinsonism (bradykinesia, rest tremor, rigidity)

Other suggestive: Severe neuroleptic sensitivity (irreversible parkinsonism, impaired consciousness), postural instability, falls, syncope, autonomic dysfunction, hypersomnia, hyposmia, delusions, apathy, anxiety, depression

Frontotemporal (1%)

Behavioural problems (disinhibition, loss of social awareness), language impairment

Parkinson disease with dementia

Impaired executive dysfunction and visuospatial function

Differentiate from Lewy Body as parkinsonism is present >1y prior to dementia (whereas in DLB dementia occurs before or at the same time as the parkinsonian signs)

Other: Progressive supranuclear palsy (vertical supranuclear gaze palsy and postural instability), Huntington disease

Other ddx; delirium, depression, neuro: seizures, stroke/TIA

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65
Q

MNCD labs investigations

A

Labs (low yield <1%)

CBC, TSH, electrolytes (Glucose, Cr, Ca), B12, Lipids

Neurosyphilis screen only if high clinical suspicion

Consider EKG prior to treatment

Avoid AchEI if LBBB, 2nd/3rd degree block, sick sinus, HR<50

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66
Q

when to do CT head for MNCD

A

<60yo

Abrupt, rapid decline

Focal neurological symptoms (headache, seizure, hemiparesis, babinski reflex)

Urinary incontinence, gait disorder (r/o normal pressurehydrocephalus)

Previous malignancy, trauma

Anticoagulants/Bleeding disorder or history of bleeding disorder

If presence of cerebrovascular disease would change management

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67
Q

name 4 tools to dx MNCD

A

Highly educated
-Hopkins Verbal Learning test
-Word List Acquisition test

MMSE <24 suggests dementia/delirium (1 in 10 false positive)

MoCA <26 (MCI 78%, AD 100%,1 in 4 false positive)

Clinical Dementia Rating (Lengthy)

Mini-Cog (Brief)
-Clock drawing task and uncued recall of three unrelated words

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68
Q

non pharmalogical treatment/management of MNCD- name 8

A

Refer to Alzheimer society

Discuss will, power of attorney, personal directives

Safety issues (driving, stove, smoke detector, microwave)

Occupational Therapy

Hearing and vision screen

Social work / Homecare services

Healthy diet, smoking cessation

Exercise program

Eliminate medication (narcotics, anticholinergics, benzodiazepines)

Alternative therapy:

Aromatherapy

Multisensory stimulation

Music/dance therapy

Animal‑assisted therapy

Massage/touch therapy

Outdoor activities

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69
Q

pharmacotherapy for mild cognitive disorder

A

No pharmacotherapy for mild cognitive disorder

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be considered only in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s Disease (lower quality evidence in Lewy bodies, vascular, Parkinson), where

Healthcare professional has expertise in diagnosing and treating Alzheimer’s Disease

Adequate support and supervision

Adequate adherence and monitoring of adverse effects, which generally requires the availability of a carer

Baseline structured cognitive and functional assessment

Follow up should be carried out on regular basis at least every 3 months

Taper slowly before stopping

May restart if decline shortly after stopping

May reduce all-cause mortality in patient with dementia

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70
Q

Pharmacotherapy for
Alzheimer’s: name 2 classes and exemples

A

AchEI, eg. Donepezil (Aricept) 5mg-10mg PO daily, Rivastigmine, Galantamine

Consider in mild to moderate (eg. MMSE 10-26)

Titrate q4 weeks

Discontinue when risks outweigh benefits (taper, and monitor 1-3 months, if declines can restart)

2-NMDA receptor antagonists (Memantine) in severe AD

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71
Q

side effects of AchEI

A

GI (nausea, diarrhea, vomiting)

Bradycardia, hypotension, dizziness, syncope

Insomnia / sleep disturbances

QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (EKG prior to treatment as above)

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72
Q

Frontotemporal mncd tx

A

SSRI (paroxetine) or trazodone

No evidence for AchEI

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73
Q

Vascular dementia tx

A

Manage HTN, DM, smoking

No evidence for AchEI

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74
Q

Lewy Bodies pharm tx

A

Can consider AchEI (eg. Rivastigmine (Exelon) 1.5-6mg BID)

Avoid antipsychotics

Risk of NMS

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75
Q

Atypical depression in elderly tx

A

Trial of antidepressant, consider Citalopram (max 40mg po daily)

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76
Q

Parkinson’s/Cerebrovascular disease pharmacological tx

A

Can consider AchEI

levodopa

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77
Q

tx of Behavioral and psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD)

A

1-r/o medication side effects or interactions, treatable medical conditions such as sepsis or depression

2-Severe agitation/Violent behaviour

Correct underlying

Physical (pain, constipation, infection)

Environmental (set routines, sound/lights, position, daytime activity)

Psychiatric conditions (depression)

Review medications

3-Intervention

Relaxation, social contact, sensory (eg. music/aromatherapy)

Increased services/care

4-Consider newer antipsychotics (less EPS), eg. Risperidone, Olanzapine, Seroquel

Caution as increased risk of death, CVA, EPS, falls, somnolence, weight gain, diabetes

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78
Q

elements to look for in p/e of dementia

A

Gait

Neurological signs

Extra pyramidal symptoms

Parkinson (cogwheel rigidity, tremors)

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79
Q

4 ddx of dyspepsia

A

Functional/IBS (no organic cause) - 60%

PUD - 25%
-Upper abdominal pain prominent, back pain atypical
-Gastric worse with food, Duodenal better with food
-Postprandial belching, epigastric fullness, early satiation, N/V

GERD
-Retrosternal pain/regurgitation

GI Malignancy

Age

Dysphagia, odynophagia

Systemic signs (anemia, fatigue, weight loss)

Drug-induced dyspepsia (NSAIDs and COX-2 inhibitors)

Other: Celiac, chronic pancreatitis, gastritis, Crohn’s, cardiac

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80
Q

name 6 red flags of dyspepsia

A

Vomiting

Weight Loss (Involuntary)

Blood loss (melena, hematemesis, anemia)

Age >50

Anemia

Abdominal mass or lymphadenopathy

Dysphagia, odynophagia, early satiety

Family history of upper GI cancer
Jaundice

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81
Q

when to do endoscopy for dyspepsia

A

> 50yo with new-onset dyspepsia

Atypical features or red flags

No response (or limited) after 4-8w of adequate PPI

Consider in chronic GERD with 3 risk factors for Barrett’s esophagus (male > 50 years old, Caucasian, central obesity, smokers and family history of BE)

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82
Q

5 lifestyle modifications for GERD

A

Weight loss if overweight

Stop smoking, excessive alcohol

Stop NSAID/ASA

Avoid food/drinks that trigger (Alcohol, fried foods, spicy foods, garlic/onion, orange/citrus, chocolate/peppermint, coffee/caffeine, tomatoes)

Eat smaller meals

Elevate head of bed, avoid meal 2-3h before bedtime if nocturnal GERD

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83
Q

when to consider urea breath test

A

<50yo with dyspepsia but no red flags (especially if family history of peptic ulcer or cancer)

-Active PUD (gastric or duodenal).
-Confirmed history of PUD (not previously treated for H. pylori).
-Gastric MALT lymphoma (low grade).
-After endoscopic resection of EGC
-functional dyspepsia
-low dose ASA
-idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
-Long term NSAIDS use
-Iron deficiency anemia

> no indication to test a pt with typical GERD

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84
Q

Medication that can cause or worsen dyspepsia, name 8

A

bisphosphonate, iron, prednisone, potassium suppl, NSAIDS, ASA, MTF, opiates, antibiotics (erythro, metronidazole)

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85
Q

investigations for dyspepsia

A
  • H. Pylori
  • Hb
  • Iron studies
  • ALT, ALP, AST, GGT (possibly add liver function)
  • Calcium
  • Possibly Gluc AC/screen for diabetes
  • Possibly anti-TTG if suspect Celiac
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86
Q

3 Risk factors for being infected with H.pylori

A

Immigration from a developing country
* Poor socioeconomic conditions
* Family overcrowding

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87
Q

H. Pylori is a risk factor for what conditions?* (4)

A

Gastritis
* Peptic ulcers
* Gastric cancers
* Gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphoma

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88
Q

how to treat for H pylori

A

Quadruple therapy: bismuth, clarythromycin or tetracycline, metronidazole, PPI x 14 days

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89
Q

how to test for cure of H pylori

A

test at least 4 weeks after completion of antibiotics, with PPI withheld for 1-2 weeks

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90
Q

4 treatments of functional dyspepsia

A

The rate of response to placebo in trials 30% to 40%
* A meta-analysis showed that PPIs were effective in reflux-like or ulcer- like FD but not with
dysmotility-like FD
* Prokinetic agents, including cisapride, domperidone, and itopride, have been shown to be more
effective than placebo in a meta-analysis of 24 RCT (**but adverse effects) (lacking high quality
studies for metoclopramide)
* No benefit of venlaxafine or sertraline but some data suggest benefit of amitriptyline
* Mirtazapine showed significant improvements compared to placebo in early satiety (not
correlated to changes in anxiety/depression) but not in epigastric pain.
* Possible benefits of psychological therapy
* Attention to stress reduction is important, and dietary advice should be provided (e.g.,
ingestion of small, regular, low-fat meals and avoidance of foods that precipitate symptoms

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91
Q

factors that may reduce efficacy of contraception

A

delayed initiation of method, illness,
medications,

specific lubricants

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92
Q

how to manage side effects appropriately of hormonal contraceptived

A

recommend an appropriate length of trial, discuss estrogens in medroxyprogesterone acetate [Depo–Provera

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93
Q

barrier methods or when efficacy of hormonal methods is decreased, advise about post-coital contraception

A
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94
Q

in a patient who has had unprotected sex or a failure of the chosen contraceptive method, inform about time limits in post-coital contraception .

A

emergency contraceptive pill, intrauterine device time limits

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95
Q

side effects of progestin only pills

A

Irregular bleeding
9% pregnancy risk

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96
Q

Side effects of transdermal patch (Evra 1 patch per week x 3 weeks, one week off)

A

9% pregnancy risk
17% skin reaction

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97
Q

side effects of Combined vaginal ring (NuvaRing x 3 weeks, one week off)

A

9% pregnancy with regular use
perfect use 0.3%

May remove for 3h (eg. during coitus)

5% vaginitis, leukorrhea

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98
Q

Side effects of Injectable progestins (DMPA- Depo–Provera 150mg IM q12w

A

6% pregnancy risks
Irregular bleeding, weight gain, decrease bone density

Consider supplemental low-dose estrogen to reduce irregular bleeding if persists past 3 cycles

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99
Q

Side effects of Intrauterine devices (LNG-IUD Mirena q7y, CU-IUD q10y)

A

<0.1% pregnancy
44% amenorrhea at 6 months

Risk of expulsion/perforation postpartum until 6 weeks

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100
Q

side effects of subdermal implants (Nexplanon - Etonogestrel)

A

very effective likely <0.1%

Very rare risk of implant migration

15% bleeding irregularities

Not studied in overweight >130% IBW

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101
Q

Permanent contraception riks of pregnancy

A

Tubal Ligation - 0.15%

Vasectomy - 0.15%

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102
Q

(how to be certain she is not pregnant) when prescribing contraception

A

Pregnancy test >2w after last episode of unprotected intercourse

≤7d after start of normal menses or spontaneous/induced abortion

No sex since start of last normal menses

Correctly, consistently using reliable contraception

4w postpartum

Fully breastfeeding and <6 months postpartum

Back-up contraception for 7d if >7d after menses started

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103
Q

name 4 emergency contraceptions and when they are effective

A

1-Copper IUD - failure rate of <1% (>95% effective)

Effective up to 5 days (limited evidence up to 7 days) after unprotected intercourse, provided pregnancy ruled out

Hormonal/oral (less effective if BMI>30 or weight ≥80kg), side effects include headache, irregular bleeding , N/V

2-Ulipristal acetate 30mg PO x1 - failure rate of 1.4% (~75% effective)

Effective up to 5 days

Hormonal contraception can be initiated up to 5 days after unprotected sex with backup for first 14d

3-Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg PO x1 (or 0.75mg q12h x2) - failure rate of 2.2% (~50% effective)

Effective up to 72h (proven efficacy up to 96h, limited efficacy up to 120h)

Hormonal contraception can be initiated the day of (or after) with backup for first 7d

4-Combined OCP (Yuzpe) 100-120mcg ethinyl estradiol plus 500-600 mcg levonorgestrel (5 pills of Alesse) q12h x2 - least effective

Effective up to 72h

___________
Note: Approx. 5% risk of pregnancy if unprotected sex, but up to 30% if 1-2d prior to ovulation

Only contraindications are pregnancy (and active pelvic infection/cervicitis for IUD)

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104
Q

Name 3 OCP and their levels of estrogen

A

Standard 30mcg (Marvelon, Yasmin), 35mcg (Ortho 1/35)

Low 25mcg (Tri-Cyclen Lo), 20mcg (Alesse)

Very Low 10mcg (Lo Loestrin Fe)

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105
Q

name 8 Contraindications to Estrogen

A

Migraine with aura (≥5 min reversible visual/sensory/speech/motor symptom that is accompanied within 60 mins by a headache)

Smoker age ≥35 years and smoking ≥15 cigarettes per day

Uncontrolled hypertension (>160/100)

Acute DVT/PE

History of DVT/PE, not on anticogulation, with risk factor (history of estrogen-associated DVT/PE, pregnancy-associated DVT/PE, idiopathic DVT/PE, known thrombophilia including antiphospholipid syndrome/SLE, active cancer with the exception of non-melanoma skin cancer, history of recurrent DVT/PE)

Current or history of vascular disease, ischemic heart disease, stroke, complicated valvular disease (pulmonary hypertension, risk of atrial fibrillation, history of subacute bacterial endocarditis)

Liver disease (severe cirrhosis, hepatocellular adenoma, malignant hepatoma)

<4 weeks postpartum or peripartum cardiomyopathy

Major surgery with prolonged immobilization

Complicated solid organ transplantation (graft failure, cardiac allograft vasculopathy)

Active breast cancer

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106
Q

1contraindication to progestin-only pills and 1 relative C-I

A

current breast cancer, relative contraindications include liver disease

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107
Q

name 3 meds that decrease effectiveness of OCP

A

Decreased effectiveness with anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbitol), antiretrovirals, rifampin (not other antibiotics)

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108
Q

4 side effects of OCP

A

Nausea - Take pill at bedtime or with meal (consider lower estrogen)

Breast tenderness (consider lower estrogen)

Headache

Breakthrough bleeding (r/o smoking, noncompliance, cervical/uterine disease, pregnancy, consider increase estrogen)

No evidence of weight gain

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109
Q

6 Non-Contraceptive Benefits/Risks

A

Cycle regulation, predictable bleeds

Decreased menstrual flow, anemia

Decreased acne, hirsutism

Decreased dysmenorrhea, premenstrual symptoms

Decreased perimenopausal symptoms

Decreased risk of fibroids, ovarian cyst

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110
Q

3 Risks of OCP

A

VTE RR 2-3 (compared to pregnancy RR 6 and postpartum RR 115)

10 / 10,000 woman-years (COC users) vs. 4-5 / 10,000 woman-years (non-users)

UNCLEAR risk of gallbladder disease, possible increase in symptomatic gallstones when used for 15 years

NOT associated with increased risk of MI or CVA if no risk factors

NOT associated with increased risk of major birth defects if taken before/during pregnancy

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111
Q

counsel on risk of cancer with OCP

A

Decreased ovarian, endometrial, colorectal cancer

Possible association with cervical cancer (causation not demonstrated)

Decreased risk of benign breast disease

Possible increase in breast cancer in current/recent COC users

5 / 1000 COC-users vs. 4 / 1000 non-users will be diagnosed with breast cancer before 39 years-old

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112
Q

Counsel on missed pills ( within 24h, in first week, after 2-3 weeks)

A

-If missed pill <24h in any week

Take most recent pill ASAP (even if it means two pills the same day) and continue taking remaining pills until end of pack

-If missed pills in first week

Take most recent pill ASAP (even if it means two pills the same day) and continue taking remaining pills until end of pack

Back up x 7d*

-If missed pills during second or third week

Take most recent pill ASAP (even if it means two pills the same day) and continue taking remaining pills until end of pack and start new cycle of OCP without a hormone-free interval

Back-up contraception if 3 or more consecutive doses/days of OCP missed

*if unprotected intercourse in last 5 days and not on active hormone x 7 consecutive days, there is a risk of ovulation and unintended pregnancy consider emergency contraception

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113
Q

what to do if missed pill

A

Missed Progestin only pills
>3h delay

Take most recent pill ASAP and continue taking remaining pills until end of pack

Back-up x 48h

If unprotected intercourse in last 5 days, Emergency contraception recommended

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114
Q

name 4 management points for idiopathic, refractory cough

A

-Speech pathology treatment
-Neuromodulating medication
Gabapentin (300-1800mg daily x 10w), Pregabalin 300mg PO daily x4w
-CT scan if suspect lung cancer, bronchiectasis or ILD
-Referral to specialty

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115
Q

persistent (or recurrent) cough DDX (5)

A

., gastroesophageal reflux disease [GERD], asthma, rhinitis, presence of a foreign body, pertussis

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116
Q

name 5 stages of readiness to change and definition

A

1 Precontemplation (Not ready)

Highlight advantages for change and problems with current behaviour,

Harm reduction

2 Contemplation (Getting ready)

Weigh pros and cons, explore ambilance/alternatives, identify reasons for change/challenges, increase confidence

3 Preparation - Action (Ready)

Goal setting, start date and strategy for change, as well as address challenges

Support and praise, stress that episodes of relapse are normal

4 Maintenance (Sticking to it)

Help identify and use strategies to prevent relapse

5 Relapse (Learning)

Help renew process of contemplation and action without becoming demoralized

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117
Q

Five A’s (Health risk behaviour)

A

Ask “Would you mind if I talked to you about your smoking? How often do you smoke/exercise/wear a seatbelt?”

Advise “As your doctor, I strongly recommend that you ____. It is one of the most important things you can do for your health.”

Assess “Are you ready to quit smoking in the next 30 days?”

Assist “Quitting smoking can be a real challenge. I can help you with this change, as well as pharmacotherapy/community resources/spousal support may help.”

Arrange ‘I’d like to see you again/call you next week to see how the plan is going.”

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118
Q

5 ways to manage a crisis

A

Reassure
Relaxation techniques (deep breathing)
Focus on coping mechanisms that were successful in past
Resources: Support system (friends/family) and Community resources
Consider short-term anxiolytics/hypnotics
Discourage inappropriate coping mechanisms (denial, withdrawal, harmful behaviours/substances)

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119
Q

T or F: In patients with high probability for thrombotic disease (e.g., extensive leg clot, suspected pulmonary embolism) start anticoagulant therapy if tests will be delayed

A

T

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120
Q

name 8 acquired risk factors for DVT

A

Prior thromboembolism
Recent major surgery
Trauma
Immobilization
Antiphospholipid antibodies
Malignancy
Pregnancy
Oral contraceptives
Myeloproliferative disorders

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121
Q

name 4 hereditary risk factors for DVT

A

Factor V Leiden
Prothrombin gene mutations
Protein S or C deficiency
Antithrombin deficiency

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122
Q

name the wells criteria for DVT (10)

A

Paralysis, paresis or recent orthopedic casting of lower extremity
Bedridden >3 days recently or major surgery within 4 weeks
Localized tenderness of the deep veins
Swelling of entire leg
Calf swelling 3 cm greater than other leg (measured 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity)
Pitting edema greater in the symptomatic leg
Non-varicose collateral superficial veins
Active cancer or cancer treated within 6 months
Previously documented DVT
-2 points for alternative diagnosis at least as likely as DVT (Baker’s cyst, cellulitis, muscle damage, superficial vein thrombosis, post-thrombotic syndrome, inguinal lymphadenopathy, extrinsic venous compression)

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123
Q

name 3 upper extremity DVT causes

A

Central venous catheter, recent pacemaker, malignancy

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124
Q

Note distal thrombosis may extend proximally in 20% (repeat in 7 days if suspect DVT)

A
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125
Q

duration for anticoagulation of DVT and which Rx to use

A

Anticoagulate for initial 3 months, consider indefinite in unprovoked and cancer (and low risk bleeding)

LMWH or IV heparin (5000 units bolus then 20 units/kg/hr target aPTT 2-3x control aPTT) overlap with warfarin for minimum 5 days and INR >2 for minimum 2 days

Subcutaneous LMWH (eg. Dalteparin 100 U/kg SC daily or Enoxaparin 1.5mg/kg SC daily) or IV heparin x 5-10 days, then dabigatran 150mg PO BID

LMWH x 1 month then DOAC or warfarin

DOAC

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126
Q

when to consider warfarine more than DOAC for anticoagulation

A

Consider Warfarin in valvular A Fib, CrCl<30, Antiphospholipid syndrome, Weight >120kg, Gastric bypass, Liver failure

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127
Q

name 4 doacs for the tx of DVT

A

Apixaban 10mg PO BID x 1 week, then 5mg PO BID (can decrease to 2.5mg PO BID after 6 months)
Rivaroxaban 15mg PO BID x 3 weeks then 20mg PO daily (can decrease to 10mg PO daily after 6 months)
Note: Dabigatran and Edoxaban require 5-10 day initial treatment bridge with LMWH

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128
Q

which anticoagulant is better in pregnancy and cancer

A

LMWH preferred in Cancer and in Pregnancy, advantages include fixed/simple-dosing and lower HIT
There is some evidence that apixaban can be used as an alternative for patient with cancer who do not want injections (but avoid in upper GI malignancy due to increased rate of bleeding)

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129
Q

can you use asa for anticoagulation, DVT

A

Only consider Aspirin in those who are adverse to long-term anticoagulation (32% reduction of recurrent VTE vs 82% when on oral anticoagulants)

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130
Q

Isolated distal DVT anticoagulation reasons to treat

A

if symptomatic and risk factors for extension (severe symptoms, >5cm in length, multiple deep veins, close to popliteal veins, no reversible risk factor, previous VTE, in-patient, positive D-dimer) or progression on imaging

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131
Q

treatment of superficial vein thrombosis

A

topical/oral NSAIDs for symptoms, if >5cm consider low-intermediate dose LMWH

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132
Q

when to do surgical intervention in thrombosis

A

Urgent surgical intervention for phlegmasia cerulea dolens (extensive thrombosis which can cause irreversible ischemia, necrosis, gangrene)

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133
Q

When to use anticoagulants as prophylaxis and for how long

A

Hip/knee arthroplasty, hip fracture = 14-35 days
Major orthopedic trauma, Complicated Spine Surgery, Isolated below-knee fracture, L/E amputation, bedrest = until discharge

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134
Q

what are the sx of post-thrombotic syndrome

A

Signs of chronic venous insufficiency (usually 6 months) after a DVT (extremity pain, heaviness, cramps, paresthesias, pruritus, venous dilation, edema, pigmentation, skin changes, and venous ulcers)

Occurs in 50% of patients within one year of thrombosis, 5-10% severe PTS

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135
Q

risk factors of post thrombotic syndrome

A

Elderly, obesity
Smoking
Primary venous insufficiency, varicose veins
Proximal DVT, residual thrombus after treatment, recurrent DVT, inadequate anticoagulation

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136
Q

treatment of post thrombotic syndrome

A

(similar to chronic venous disease)
Smoking cessation, weight loss if obesity
Elevation
Exercise training
Compression stockings/bandages (30-40mmHg) or Compression device

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137
Q

prevention of post thrombotic syndrome

A

If at risk of PTS, consider compression stockings (start within two weeks of diagnosis, after anticoagulation started, and continue for two years)

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138
Q

sx of dehydration

A

Increased thirst
Decrease urine/sweating/tears
Weight loss
Altered mental status, lethargy, irritability

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139
Q

P/E findings of dehydration

A

Vital signs
Orthostatic vitals (HR↑ >30bpm, sBP ↓> 20 or dBP ↓> 10mmHg)
Tachycardia, tachypnea
Hypotension in severe hypovolemia
Altered mental status
Dry mucosa
Sunken eyes
Skin turgor
Capillary refill >3s
Decreased urine output

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140
Q

degrees of dehydration and treatment of each

A

Mild (3-5% volume lose) - Absent clinical signs
Home-based treatment

Moderate (6-9% volume loss) - Tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, irritability, delayed capillary refill, deep respirations, possible decreased urine output/tearing and sunken fontanelle
ORT (eg. Pedialyte, Enfalyte, breastmilk) x 1 hour, re-assess
If concerned, see treatment for severe

Severe (≥10% volume loss) - “Near-shock” hypotension, lethargy, altered mental status, delayed capillary refill, cool/mottled extremities, tachypnea
Requires aggressive isotonic fluid resuscitation to prevent tissue injury
20-40mL/kg IV NS over one hour
Consider labs (concern if pH < 7.32, bicarb ≤ 17 mEq/L)

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141
Q

indication for IV hydration in dehydration

A

Inability for oral intake (mental status, ileus)
Inability to administer ORT (eg. no caregiver)
Persistent vomiting
Electrolyte abnormalities where ORT cannot be monitored

Medications
Can consider one dose of oral ondansetron to reduce vomiting and facilitate ORT

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142
Q

labs for dehydration

A

Venous or Capillary Blood Gas (pH, electrolytes) +/- serum electrolytes

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143
Q

fluid maintenance 4-2-1- rule

A

Maintenance in Children (4-2-1 rule)
1-10kg = 4 x Wt (kg) mL/hr
>10-20kg = 40 + 2 x (Wt over 10kg) mL/hr
>20kg = 60 + 1 x (Wt over 20kg) mL/hr
Max of 100mL/hr
Can use D5NS

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144
Q

causes of dehydration

A

Acute illness
GI (N/V/D)
Skin (Fever/burns)
New medications (diuretics)

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145
Q

when to screen for DB2

A

Screen with FPG and/or A1C q3 years if ≥40 years old or high risk (33% chance of DM2 within 10y)

Consider screening more frequently (q6-12 months) if very high risk (50% chance of DM2 in 10y)

A1C not recommended for diagnosis in children, pregnant women or suspected DM1

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146
Q

Risk factor for DB2

A

≥40 years old

First degree relative with DM2

High risk population (eg. Aboriginal, African, Asian, Hispanic, or South Asian descent)

Prediabetes (IGT, IFG, A1C 6-6.4%)

Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) or delivery of a macrosomic infant

Presence of end organ damage associated with DM

Microvascular – retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy

Macrovascular – coronary, cerebrovascular, peripheral vascular disease

Presence of vascular risk factors

HDL cholesterol level <1.0 mmol/L in males, <1.3 mmol/L in females

Triglycerides 1.7 mmol/L

Hypertension, Overweight, Abdominal obesity

Presence of associated diseases

PCOS, Acanthosis nigricans, OSA

Psychiatric disorders (bipolar, depression, schizophrenia), HIV

Use of drugs associated with DM

Glucocorticoids, atypical antipsychotics, HAART

Other secondary causes

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147
Q

how to dx DB2

A

Diagnose Diabetes if two tests confirm (may do same test twice on different days)

FPG ≥7.0 mmol/L (8h fasting)

A1C ≥6.5% (falsely ↑ in anemia; ↓ in pregnancy and renal disease; ↕ in hemoglobinopathy)

2hPG in 75g OGTT ≥11.1 mmol/L or random PG ≥11.1 mmol/L

Consider 2hPG in 75g OGTT to identify IGT (2hPG 7.8-11) vs. diabetes (2hPG ≥11.1)

If FPG 6.1-6.9 or A1c 6-6.4%

If FPG 5.6-6 or A1c 5.5-5.9% and ≥1 risk factor

Diagnose Prediabetes if

A1c 6–6.4%

IFG (FPG 6.1-6.9)

IGT (2hPG 7.8-11)

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148
Q

Dx of metabolic syndrome

A

Elevated waist circumference

Elevated TG

Reduced HDL-C

Elevated BP

Elevated FPG

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149
Q

name classes of antidiabetics

A

If A1c <1.5% above target, consider 3-6mo lifestyle

Biguanide - Metformin

Sulfonylurea (avoid with short-acting insulin)

Gliclazide (Diamicron) -Least hypoglycemias out of sulfonylureas

DPP4i (rare risk of pancreatitis)

Sitagliptin (Januvia) 100mg PO daily / Janumet (Combo with metformin)

Linagliptin (Trajenta) 5mg PO daily / Jentadueto (Combo with metformin)

Saxagliptin (Onglyza) caution in heart failure / Komboglyze (Combo with metformin)

GLP1R agonists (weight loss, contraindicated in thyroid cancer, rare risk of pancreatitis)

Liraglutide (Victoza) 0.6mg SC daily x 1 week then 1.2mg SC daily (max 1.8mg SC daily)

Dulaglutide (Trulicity) 0.75mg SC weekly (max 1.5 mg SC weekly)

Semaglutide (Ozempic) 0.25mg SC weekly x 4 weeks then 0.5mg SC weekly (max 1mg SC weekly)

SGLT2i (risk of genital infections/UTI, hypotension, caution with loop diuretics)

Empagliflozin (Jardiance) 10mg PO daily x 1 week then 25mg PO daily / Synjardy (Combo with metformin)

Canagliflozin (Invokana)

Dapagliflozin (Forxiga)

If clinical CVD consider empagliflozin (or canagliflozin) and liraglutide

If comorbid NAFLD consider semaglutide, liraglutide, thiazolidinones

If symptomatic hyperglycemia or DKA/HHS

Consider starting insulin +/- metformin

Long-acting: Glargine (Lantus) or Detemir (Levemir)

Intermediate-acting: Humulin N, NPH

Short-acting: Novorapid, Humalog, Apidra

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150
Q

target hba1c for DB2 patients

A

Diabetes Canada recommends

6.5 in healthy

A1c ≤7.0 in most patients

7-8.5 in elderly, limited life expectancy, or recurrent severe hypoglycemia

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151
Q

target glycemia lebels when self-monitoring

A

Target preprandial 4-7 mmol/L, 2hr postprandial 5-10 mmol/L (or 5-8 if A1C not at target)

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152
Q

4 causes of glucose not at target

A

Missed dose, wrong dose (fear of hypoglycemia)

Injection Technique, Lipodystrophy

Insulin conservation (temperature exposure, expired)

Infection/inflammation

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153
Q

complications of DM

A

Macrovascular: CVD, CVA, PAD

Microvascular: Retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy

Other:

Erectile dysfunction (macro/microvascular)

Foot complications (ulceration, Charcot arthropathy)

Infection

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154
Q

How to FU DB2 and what to check for at follow ups

A

A1c q3 months (until stable)

Each visit

BMI (18.5-24.9)/waist circumference

BP<130/80

Depression screening (PHQ-9)

Erectile dysfunction (Consider PDE-5 inhibitor if no contraindications)

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155
Q

name 4 counselling points for DM patients

A

Nutrition (Mediterranean diet, low glycemic index)

Physical activity (aerobic >150mins/week, resistance 3 sessions/week)

Smoking cessation

Pre-conception counselling

Enquire about hypoglycemia

Driving safety

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156
Q

tests to do to monitor for DB2

A

-Lipid profile q1y (until statin started)
EKG

-Nephropathy q1y (if evidence of nephropathy - follow q6months)

eGFR (creat) and Urine ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio)

At least 2 of 3 random urine ACR abnormal to diagnose nephropathy (2-20 microalbuminuria, >20 overt nephropathy)

-Retinopathy optometry q1-2y

If established retinopathy, refer to ophthalmology and consider fenofibrate/statins to slow progression

-Neuropathy q1y

Monofilament - Score 0, 0.5, 1 point x4 per foot arrhythmically

Score 3/8=likely neuropathy, 3.5-5/8 = high risk in next four years, >5.5/8 = low risk neuropathy in next four years

Vibration perception tests (tuning fork, one point if perceived, one point for when stopped)

Treatment for pain: Consider Nortriptyline as first-line

-Foot Care q1y

Skin changes, structural abnormalities (e.g. range of motion of ankles and toe joints, callus pattern, bony deformities), skin temperature, evaluation for neuropathy and PAD, ulcerations and evidence of infection

Foot care education (including counselling to avoid foot trauma), professionally fitted footwear and early referrals to a healthcare professional trained in foot care management if foot complications occur

Treat ulcerations with glycemic control, infection, offloading of high-pressure areas, lower-extremity vascular status and local wound care.

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157
Q

indication to screen resting ECG q 3-5 years in pts with DB2

A

Age >40 years

Duration of diabetes >15 years and age >30 years

End organ damage (microvascular, macrovascular)

Cardiac risk factors

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158
Q

when to test for EKG stress test as initial test

A

Typical or atypical cardiac symptoms (e.g. unexplained dyspnea, chest discomfort)

Signs or symptoms of associated diseases

Peripheral arterial disease

Carotid bruits

Transient ischemic attack

Stroke

Resting abnormalities on ECG (e.g. Q waves)

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159
Q

hypoglycemia definition

A

symptoms of hypoglycemia, a low plasma glucose level (<4.0 mmol/L for patients on antihyperglycemic agents), and symptoms responding to the administration of carbohydrate

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160
Q

sx of hypoglycemia, name 2 categories and 5 sx for each category

A

Neurogenic (autonomic)

Trembling

Palpitations

Sweating

Anxiety

Hunger

Nausea

Paresthesias

-____________
Neuroglycopenic

Difficulty concentrating

Confusion

Weakness

Drowsiness

Vision changes

Difficulty speaking

Headache

Dizziness

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161
Q

when and how to tx for hypoglycemia

A

Treatment (if glucose if <4.0 mmol/L)

15g carbohydrate (glucose or sucrose tablets/solution), recheck glucose 15 minutes and if <4.0 mmol/L can repeat

If severe (unconscious), Glucagon 1mg SC/IM or D50W 20-50mL IV over 1-3 minutes (Glucose 10–25g)

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162
Q

which medications other than antidiabetics should we consider in DB2 and what are the indications

A

statin+ACEi/ARB+ ASA: if CAD, PAD, cerebrovasc/carotid disease

statin+ACEi/ARB: if reinopathy, kidney disease, neuropathy, over 55 yo with other CV risk factors

If over 40 yo or if over 30 yo with db over 15 years: statin

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163
Q

T or F: avoid canagliflozin in patients with risk factors for lower limb amputations

A

T

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164
Q

BP targets in DB

A

under 130/80

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165
Q

ABCDES of Diabetes Care

A

A A1C targets
GUIDELINE TARGET (or personalized goal)
A1C ≤7.0%
If on insulin or insulin secretagogue, assess for hypoglycemia and ensure driving safety

B BP targets
BP <130/80 mmHg
If on treatment, assess for risk of falls
Cholesterol targets
LDL-C <2.0 mmol/L
ACEVARB (If CVD, age 255 with isk factors, OR diabetes complications)
Statin (if CVD, age >40 for Type 2, OR diabetes
D
Drugs for CVD risk reduction
complications)
ASA (if CVD)
SLGT2i/GLP1ra with demonstrated CV benefit (if have type 2 DM with CVD and A1 C not at target)
150 minutes of moderate to vigorous aerobic activity/ week and resistance exercises 2-3 times/week
E
Exercise goals and healthy Eating
*Follow healthy dietary pattern (i.e. Mediterranean diet, low glycemic index)
Cardiac: ECG every 3-5 years if age >40 OR diabetes complications
Foot: Monofilament/Vibration yearly or more if
S
Screening for complications
abnormal
Kidney: Test eGFR and ACR yearly, or more if abnormal
Retinopathy: yearly dilated retinal exam
If smoker: Ask permission to give advice, arrange
S
Smoking cessation therapy and provide support
Set personalized goals (see “individualized Goal
S
Self-management, Setting” panel)
stress, other barriers Assess for stress, mental health, and financial or other
concerns that might be barriers to achieving goals

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166
Q

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) sx

A

Polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia

Headache, fatigue, decreased LOC

Nausea/vomiting

Abdominal pain

If abdominal pain does not improve as ketoacidosis improves, consider other pathologies for abdominal pain

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167
Q

Physical Examination findings of hhs

A

Dehydration, postural hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea

Resp: Kussmaul respiration, acetone-odoured (fruity) breath

Abdo: Diffuse abdominal tenderness

Neuro: LOC, pupils

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168
Q

dx of HHS and lab values

A

Develops over days

Plasma glucose >33

pH >7.3, Bicarb >15, no ketones

Serum osmolality >320mOsm/kg

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169
Q

dx of DKA and associated lab values

A

Develops over hours

Typically, anion gap metabolic acidosis (although vomiting may cause a normal pH and normal bicarb)
-Arterial/venous pH ≤7.3
-serum bicarbonate ≤15 mmol/L
-anion gap >12 mmol/L

Positive ketones in serum and/or urine (acetoacetate)
-β-hydroxybutyrate level >1.5 mmol/L has a sensitivity of 98-100% and specificity of 78.6-93.3%

Ketosis differential:
-DKA
-Alcoholic ketoacidosis
-Starvation ketoacidosis
-Isopropyl alcohol ingestion

Plasma glucose usually ≥14.0 mmol/L
-Can be euglycemic DKA (eg. SGLT2, pregnancy, chronic pancreatitis, bariatric surgery), will need immediate dextrose infusion

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170
Q

Triggers of hyperglycemia

A

Infection (30%)

New diagnosis of diabetes (25%)

Insulin non-adherence (20%)

Infarction (ACS, CVA, mesenteric ischemia)

Alcohol

Trauma

Medications (eg. glucocorticoids, diuretics, atypical antipsychotics)

Abdominal pathology

Pregnancy

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171
Q

investigation to ask in context of HHS or DKA

A

Blood gas, including lactate

Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl−] – [HCO3−], if >10-12mEq/L consider elevated anion gap differential

Serum osmolality (HHS)

CBC, Chem-10 (Ca, Mg, Phos)

LFTs, albumin, CK

bhCG

Capillary Ketones

Serum ketones +/- serum beta-hydroxybutyrate level

Urinary ketones (more false negatives and false positives)

Consider

Lipase (note can be increased by DKA)

Infectious work-up

UA

Blood/urine cultures

CXR

EKG

Troponin (only if EKG suggests ischemia)

Serum ketons (β-hydroxybutyrate) if diagnosis unclear

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172
Q

Treatment of HHS or DKA

A

ABC, vitals

Fluid resuscitation

Bolus

NS 10mL/kg (or 1L) bolus IV

If persistent tachycardia or hypoperfusion, repeat until euvolemic (HR<100)

Maintenance

See table below for rates in pediatrics

In adults, eg. 0.9% NS 250mL/h x 4-6h then 0.45% NS 250mL/h (to avoid hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

Add IV dextrose when serum glucose <14.0 mmol/L (maintain glucose 12-14)

eg. D5W 0.5%NS or D5W 0.45%NS

If glucose <4, provide 1 amp of D50 and increase dextrose infusion

Avoidance of hypokalemia

Add KCl 40 mmol/L when serum K<5.0 mmol/L and patient has urinated (cardiac monitoring needed, caution in renal failure- ensure urine output)

Consider oral potassium

Magnesium/phosphate replacement as needed

Insulin administration (avoid initially in HHS)

Hold insulin if K<3.3

If mild-moderate DKA (pH 7.1-7.29, HCO3 5-14.9)

After one hour of fluids, Humalog 0.15 Units/kg/dose (or 10 units) q2h

If severe (pH<7.1, HCO3<5)

After one hour of fluids, Humulin R infusion of 0.1 units/kg/h (0.05 units/kg/h for HHS)

If glucose does not fall by 3mmol/L in first hour, check IV access and if normal consider doubling insulin

Bolus may increase hypoglycemic events without clinical benefits

If hypoglycemia give more glucose, do not stop insulin (to avoid more ketoacidosis)

Avoidance of rapidly falling serum osmolality (risk of cerebral edema)

Suspect cerebral edema if sudden headache, altered LOC and lethargy, irritability in young children, Cushing’s triad (high BP, low HR, low RR)

Manage ABC, raise head of bed 30 degrees, restrict fluid

Consider mannitol 0.25-0.5g/kg IV over 30 mins OR hypertonic 3% NS 5-10mL/kg over 30 mins

Search for precipitating cause (infection, drugs, thyrotoxicosis, adherence to medication, new diabetes, MI, stroke)

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173
Q

how to monitor a patient with HHS/ DKA

A

Repeat serum glucose q1h

Repeat VBG (pH, electrolytes), plasma osmolality (for HHS) q2-4h until stable

Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl−] – [HCO3−] (may consider adjust for albumin with other more complicated formulas)

Monitor for Osmolality

Calculating osmolality

Measure or calculate osmolality (2 [Na+] + [glucose] + [urea] in mmol/L)

Aim for gradual decline, especially in patients under 40 years old (eg. 3 mmmol/kg/hr or 20mOsm/kg/day)

If osmolality increase

Fluid balance inadequate, increase rate of 0.9%NS

Fluid balance adequate, consider switch to 0.45%NS

If osmolality decreasing >8mosmol/kg/h, consider reducing IV fluids

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174
Q

Name goals of tx of DKA and HHS

A

Avoid overly aggressive therapy which will cause complications (hypokalemia, cerebral edema)

Most patients with DKA (especially those with HHS) probably need admission and observation,

DKA:

Normalization of the plasma anion gap <12 mEq/L
Ketoacidosis resolved
Normalization of bicarbonate
Glucose controlled <14 mmol/L

HHS: Mentally alert, and osmolality <315 mOsmol/kg

Patient eating and ideally hungry
-Received full daily dose of long-acting insulin >2 hours (Consider SC insulin regimen once glucose <11.1)

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175
Q

DDX of acute diarrhea

A

Acute: 2-14 days of looser and more frequent stools (>3 stools/day or >200g stool/d)
Parasitic - Giardia, cryptosporidia, cyclospora, isospora, amoebiasis
Bacteria - Campylobacter, salmonella, shigella, listeria, C diff, S Aureus, Clostridium perfrigens
Symptoms suggestive of invasive bacterial diarrhea include fever, tenesmus, gross bloody stool
Viral - Hep A, rotavirus, norovirus
Travel - ETEC, norovirus, shigella, salmonella, campylobacter, giardia
Daycare - Campylobacter, cryptosporidia, parvum
Hospital - C Diff, norovirus, rotavirus (children)

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176
Q

DDX of chronic diarrhea

A

Chronic: >4 weeks
Function - IBS (10-20%), overflow constipation, incontinence
Osmotic - Lactose, sugars (sorbitol, mannitol), laxatives
Inflammatory - IBD, microscopic/collagenous colitis
Metabolic - Addison’s, hyperthyroid, uremia, cystic fibrosis
Malabsorption - Pancreatitis, celiac, short bowel syndrome, bacterial overgrowth
Neoplastic - Colorectal cancer, carcinoid, gastrinoma, medullary thyroid
Iatrogenic - Drugs, alcohol, caffeine, surgery, radiation, laxatives

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177
Q

definitions/differences between secretory, osmotic, large bowel and small bowel diarrhea

A

Secretory: Continues despite fasting
Osmotic: Decreases with fasting (malabsorption, drugs)
Large Bowel: Small volume, frequent, pus, blood
Small Bowel: Large volume, infrequent, watery

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178
Q

6 risks factors of diarrhea

A

Travel
Immunocompromised
Food outbreaks
Antibiotics
Family History
Laxatives

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179
Q

7 red flags in hx of diarrhea

A

Age >50 (think of acute mesenteric ischemia, obstruction, diverticulitis, malignancy)
Immunocompromised (HIV, steroid)
Inflammatory features (fever, bloody, mucoid stool)
N/V, fever, arthritis, skin rash, anorexia
Night sweats, weight loss
Nocturnal (pathologic)
Recent antibiotics (C-diff)

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180
Q

targeted hx of diarrhea

A

Diarrhea onset, duration, severity, frequency, quality (watery, bloody, mucus, purulent, bilious)
Signs of dehydration (decreased urine output, altered mental status)
Vomiting (viral or toxin)
Fever, tenesmus, bloody (invasive bacterial)
Food/Travel
Pregnant (12x risk of listeriosis - cold meats, soft cheeses, raw milk)
Recent sick contacts, antibiotics, medications
Immunosupression
Exposures (daycare, fecal-oral sexual contact, hospital admission)

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181
Q

which investigations to ask in diarrhea

A

Usually not indicated unless severe illness or red flags
Consider
CBC, CRP, TSH, Celiac (IgA, anti-TTG)
FOBT or FIT
Stool leukocytes/lactoferrin/calprotectin (r/o IBD)
Stool cultures if leukocytes positive or risk factor/red flag (eg. symptomatic bloody diarrhea)
C-diff toxins A/B done if unexplained diarrhea after 3d of hospitalization or high risk (eg. antibiotic use)
Ova and parasites if high-risk (travel to high-risk area, infants in day care, immunosuppresssed, MSM, waterborne outbreak, bloody diarrhea with few fecal leukocytes)
If available, consider Giardia antigen test or PCR
C-scope if altered bowel habit +/- rectal bleeding

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182
Q

Treatment of diarrhea

A

Rehydration (oral if possible)
Consider reduced oral rehydration solution (ORS): water with salt and glucose
Early refeeding
No clear evidence for BRAT diet (banana, rice, applesauce, toast) and avoidance of dairy
Loperamide/simethicone in non-bloody stool and afebrile
Consider empiric antibiotics in severe symptomatic bloody diarrhea or immunocompromised
Fluoroquinolone or Azithromycin (if resistance, eg. from South East Asia)
Antibiotics effective in shigella, campylobacter, C diff, traveler’s diarrhea, protozoal
Avoid use in toxin (bloody, history of eating seed sprouts, rare beef, outbreak) risk Hemolytic uremic syndrome

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183
Q

2 tips for prevention of diarrhea

A

Hygiene (handwashing, diaper changing, water purification), safe food preparation, clean water
Vaccine (rotavirus, typhoid fever, cholera)
No clear evidence for probiotics, zinc supplementation
Return to school ≥48h last diarrhea/vomiting (NICE)

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184
Q

classify the different types of dizziness

A

Vertigo: Sustained (r/o stroke) vs. Episodic
Non-vertigo:
Syncope (r/o CVS, seizure, hypoglycemia)
Pre-syncope (r/o CVS)
Disequilibrium (r/o neuromuscular)
Lightheadedness

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185
Q

DDx of vertigo (10)/ dizziness

A

Acute prolonged severe vertigo (Stroke, demyelinating disease, vestibular neuronitis)
Recurrent spontaneous attacks, minutes-hours (Meniere, Vestibular Migraine)
Recurrent positional, seconds-minutes (BPPV)
Chronic persistent dizziness (Psychogenic, cerebellar ataxia)

arrhythmia, myocardial infarction [MI], stroke, multiple sclerosis

measure postural vital signs to r/o orthostatism
Exclude serious conditions (e.g., MI, abdominal aortic aneurysm, sepsis, gastrointestinal bleeding)

prescription and over-the-counter medications

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186
Q

name 10 red flags in hx of vertigo

A

Diplopia, Dysarthria, Dysphonia, Dysphagia, Dysmetria
Multiple transient prodromal episodes of dizziness over weeks/months
Headache, neck pain, recent trauma (vertebral artery dissection/aneurysm)
Auditory symptoms (despite mimicking benign peripheral causes, hearing loss in acute vestibular syndrome is frequently associated with stroke)
Neuro signs: Facial palsy, sensory loss, limb ataxia, hemiparesis, oculomotor (Internuclear ophthalmoplegia, gaze palsy, vertical nystagmus)
Gait unsteadiness

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187
Q

Difference in nystagmus to differentiate neuro vs peripheral vertigo

A

Peripheral: Unidirectional, Horizontal nystagmus, Suppressible with visual fixation, Positional
Central: Uni or Bi-directional, Purely vertical/horizontal/torsional nystagmus, Not suppressible, Not positional (ie. Central is usually Spontaneous)

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188
Q

explain the HINTs exam

A

HINTS+ only in Acute Vestibular Syndrome (to differentiate stroke from vestibular neuritis) in patients with current nystagmus
Head Impulse - Rapid head rotation towards mid-line with eyes fixed on object (normal suggests central cause)
Nystagmus - Vertical/bidirectional/torsional (note torsional is expected in episodic BPPV, but not in acute vestibular syndrome due to peripheral cause)
Test of Skew - Skew deviation or misalignment on cover-uncover test
Presence of one INFARCT (impulse normal or fast-phase alternating or refixation on cover test) may be more accurate to diagnose stroke than urgent MRI
Negative INFARCT (abnormal head impulse, horizontal unidirectional nystagmus, no skew deviation), but may not be enough to rule out stroke in the emergency room
+ Hearing loss, rule-out AICA infarct
If no nystagmus, will need to rely on detailed neurological exam (CN, hearing, anisocoria, phonation, facial sensation, cerebellar ataxia, gait)

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189
Q

investigations to do in context of dizziness

A

EKG (r/o Arrhythmia, MI)
CBC, Lytes, TSH (Low yield)
MRI (83% sensitive), CT (16% sensitive)
MRI can miss stroke (20% false negative) until 48h after symptom

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190
Q

Treatment of vertigo (BPPV, meniere, vestibular neuritis)

A

General acute symptomatic management of vertigo: Antihistamines, Benzodiazepines, Antiemetics
Peripheral (early ENT referral as needed, and vestibular rehab)

BPPV (episodic seconds, head position)
Epley maneuver
Sermont maneuver
Gufoni maneuver in horizontal canal BPPV
Betahistine 24mg PO BID limited evidence

Meniere’s (episodic minutes-hours, hearing loss, tinnitus/ear fullness)
Limit salt, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol
Betahistine, Diuretic

Vestibular neuritis and Labyrinthitis (single acute onset, lasts days, possible viral syndrome)
Methylprednisone 22-day tapering dose schedule
Supportive

Central
Vestibular migraine (episodic minutes-hours with migraine headache)
Brainstem or cerebellar infarct (persistent over days-weeks, vascular risk factors, prominent gait impairment) or TIA (episodic minutes-hours, vascular risk factors)
MRI
Evaluation for Thrombolysis/Thrombectomy

Secondary risk management
Antihypertensives if BP >140/90
Aspirin or clopidogrel
Atorvastatin 80mg/day (SPARCL trial)
Carotid endarterectomy for recent symptom
Holter-24-48h r/o Afib
Echocardiography
Lifestyle
Glucose control if diabetic
Eliminate alcohol, smoking
Exercise

Referral
ENT, Neurology, Psychiatry
Vestibular rehab
PT/OT

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191
Q

Risk factors of domestic abuse (4)

A

Young female (<24yo)

Low SES

Pregnancy

Disability
Unemployment

Witnessing or experiencing violence as a child

Substance abuse (alcohol/drug use)

History of mental illness

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192
Q

Risk factors for perpetration of domestic abuse

A

Unemployment

Witnessing or experiencing violence as a child

Substance abuse (alcohol/drug use)

History of mental illness

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193
Q

Woman Abuse Screening Tool (WAST), 90% sensitivity with first two questions
name questions and how to communicate with patient if abuse is detected

A

In general, how would you describe your relationship? No tension, some tension, a lot of tension?

Do you and your partner work out arguments with no difficulty, some difficulty, or great difficulty?

Do arguments ever result in you feeling down or bad about yourself?

Do arguments ever result in hitting, kicking, or pushing?

Do you ever feel frightened about what your partner says or does?

Does your partner ever abuse you physically?

Does your partner ever abuse you emotionally?

Does your partner ever abuse you sexually?

Listen

Acknowledge the injustice

“This is abuse”

“I am very sorry this is happening to you”

Frame the violence due to perpetrator’s behaviour and not the survivor’s

“You do not deserve this, and it is not your fault”

Respect autonomy and patient’s decisions

“I want to help you through this in any way I can.”

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194
Q

questions to assess for safety in domestic abuse

A

Violent outside the home

Violent to children

Threatening to kill

Escalating threats

Drugs, alcohol

Abusive during pregnancy

Obsessive, controlling relationships

Serious prior injury

Owns weapons, especially handguns

Threatened others (family/friends)

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195
Q

management of domestic abuse

A

Safety planning, resources, community services including local shelters
Emergency kit with important documents, keys, money, essential items - stored outside the home

Place to go (friend, family shelter)

Signal to alert others (children/neighbours) to call 911

Document findings
Quotes from patient

Physical exam findings and photographs

Labs/radiology

Mandatory reporting may be required in the following instances:
Abuse involving children

Contact Youth Protection

Abuse of elderly (in retirement home)

Abuse of disabled persons

Weapon use

Frequent follow-up
Counsel on possible escalation/cycles of violence (tension build up, violent outburst, honeymoon phase)

Update safety plan

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196
Q

anorexia nervosa definition

A

Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight (BMI<18.5 or <5th percentile in children, or rate of weight loss) in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health.

Intense fear of gaining weight or of becoming fat, or persistent behavior that interferes with weight gain, even though at a significantly low weight.
Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of the current low body weight.

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197
Q

2 types of anorexia nervose

A

Restricting type: During the last 3 months, the individual has not engaged in recurrent episodes of binge eating or purging behavior (i.e., self-induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas). This subtype describes presentations in which weight loss is accomplished primarily through dieting, fasting, and/or excessive exercise.

Binge-eating/purging type: During the last 3 months, the individual has engaged in recurrent episodes of binge eating or purging behavior (i.e., self-induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas).

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198
Q

Bulimia nervosa definition

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating, characterized by both of the following:
Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g., within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than what most individuals would eat in a similar period of time under similar circumstances.
A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g., a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting; misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications; fasting; or excessive exercise.
The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors both occur, on average, at least once a week for 3 months.
Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

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199
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)

A

An eating or feeding disturbance (e.g., apparent lack of interest in eating or food; avoidance based on the sensory characteristics of food; concern about aversive consequences of eating) as manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with one (or more) of the following:
Significant weight loss (or failure to achieve expected weight gain or faltering growth in children).
Significant nutritional deficiency.
Dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutritional supplements.
Marked interference with psychosocial functioning.
The disturbance is not better explained by lack of available food or by an associated culturally sanctioned practice.
The eating disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, and there is no evidence of a disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The eating disturbance is not attributable to a concurrent medical condition or not better explained by another mental disorder. When the eating disturbance occurs in the context of another condition or disorder, the severity of the eating disturbance exceeds that routinely associated with the condition or disorder and warrants additional clinical attention.

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200
Q

screening questions for eating disorders

A

Does your weight/body shape cause you stress?
Recent weight changes?
Dieted in the last year?
SCOFF
Do you make yourself Sick (induce vomiting) because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you worry that you have lost Control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than One stone (14 lb {6.4 kg}) in a three-month period?
Do you think you are too Fat, even though others say you are too thin?
Would you say that Food dominates your life?

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201
Q

8 risk factors of eating disorders

A

Early puberty
Poor or abnormal growth curves in children and adolescents
Low or high body mass index, or weight fluctuations
Weight concerns among normal weight individuals
Activities and occupations that emphasize body, shape, and weight (e.g. ballet, gymnastics, modeling)
Amenorrhea (primary or secondary)
Type 1 diabetes
Family history of ED

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202
Q

10 associated physical symptoms of eating disorders

A

Exertional or chronic fatigue, weakness, dizziness, pre/syncope, hot flashes, cold intolerance, depression
Cardio: Palpitations, CP, SOB, peripheral edema
Dental: Tooth pain (decay/cavities), mucosal bleeding/trauma and parotid gland enlargement
GI: Abdominal pain, early satiety, bloating, constipation
Endo: Amenorrhea, decreased libido, infertility
Derm: Hair loss, brittle nail and skin changes, poor healing

(other questions to ask: Rate/amount of weight loss
Dietary intake (quantity, restriction)
Compensatory behaviour (vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, exercise)
Attitudes about weight / Body image
Mood symptoms, suicidality
Menstrual history)

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203
Q

10 physical exam of Eating disorder

A

Vital Signs (eg. HR<60, BP<90/60, Temp<36)
Orthostatic vitals (supine, standing)
General Appearance
Height/Weight and BMI; weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared
Hydration status
HEENT
Enlargement of parotid or submandibular salivary glands in BN
Dental erosion due to frequent vomiting
Cardiac, r/o murmur
Skin
Brittle hair and fingernails
Lanugo hair
Dry skin
Pretibial edema
Russell sign (callous on MCP from teeth abrasion during self-induced emesis)
MSK
Muscle strength
Sit-up Squat Stand test (muscle weakness)

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204
Q

10 Investigations of eating disorder

A

Determine level of medical acuity
EKG
Bradycardia, non-specific ST-T wave changes including ST segment depression, U waves in the presence of hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
CBC (hemoglobin, leukocytes, platelets)
Serum electrolytes (Na, K, Glucose, Blood urea nitrogen, Creatinine, Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphate)
TSH, T4, T3
Liver function tests (AST, ALT, bilirubin)
Amylase/lipase
Albumin, transferrin
UA
BhCG r/o pregnancy
Consider celiac screen
If underweight > 6 months
Bone densitometry to assess for osteopenia and osteoporosis
Abdominal ultrasound to assess maturity of ovaries and uterus
FSH, LH, and estradiol levels in females
Testosterone levels in males

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205
Q

10 non-negotiable physical and nutritional indicators for hospitalization

A

Suicide risk, food refusal
Vitals unstable
Core temperature < 35.5°C or 95.5°F
Heart rate < 40 beats per minute or severe bradycardia
Blood pressure < 90/60 mm Hg or orthostatic hypotension
ECG arrhythmia
Electrolyte abnormalities
Sodium < 127 mmol/l
Potassium < 2.3 mmol/l
Hypoglycaemia; blood glucose < 2.5 mmol/l
Hypophosphataemia; phosphorous below normal on fasting
Magnesium < 0.6 mmol/l (normal above 0.7 mmol/l)
Rapid and progressive weight loss
Acute medical complications of malnutrition
Signs of inadequate cerebral perfusion (confusion, syncope, loss or decreased level of consciousness, organic brain syndrome, ophthalmoplegia, seizure, ataxia)
Seizure
Heart failure
Pancreatitis
Severe acrocyanosis
Dehydration that does not reverse within 48 hrs
Muscular weakness
Comorbid psychiatric or medical (poorly controlled diabetes type 1)
Pregnancy with an at risk foetus
Inadequate weight gain, failure of outpatient treatment

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206
Q

3 pharmacology tx to consider in eatign disorder

A

SSRI / Fluoxetine at higher doses (60mg/d) in BN
Multivitamins with iron and Vitamin D
Consider Zinc 50mg PO daily (aids in weight gain)
Treat acne (as patient re-experience puberty as they gain weight)

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207
Q

3 pharmacology tx to consider in eatign disorder

A

SSRI / Fluoxetine at higher doses (60mg/d) in BN
Multivitamins with iron and Vitamin D
Consider Zinc 50mg PO daily (aids in weight gain)
Treat acne (as patient re-experience puberty as they gain weight)

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208
Q

5 non pharmalogical managements of eating disorder

A

Medical stabilization
Assess outpatient vs. admission if needed for safety
Assess and treat coexisting psychiatric conditions (MDE, anxiety, substance use)

Nutritional rehabilitation with multidisciplinary approach
Family-based treatment
Individual Psychotherapy, FBT/CBT (TRY THIS FISRT)
Psychiatry
Dietician / nutritional rehab
School
Support groups / resources
Consider referral to specialiset child and adolescent eating disorder team

Target weight range in AN (90% of expected weight)
Gradual weight gain in AN (1lb/week)
Limit exercise
Regular appointments with vitals, weight/BMI, and blood tests repeated
Complications (tooth decay, amenorrhea, electrolyte)
Disease activity (eating patterns, exercise, laxative)

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209
Q

questions to ask in motivational interviewing of eating disorder

A

Establishing rapport:
Open-ended questions such as, “How have things been going with your eating?” or “Do you have concerns about your eating?” or “What is most important to you about your eating and health?”
Assessing Readiness:
“How do you feel about making changes to your eating?” or “How do you feel about making changes to improve your physical health?”
Provide Feedback:
“What is your reaction to these test results?” or “Would more information be helpful?”
Offer further support targeted to level of readiness for change:
For clients who are not “ready” to make change: “What would it take for you to consider thinking about change?”
For clients who are unsure about change: “What are the things you like and don’t like about your eating disorder?”
For clients who are ready to make change: “What would you like to work on changing?”

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210
Q

refeeding syndrome definition and name 3 risks/complications

A

Metabolic changes during refeeding of a malnourished patient
Risk of hypophosphatemia leading to heart failure, arrhythmia, respiratory failure
Prevent with careful slow refeeding/monitoring and phosphate supplementation

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211
Q

6 ddx of eating disorder/weight loss

A

anorexia nervosa, bulimia,Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)

diabetes, coeliac disease, hyperthyroidism, malignancies, depression, anxiety, OCD< alcohol misuse/depensdance

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212
Q

important questions to include in a hx for eating disorder

A

Eating patterns, relationship with food, body image, distress
Underlying mental health, alcohol, and substance use problems, including previous psychological trauma
Use of prescribed and over-the-counter medications, tobacco, caffeine, laxatives, and supplements

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213
Q

When assessing a patient presenting with a problem that has defied diagnosis (e.g., arrhythmias without cardiac disease, an electrolyte imbalance without drug use or renal impairment, amenorrhea without pregnancy) include “complication of an eating disorder” in the differential diagnosis.

A
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214
Q

10 complications of eating disorder

A

amenorrhea,
electrolite imbalance, muscle weakness, spinal compression/osteoporotic fractures, decreased height/weight, slow pulse, depreased core temperature, postural hypotension, gastric dilation, pressure sores, depression/SI, cardiac arrythmia, prolonged QTc, sinus bradycardia, signs of electrolyte disturbance on EKG

malnutrition:
-anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, hypophosphataemia, low ca/mg/po4, hypoglycemia,

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215
Q

You are seeing 3 year-old son Jaxson who is noted to have intermittent rashes over the face and extremities. You suspect atopic dermatitis. He is otherwise healthy. They have no pets at home.

What are the historical/physical exam features of this condition that will support your diagnosis? List 4.

A

Chronic, relapsing dermatitis
Typical morphology of the lesion: erythematous, rough/scaly, patchy
Pattern of distribution: facial and extensor involvement, joint surfaces
Pruritus/ Intense itching
Personal history of asthma
Personal history allergic rhinitis
Family history of atopy
Hyperactivity to environmental triggers
Age of onset (most common age 2-4)

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216
Q

4 ddx of atopic dermatitis

A

Psoriasis
Seborrheic dermatitis
Contact/irritant dermatitis
Impetigo
Systemic viral illness
Neurodermatitis
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Dermatophytic infection
Immunodeficiency disorder

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217
Q

4 treatment options of atopic dermatitis

A

Avoid dry skin / Optimal use of emollients/moisturizer

Topical corticosteroid cream/ointment

Avoidance of known triggers: soaps, fabrics, cleansers, metals, sweat/heat, sunscreens, stress

Topical calcineurin inhibitors/protopic/tacrolimus

Antimicrobial if infected

Oral anti-histamine for pruritus

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218
Q

Other than viral hepatitis, name FIVE causes of elevated hepatocellular-pattern liver enzymes.

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease/steatohepatitis (NASH) - recommend do not abbreviate this
Chronic alcohol use/alcoholic liver disease
medication toxicity/prolonged acetaminophen use
hemochromatosis
autoimmune hepatitis
Wilson’s disease
Alpha-1-anti-trypsin deficiency
Primary biliary cirrhosis

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219
Q

Hepatitis B can be transmitted by various mechanisms. Name FOUR.

A
  1. Blood exposure/blood transfusion/direct contact with infected blood/Sharing personal hygiene products (razors, nail clippers, toothbrushes, jewelry)/Intravenous drug use/needle sharing/needlestick injuries
  2. Sexual/unprotected sex/semen/vaginal secretions
  3. Perinatal/vertical transmission/trans-placental
  4. Exposure to open sores of an infected person
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220
Q

Name THREE chronic complications of hepatitis B.

A

cirrhosis
end-stage liver disease/liver failure
hepatocellular carcinoma

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221
Q

If we assume a patient is chronically infected with hepatitis B, name FIVE tests or investigations that can determination the stage of his chronic infection.

A

HBeAg
ALT
AST
Hepatitis B DNA
abdominal ultrasound
Fibroscan
Biopsy
This is a tough one. The question states there is no doubt about the diagnosis and wants to know how we assess the phase of chronic infection. That is why Hep B core antibody, Hep B IgG and Hep B IgM are not on the answer key.

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222
Q

Mrs. Elouise Santos, age 54, presents at the emergency department (ED) complaining of severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain, which at times radiates to the right shoulder. She feels nauseated and has vomited twice without relief of the pain. She has been in good health in the past. Her vital signs are as follows:

Blood pressure: 142/90 mm Hg; Pulse rate: 90 bpm; Temperature: 38.2 degrees Celsius; Respiration rate: 17 bpm

What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A

Acute Cholecystitis /Cholecystitis /Biliary colic

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223
Q

What are the possible complications of cholecystitis? List five.

A

Choledocholithiasis/Jaundice/Biliary obstruction
Hydrops
Empyema
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Duodenal perforation
Gallstone ileus
Pancreatitis
Hepatitis
Ascending cholangitis
Peritonitis/Perforation of the gallbladder/Necrosis/Gangrene
Sepsis
This question only asks for three answers. The exam could ask for more. Use this answer key as a study guide

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224
Q

Which imaging test would be BEST to confirm the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis ? Name ONE.

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

Hate to say this, but better to write out “Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography” than to rely on “ERCP” alone as your answer. It is possible that ERCP is acceptable, but since answers keys are not released, it’s hard to know for sure.

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225
Q

What blood tests would you consider ordering for cholecystitis (name 4)

A

White blood cell count (WBC)
Total Bilirubin
Alkaline phosphatase
Lipase
International Normalized Ratio (INR)/ Prothrombin time (PT) measurement
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
GGT
Alanine transaminase (ALT)

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226
Q

A 49 year-old man presents to your office with a two-week history of paraspinal lumbar pain. It started during a family vacation after a long drive. He was more active than usual while on vacation. There was no trauma. He has a desk job, and is generally sedentary. He had a knee injury playing baseball in the past, but otherwise has not had any musculo-skeletal complaints over the years. There is no significant past medical history. He denies alcohol, smoking, and IV drug use. His energy is good, and he denies night sweats, fever, and weight loss. His body mass index (BMI) is 28.

What other items on history of present illness are relevant to the presenting case? List EIGHT.

A

bladder changes/retention
bowel changes/incontinence
saddle anesthesia
radiation pattern
severity
quality of pain
timing of pain/is it worse at night
aggravating factors: for example, is it worse with certain movements
alleviating factors: for example, positional changes
associated features: rashes
associated features: eye/vision changes
is he taking pain killers?/need for analgesics
radicular symptoms: leg weakness
radicular symptoms: sensory changes
morning stiffness
changes in sexual function/erectile dysfunction

One buzzword in this question is “other”. It is subtle, but it means you cannot use historical items from the preamble as answers.

For history questions, most of them will relate to the history of present illness (HPI), which means that past medical history, surgical history, allergies etc are not what the question is looking for. Read the question carefully. Using a mneumonic to help you remember an approach to HPI questions can be helpful, such as OD PQRST AA.

O - onset; D- duration; P - pain, Q - quality, R - radiation, S - severity, T - timing; A - associated features (rash/GI/eye etc), A - aggravating and alleviating factors. Or use another system if you have one.

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227
Q

What non-pharmacologic recommendations would you offer for lumbar hernia? Name FOUR.

A

recommend physical activity/exercise/core strengthening
encourage walking
education about self-limiting nature of most cases of back pain
education: avoidance of bed rest
symptomatic strategies: heat/cold
encourage weight loss (goal of 10% of body weight)
ergonomic assessment at work

As per guidelines, most causes of low back pain are self-limiting. The guideline in the links document suggests not referring for physiotherapy or chiropractic right away, but rather waiting for natural resolution of symptoms before embarking on formal therapy. Since there are no red flags identified in this case, expectant management as above is indicated.

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228
Q

Name THREE medications in three different classes that you would consider recommending for back hernia without radicular pain

A

Tylenol/acetaminophen
ibuprofen/Advil
cyclobenzaprine/Flexeril

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229
Q

Pt returns after 12 weeks of back pain, having followed your conservative management. He continues to work. His pain is now worse. It has localized somewhat to the left side. The physical exam is unchanged.
what investigation do you want to do

A

Acceptable answers: lumbar x-ray AP and lateral (oblique not required given no pain with extension so you are not worried about a pars interarticularis fracture)

Imaging may be considered now because his symptoms have become chronic.

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230
Q

You are seeing a 2 year 6 month old Ava in your clinic for a well child check. Along with her parents, Ava has two step-siblings who live with her: a 5 year old girl, and 7 year old boy. Mom reports noticing that Ava isn’t as affectionate as the other children. She also wonders if Ava should have more language skills at her age.

Name TWO conditions on your differential that must be addressed at this visit.

A

Autism spectrum disorder
Child abuse
Rett’s syndrome
Hearing problems

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231
Q

Name FOUR domains that are assessed when determining if a child has developmental delay.

A

Gross Motor
Fine Motor
Speech/language
Social/emotional
Cognitive/problem solving

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232
Q

What TWO developmental domains are most impacted in a child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

A

Social/emotional
speech/language

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233
Q

Name FIVE diagnostic features of a child with autism spectrum disorder.

A

inability to participate in social/emotional interactions
deficits in nonverbal communication: no/limited understanding of gestures/body language
poor eye contact
difficulties in developing relationships
evidence of repetitive movements
evidence of repetitive speech
inflexibility/adherence to routines
restricted/fixated interests
Altered/Hyper-/hypo-reactivity to sensory input

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234
Q

Before what age must these features be present in order to make a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder?

A

3 years

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235
Q

Name TWO classes of medications that may be used in patients with ASD to treat their co-morbid conditions.

A

selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRI)
atypical anti-psychotics
anticonvulsant mood stabilizers
stimulants
alpha 2 antagonist (mirtazapine)
melatonin

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236
Q

Name TWO classes of medications that may be used in patients with ASD to treat their co-morbid conditions.

A

selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRI)
atypical anti-psychotics
anticonvulsant mood stabilizers
stimulants
alpha 2 antagonist (mirtazapine)
melatonin

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237
Q

Nineteen year-old Tucker presents to your emergency department with a nosebleed which was severe three days ago and has trickled ever since. Today, he was dizzy when getting out of bed, so a friend brought him to hospital. He has never had a serious nosebleed before, but he gives a history of easy bruising. Once, after a dental extraction, he bled continuously, and was eventually given plasma and an intravenous medication which his doctor explained could also be given “up the nose”. Later he was told that he had a clotting problem, but he can’t recall the exact diagnosis. He was adopted as an infant. No medical records are available. He takes no regular medication.

On examination: HR 105 supine, 130 sitting, BP 98/60, RR 24, afebrile

Skin pale, slightly clammy

HEENT: active bleeding from L nare; controlled with pressure; gag reflex intact, airway patent

Assuming the bleeding is currently well controlled with pressure, list the THREE most important interventional steps at this point. Be specific.

A
  1. type and crossmatch for 2-4U of packed red blood cells
  2. Two large bore IVs with 1L normal saline running in each
  3. 100% oxygen by rebreather mask
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238
Q

List THREE laboratory investigations which will be most helpful in managing severe epistaxis

A

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

Platelet count

PT/INR
PTT
Bleeding time

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239
Q

Where do you expect to find the source of the bleeding for epistaxis?

A

Little’s area/anterior inferior nasal septum/Kisselbach’s plexus

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240
Q

19 yo patient in ER for epistaxis was told in the past that he has a bleeding diasthesis. Name the THREE most likely diagnoses.

A

Hemophilia A, Hemophilia B, Von Willebrand’s disease

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241
Q

Pt’s previous test results become available. They are:

Prothombin time (PT): normal

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): prolonged

Von Willebrand’s Factor Activity: pending

Factor VIII-C: decreased

Bleeding Time: prolonged

Factor IX: normal

Given these results, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Answer: liver disease

A

von Willebrand disease

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242
Q

Other than silver nitrate, name TWO oral or IV medications that can be used to help control the bleeding.

A

fresh frozen plasma/cryoprecipitate,

tranexamic acid,

DDAVP

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243
Q

Your nasal examination confirms active bleeding from the expected site. Cautery with silver nitrate is unsuccessful. List THREE other local interventions which might now be employed to control haemorrhage.

A

packing with petrolatum gauze

packing with lidocaine soaked in epinephrine

packing with cocaine

packing with sponge/merocel/nasaspore

packing with hemostatic balloon

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244
Q

List TWO important infectious complications from the treatment of packing nose in epistaxis

A

toxic shock syndrome

acute sinusitis

bacterial rhinitis

putrefication of packing

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245
Q

Maria is a 29 year-old female who ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen 12 hours ago in a suicide attempt and is brought to the ED by her mother. Her mother found no other pill bottles nearby.

What is the toxic dose of acetaminophen in mg/kg?

A

Acceptable answer: 150-200mg/kg (anywhere within this range)

You will not be asked many numbers on this exam, and usually the answer will only be worth 1 point, so not enough to make you fail the case if you get it wrong. Most number-related answers will accept a range. If one of your two numbers is outside the range, you risk being marked wrong, so the safest approach is to give a specific number rather than a range.

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246
Q

At what time point after ingestion can activated charcoal be used for decontamination?

A

Acceptable answer: 1-2 hours (anywhere in this range)

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247
Q

Name FIVE drugs or compounds that do not bind to charcoal.

A

Lithium, lead, solvents, iron, alcohols, hydrocarbons, potassium, pesticides, alkali, acids

There are mnemonics to help remember this list. It is unlikely that any question will ask you for the whole list.

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248
Q

Other than nausea, what are the TWO most likely symptoms that a patient with acetaminophen intox?

A

diaphoresis, vomiting

Poisoning pearls: Know indications for dialysis (AEIOU), causes of anion gap (MUDPILES)

Other poisonings/toxidromes to review: alcohol, opioids, TCAs, anti-cholinergics, cholinergics, ASA, hallucinogens (unlikely to show up on the exam), sedatives, sympathomimetics (ie cocaine: more likely to show up on the exam), salicylates, serotonin syndrome, benzodiazepines, dilantin, carbamazepine

Some years there are a couple of poisoning questions, and other years none. Best to prepare to that you will get at least one.

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249
Q

Other than an acetaminophen level, and levels for any other toxin, what bloodwork would you order in a case of acetaminophen intox? Name SIX.

A

aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
international normalized ratio (INR)
partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Alkaline phosphatase
gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)
total bilirubin
direct bilirubin
serum albumin
serum creatinine
serum sodium
serum bicarbonate
serum phosphate
serum glucose
serum lactate (via arterial blood gas)
serum/arterial pH (via arterial blood gas)

Arterial blood gas is considered a grouped test and is never an answer on this exam. Choose the part of the ABG that you want, and use that as your answer.

In this question, I recommend not populating all six of your answers with liver tests. Choose the most important two or three.

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250
Q

Mr. Koph, a 59 year-old businessman, presents to your local emergency room with a three-day history of fever, productive cough, fatigue and dyspnea. He denies infectious contacts, recent travel, or recent illness. He had his second Covid-19 vaccination three months ago. He denies rhinorrhea and sore throat. He is a current smoker and has a 25 pack-year smoking history. He denies other significant past medical history apart from mild hyperlipidemia. He has no allergies.

Name FOUR items on your differential diagnosis.

A

Bacterial pneumonia
Viral pneumonia
Influenza
COPD exacerbation
Acute bronchitis

The reference to Covid-19 vaccination status is meant to communicate that this is most likely NOT Covid-19 infection.

Users have asked whether “asthma exacerbation” could be an answer, but this is less likely as he has no history of asthma, and this diagnosis doesn’t explain his fever.

The way the question is worded, it is pointing to an infectious cause. It is hard to know whether each answer should be a different type of infection (ie mycoplasma pneumonia, streptococcal pneumonia etc) or whether the answers should be more broad. Specific types of pneumonia could populate all four answers, but you don’t want to exclude reasonable options such as COPD and acute bronchitis. Therefore, in this case, the recommendation is to stay broad and use categories of viral vs bacterial pneumonia only.

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251
Q

You have a pt suspected to have pneumonia. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/80, heart rate is 96 and regular, respiratory rate is 24, O2 saturation is 93% on room air, and temperature is 38.2 degrees celcius.

What investigations do you order? Name FOUR.

A

serum white blood cell count and differential
chest x-ray, PA and lateral
serum hemoglobin
serum creatinine
serum sodium

Sputum cultures are rarely helpful and therefore are rarely collected in pneumonia. The culture takes at least a week and sometimes two to come back, by which time the information is usually irrelevant. Additionally, the patient is not sick enough for blood cultures (usually the patient would be admitted and septic). See the links document for exam 2 for more information.

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252
Q

Other than vital signs, name SIX signs on respiratory examination that would support a diagnosis of pneumonia.

A

diminished chest expansion
increased tactile fremitus
increased vocal fremitus/vocal resonance
dullness on percussion
diminished air entry on auscultation
bronchial breath sounds
whispering pectoriloquy
crackles
pleural rub
egophony
bronchophony

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253
Q

Name THREE first line antibiotics, each from a different class, that you could use to treat pneumonia in a healthy patient.

A

doxycycline
amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate (clavulin for comorbidities - smoking could be considered a comorbidity)
azithromycin/clarithromycin/erythromycin
Note: 1st line use of fluoroquinolone not recommended

Canadian guidelines in this area are old. In general, newer resources (such as Bugs and Drugs) are steering away from macrolides as a first-line choice due to mounting resistance. Having said that, macrolides still make the list as a first-line option with a caveat to avoid in areas where there is evidence of mounting macrolide resistance. Macrolides are still recommended for inpatient or severe pneumonia.

Here is a link to an American guideline (which I usually do not prefer to recommend) which is far newer than anything we have in Canada.
See table 3. Let’s hope the exam only asks for TWO answers. In that case, it’s easy: amoxil and doxy in healthy patients; clavulin + doxy or clavulin + azithro in patients with co-morbidities.

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254
Q

Explain why you would or would not admit this patient. 59 yo with 25 pack year smoking hx, otherwise healthy, LLL PNA on CXR. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/80, heart rate is 96 and regular, respiratory rate is 24, O2 saturation is 93% on room air, and temperature is 38.2 degrees celcius.

A

NO side: You would not admit him because he doesn’t meet criteria as per the PSI /Curb-65 score. Not hemodynamically compromised. Other than smoking no active significant co-morbid conditions. No hypoxemia (considered to be 02 sat <90%).

You may also explain answer using Curb-65, but PSI has been validated whereas Curb-65 has not been. However, PSI has higher specificity than Curb-65

YES side: You may get points as long as you explain your rationale: ie he appears septic. Then support why you feel that he is septic.

You will not be asked to regurgitate the Curb 65 or PSI criteria on the exam, but you may be asked to make a decision that utilizes the scores so you should memorize one of them (Curb 65 much easier to memorize than PSI).

On this question, most previous exam writers have answered NO.

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255
Q

You order a follow-up chest x-ray to ensure the absence of malignancy after you diagnose pneumonia. When would you ask the pt to do this follow-up x-ray?

A

6-8 weeks (any answer in this range is acceptable)

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256
Q

You counsel patient about preventing future episodes of pneumonia. Identify FOUR items that you would include in your discussion.

A

smoking cessation
avoidance of 2nd hand smoke
limit the spread of viral infections/handwashing/hand hygiene
annual flu shot
pneumococcal vaccine

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257
Q

Thirty year-old Brittany sees you in the office about headaches. Her headaches have been more frequent over the past six months. They are characterized by episodes of throbbing, unilateral head pain, and are associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to sound. Initially, they lasted only a few hours and occurred less than once a month. Now they are more severe and more frequent. She experienced similar headaches as a teenager.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

migraine, migraine headache, migraine without aura, classic migraine

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258
Q

List THREE broad non-pharmacologic approaches that may help to prevent migraines

A

regular sleep/optimize sleep
regular meals
regular exercise: 30 mins/day 5d/wk to goal of 150mins/wk aerobic activity
stress management
avoid dietary triggers (ie. caffeine, MSG, chocolate, alcohol)
stay well hydrated
avoid analgesic overuse (>9d/month)

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259
Q

Other than narcotics, list FOUR agents, all from different classes, that could be used in the management of acute migraine attack in ER

A

aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen (or any other NSAID)
metoclopramide
sumatriptan (or any other listed triptan)
acetaminophen
intravenous fluids/normal saline

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260
Q

List FOUR oral medications, all in different classes, that you can prescribe for migraine prophylaxis (not acute treatment)

A

amitriptyline/nortriptyline
divalproex/valproic acid
propranolol/metoprolol/nadolol
topiramate
gabapentin
candesartan
lisinopril
verapamil/flunarizine
pizotifen
venlafaxine

B-blockers and TCAs are considered first line. Some resources indicate that anti-convulsants are also first line, but there is not general consensus on this, so if they ask for classes of meds, stick with TCAs and B-blockers as preferred classes, and anti-convulsants next, followed by CCB/ACEI.

Botox is recommend for prophylaxis when there are over 15 headache days per month, as per Headache Society of Canada. Since botox is not an oral medication, it is not an answer for this question. If the question reads, “What pharmacologic agents could you use for prevention?” then botox is an answer.

There are newer injectable immunologic agents (Aimovig) that are also gaining popularity. Again, these are injectable agents so not on this answer key

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261
Q

over-the-counter preventative products for migraines. Which over-the-counter agents can be recommended? List THREE.

A

Butterbur
Magnesium
Vitamin B2/riboflavin
Coenzyme Q10

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262
Q

Red flags in a patient with migraines, that would require imaging

A

Red flags include recent onset, rapidly increasing frequency and severity of headache; headache causing the patient to wake from sleep; associated dizziness, lack of coordination, tingling or numbness, new neurologic deficit; new onset of a headache in a patient with a history of cancer or immunodeficiency; new headache disorder in patient over 50.

“The yield of neuroimaging in patients with typical recurrent migraine attacks is very low. Any imaging study, particularly MRI, can identify incidental findings of no clinical significance which may lead to patient anxiety and further unnecessary investigation. For patients with typical migraine and a normal clinical examination who desire reassurance, careful explanation of the diagnosis and patient education may be more advisable.” - Choosing Wisely

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263
Q

Physical Exam of wellbaby and normal weight gain pattern

A

Height, weight, head circumference (WHO Canadian Growth Chart)

Correct percentiles if born <37w until 2-3yo

Max 10% weight loss by 4-5d, regain birthweight by 2w

30g/d until 3 mo, 20g/day until 6 mo, 10g/day until 12 mo

Double BW by 4mo, triple BW by 1y

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264
Q

when to do wellbaby visits

A

Recommended at 1 week, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months, 4-5 years

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265
Q

when should fontanelles be closed

A

Posterior closed by 2mo, anterior closed by 18mo

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266
Q

which hip exam to do in children depending on age

A

Hip exam until walking

0-3 months: Ortolani, Barlow

> 3 months: Limited hip abduction, Galeazzi

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267
Q

when to refer for undescended testes

A

6 months (4-12 months)

Refer if undescended (palpable, ectopic, nonpalpable) at 6 months

Consider earlier if ascended testis, bilateral nonpalpable, or associated hypospadias/ambiguous genitalia

Ultrasound not recommended as unhelpful

Retractile testis can be followed until puberty

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268
Q

benefits of circumcision

A

Decrease

Penile cancer (NNT 900-322,000)

Phimosis (NNT 67)

UTI (NNT 111)

HPV (NNT 5), HIV (NNT 298), HSV (NNT 16)

Decrease cervical cancer and STI in partner

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269
Q

3 cons of circumcision
and name a contraindication

A

Surgery risks: Infection (NNH 67), bleeding (NNH 67)

Meatal stenosis (NNH 10-50)

Ethical concerns

Contraindicated: Hypospadias

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270
Q

until when should a women breastfeed and which supplement to give? when to start regular milk

A

Exclusive breastfeeding recommended for first 6 months and continued into second year of life

Breastfed babies should receive Vitamin D 400 units PO daily

Vitamin D 800 units daily if high risk (limited sun exposure, darker skin, obesity)

Express breast milk can refrigerate up to 3d and freeze up to 6mo

Warm milk by placing in warm water

Switch from formula to homogenized milk at 500-750 mL/day at 12 months

Discontinue bottle by 18 months

Transition to 1-2% milk (500mL/day) at 2-3 years

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271
Q

6 tips for introduction of solids in baby

A

No evidence to delay food beyond 6-12 months

Introduce foods one at a time q3d (monitor for reactions)

Avoid solid round smooth dry/sticky foods risk of choking

Avoid sugary food/drinks

No beets, carrots, spinach, turnips before 6 months (nitrates)

No honey in first year

Inquire about vegetarian diets

Iron-containing foods should be encouraged when introducing solids

Iron-fortified cereals and grain products

Consider screen at 6-12mo for anemia in at-risk (eg. low SES)

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272
Q

5 tips for safe sleep

A

Safe crib (no soft objects/loose items, firm mattress)

On Back

Room sharing for <6 months

Pacifier if <6 months

Avoid bed sharing (consider bed box)

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273
Q

3 advice on car seats and children

A

Rear-facing car seat
-Infant must use rear-facing car seat
-Use a larger seat once baby outgrows infant seat, and keep rear facing until at least 2 years of age or reaches the maximum weight or height limit of the rear-facing seat, as stated by the manufacturer

Forward-facing car seat with a 5-point harness
-Once child outgrows larger rear-facing seat and is at least 2 years old, use 5-point harness seat until at least 18kg (40lbs) and can sit straight/tall without moving out of position or unbuckling (this may be 4-6 years old)

Booster seats with belt-positioning
-When child has outgrown forward-facing car seat with a 5-point harness, use a booster seat until 145cm (4’9”) tall and they safely fit in adult seat belt without slouching (for most children this is 9-12 years old)

Rear seat with adult seatbelt until 13 years old

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274
Q

counsel on use of acetaminophen and ibuprofen with correct dosing in pers

A

Acetaminophen 10-15mg/kg/dose q4-6h

Ibuprofen 4-10mg/kg/dose q6-8h in >6mo

Avoid OTC medication (especially if using acetaminophen/ibuprofen)

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275
Q

at which frequency should mothers breastfeed

A

Mothers should breastfeed when infant shows signs of hunger or q4 hours (8-12 feeds in first 24h, which decreases slowly to seven feeds per day by 1-2 months)

Infant should urinate one void per number of days of life until 6-8 times daily by day 5

Suspect inadeqaute milk intake if >7% weight loss or if the infant does not regain their weight by 2w

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276
Q

cause leading to breastfeeding issues

A

Inadequate milk production
-Breast development (previous surgery, radiation, endocrine -prolactinoma)

-Delay in lactogenesis within first 5d

-Usually due to obesity, hypertension, PCOS

-Medications (oxytocin, SSRI, estrogen)
-Offering only one side per feeding

Poor milk extraction
-Infrequent feeding
-inadequate latch-on
-Maternal-infant separation
-Use of supplemental formula

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277
Q

differential diagnosis of nipple pain

A

Trauma

Vasoconstriction

Engorgement/Excessive milk supply

Plugged ducts

Infection

Dermatitis/psoriasis

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278
Q

non pharmalogical tips for helping to breastfeed better

A

Proper positioning and latch

Support breast with hand in shape of “C” (fingers under breast, thumb on top)

Place baby’s chin below areola

Top and bottom lips wide open

Lower lip turned outward against breast

Chin touching breast, nose close to breast

Full cheeks

Re-try latch if discomfort, noisy sucking, does not swallow rhythmically

If unable to get proper latch, consider pumping with expressed breastmilk until problem is addressed

Lactation consultant

No data for galactogogues (domperidone, metoclopramide, fenugreek) over breastfeeding technique interventions

Cool or warm compresses, breastmilk to nipple

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279
Q

pharmalogical treatment of cracked nipples in breastfeeding

A

Antibiotic ointment (bacitracin or mupirocin) on cracked nipples to prevent infection and form a barrier

All Purpose Nipple Ointment (APNO)

Mupirocin ointment 2%: 15 grams

Betamethasone ointment 0.1%: 15 grams

Miconazole powder added to a concentration of 2% miconazole

Total ~30g, Apply sparingly after each feeding. Do not wash or wipe off.

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280
Q

when should a mother wean from breastfeeding

A

Natural weaning or “child-led weaning” happens when your baby starts to accept more—and different types—of solid foods while still breastfeeding on demand. With this type of weaning, you watch your baby’s cues and wean at their pace. Babies who are weaned naturally usually stop breastfeeding completely sometime between 2 and 4 years of age.

Planned weaning or “mother-led weaning” happens when mothers decide to start the weaning process.

A “partial wean” means substituting one or more feedings with a cup or bottle and breastfeeding at other times. This can work well if you are going back to work or school, but still want to breastfeed. Early morning, evening and night feedings can continue even if you are separated from your baby during the day.

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281
Q

how to wean breastfeeding

A

follow baby cues
do it gradually
start by substituting one feed and continue this way
hold and cuddle your baby: never prop a bottle
watch the cues you give to your baby

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282
Q

how to counsel parents who do not want to vaccinate their child

A

-explain that Vaccines are made with a tiny amount of dead or weakened germs.
They help the immune system learn how to protect itself against
disease. Vaccines are a safe and effective way to keep your
child from getting very sick from the real disease.

-consequences of not vaccinating: congenital rubella, death, possible complications of preventable disease

-no third world country travel

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283
Q

vaccination schedule

A

depends on each province.

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284
Q

6 risk factors of violent patient

A

Young Male
Low SES
History of violence
Legal history
History of physical abuse
Substance use disorder
Mental illness
Victimization

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285
Q

8 causes to rule out in violent patient

A

hypoxemia/hypoxia, hypoglycemia, neurologic disorder (injury, hemorrhage, cva, seizure), schizophrenia, infection (meningitis, encephalitis, sepsis), metabolic (hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, thiamine deficiency, hypercalcemia), hyper/hypothermia, liver/renal failure, withdrawal (alcohol, benzodiazepine), medication/substance (amphetamine, steroids, alcohol), psychiatric

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286
Q

8 labs to consider ordering in suddenly violent patient

A

CBC, electrolytes (glucose), LFT, renal function
Blood alcohol level, urine drug screen
UA, urine culture
CT head +/- LP

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287
Q

how to manage a violent patient

A

Consider personal safety at all times
Never turn back to individual (don’t walk ahead of patient)
Ensure adequate personal space
Ensure access to personal duress alarm
Ensure you have a safe escape route
Remove dangerour objects
Consider safety of other patients and visitors
Place patient in quiet secure area, inform other staff

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288
Q

de escaladation tricks to deal with violent patient

A

Empathic nonconfrontational approach, but set boundaries
Address agitation directly (name the emotion)
Listen to the patient, avoid excessive stimulation
Recruit family, friends, case managers to help
Address medical issues (pain, discomfort)
Ascertain the patient’s wishes and the level of urgency

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289
Q

indications to restrain and sedate agressive patient

A

Prevent harm to patient/other patients/caregiver/staff
Prevent serious damage to the environment
Assist in assessment and management of patient
Never use restraints for convenience

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290
Q

pharmalogical management of violent behaviour

A

Benzodiazepines (avoid in elderly)

Diazepam 5-10mg PO/IV (max 30mg per event)
Lorazepam 2mg (max 10mg in 24h)
Midazolam 5-10mg IM (max 20mg per event)
Short-acting, rapid sedation (peak in 10mins, lasts up to 2h)
Antipsychotics

Olanzapine 5-10mg oral (max 30mg per event)
Quetiapine 25-200mg PO
Risperidone 0.25-2mg PO/SL
Haloperidol 5-10mg IM (max 20mg per event)
Risk of dystonia
Acute dystonia - Benztropine 2mg PO or IM or IV

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291
Q

conditions that increase risk of depression (5)

A

Comorbid medical disorders (CAD, Hypothyroidism)

Comorbid psychiatric disorders (anxiety, substance use)

Chronic pain

Low SES

Postpartum

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292
Q

management of Suicidal ideas

A

Hospitalization vs. close outpatient follow-up

Emergency psychiatric consultation and in-patient treatment if unsafe to self/others

If low risk of suicide, consider safety plan***
-Keep home environment safe (remove access to weapons)
-Recognize early warning signs
-Coming up with ways to cope personally with suicidal thoughts
-Identify people to contact for help/distraction
-Identify place to go to for safety (eg. hospital)

**provide specific instructions for follow up

Consider psychiatric referral for substance use disorder or psychiatric comorbidity (bipolar, anxiety, personality)

Persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild-moderate depression
-CBT, CCBT (computerized), structured group physical activity program

Drug treatment if
-Past history of moderate/severe depression
-Long period (>2y) of subthreshold depressive symptoms
-Persistent symptoms after other interventions
-Moderate/severe depression in combination with CBT or IPT

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293
Q

8 symptoms of depression

A

≥ 5 (with depressed or decreased interest) for >2w with change in functioning

Depressed mood most of the day

Sleep

Interest

Guilt

Energy

Concentration

Appetite

Psychomotor agitation/retardation

Suicidal ideation

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294
Q

psychiatric DDx (6) of depression

A

Bipolar (≥1w of energy/activity with ≥3 GST PAID)

Depressive disorder due to another medical condition

Persistent Depressive Disorder (>2y of 2SIGECAPS, with no MDE)

Adjustment disorder with depressed mood (stressor <3mo, resolves in <6mo)

Grief reaction (loss, usually <3mo)

Schizoaffective

Anxiety

ADHD

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295
Q

Medical DDx of depression

A

Adrenal insufficiency, hypercortisolism, hypothyroidism,

Mononucleosis,

Multiple sclerosis, Huntington disease, Parkinson disease, systemic lupus erythematosus

Obstructive sleep apnea

Stroke, traumatic brain injury

Vitamin B12 insufficiency

Medication: Corticosteroids, interferon, antiretrovirals

Substance-induced

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296
Q

investigation for depression

A

CBC (anemia), electrolytes (creat), TSH, B12/folate, LFTs

B-hCG

UA, urine toxicology

EKG (QT)

Neuroimaging if focal neurological sign or elderly

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297
Q

elements that increase suicide risk

A

SADIPERSONS

Sex (male)

Age>60yo

Depression

Previous attempts

Ethanol abuse

Rational thinking loss (psychosis)

Suicide in family

Organize plan

No spouse/support

Serious illness/pain

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298
Q

name 5 questions to assess suicide ideation

A

Passive vs. Active ideation

Plan (time/place), Intent (would you actually carry out this plan)

Past Attempts (Practiced/Aborted)

Access to means

Provocative/Protective factors

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299
Q

lifestyle modification for depression (3

A

Regular exercise, adequate food, housing, sleep

Stress management (mindfulness-based stress reduction, engaging in ≥1 pleasurable activity per day)

Avoiding substance abuse

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300
Q

4 types of therapies to help with depression

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy

Interpersonal psychotherapy

Behavioural activation

Group (less effective than individual but lower costs)

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301
Q

name 5 common side effects of SSRI

A

Side effects: Nausea (21%), xerostomia (20%), diaphoresis (20%), drowsiness (18%), insomnia (15%), sexual dysfunction (up to 50%), weight gain, headache

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302
Q

name 5 dangerous complications of SSRIs

A

Serotonin syndrome, suicidality, upper GI bleed, osteoporosis, hyponatremia, prolonged QT

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303
Q

2 most common drugs to screen in patients who present in ER with suicide attemps

A

Acetaminophen and ASA

also consider attempted suicide in patients with trauma

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304
Q

How to know if someone is responding well to antidepressants

A

Use objective scales (eg. PHQ-9) to monitor improvement
-If >20% improvement at 2-4w continue treatment and reassess at 6-8w
-If <20% improvement at 2-4w
—Increase dose
—Switch to another medication: Consider Escitalopram, Mirtazapine, Sertraline, Venlafaxine
—Adjunct/Augment (if ≥ 2 antidepressant trials, well tolerated, partial response, specific symptoms to target, less time to wait (severe, functional impairment), patient preference)
-Consider Aripripazole, Quetiapine, Risperidone
-Other options may include lithium, thyroid hormone

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305
Q

name 4 adjuncts in antidepressors in treating depression

A

Consider Aripripazole, Quetiapine, Risperidone

Other options may include lithium, thyroid hormone

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306
Q

for how long do you keep the prescription of antidepressor

A

Maintenance until 6-9 months minimum after remission
-Consider 2y minimum especially if high risk (frequent/recurrent episodes, severe, chronic, comorbid, residual symptoms, difficult to treat)
Discontinuation by slow taper over weeks

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307
Q

sx of SSRI withdrawal 5

A

-Symptoms include FINISH (Flu-like symptoms, Insomnia, Nausea, Imbalance, Sensory disturbance, Hyperarousal)
-Typically resolves in 1-2 weeks

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308
Q

other non pharmalogical treatments of depression

A

Neurostimulation
-Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) if failed ≥1 antidepressant

ECT if severe (active suicidal ideation), psychotic, treatment-resistant
-Consider in medication intolerance, catatonic features, rapidly deteriorating physical status (eg. malnutrition due to food refusal)

Complementary:

Light therapy (phototherapy)
-10,000 lux for 30 minutes per day during early morning up to 6 weeks (response usually within 3 weeks)
-Consider especially in seasonal, shift work, sleep dysregulation

Acupuncture

Sleep deprivation (total for 40h or partial allowing 3-4h of sleep per night, employed 2-4 times over one week)

Natural health products

St John’s Wort (care for medication interactions)

Omega-3 fatty acids (3-9g/day) or 1-2g of EPA + 1-2g of DHA per day

SAM-e

Zinc

Social skills training, vocational rehabilitation

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309
Q

first line of tx for under 18 yo in depression

A

First line

CBT/IPT or internet-based psychotherapy

Second line

Level 1 evidence: Fluoxetine

Level 2 evidence: Escitalopram, sertraline, citalopram

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310
Q

treatement of depression in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy/Breastfeeding

First line

CBT/IPT

Second line

Citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline

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311
Q

counsel on the risk of malformations when taking antidepressants in pregnancy

A

Most antidepressants not linked to major congenital malformations

Paroxetine: CV malformations (OR 1.5)

Fluoxetine: Small increase in congenital malformations

Very modest link for spontaneous abortion (OR 1.5) , 4-day shortened gestational duration and reduced birth weight (74g)

Exposure to antidepressants in breastfed infant is 5-10 times lower than in utero

Sertraline has lowest relative infant dose (milk-to plasma ratio)

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312
Q

perimenopausal first line antidepressant

A

First line

Desvenlafaxine

CBT

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313
Q

first line of antidepressant for patients over 60 yo

A

Level 1 evidence: Duloxetine, mirtazapine, nortriptyline

Level 2 evidence: Buproprion, citalopram/escitalopram, desvenlafaxine, sertraline, venlafaxine, vortioxetine

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314
Q

Forty-four year old Susan presents with a 4 month history of fatigue and weight gain in spite of not changing eating habits and maintaining regular exercise. She is otherwise healthy and not on any medications. On further questioning, Susan mentions that she had a painful neck swelling for a few weeks about 6 months ago following a cold.

What is your most probable diagnosis?

A

hypothyroidism/thyroiditis

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315
Q

What are SIX signs or symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

weight gain
fatigue
Hypoventilation
Intolerance to cold
Slow HR
tongue swelling
Infertility
Menorrhagia
memory impairment
Mood change: (depression)
Constipation
dry, thickened skin (previously, this answer said cold, clammy skin, which is more likely for hyperthyroid rather than hypo)
course hair
brittle nail
Paresthesia
periorbital edema
goitre
myalgias
delayed reaction phase of deep tendon reflexes

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316
Q

which labs to ask for if there is fatigue, weight gain, tender neck/suspicion of hypothyroidism

A

TSH
Free T4
Hemoglobin
Mean corpuscular volume
low density lipo-protein (because a high TSH can cause high LDL)
serum creatinine
ferritin

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317
Q

what is the starting dose of synthroid in healthy patient

A

0.05 - 2.0 ug/kg (FYI: standard starting dose is 1.6ug/kg - this is the safest option for the exam, unless your patient is old with co-morbidities, then you would start lower. Also, a question asking for this dose would be unusual on the exam.)

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318
Q

If the patient is > 80 years old or with cardiac disease, what will you choose for a starting synthroid dose in ug/dose?

A

25ug

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319
Q

In an asymptomatic 60 year old patient with a slightly elevated TSH, at what TSH level would you consider treatment?

A

TSH>10

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320
Q

name 10 signs and sx of hypothyroidism

A

Depression
Decreased mental function
Physical tiredness
Paresthesia
Hypokinesis
Hyporeflexia
Weight gainA
Coarse, dry skin
Periorbital edema
Hoarseness
Bradycardia
Isolated diastolic hypertension
Goitre
Diminished sweating
Cold intolerance
Constipation
Menorrhagia

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321
Q

Hyperthyroidism:signs and sx (10)

A

Anxiety, irritability, restlessness
Fatigue, restless sleep
Increased appetite
Decreased attention span
Tremors
Proximal muscle weakness
Hyperreflexia
Weight loss
Hair loss
Palpitations, tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Isolated systolic hypertension
Goitre
Increased sweating
Heat intolerance
Blurred or double vision
Dry eyes, conjunctivitis, proptosis or dysconjugate gaze
Increased frequency of stools
Amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea

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322
Q

6 risk factors of thyroid disease

A

Risk factors for thyroid disease include1:

men: age ≥ 60 years2
women: age ≥ 50 years2
personal history or strong family history of thyroid disease
diagnosis of other autoimmune diseases
past history of neck irradiation
previous thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine ablation
drug therapies such as lithium and amiodarone
dietary factors (iodine excess and iodine deficiency in patients from developing countries); or
certain chromosomal or genetic disorders (e.g., Turner syndrome3, Down syndrome4 and mitochondrial disease5)

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323
Q

which test to ask in suspicion of thyroid disease

A

thyroid stimulating hormone
free T4

free T3 rarely indicated, only relevent if thyroid disease is suspected clinically and TSH is abnormal, but fT4 is inappropriately normal.

anti-thyroide peroxidase (TPO): not routinely indicated
-can be used in goitre or mildly elevated TSH to see if cause is autoimmune thyroiditis
-TPO antibody positivity increases the risk of developing hypothyroidism in patients with subclinical hypothyroidism, autoimmune diseases (e.g., type 1 diabetes), chromosomal disorders (e.g., Turner syndrome and Down syndrome) or patients who are on certain drug therapies (e.g., lithium, amiodarone) or are pregnant or postpartum (see Thyroid Disease in Pregnancy section below)13, 14. Once a patient is known to be TPO antibody positive, repeat analysis is not indicated.

thyroid ultrasound scan is not routinely recommended in patients with abnormal thyroid function tests, unless there is a palpable abnormality of the thyroid gland

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324
Q

when to retest TSH in patient with confirmed thyroid disease

A

6 weeks after start or change in treatment

if there is a change in patient’s clinical status

annually once TSH is stabilized

q 6 months if patient is taking lithium and amiodarone(3-6m)

q 6-12 months in subclinical hypothyroidism

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325
Q

when to treat subclinical hypothyroidism

A

A decision to treat is often made if the TSH is >10 mU/L even if the fT4 is within the reference range.

Treatment can be considered when TSH is between the upper limit of the reference interval but ≤10 mU/L and any of the following are present13:

symptoms suggestive of hypothyroidism
elevated TPO antibodies
evidence of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease, heart failure, or associated risk factors for these diseases; or
pregnancy (see Thyroid Disease in Pregnancy section below)

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326
Q

name 4 causes of high TSH

A

autoimmune hypothyroidism
subclinical hypothyroidism
recovery from non-thyroidal illbess (sick euthyroid syndrome)

rare: pituitary disease, resistance to thyroide hormone

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327
Q

4 causes of low TSH

A

Hyperthyroidism or other causes of thyrotoxicosis

Excessive thyroid hormone replacement (levothyroxine)
Graves’ disease
Subacute thyroiditis (viral)
Painless/postpartum thyroiditis (autoimmune)
Toxic (multinodular) goitre

Hyperthyroidism or other causes of thyrotoxicosis

T3 thyrotoxicosis (e.g., autonomous nodule)
Excessive thyroid hormone replacement (liothyronine or desiccated thyroid)

Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Recovery of hyperthyroidism
Pregnancy related14, 20
Assay artefactB

Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
Hospitalized patients, recovery from severe illness

Very rare causes
Central hypothyroidism (hypopituitarism)
Assay artefactB

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328
Q

4 causes of low TSH

A

Hyperthyroidism or other causes of thyrotoxicosis

Excessive thyroid hormone replacement (levothyroxine)
Graves’ disease
Subacute thyroiditis (viral)
Painless/postpartum thyroiditis (autoimmune)
Toxic (multinodular) goitre

Hyperthyroidism or other causes of thyrotoxicosis

T3 thyrotoxicosis (e.g., autonomous nodule)
Excessive thyroid hormone replacement (liothyronine or desiccated thyroid)

Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Recovery of hyperthyroidism
Pregnancy related14, 20
Assay artefactB

Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
Hospitalized patients, recovery from severe illness

Very rare causes
Central hypothyroidism (hypopituitarism)
Assay artefactB

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329
Q

risks of taking synthroid

A

hyperthyroidism
bone loss in post menopausal women
atrial fibrillation (in elderly)

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330
Q

which population to screen for hyperthyroidism

A

atrial fibrillation
osteoporosis
other endrocrine disorders

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331
Q

when to test pregnant women for TSH/risk factors of thyroid disease

A

age > 30 years
more than 2 prior pregnancies
history of pregnancy loss, preterm delivery, or infertility
type 1 diabetes or other autoimmune disorders
morbid obesity (BMI ≥ 40 kg/m2)
history of hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism or current symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction
family history of autoimmune thyroid disease or thyroid dysfunction (1st degree relative32)
history of head or neck radiation or prior thyroid surgery
known TPO antibody positivity or presence of a goitre
currently receiving levothyroxine replacement33
use of amiodarone or lithium, or recent administration of iodinated radiologic contrast
residing (or recently resided) in an area of known moderate to severe iodine insufficiency

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332
Q

when to treat pregnant women for thyroid disease and what is the target TSH

A

connection between untreated overt maternal hypothyroidism and neuropsychological impairment in the offspring3

A preconception TSH between the lower reference limit and 2.5 mU/L is recommended in women being actively treated for hypothyroidism

If hypothyroidism has been diagnosed before or during pregnancy, treatment should be adjusted to achieve a TSH level within the normal trimester specific reference interval.

If the TSH value is above 2.5 mU/L but within the reference interval, some practitioners would consider treating if the TPO antibody is positive.

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333
Q

normal range of TSH

A

TSH high (>4-5mU/L)
TSH low (<0.2mU/L)

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334
Q

additional tests to do in patients with hyperthyrodism without obvious cause

A

Thyrotropin receptor antibodies (TRAb)
Radioactive iodine uptake (contraindicated in pregnant/breastfeeding)
Ultrasound with thyroidal blood flow
Thyroid ultrasound (if abnormal thyroid size, nodules)
FNA for nodules >1cm or 5mm and suspicious features (r/o cancer)

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335
Q

drugs causing hypothyroidism (name3)

A

thionamides, lithium, amiodarone, interferon-alfa, interleukin-2, perchlorate, tyrosine kinase inhibitors

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336
Q

when to treat for subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

Consider treatment if TSH <0.1 mIU/L and
Symptomatic (palpitations, tremor, nervousness)
>65yo
Comorbidities such as heart disease or osteoporosis
Postmenopausal (<65yo) and not taking estrogen/bisphosphonates

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337
Q

treatment of Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (viral infection, painful thyroid)

A

NSAIDs, steroids, beta blockers for sx treatment

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338
Q

sx of myxedema coma

A

Altered mental status, hypoventilation, hypothermia, hypotension, bradycardia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia

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339
Q

tx of myxedema

A

Levothyroxine (T4) loading dose 200-400mcg IV, then 1.6mcg/kg/day IV
Liothyronine (T3) 5-20mcg followed by 2.5-10mcg q8h given with T4
Glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone 100mg IV q8-12h x2d) until coexisting adrenal insufficiency can be excluded
Supportive measures (ventilation, fluids, correction of hyponatremia and hypothermia)

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340
Q

graves disease lab and treatment

A

(TSH receptor antibodies=TRAb)
Thionamides (Methimazole - MMI or Propylthiouracil - PTU)

If persistently high TRAb, consider continuing MMI or radioiodine/sugery

beta blockers for sx control

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341
Q

Toxic adenoma/multinodular goiter treatment

A

First-line: Radioiodine or surgery
May consider thionamide initially for short-term
Beta-blockers for symptomatic treatment

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342
Q

thyroid storm sx and treatment

A

Hyperthermia, tachycardia, N/V/D, dehydration, delirium, coma
Causes: Trauma, surgery, RAI
Treatment
B-Blockers (Propranolol 60-80mg q4-6h)
PTU 200mg PO q4h
Iodine solution (delayed 1h after PTU)
Iodinated radiocontrast
High-dose IV hydrocortisone 100mg IV q8h

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343
Q

ample history

A

Allergies, Meds, PMH, Last meal, Events

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344
Q

normal urine output/goal

A

Urine output goal of 0.5mL/kg/h in adults (1mL/kg/h in pediatric, 2mL/kg/h in <1yo)

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345
Q

name 5 life threatning thoracic trauma conditions

A

Tension pneumothorax
Needle thoracostomy at 2nd ICS mid-clavicular line or 5th ICS anterior/mid axillary line, do not wait for X-ray (can do bedside ultrasound)
Chest tube at fifth intercostal space at anterior axillary line
Cardiac tamponade
-Penetrating chest wound,
—-Beck triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds), pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul sign (rise in JVP on inspiration)
-Confirm with echochardiogram, guide pericardiocentesis
Hemothorax
Flail chest
Upper airway obstruction
Aorta lesion

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346
Q

name the types of choc and one example for each

A

hypovolemic
-hemorrhagic
-Non-hemorrhagic (GI, skin-burns, renal, third space, pancreatitis)

distributive
-Sepsis
-Neurogenic (TBI, spinal cord injury)
-Anaphylactic
-Inflammatory

obstructive
-Pulmonary vascular (PE)
-Mechanical (Tension pneumothroax, pericardial tamponade)

cardiogenic
-Cardiomyopathic (MI)
-Arrhythmogenic (tachy/bradyarrhythmia)
Mechanical (valvular)

neurogenic:
-trauma to spinal cord

endocrine
-adrenal insufficiency, thyrotoxicosis, myxedema coma

metabolic:
-acidosis, hypothermia

Drugs:
-CCB, BB, Digoxin

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347
Q

In trauma what is in the primary survey?

A

Danger: check if it is safe

Response: chceck response to stimulus to determine level of consciousness

Circulation: pulse
-Consider defibrillation, hemorrhage control, leg elevation, IV access, fluid therapy

Airway: check if patent
consider C spine immobilisation, simple airway maoeuvers, suctionning, basic and advanced airway adjuncts

Breathing: consider Oxygen and IPPV

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348
Q

secondary survey in trauma

A

obtain Hx using OPQRST and SAMPLE

vital signs, EKG, GCS

PE from head to toe and fast echo

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349
Q

signs of difficult intubation

A

previous hx of difficult intubation
trauma on face, upper airway or C spine
early difficulty to ventilate with face mask
severe aspiration risk
small mouth, short mandibule, large tongue, short neck, prominent central incisors
limited mouth opening
C spine decrased ROM, trauma, degenerative changes

obesity,

Mallampati score
thyromental distance

laryngeal oedema (infection, inhalation thermal injury)

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350
Q

indication for intubation

A

unprotected airways, trauma to the airway, a Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) less than eight, a rapid decline or loss of consciousness, and procedural sedation and paralysis

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351
Q

absolute contraindication to direct laryngoscopy

A

facial trauma

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352
Q

name 4 precipitants of trauma

A

seizure, drug intox, hypoglycemia, attempted suivide

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353
Q

who to treat in mass casualties

A

ff. In such cases, patients having
the greatest chance of survival and requiring the
least expenditure of time, equipment, supplies, and

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354
Q

when to transfer a patient in trauma

A

Use ABCDE for transfer consideration:
-airway compromise, high risk for airway loss, tension PTx, hemothorax, open PTX, hypoxia, hypoventilation, hypotension, pelvic fx, vascular injury, open fx, abdo distension or peritonitis, GCS under 13, secvere hypotermia, depressed skull fx or penetrating injury, eye injury, complex lacerations, complex traumas

is important not to delay transfer to perform an indepth diagnostic evaluation. Only undertake testing
that enhances the ability to resuscitate, stabilize, and
ensure the patient’s safe transfer

e. Patients who exhibit evidence of shock, significant physiologic deterioration, or progressive deterioration in
neurologic status require the highest level of care and
will likely benefit from timely transfer

Stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and
documented liver or spleen injuries may be candidates
for nonoperative management, requiring the immediate
availability of an operating room and a qualified surgical
team.

r.
Patients with specific injuries, combinations of injuries (particularly those involving the brain), and/or a
history indicating high-energy-transfer injury may be
at risk for death and are candidates for early transfer
to a trauma center. Elderly patients should be considered for transfer for less severe injuries (e.g.,
multiple rib fractures and patients on anticoagula

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355
Q

tips to minimize trauma

A

do no drive drunk, use seatbelts, helmetsfhypo

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356
Q

definition and 3 classes of hypothermia

A

Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature
below 35°C (95°F). In the absence of concomitant
traumatic injury, hypothermia may be classified as
mild (35°C to 32°C, or 95°F to 89.6°F), moderate (32°C to
30°C, or 89.6°F to 86°F), or severe (below 30°C, or 86°F).

in the presence
of injury, different thresholds for classification are
recommended: mild hypothermia is 36° C (96.8° F),
moderate hypothermia is <36° C to 32° C (< 96.8° F
to 89.6° F), and severe hypothermia is < 32° C (89.6°

or stage 135°C to 32°C
stage 2 32-28
stage 3 24-28
stage 4 below 24

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357
Q

rewarming techniques in Mild (HTI) hypothermia
35°C to 32° C (95-89.6 F)

A
  • Dry patient
  • Warm environment
  • Shivering
  • Blankets or clothing
  • Cover head

External
* Heating pad
* Warm water, blankets,
and warm water bottles
* Warm water immersion
* External convection
heaters (lamps and
radiant warmers)

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358
Q

rewarming technique in moderate
(HT II) hypothermia < 32°C
to 28° C (< 89.6-82.4 F)

A

External
* Heating pad
* Warm water, blankets,
and warm water bottles
* Warm water immersion
* External convection
heaters (lamps and
radiant warmers)

Internal
* Heated intravenous
fluids
* Gastric or colonic lavage
* Peritoneal lavage
* Mediastinal lavage
* Warmed inhalational air
or oxygen

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359
Q

severe hypothermia rewarming technique

A

Extracorporeal
Rewarming
* Hemodialysis
* Continuous arteriovenous rewarming (CAVR)
* Continuous venovenous
rewarming (CVVR)
* Cardiopulmonary
bypass

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360
Q

physical exam findings suspicious of child abuse

A

General assessment of alertness, eye
opening, and responsiveness
Intracranial hemorrhage, head injury
Height, weight, head circumference
(compared with past
measurements, if possible)
Failure to thrive, neglect, or growth
failure with concurrent physical
abuse
Mouth and teeth examination Dental caries suggestive of neglect
Scalp examination Patchy hair loss caused by traumatic
alopecia or severe malnutrition
Funduscopic examination of the eyes
Retinal hemorrhages
Skin examination for bruising or
burns
Multiple patterns of bruising
suggestive of abuse: bruise in child
younger than four months; bruise
in torso, ear, and neck areas; ear
bruising (suggests “boxing ears”);
buttocks bruising; patterned
bruises (hand, cord, belt, object);
bruises at different stages of
resolution; burn injuries
Palpation for tenderness, especially
of the neck, torso, and extremities
Occult fracture
Deep tendon reflexes, muscle tone,
or responsiveness to tactile stimuli
Spinal cord injury

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361
Q

suspicious xr findings of child abuse

A

Highly specific injuries*
Classic metaphyseal lesions
Rib fractures, especially posteromedial
Sternal, scapular, and spinous process fractures
Moderately specific injuries*
Multiple fractures
Fractures in different stages of healing
Epiphyseal separations
Vertebral body fractures and subluxations
Digital fractures
Complex skull fractures
Common but low specificity
Clavicular fractures

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362
Q

labs to ask in suspected child abuse

A

cbc, fibrinogen, von willebrand factor, platelet aggregation studies, clotting factor assyas, ALt, AST, amylase, lipase, tox screen, UA, renal and lytes, ca, alk phosp, phosphorus, albumin, PTH for malnutrition, rickets

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363
Q

5 general advice to give to people travelling

A

get up to date information from reliable travel website

discuss prevention of accidents, safer sex, alcohol, safe travel for women

provide prevention and treatment advice and prescribe meds for common conditions (traveler’s diarrhea, altitude sickness)

ensure pts know how to manage their chronic disease

update routine vaccinations

check insurance coverage

have adequate medical supply, put in carry on bags

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364
Q

list common infections patients can get from travelling and their sources

A

Sick contact (TB)
Fresh water (shistosomiasis, leptospirosis)
Unclean water, unpasteurized milk, raw food (Traveler’s diarrhea, giardiasis, nontyphoidal salmonellosis, enteric fever, shigellosis, campylobacter, hepatitis A and E, brucellosis, listeriosis)
Skin contact with soil - walking barefoot (Strongyloidiasis, melioidosis)
Farm animals
Sexual contact (Herpes virus, HIV, Hep A/B/C, syphilis, gonorrhea, Zika, viral hemorrhagic)
IVDU, tattoo, piercing (Hep B/C, HIV, CMV, malaria, babesiosis)
Insect bites/Animal bites

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365
Q

malaria prevention

A

Clothing, DEET, bed nets with permethrin

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366
Q

when does malaria (plasmodium) sx appear

A

7 days to months after anopheles mosquito bite

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367
Q

malaria treatment, prophylaxis

A

atovaquone, proguanil (malarone) daily (start 1 day prior and 7 days after), avoid in children under 5 kg

Mefloquine (Lariam) weekly
-Start 3w prior, continue 4w after
-AE: Severe intolerance in some patients

Chloroquine weekly
-Start 1-2w prior, continue 4w after
-Resistance

Doxycycline also option for prophylaxis (risk of sun sensitivity, and avoid in children <8yo due to teeth staining)

treatment: IV antimalarials (Quinidine with doxycycline or Artesunate)

Consider outpatient treatment if <4% parasitemia and no severe features as above
Chloroquine (if sensitive) 600mg base orally immediately, then 300mg base orally 6, 24, 48h (total of 1500mg base)
Artemisinin combintation therapy if Chlororoquine-resistant region (eg. Artemether-lumefantrine)
Monitor parasitemia with daily blood smears until no parasitemia

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368
Q

name 5 germs causing traveller’s diarrhea

A

Escherichia Coli
Campylobacter jejuni
Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia
Norovirus
Rotavirus
Giardia
Entamoeba histolytica

Bacterial causes: 50-80% of travel-related diarrheal illness

Viral causes: 5-25%

Protozoal causes: <10%

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369
Q

for how long should patients avoid pregnancy after travelling to areas with zika

A

Avoid pregnancy after return from Zika area (2 months for women, 6 months for men)

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370
Q

non pharmacologic measures to prevent traveller’s diarrhea

A

Wash hands with soap and water before eating/frequent hand hygiene
Only eat fruit that they can peel themselves
Avoid uncooked vegetables (FYI: because these have likely been exposed to local tap water)
Avoid salads (FYI: because these have likely been exposed to local tap water)
Heat food to piping hot
Eat only thoroughly- and recently-cooked meats and fish
Drink only boiled or bottled beverages
Purify drinking water/Boil drinking water for 1 minute
Only eat pasteurized dairy products
Avoid food from street vendors/unknown sources
Avoid ice cubes
Only use purified/bottled water for brushing teeth and washing face

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371
Q

is vaccine against cholera useful

A

No, the vaccine (dukoral) is not recommended.
It is no more effective than placebo for prevention of diarrhea.
It is no more effective than placebo for prevention of enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC)

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372
Q

t treatments she can utilize right away if she develops diarrhea abroad.

A

use oral rehydration solution or salts/ensure adequate hydration
loperamide/Imodium
bismuth subsalicylate/Peptobismal
2 bismuth subsalicylate tablets 4 times daily (prevents up to 60%)

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373
Q

which antibiotics to treat traveller’s diarrhea

Consider antibiotics if severe (> four unformed stools daily, fever, or blood, pus, or mucus in the stool) or high risk (child, pregnant, elderly)

A

Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO BID x 3 days
Azithromycin 1000mg PO x 1 in children, pregnant women, or travellers to Asia (resistance to fluoroquinolones)

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374
Q

labs for traveller’s diarrhea or fever

A

CBC (anemia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia)
Thick and thin blood smear r/o Malaria (consider repeat q12h until three negative smears as parasitemia is cyclical)
Liver/Renal studies
Electrolytes
Blood culture x2
Urinalysis/Urine culture
CXR
Consider
ESR/CRP
PPD r/o TB
Dengue Serology
Widal test r/o typhoid fever
LP

If >10-14d, stool culture and O+P should be done for targeted therapy

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375
Q

treatment of scrub typhus (or other rickettsial infection)

A

Doxycycline

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376
Q

complications of malaria

A

organ dysfunction, anemia, electrolyte abnormalities, altered mental status, seizure, coma

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377
Q

name general travel vaccines and country specific vaccines:
-south asia
-meningitis belt-sub-Saharan Africa, Hajj
-Africa, south american
-rural asia

A

General travel vaccines
Hepatitis A/B
Rabies vaccine (adventure trips lasting more than 4 weeks)

Country specific vaccines
Typhoid vaccine (South Asia)
Meningitis vaccine (Meningitis belt, Hajj)
Yellow fever vaccine (African, South American countries)
-Must be given at designated clinic for official certificate
Japanese encephalitis vaccine (Rural Asia)
Antimalarials-arge areas of Africa and Asia.
Central and South America.

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378
Q

treatment of altitude sickness

A

Consider symptomatic treatment (analgesic, antiemetic)
Consider prophylaxis, Acetazolamide 125mg PO q12h
In High Altitude Cerebral Edema (encephalopathy and ataxia, usually above 4000m) consider immediate descent, dexamethasone and oxygen

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379
Q

treatment of motion sickness

A

Visual cues congruous with vestibular cues (eg. view the horizon from the deck of a ship)
Lying supine
Ginger, acupressure
Anticholinergic medication (care in elderly or risk of angle closure glaucoma)
Dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine, transdermal scopolamine (patch 72h)

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380
Q

symptoms of malaria

A

fever (which may be periodic), chills, rigors, sweating, diarrhea, abdominal pain, respiratory distress, confusion, seizures, hemolytic anemia, splenomegaly, and renal abnormalities

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381
Q

symptomatic management of common cold

A

Analgesics (Acetaminophen/NSAIDs)
Combination products (Antihistamine, decongestant, analgesics)
Consider Zinc lozenges 75mg PO daily, Pleragonium sidoides, Andrographis paniculata
Risk of irreversible anosmia in intranasal zinc preparations
Nasal symptoms
Nasal saline irrigation (poor evidence)
Intranasal cromolyn sodium 1 spray (5.2mg) in each nostril q2h PRN x 2 days then 4 times daily x 5 days
Intranasal ipratropium bromide 0.06% solution two sprays (42mcg/spray) in each nostril 3-4 times daily PRN x 4 days
Cough suppressant
Brompheniramine plus sustained-release pseudoephedrine
Ipratropium bromide inhaled
Dextromethorphan 30mg PO q6-8h PRN

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382
Q

prevention of common cold

A

Handwashing
Flu vaccine (6mo-5yo, ≥65yo, chronic disease, pregnancy/postpartum, healthcare worker, frequent contact with above)
Pneumococcal 23-valent
≥65 years old, or if specific risk factors

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383
Q

treatment of flu (2) and indication

A

Zanamivir (Relenza) two inhalations (10mg) PO BID x 5d or oseltamivir (Tamiflu) 75mg PO BID x 5d
Amantadine not first-line due to high rates of resistance
May extend therapy in severely ill patients
Treatment with antiviral should be considered for the following patients
Severe disease (requiring hospitalization or evidence of lower respiratory tract infection, eg. dyspnea, tachypnea, oxygen desaturation)
High risk for complications (pregnancy)
Most efficacious within first 48h of illness, but indicated to treat if severe illnessor pregnancy
Indications to consider X-ray

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384
Q

indications to consider XR in URTI sx

A

Hemoptysis
Pleuritic chest pain
Dyspnea
Systemic symptoms (fever, tachycardia >100, tachypnea>24)
Abnormal physical exam (crackles, decreased breath sounds, bronchial breathing)

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385
Q

how to counsel on someone with viral URTI who wants antibiotics

A

Compassionate communications
Describe infection as viral illness
Discuss expected course of illness and cough duration (2-3w)
Explain antibiotics do not shorten illness duration, and may cause adverse effects and antibiotic resistance
Treatment plan including symptom management (analgesia, antiinflammatory)
Consider
-Delayed prescription strategies (agree on time frame, eg. 1 week that symptoms should improve - and only to use prescription after the specified time)
-Immediate prescribing if suspect pneumonia or high-risk (immunosuppressed)

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386
Q

who are considered high risk patients in upper respiratory infections:

A

COPD, cancer, immunodeficiency virus infection

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387
Q

otitis media signs

A

bulging or distorted light reflex (i.e., not all red eardrums indicate OM).

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388
Q

otalgia DDx

A

AOM, acute mastoiditis, acute facial nerve palsy, labyrinthitis, venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, trauma, cholesteatoma, tumor, otitis externa, r/o necrotizing/malignant otitis externa, Herpes zoster , Secondary otalgia, otitis media with effusion, otitis extera

Herpes zoster (Ramsay Hunt syndrome)

Secondary otalgia

Sinusitis / Stomatitis / Parotitis / Pharyngitis

Dental infection / abscess

TMJ dysfunction syndrome

Auricular lymphadenopathy

Facial nerve palsy

Trigeminal neuralgia

Temporal arteritis*

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389
Q

complications of AOM

A

Acute mastoiditis (pain/swelling over mastoid bone)

Acute facial nerve palsy - associated with temporal bone inflammation

Sixth CN palsy (failure of ipsilateral eye abduction) due to petrous bone inflammation or infection (Gradenigo’s syndrome)

Labyrinthitis

Venous sinus thrombosis

Meningitis

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390
Q

treatment of otitis externa

A

Keep dry (Avoid water sports x 7-10d)

Clean ear canal

Analgesia

Mild, Buro-Sol 2-3 drops TID-QID

Moderate, Ciprodex 4 drops TID

If perforated consider systemic antibiotics.

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391
Q

which dangerous otitis to rule out in high risk patients

A

r/o necrotizing/malignant otitis externa (elderly, diabetic, immunocompromised, otalgia despite antibiotics, granulation tissue in ear canal)

ESR, CRP, osteomyelitis on CT/MRI

Ciprofloxacin 750 mg PO BID PLUS Ciprodex 4 drops BID x 4-8w

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392
Q

physical exam findings to diagnose AOM

A

loss of light reflex
impaired mobility
bulging TM
acute perforation with purulent discharge

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393
Q

when to treat for AOm

A

Immediate therapy if < 6months of age

-Send to ER if <3 months old with T>38, suspect meningitis or mastoiditis, toxic looking

Healthy children ≥6 months with mild disease, consider:

Watchful waiting, and reassess in 24 to 48h (return if worsens anytime within 48h)

Antimicrobial prescription to start course if child does not improve
Pediatric: Amoxicillin 75 to 90mg/kg/day (max 2000mg) ÷BID
Adults: Amoxicillin 500mg PO TID x 5-10d (can use 1g PO TID if high risk) in adults

Acetaminophen 10-15mg/kg/dose q4-6h (max 75mg/kg/day)

Ibuprofen 5-10mg/kg/dose q6-8h (max 40mg/kg/day)

Bulging TM, febrile (≥39°C), moderately systemically ill, or severe otalgia, or significantly ill for 48h should be treated with antimicrobials

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394
Q

second line treatment of AOM (no response x 2-3d or recent amoxicillin use in 30 days)

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (7:1 formulation, 400 mg/5 mL suspension) 45 to 60 mg/kg/day ÷ TID (max 500mg PO TID) x 10d

Adults: 875/125mg BID or 2000/125mg BID x 10 days

Ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg IM/IV daily (max 1000mg) x 3 days

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395
Q

name 5 pharyngitis redflags

A

Drooling/Secretions
Dysphonia
Dysphagia
Muffled “hot potato” voice
Neck swelling

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396
Q

dangerous ddx + other ddx to rule out in case of suspected pharyngitis

A

Submandibular space infections (Ludwig’s angina - woody induration, crepitus)
Primary HIV (mucocutaneous ulcerations)
Peritonsillar abscess (trismus)
Epiglottitis (out of proportion to findings on exam)
Retropharyngeal space infection

infectious mononucleosis (fever, pharyngitis, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, palatal petechiae)
HIV, Gonorrhea
CMV, toxoplasmosis
Suppurative complication (peritonsillar abscess)
Infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein (Lemierre’s)
Fusobacterium necrophorum (in 15-30yo)

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397
Q

labs to test in mono

A

WBC, AST, ALT, Monospot (or EBV serologies)

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398
Q

diagnosis of pharyngitis

A

CENTOR: Cough absent Exudate/erythema tonsils, Neck nodes, Temp, Range of age (3-14=+1, 15-45=0, >45=-1)
If CENTOR ≥3 (>30%): Rapid Antigen Detect Test (RADT) and/or culture
Negative RADT consider throat culture back-up in children or immunocompromised (sensitivity 86%)
Positive RADT do not need back-up culture (specificity 96%)

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399
Q

symptomatic treatment of pharyngitis + when to return to school

A

Acetaminophen/NSAIDs
Topical (Benzocaine 10mg lozenge q2h PRN, Benzydamine 0.15% 15mL gargle q3h PRN)
Consider Dexamethasone 0.6mg/kg (max 10mg) PO x 1 (NNT 12)

After full dose of amoxicillin, 91% of children the next morning had negative RADT/culture
Consider returning to school on Day 2 of antibiotics if improved/afebrile

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400
Q

pharmacologic tx of strep throat + 2 options in case of allergy

A

Penicillin V (50mg/kg/day ÷ BID) 600mg PO BID x 10d
Can consider Pen V QID x 5d
Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg PO daily (max 1g) x 10d

if allergy:
Cephalexin (50mg/kg/day ÷ BID) 500mg PO BID x 10 days
If anaphylactic
Clarithromycin (15mg/kg/day ÷ BID) 250mg PO BID x 10d

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401
Q

diagnosis of sinusitis

A

Diagnosed clinically using symptoms and signs >7d duration
Must have one of “OD” and one other “PODS” symptom
Facial Pain (or pressure), Nasal Obstruction, Discharge, Smell loss

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402
Q

imaging in sinusitis

A

Radiological imaging usually not required (unless diagnosis unclear)
X-ray (3 views) diagnosis with air/fluid level or complete opacification
CT scan if complication

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403
Q

causes of sinusitis and criteria to treat

A

Most are viral and resolve spontaneously within 10-14d
Suspect bacterial if
Deterioration of symptoms 5-7d after improvement (biphasic)
Persistent symptoms without improvement >10-14d as per INESSS
>7d without improvement (or >10d persisting symptoms) as per Canadian guidelines
Treat bacterial if severe symptoms impacting function/sleep

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404
Q

when to follow up after treating fo rsinusitis

A

Lack of response within 72h suggests treatment failure
Referral to ENT if (and consider CT if long waiting time)
Complications
Persists >8w
Recurrent rhinosinusutis >3 episodes per year

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405
Q

Alarm symptoms of sinusitis (4)- Consider urgent referral to ER

A

toxic, altered mental status
Persistent fever (>38C)
Periorbital erythema/swelling or decreased visual acuity
Meningeal signs/severe headache or neuro signs

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406
Q

Predisposing conditions of sinusitis

A

Recent viral URTI
History of allergic/nonallergic/medication-induced rhinitis
Concomitant conditions (pregnancy, immunodeficiency, migraine)
Anatomic causes (deviated septum, enlarged tonsils, nasal polyp)

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407
Q

non pharmalogical tx of sinusitis

A

Prevention: Smoking cessation, hand hygiene
Symptom management:
Analgesics (acetaminophen, NSAIDs)
Saline irrigation BID

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408
Q

treatment of sinusitis and tx in case of PNC allergy

A

Oral decongestants <10d (when worse congestion, eg. night)
Topical decongestants <3d (risk of rebound congestion)
Consider topical intranasal corticosteroids (eg. nasonex) in mild-moderate ARS (NNT 15)
If no improvement after 72h, consider antibiotics

Consider treatment for suspected acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (as above) with severe symptoms or mild-moderate not responsive to INCS after 72h (NNT 17, NNH 8)
Amoxicillin 500mg PO q8h x 5-10 days

Second-line (or first-line if suspect resistance, immunosuppressed, frontal/sphenoidal sinusitis due to higher rates of complications)
Amoxicillin/Clavulanate 875/125mg PO BID x 7d
Moxifloxacin 400mg PO daily x 5d
Levofloxacin 500mg PO daily x 10d

If non-severe penicillin allergy, consider cefuroxime 250 BID x7d or cefixime 400 daily x10d
If anaphylaxis, consider clarithromycin, doxycycline or TMP-SMX

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409
Q

treatment of chornic sinusitis

A

Oral glucocorticoids PLUS empiric oral antibiotics x 4w
Prednisone 20mg PO BID x 5d, then 20mg daily x 5 days (total 10 days)
Amoxicillin-clavulanate 875mg PO BID or Clindamycin 450 mg PO TID
Topical glucocorticoid spray and intranasal saline irrigation or sprays

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410
Q

normal menstural bleeding in terms of frequency , days and blood loss

A

s regularly (every 24–38 days) for 4 to 8 days with
blood loss of 5 to 80 ml

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411
Q

4 types of AUB

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding (most common AUB complaint)
* Excessive blood loss that interferes with quality of life and daily function.
* Can occur with other symptoms (e.g., menstrual pain).

Prolonged menstrual bleeding * Menses lasts > 8 days.

Frequent menstrual bleeding * Bleeding at intervals < 24 days apart.

Irregular, non-menstrual
bleeding
* Intermenstrual—Bleeding (often light/short) between normal menstrual periods.
* Post-coital—Bleeding after intercourse.
* Premenstrual/postmenstrual spotting—Bleeding on a regular basis (≥ 1 days)
before or after regular menses.

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412
Q

PALM COEIN

A

Polyps (cervical or endometrial)
-Intermenstrual bleeding

Ademonyosis
-Endometrial glands and stroma present focally or globally
in uterine musculature.
Heavy or prolonged bleeding.
Menstrual pain.
Dense enlarged uterus.

Leiomyoma (myoma or fibroids
-Myomas or fibroids. Heavy or -prolonged bleeding.
-Pelvic pain/pressure.
-Enlarged uterus.

Malignancy
Malignancy of vagina, uterus, cervix. Variable bleeding patterns.

Coagulopathy
Inherited bleeding disorders, including von Willebrand
disease.
* Acquired coagulopathy.
Heavy bleeding

Ovarian dysfunction
Polycystic ovary syndrome.
* Thyroid diseases.
* Ovarian follicle decline (perimenopause).
Irregular bleeding.
Heavy or prolonged bleeding.

Endometrial
-Pelvic inflammatory disease.
* Endometritis.

Iatrogenic
Hormonal contraceptives.
* Anticoagulants.
* Antiepileptics.
* Tricyclic and SSRI/SNRI antidepressants.
* Antipsychotics.
* Corticosteroid-related drugs.
* Tamoxifen.
* Herbs (ginseng, chasteberry, danshen, motherwort).*

Not yet
specified
* Arteriovenous malformations.
* Caesarean scar defects.

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413
Q

difference between anovulatory AUB and ovulatory AUB

A

Ovulatory AUB is typically regular and often accompanied by premenstrual symptoms and painful periods.
* Anovulatory AUB is common near menopause with irregular, heavy, and/or prolonged bleeding.
* In a cohort of 804 women (42–52 years), anovulation occurred in 20% of cycles, mostly in the early
perimenopause. Anovulation was associated with both shortened and prolonged cycle intervals and bleeding
duration. Short-cycle intervals occurred more frequently in early perimenopause.14 Anovulatory cycles were
less likely to be associated with heavy menstrual bleeding than were ovulatory cycles.

Anovulatory AUB is more likely than
ovulatory AUB to be associated with endometrial hyperplasia and cancer

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414
Q

questions to ask to someone with AUB

A

bleeding, anemia sx, vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, galctorrhea, sexual and reproductive hx, systemic illness, presence of comorbidities, meds, family history

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415
Q

systemic illness that could cause AUB

A

hypothyroidism
hyperprolactinemia
coagulation disorders
PCOS
adrenal or hypothalamic disorders

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416
Q

range of thicknes sof normal endometrium in premenopausla woman

A

4 mm in follicular phase to 16 mm in luteal phase

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417
Q

initial investigation in AUB

A

Pap smear.
* STI testing if there is a risk.
* CBC for women with a history of heavy or prolonged bleeding .
* Serum BHCG if there is a risk of pregnancy.
* TSH—only if there are symptoms or findings that suggest thyroid disease [Low Evidence].
* Ferritin—there is no evidence that the addition of ferritin changes management if CBC is normal. Test only if there
are symptoms of iron deficiency without anemia.
* Coagulation tests—only for women with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding that began at menarche or a
personal or family history of abnormal bleeding.
· Endometrial biopsy (see Endometrial Biopsy section).

other: blood type and screen if acute blood loss, consider prolactin if sx, vWF, fibrinogen, gono/chlam

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418
Q

name 6 meds causing AUB

A

Hormonal contraceptives.
* Anticoagulants.
* Antiepileptics.
* Tricyclic and SSRI/SNRI antidepressants.
* Antipsychotics.
* Corticosteroid-related drugs.
* Tamoxifen.
* Herbs (ginseng, chasteberry, danshen, motherwort).*

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419
Q

when to do imaging in AUB and which imaging to choose

A

when the history or examination suggests structural causes for
bleeding, conservative management has failed, or there is a higher risk of malignancy. TVUS is considered a firstline imaging test for AUB because it has adequate test performance and is relatively noninvasive.3 TVUS can help
diagnose endometrial polyps, adenomyosis, leiomyomas, uterine anomalies, and endometrial thickening associated
with hyperplasia and malignancy (see Box 1)..3

In some cases (particularly the detection of intrauterine pathology such as submucosal fibroids or polyps), saline
infusion sonohysterography and diagnostic hysteroscopy are preferred due to better test performance and can be
used as second-line tests.

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420
Q

when to consider endometrial biopsy

A

Are > 40 years of age.
* Have high risk or findings suggesting malignancy
-overall risk for endometrial cancer
-risk of progression to cancer in women with hyperplasia (see risk factors)
* Do not respond to medical treatment.
* Have substantial intermenstrual bleeding (

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421
Q

indicators of difficult endometrial biopsy

A

1) previous Caesarean sections; 2) nulliparity; 3) structural issues (e.g.,
cervical stenosis, pelvic organ prolapse); or 4) anxiety with office procedures

TVUS and/or gynecological referral may be offered in these cases.1

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422
Q

specificity and sensitivity for endometrial cancer

A

It
has high specificity for endometrial cancer (almost 100%) but sensitivity is lower (~90%)

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423
Q

risk factors of endometrial cancer

A

obesity, diabetes, nulliparity, history of polycystic ovary syndrome, and family history of hereditary non-polyposis
colorectal cancer

Lynch Syndrome 40-60% endometrial CA

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424
Q

risk of hyperplasia to progress to endometrial cancer

A
  • Atypical hyperplasia is associated with higher risk of progression to endometrial cancer. Up to 60% of patients will
    have co-existent endometrial cancer and ideally require definitive surgical management with hysterectomy and
    bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Medical management can be considered for patients wishing to preserve their
    fertility.26
  • Hyperplasia without atypia has a much lower rate of progression (1–3%) and can be managed conservatively with
    progesterone or with watchful waiting, if the patient chooses, as spontaneous regression rates of over 75% have
    been reported.3,27,28 By comparison, progesterone treatment of any type appears to have higher regression rates
    (89–96%),28 although this data is derived from small observational studies. If watchful waiting is chosen, the
    SOGC recommends reassessment (with biopsy) every 3 to 6 months.26
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425
Q

how to reduce endometrial hyperplasia without atypia

A

Continuous oral or monthly injectable progestins or the LNG-IUS over a 6-month period.

9 Disease regression rates are the highest with the LNG-IUS (80–95%) and injectable
progestins (> 90%) compared with about 70% for oral therapy.30 Endometrial biopsy (which can be performed with the
IUD in place) should be performed every 3 to 6 months to monitor for disease progression and eventual resolution

Obesity is associated with a lower rate of regression.
* Persistent abnormal bleeding despite therapy, intolerance to therapy, inability to comply with surveillance, or
failure of hyperplasia to regress after 6 to 12 months should prompt referral.
* Following resolution of hyperplasia without atypia, the question of how often and how long to continue performing
endometrial biopsies has not been directly addressed by research. The UK Royal College of Gynaecologists
and Obstetricians guideline recommends performing endometrial biopsies every 6 months until 2 consecutive
negative biopsies occur.28

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426
Q

how to manage uterine bleeding in non-acute/outpatient context, name 4 pharmalogical methods

A

Regular (cyclic) heavy menstrual bleeding: hormonal and non-hormonal treatments.
* Irregular or prolonged bleeding: hormonal treatments, such as oral contraceptive pills or progestins, can help
regulate cycles, but non-hormonal treatments can help to control any associated heavy bleeding.
Note: Women with anemia should receive iron supplementation

-Levonorgestrel Intrauterine Releasing System (LNG-IUS) (IUD) -> reduces ovarian and endometrial risk of cancer but does not increase risk of breast cancer

e etonogestrel implant
-reduces bleeding days but menstrual bleed can remain unpredictable

-Combined Hormonal Contraception (CHC)

-Oral Progestins: Treatment consists of
medroxyprogesterone acetate, norethindrone, or micronized progesterone,

-Injected Progestin
25. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) is used to suppress ovulation and ovarian steroidogenesis, eventually
leading to endometrial atrophy

-Danazol
26. Danazol inhibits ovarian steroidogenesis and results in endometrial atrophy

-Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) Agonists
27. GnRH agonists (leuprolide, goserelin, nafarelin) stop ovarian steroidogenesis and lead to endometrial atrophy and
amenorrhea within 3 to 4 weeks.3 However, long-term use leads to adverse effects associated with a hypoestrogenic
state and should only be considered for women in whom other options are contraindicated

Non-hormonal Medical Treatment
-Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Steroids (NSAIDs)
-Antifibrinolytics
Tranexamic acid

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427
Q

when to consider surgery in AUB

A

y may be considered in women in whom 1) medical treatment has failed; 2) medical treatment is contraindicated
or side effects are considered intolerable; 3) significant anemia is present; 4) uterine pathology (e.g., large uterine
fibroids, endometrial hyperplasia with atypia, malignancy) is present; or 5) AUB has a severe impact on quality of life.3
Surgical options include hysteroscopic polypectomy, endometrial ablation, myomectomy, and hysterectomy. Uterine
artery embolization is a radiological intervention that can be used to treat fibroids

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428
Q

when to refer AUB

A

Investigative tests show:
* Malignancy, or atypical hyperplasia is present.
* Hyperplasia without atypia, if this is the patient’s preference or the clinician is not comfortable managing.
* No primary care practitioner is available to perform a required endometrial biopsy, or technical issues prevent the
ability to perform a satisfactory biopsy.
* AUB (including hyperplasia without atypia) fails to respond to medical treatment options or if GnRH agonists are
being considered.
* Patient wishes to explore surgical options (after being informed about or having trialled available medical
treatments).

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429
Q

when does b HCG start to be positive

A

Serum positive 9d post-conception

Urine positive 28d after LMP

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430
Q

how to treat acute vaginal bleed in non pregnant patient

A

Hypovolemia/Hemodynamic instability
-blood type and screen, consider transfusion if necessary
-if pregnant give rH immunoglobulin (winrho or rhogam )

Acute Non pregnant

Conjugated equine estrogen 25mg IV q4-6h x24h

Consider antiemetic due to side effects of nausea/vomiting

Combined OCP TID x7d

Medroxyprogesterone acetate 20mg TID x7d

Tranexamic acid 1g PO/IV TID x5d

Procedure (D&C, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, hysterectomy)

Treat underlying primary pathology

Correct anemia (iron replacement)

Rule out malignancy (if high risk)

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431
Q

First trimester vaginal bleed DDx

A

implantation bleed
abnormal prenancy (ectopic, molar)
Abortion (threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, missed, septic)

Non-Obstetrical (Uterine, Cervical Vaginal Pathology)

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432
Q

P/E vaginal bleed in pregnancy T1

A

Vitals (r/o hemodynamic instability, fever)

Abdominal exam (r/o surgical abdomen)

Speculum

Source of bleeding (Vagina/Cervical/Uterine)

Cervical os (r/o cervical dilation)

Bedside ultrasound (r/o free fluid, confirm IUP)

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433
Q

investigations vaginal bleed in pregnancy T1

A

CBC

Blood type

Serial b-hCG

Rising b-hCG >35% over 48h consistent with viable IUP (but ectopic may also display rising hCG)

hCG <35% over 48h suggest ectopic or abnormal IUP

Abdominal Ultrasound

IUP if b-hCG >6000 IU/L

Transvaginal Ultrasound

Gestational sac and yolk sac at 5w gestation

Cardiac activity at 6w gestation

IUP if b-hCG >1500IU/L

Absence of IUP does not always ectopic (eg. early multiple gestation)

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434
Q

treatment of ectopic pregnancy

-3 meds for excessive bleeding

A

-tranexemic acid1g IV over 10-20 mins

-Misoprostol 800mcg SL/PO/PR/(avoid PV if excessive bleeding), then 400mcg q3h PRN
-vasopressin injected on anterior lip of cervix

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435
Q

treatment of incomplete abortion

A

dilation and aspiration
-prophylactic antibiotics Azithromycin 500mg PO x1 or Doxycycline 200mg PO x1

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436
Q

2nd and 3rd trimester vaginal bleed ddx

A

Bloody show (onset 72h prior to labor, PPROM)

Placenta previa (20%)
-Touching/covering internal os (low-lying is within 2cm)

Placental abruption (30%)
-Painful contractions, hypertonus tender uterus, vaginal bleeding may be concealed

Uterine rupture (rare)
-Suspect in shock, acute abdominal pain, change in station, abnormal FHR, vaginal bleeding

Vasa previa (rare)
-Suspect in painless bleeding with change in FHR

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437
Q

6 risk factors of placenta previa

A

previous placenta previa, previous C/S, uterine surgery, advanced age, multiparity, smoking/cocaine, multiple gestation, in vitro

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438
Q

placental abruption risk factors

A

Prior abruption, thrombophilia, iron deficiency, PROM, Hypertension, Overdistended uterus, maternal age/parity, smoking/cocaine, abdominal trauma, c/s

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439
Q

diagnosis of placental abruption

A

Clinical diagnosis, not well diagnosed on ultrasound

Kleihauer-Betke test (fetal cells in maternal blood)

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440
Q

3 risk factors of uterine rupture

A

Risk: Uterine scar, hyperstimulation (IOL), multiparity

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441
Q

vasaprevia risk factors

A

Twins, placenta previa (consider TVUS screen at 32w), IVF

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442
Q

diagnosis of vasa previa

A

transvaginal color doppler ultrasound

Apt test (positive = fetal blood, negative = maternal blood)
- alkali denaturation test, also known as A or Apt test, is a medical test used to differentiate fetal or neonatal blood from maternal blood found in a newborn’s stool or vomit, or from maternal vaginal blood

Wright stain (nucleated RBC on smear)

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443
Q

P/E to do in 2-3rd T vaginal bleed

A

Vitals (r/o hemodynamic instability)

Abdominal exam (including uterine tone/activity)

Bedside ultrasound (r/o placenta previa)

Sterile speculum

Avoid digital cervical exam until placenta previa ruled out by ultrasound (also if possible prior to speculum)

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444
Q

investigation to do in vaginal bleed in 2-3 trimester + management

A

Type (Rh) and Crossmatch

CBC

Kleihauer-Betke if abruption

Bedside clot test

INR

Fetal monitor

bedside US

management:
Get help, oxygen, IVF (LOTS!), foley

Massive transfusion protocol

Follow Hb and Coag

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445
Q

ddx vaginitis sx

A

Infectious vaginal discharge
Bacterial vaginosis (most common cause of vaginal discharge 30%)
Candida vulvovaginitis
Trichomonas vaginalis (STI)
Cervicitis (Gono/Chlam)

Non-infectious vaginal discharge
Physiologic
Atrophic vaginitis (scant discharge)
Foreign body

Non-infectious vulvovaginal pruritus without discharge
Irritant or allergic contact dermatitis (latex, soaps, perfumes)
Lichen planus
Lichen sclerosus
Vulvar cancer
Psoriasis
Colovaginal fistula

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446
Q

bacterial vaginosis dx

A

Clinical (Amsel’s), require 3 of 4
1-Adherent and homogenous vaginal discharge (smoothly coats vaginal walls)
2-Vaginal pH >4.5
3-Clue cells on saline wet mount
4-Positive whiff-amine test
-Fishy amine odour (before or) after addition of 10% KOH

Other
Gram stain vagina smear with Nugent scoring system (gold standard)
Commercial test DNA probe (eg. Affirm VP III)
Note: Vaginal culture positive for G. vaginalis is not diagnostic due to low specificity (cultured in >50% of healthy asymptomatic women)

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447
Q

treatment of BV

A

Oral: Metronidazole 500mg PO BID or Clindamycin 300mg PO BID x 7-14d
-Preferred in pregnancy as they have been shown to reduce preterm birth

Topical: Metronidazole gel 0.75% one applicator (5g) PV daily x 5d
Longer courses if multiple recurrences

Consider Metronidazole gel 0.75% one applicator (5g) PV daily x10d then two times per week for 3-6 months

Alternatives:
Vaginal metronidazole gel
Oral or vaginal clindamycin cream

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448
Q

trichomonas vaginalis dx

A

Malodorous, green/yellow frothy discharge, pruritus, dyspareunia, petechiae - strawberry cervix
Motile trichomonads on wet mount microscopy, NAAT PCR vaginal swabs, culture

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449
Q

trichomonas vaginalis tx

A

Metronidazole 2g PO x1 or Metronidazole 500mg PO BID x7d
High-dose therapy may be needed for resistance
Partner treatment enhances cure rates
Abstain from intercourse until both patients treated and asymptomatic

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450
Q

candida vulvovaginitis dx

A

Erythema, edema of vulvovaginal tissues with thick, white clumped vaginal discharge, pH<4.5
Budding yeast and pseudohyphae on wet mount microscopy (negative in 50%)
Consider culture in negative microscopy or persistent/recurrent symptoms after treatment

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451
Q

candida vulvovaginitis tx

A

Uncomplicated (Sporadic, infrequent ≤3/y, healthy, immunocompetent, nonpregannt)
-Fluconazole 150mg PO x1 or topical intravaginal/suppository (clotrimazole, miconazole)
-Topical antifungal azoles may require longer courses, but are first-line in pregnancy
eg. Clotrimazole Combi Pak (Canesten 500mg vag tab/1% cream) or cream 10% x 1

Complicated
-Fluconazole 150mg PO x3 doses 72h apart (day 1, 4, 7)
-Consider maintenance with Fluconazole 150mg PO weekly x 6 months
-Monitor for hepatotoxicity with long-term use and drug interactions

Non-albicans species may not respond to fluconazole
For C glabrata, consider vaginal boric acid capsules at compounding pharmacist (avoid in pregnancy)
For C krusei, consider topical clotrimazole

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452
Q

prepubescent vaginal discharge ddx

A

Non-specific (most common)
Causal factors
Thin vaginal mucosa
Moisture (tight clothing)
Irritants (soap, bubble bath, prolonged contact with urine/feces)

Bacterial:
Group A beta-hemolytic strep
H. influenzae
E. coli
Candida (unusual)

Dermatologic:
Lichen sclerosis
Psoriasis
Atopic dermatitis

Foreign body:, usually toilet paper (recurrent symptoms or bloody discharge)
Flush with sterile saline or refer to gyne for vaginoscopy

Pinworms (nocturnal perineal pruritus)
-Treat with mebendazole
Systemic infection (varicella, measles, rubella, diphtheria, shigella)

Rule out STIs and sexual abuse, especially in recurrent cases

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453
Q

investigation for prebubescent vaginal discharge

A

Introital (not vaginal) swab if profuse discharge
-Bacterial culture (GAS, Haemophilus influenzae, Gardnerella)
-if positive bacterial culture, can treat with antibiotics
Candida unusual, consider if immunosuppression

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454
Q

management of vulvovaginal complaints in prepupertal girls

A

Treat underlying cause
If non specific,
Reassurance
Hygiene (wipe front to back)
Avoid causal factors (soaps, baby wipes, tight-fitting clothing, wet bathing suits, bubble bath, scented detergents)
Warm soaks, gentle drying
Sleep without underwear
Gentle emollients and barrier creams

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455
Q

management of placenta previa

A

excessive or continuous vaginal bleeding: cesarean section regardless of gestational age.

If bleeding subsides: expectant management if less than 36 weeks.
-If at or greater than 36 weeks of gestation then cesarean delivery is recommended.

Admission
magnesium sulfate (before 32 weeks) for fetal neuroprotection and steroids for fetal lung maturity if indicated. Bedrest, reduced activity, and avoidance of intercourse are commonly mandated, though there is no clear benefit.
If the vaginal bleeding subsides for more than 48 hours and the fetus is judged to be healthy, then inpatient monitoring is continued, or the patient may be discharged for outpatient management. Inpatient vs. outpatient management depends on the stability of the patient, the number of episodes of bleeding, proximity to the hospital, as well as compliance.

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456
Q

acute cough, within 3 weeks DDX (5)

A

URTI
post nasal drip
COPD exacerbation
asthma
PNA,
Sinusitis
acute bronchitis

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457
Q

chronic cough ddx

A

chronic bronchitis
post nasal drip
post nasal drip
post infection cough (hyper responsiveness
gerd
foreign body
primary or secondary tumor
smoker’s cough
meds (ACEI, betablocker (asthma exacerbation)

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458
Q

cough ddx with high mortality

A

PE
pneumothorax
cancer
TB, HIV
sarcoidosis
pertussis

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459
Q

name 3 RX that are cough suppressant

A

codeine, diphendydramine
dextromethorphan
chlophedianol

guaifenestin for wet cough (expectorant)

gabapentine can be tried for chronic cough

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460
Q

redflags sx of cough

A

hemoptysis, dyspnes, weight loss, TB/HIV exposure, decrased SP)2, increased RR, exposure to toxins

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461
Q

asthma PFT diagnosis

A

FEV/FVC less than 0.8-0.9 and increace of FEV over 12 % or increase of PEF more than 20 % with bronchodilator

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462
Q

Name 4 signs of pna on exam

A

egophony, dullnes to percussion, decreased air entry, crackles

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463
Q

acute cough in children

A

URTI
pneumonia
croup
pertussis
foreign object
asthma
gerd

ro bacterial tracheitis, pe, ptx, cancer, TB, pertussis, foreign body, PNA

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464
Q

chronic chough more than 8 weeks ddx in children

A

chronic bronchitis
post nasal drip
post infection cough
GERD

Bronchiectasis/Cystic fibrosis (wet productive cough, weight loss)

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465
Q

when to give antibiotics for acute bronchitis

A

cough more than 3 weeks, more than 75 yo,

clarithromycine, azithromycine, doxycycline

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466
Q

post nasal drip/ allergic rhinitis tx

A

nasal corticosteroids
allergen avoidance
second generation antihistamines
combination corticosteroids/antihistamine inhaler or cromolyn eye drops

if non allergic rhiniris:
-first generation antihistamine plus decongestiant (care in hypertension), glaucoma
-sanal ipratropium bromide

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467
Q

management of cough sensitivity syndrom (idiopathic refractory cough)

A

Speech pathology treatment
Neuromodulating medication
Gabapentin (300-1800mg daily x 10w), Pregabalin 300mg PO daily x4w
CT scan if suspect lung cancer, bronchiectasis or ILD
Referral to specialty

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468
Q

Ayesha, a 9 year old girl, presents in your office with a cold and cough for the last ten days. It started with a runny nose, headache and mild fever for 2 days and has progressed to a dry cough with wheeze over the last four days. The cough is worse at night. She has a history of asthma diagnosed first at age 6. She takes salbutamol by metered dose inhaler intermittently. She has never been hospitalized for asthma. Her father had asthma as a child.

What further history about her asthma should you elicit? Name FOUR items.

A

Acceptable answers:

Is she symptomatic when she is not sick?

Can she identify triggers?

Compliance: How often does she take her meds?

Inhaler technique/Using a spacer?

Co-morbidity: Does she have allergies?

Co-morbidity: Does she have rash/eczema?

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469
Q

Name FIVE features on history and/or investigations that would indicate a person’s asthma is well controlled? 5 points

A

Daytime symptoms < 4 days/week

No nighttime symptoms

No limitation to physical activities

Mild infrequent exacerbations

No school absences

No need for beta agonists

FEV1 or PEF > than 90% of personal best

PEF diurnal variation less10-15%

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470
Q

indicators of persistent asthma? Name THREE

A

Parental history of asthma,

Asthma diagnosed after age 3

Likely allergic rhinitis

Persistence/recurrence of symptoms

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471
Q

what non-pharmacologic management items are indicated in child with asthma? Name SIX items.

A

Use of aerochamber if metered dose

Education for child/parent

Use of patient symptom diary

Regular assessment of peak expiratory flow (PEF)

Pulmonary function testing

Allergy testing

Environmental allergen/irritant control

Written action plan

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472
Q

A 9 yo patient on ventolin and flovent returns after four weeks of daily medication. Her mother reports that in spite of good compliance and environmental control, she is improved but still having night cough and using salbutamol each night.

What changes or additions to pharmacologic therapy would you consider? Name THREE.

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Long acting beta agonists
Increasing inhaled corticosteroid dose
Medium-dose inhaled corticosteroid + long-acting beta agonist combination (recommend do not abbreviate)

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473
Q

diagnosis of asthma

A

typical clinical features:
-wheeze, sob, chest thightness and cough
-variable expiratory airflow limitation

Reduced FEV1/FVC (<0.75-0.8 in adults and <0.9 for children) AND variable expiratory airflow limitation:

Post-bronchodilator reversiblity increase in FEV1 >12% (minimum of 200mL in adults)

Excessive variability in twice-daily (diurnal) PEF over 2 weeks (adults >10%, children >13% daily diurnal variability)

Significant increase in lung function after 4 weeks of anti-inflammatory treatment (adults FEV1 >12% and >200mL increase from baseline)

Positive exercise challenge test (adults decrease FEV1 >10% and >200mL or in children decrease FEV1>12% predicted or PEF >15%)

Positive bronchial challenge test/methacholine (Fall FEV1≥20% or ≥15% with standard hyperventilation, hypertonic saline or mannitol challenge)

Excessive variation in lung function between visits *less reliable (FEV1>12% and 200mL in adults)

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474
Q

triggers of asthma

A

exercise, laughter, allergens, cold air, viral infection, occupational hazards

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475
Q

asthma ddx

A

GERD, post nasal drip, chronic sinusitis, ace inhibitor induced cough,eosinophilic bronchitis, CHF in elerly, COPD, TB, aids/HIV, parasitic or fungal lung disease

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476
Q

comorbidities of asthma

A

rhinitis, chronic rhinosinusitis, GERD, obesity, OSA, depression, anxiety

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477
Q

determinants that asthma is well controlled

A

in the pst 4 weeks:
-daytime sx less than twice per week
-no night waking due to asthma
-saba reliever needed no more than 2 x per week
-no activity limitation due to asthma

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478
Q

modifiable asthma exacerbation risk factors

A

-SABA over use
-inadequate ICS
-comorbidities like obesity, chronic rhinosinusitis, GERD, food allergy, anxiety, depression
-smoking, vapijg, air pollution, allergen, major socioeconomic problems, lpw lung function, high blood eosinophils

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479
Q

how often to do PFT for asthma

A

at diagnosis, 3-6 months after starting tx and periodically q 1-2 years

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480
Q

in adults with asthma, what is the first line of treatment + 5 general management points

A

GINA recommends adding an ICS-formeterol (eg. Symbicort) even in mild intermittent asthma in 12+ year old, as adding any ICS significantly reduces the risk of severe exacerbations

ICS formoteral as needed (preferred)
-ICS + LABA PRN (reliever) in 12+ years old
Symbicort Turbuhaler

or
regular low dose ICS + as needed SABA
-like Flovent HFA (fluticasone) 50, 125, 250mcg 1 inh BID
-Pulmicort Turbuhaler (budesonide) 100, 200, 400mcg 1 inh BID
-Ciclesonide (Alvesco) 400 mcg once daily

DO not treat with SABA without ICS

management:
decrease allergens and modificable risk factors, comorbidities
asthma information
inhaler skills
adherence
written asthma action plan
self monitoring of sx and or peak flow
regular med review
PFT for dx

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481
Q

asthma second line treatment if ICS and LABA PRN or ICS + SABA PRN not enough

A

ICS + LABA maintenance and PRN in 12+ years old

Symbicort Turbuhaler (budesonide/formoterol)

Refer for add-on treatment (LAMA Tiotropium, anti-IgE, anti-IL5, oral steroids, Bronchial thermoplasty, SC/SLIT)

LTRA are less effective than ICS

Consider if unable/unwilling to use ICS or in concomitant allergic rhinitis

Singulair (Montelukast) 5, 10mg 1 tab PO PRN

In <5yo, use MDI with spacer and face mask or nebulizer, and dose-adjust

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482
Q

recommendations for initial controller therapy

A

If symptoms <2/month and no risk factors
-Consider no controller

If symptoms >2/month or risk factors
-Consider Low-dose ICS

If symptoms >2/week
-Low-dose ICS

Asthma most days or waking due to asthma ≥1/week
-Medium/high-dose ICS or Low dose ICS/LABA

Severely uncontrolled asthma or acute exacerbation
-Short course oral corticosteroids AND High-dose ICS or Moderate-dose ICS/LABA

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483
Q

when to FU pts with asthma

A

Ideally 1-3 months after starting treatment, and q3-12 months after

Step-up vs. Step-down

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484
Q

when to refer patient for asthma

A

difficult confirming dx
occupational asthma
uncontrolled asthma
risk factors for asthma related death (ICU, anaphylaxis or confirmed food allergy)

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485
Q

give example of asthma action plan

A

Early intervention in worsening asthma is key

Increase reliever frequency

Increase usual controller

Double ICS or Quadruple maintenance ICS/formoterol (max formoterol 72mcg/day)

Severe exacerbation (PEF <60%) or not improving after 48h

Oral corticosteroids and contact doctor

Prednisolone 1mg/kg/day (40-50mg)/day

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486
Q

asthma exacerbation inER

A

O2 target 93095%
SABA MDI with spacer 4-8 puffs or 5 mg nebulizer q 20 min x 3

early oral corticosteroids
ipratropium bromide (atrovent)
consider MgSO4 2 g IV over 20 min
transfer to acute care facility

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487
Q

asthma patient in acute setting severity level

A

Mild-moderate

Talks in phrases, not agitated, Pulse 100-120, O2>90%

Severe

Talks in words, agitated, RR>30/min, Accessory muscle use, Pulse >120bpm, O2 <90%

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488
Q

asthma patient in acute setting DDX / comorbidities to not miss

A

CHF, COPD

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489
Q

general skin care for eczema

A

Eliminate exacerbating factors

Excessive bathing (without subsequent moisturization)

Low humidity environment

Overheating/hot water exposure

Avoid potential allergens and irritants

Exposure to solvents/detergents

Avoid fragrant/perfumed topic agent

Avoid coarse fiber clothing (wool/synthetic)

Emotional stress/anxiety

Xerosis (dry skin)

Treat skin infections (S. aureus, herpes simplex)

Sunscreen/protection

Hydration/Emollients multiple times per day
💡 Occlusiveness of topical preparations (from most to least): ointments (use for dry lesions) > creams (use for wet lesions) > lotions (use for weeping/intertriginous lesions)

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490
Q

Stevens-Johnson syndrome (<10% skin involved) / Toxic epidermal necrolysis (>30% skin involved) symptoms

A

Prodromal flu-like illness: Fever >39C, sore throat, rhinorrhea, cough, aches

Sudden onset tender/painful skin rash on face/limbs, 90% with involvement of mucous membranes (mouth, eyes, genital)

Tender red/purple macules, diffuse erythema, targetoid lesions, bullae and/or vesicles (may have positive Nikolsky)

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491
Q

treatment of stevens johnson or toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

stop causative drug (Sulfas, Alloprurinol, Tetracyclines, anticonvultivants, NSAIds

Treat infections (eg. Mycoplasma pneumoniae)

Admission to ICU

IV fluid resuscitation and wound management

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492
Q

Necrotizing soft tissue infections (cellulitis, fasciitis, myositis, gas gangrene) presentation

A

Diffuse erythema, swelling, warmth, shiny, exquisite tenderness

Late findings include crepitus, bullae, skin necrosis, loss of sensation

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493
Q

Necrotizing soft tissue infections (cellulitis, fasciitis, myositis, gas gangrene) labs

A

↑ WBC, ↑ CRP/ESR, ↑ CK, subcutaneous air on XR/CT/MRI

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494
Q

Necrotizing soft tissue infections (cellulitis, fasciitis, myositis, gas gangrene) treatment

A

ICU admission plus aggressive surgical exploration and debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics: e.g., Tazo/Clinda/Vanco IV

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495
Q

Meningococcal infection rash presentation

A

Can present with abnormal skin color pallor, mottling

Petechial rash involving trunk, lower body, mucous membranes (oral and ocular), may have purpura, ecchymotic lesions

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496
Q

chemical and non chemical burns management

A

When in doubt, consult Poison Control for additional guidance

Fluid Resuscitation for burns >15% BSA in children and >20% BSA in adults

Modified Brooke/Parkland Formula 2-4mL x %BSA x kg Ringer’s Lactate, 1/2 in first 8 hours, 1/2 in next 16 hours

Wound management

Keep moist

Apply antibiotic ointment to non-adherent dressing (Adaptic) then apply to wound

Pain control

Ensure tetanus vaccine status up-to-date

Follow-up at <72h, to re-assess burn to better characterize partial vs. full thickness

Refer to burn center PRN

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497
Q

Diagnosis and treatment melanoma

A

Diagnosis and treatment: full-thickness excisional biopsy with 0.5-2cm safety margin (according to Breslow thickness)

Prognosis highly dependent on Breslow thickness, 5-year survival drops with depth > 1-2 mm

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498
Q

squamous cell carcinoma treatment

A

Treatment: Surgical excision + biopsy (e.g., punch biopsy, Mohs micrographic)

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499
Q

actinic keratosis treatment

A

Treat local AK with cryotherapy (eg. two freeze thaw cycles of 5s)

Treat widespread AK with fluorouracil 5% cream BID x 2-6 weeks

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500
Q

types of pemphigus and compications

A

Refers to a group of life-threatening autoimmune blistering and erosive diseases affecting the skin and mucosa (

Complications include infection, fluid loss, electrolyte disturbances

Types: Vulgaris (most common; 70% of all pemphigus), Foliaceus, IgA, Paraneoplastic

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501
Q

treatment of phemphigus

A

Systemic steroids (1-2mg/kg prednisone daily or 0.5-1mg/kg in combination with rituximab)

Azathioprine or mycophenolate mofetil are often used to attempt to reduce steroids

Consider adjunctive high potency topical steroid (e.g., clobetasol propionate) for larger erosions

Cover erosions with antibiotic ointment or a bland emollient (eg, petroleum jelly) +/- non-adhesive wound dressings

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502
Q

systemic skin disease ddx

A

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (wegener’s)
systemic lupus erythematosus
dermatitis herpetiformis
psoriasis
kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV

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503
Q

treatment of scabies

A

Treatment: Topical permethrin 5% cream applied to the whole body from the neck to the soles of the feet, including areas under the fingernails and toenails (plus scalp in infants & young children) and washed off after eight hours. Can be repeated 1 week later if necessary.

Can manage pruritus with oral antihistamines or topical corticosteroids if severe

All textiles, bedding, clothing should be washed and dried at hottest temperature

Strongly consider prophylactic treatment for close contacts (even if asymptomatic as incubation period can be ~1 month)

Watch for superficial bacterial infection and treat accordingly with oral antibiotics

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504
Q

impetigo treatment

A

Topical mupirocin 2% ointment (Bactroban) TID x 5 days

Can consider topical fusidic acid (although some resistance)

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505
Q

acne DDx

A

Drug-induced acne
Tropical acne - Extreme heat
Acne aestivalis (Mallorca acne) - Sun exposure
Rosacea - Late age onset, erythema, talengiectasia, papules, pustules, no comedones
Periorificial dermatitis - Around mouth, nose or eyes sparing vermilion border
Pseudo/Folliculitis, no comedones
Keratosis pilaris - Follicular prominence and roughness (usually on arms, but may resemble acne on cheeks)
Favre-Racouchot syndrome - Comedones on cheek due to sun damage

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506
Q

treatment of acne depending on severity (comedomal, mild-moderate papulopustular, severe_

A

Comedonal
Topical retinoids gel/cream (Tretinoin 0.025%, Adapalene 0.1%, Tazarotene 0.1%)
Benzoyl peroxide (BPO) 2.5% or 5% gel or Azelaic acid (AA) 20% cream (possible better tolerability than BPO)

Mild-moderate papulopustular
Topical Retinoid + BPO or Topical Abx + BPO
Adapalene 0.1% and BPO 2.5% (Tactupump)
Clindamycin 1% and BPO 5%
Treat with all three topicals (Retinoid, BPO, Abx) if no response x 3 months
Combined OCP or systemic antibiotics
High estrogen (ethinyl estradiol) concentration associated with decrease in inflammatory lesions
Tetracycline (eg. doxycycline 100mg PO BID or daily x 3-4 months)
Risk in pregnancy or <9yo (teeth discoloration/bone growth)
Side effects: GI, photosensitivity

Severe papulopustular
Oral isotretinoin (pregnancy-prevention measures due to teratogenicity)
0.5-1mg/kg daily divided BID for 15-20 weeks or
0.5mg/kg daily divided BID for 1 month, then 1mg/kg/day divided BID, until a cumulative dose of 120-150 mg/kg
Consider lower dose 20mg every alternate day or 0.25-0.4mg/kg/day for moderate
Consider monitoring labs
Fasting lipid and LFTs at 4 weeks and 8 weeks, and then stop if normal

Other

Oral zinc has been shown to have effect against inflammatory lesions
Diet: Some evidence for low glycemic index diet, lack of evidence concerning dairy consumption
Chemical peels have minimal evidence but are safe and inexpensive

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507
Q

what to monitor when giving oral isotretinoin

A

fasting lipid
LFTs

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508
Q

A 17 year-old male comes to the office complaining of moderate amount of papules and pustules on the face and the upper back, ongoing for the last two years and getting worse. You diagnose him with acne. He would like his acne to improve in time for his high school graduation.

Name FOUR different classes of medications that can be used for the treatment of acne in this patient.

A

antibiotics

benzoyl peroxides

retinoids

salicylates

intralesional steroids

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509
Q

Name ONE combination topical medication that you could prescribe for mild-mod papulopustular acne

A

clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide

erythromycin/benzoyl peroxide

erythromycin/Vitamin A

adapalene/benzoyl peroxide

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510
Q

Name ONE oral antibiotic for acne

A

minocycline, doxycycline, tetracycline, erythromycin, trimethoprim

duration of therapy: 6-12 weeks

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511
Q

At his follow-up visit, he patient reports little change, and describes frequent outbreaks of deep cystic lesions. You notice scarring. You recommend isotretinoin. What blood tests would you order prior to prescribing it? List THREE

A

triglycerides

white blood cell count and differential

ALT/alanine aminotransferase

512
Q

Other than laboratory abnormalities and nausea and vomiting, what side effects of isotretinoin are any patients taking it at risk for? Name FIVE.

A

dry skin, dry mouth, dry mucous membranes (any one of these three)

sun sensitivity

teratogenicity/birth defects

impaired night vision

joint pain

epistaxis

cheilitis

headaches

psychosis

abdominal pain/hepatitis

pancreatitis

initial exacerbation of acne

low mood/suicidality

513
Q

associated health conditions to psoriasis

A

crohn’s disease
ulcerative colitis
inflammatory arthritis (psoriatic arthritis) and spondyloarthropathy
uveitis
metabolic syndrome

514
Q

treatment of psoriasis

A

Dovobet (Calcipotriol 50 mcg/g and betamethasone 0.5 mg/g) ointment apply once daily x 4 weeks

High-potency topical corticosteroids (eg. Clobetasol 0.05% ointment) with ONE of the following:
Vitamin D analogs (Calcitriol, Calcipotriol)
Retinoids (Tazarotene 0.1% Gel)
UVB phototherapy

Alternatives
Tar / Anthralin (15% LCD solution)

Severe may need phototherapy, systemic therapy (methotrexate, retinoid), biologic immune modifying agents (infliximab)

Psoriatic arthritis: NSAID, DMARD (MTX), biologics (TNF inhibitor)

Facial/intriginous/genital psoriasis
Low-potency Hydrocortisone 1% cream or ointment often sufficient
Calcineurin inhibitors may be used (Tacrolimus 0.1% ointment, Pimecrolimus 1% cream)

515
Q

scalp psoriasis tx

A

Consider topical treatments above in different forms, eg. Clobetasol shampoo, betamethasone valerate foam or Dovobet gel.

516
Q

P/E and description of a rash (SCALDA)

A

Size/shape/texture: well vs. poorly demarcated, targetoid, verrucous, umbilicated

Colour: erythematous, violaceous, hyper/hypopigmented, depigmented, jaundiced

Arrangement: solitary, grouped, linear, reticular/mottled, dermatomal

Lesion type (primary/secondary):

Primary (< 1cm/>1cm) = macule/patch, papule/plaque, nodule/tumour, vesicle/bulla

Secondary = lichenification, maceration, erosion/ulceration

Distribution

Always look at nails (e.g, pitting, oil spots), hair (e.g., scalp plaques, hair thinning), mucous membranes (e.g., white lacy patches, open sores), intertriginous areas

517
Q

important elements of HPI of rash

A

Previous episodes

Previous treatment

Contact/exposure/travel (e.g., infectious, new detergents/fabric softeners/lotions/deodorants, metal belt buckles/glasses, different humidity/climates)

Medication/drugs (e.g., antibiotics [penicillin, sulfonamides], corticosteroids, NSAIDs, anti-epileptics)

PMH/family history

Associated symptoms (pain, pruritus, bleeding, exudate, blistering/ulcerations, fever, aches)

Occupational history

Impact on patient’s life (function, sleep, mood, social life)

518
Q

types of rosacea

A

Erythemotelangiectatic (flushing/redness, telangiectasias)
Papulopustular
Phymatous (fibrotic skin thickening)
Ocular (blepharitis, conjunctivitis)

519
Q

non pharmalogical treatment of rosacea

A

Behavioural changes
Avoid triggers
Extreme temperature
Sunlight
Spicy food
Alcohol
Exercise
Acute psychological stressor
Medication
Menopausal hot flashes

frequen skin moisturization
gentle skin cleansing
sun protection

520
Q

ddx of rosacea

A

Unlike acne, no comedones in papulopustular rosacea
Unlike systemic lupus, no cheilitis in erythematotelangiectic rosacea
Perioral dermatitis
Seborrheic dermatitis and rosacea may co-exist

521
Q

pharmalogical tx of papulopustular rosacea

A

First-line
Metronidazole 0.75-1% gel or cream daily
Note: There is no clinical difference between 0.75% and 1% metronidazole, but 0.75% may cost more
Azelaic Acid (Finacea) 15% gel BID
Ivermectin (Rosiver) 1% cream daily
If Moderate-Severe
Add oral antibiotics to topical above
Doxycycline 50-100mg PO BID or 40mg modified-release daily or tetracycline or isoretinoin
Taper after 2-3 months and maintain on topical

laser and intense pulsed light or vascular laser

522
Q

treatment of erythemainrosacea

A

First-line
Brimonidine (Onreltea) 0.33% gel
Metronidazole 0.75-1% gel or cream daily
Azelaic Acid (Finacea) 15% gel BID
Second-line
Alternative first-line or combination of first-line
Intense pulsed light device or vascular laser

523
Q

treatment of phyma in rosacea

A

topical retinoid or PO doxycycline or PO tetracycline, irotretinoin

severe: surgical/ electrosurgical /laser ablation

524
Q

5 stages of changes and tips for smoking cessation

A

Precontemplation
-not yet considering change or unwilling/unable to change
-Increase awareness of risks in nonjudgmental manner (avoid resistance)

Contemplation
-sees possibility of change but is ambivalent or uncertain
-Discuss pros/cons of quitting (understand ambivalence)

Preparation
-committed to changing, still considering what to do
-Offer practical advice and anticipate diffiiculties
-identify appropriate change strategies

Action
-taking steps towards change
-primary task to help implement change strategies and eliminate relapses
-Support, reward, prevent relapse
-Review action plan

maintenance
-has achieved the goals and is working to maintain change
-task: develop new skills for maintaining

525
Q

benefits of smoking cessation

A

Leading cause of preventable death (6.5-9y premature death)

Financial gains (1ppy = $3650 per year)

Somebody who smokes a pack a day will smoke through almost $1 million after forty years (if they had invested that money)

Reduce risks of erectile dysfunction

8h - Carbon monoxide eliminated

24h - Risk of heart attack begins to drop

2w - Improved in lung function, walking easier

1mo - Decreased coughing, nasal congestion, shortness of breath

1y - Risk of coronary heart disease halved

5y - Risk of stroke same level as non-smokers

10y - Risk of mouth, throat and esophageal cancer halved, death rate from lung cancer also halved

15y - Risk of heart attacks similar to that of non-smokers

526
Q

smoking cessation non-pharmalogical ways

A

Tell family, friends, coworkers about quitting for support

Remove tobacco products from environment

Exercise program

Alternative oral behaviours (gum, lozenges)

Obstacles (withdrawal, weight gain, triggers)

Support groups (eg. 1-800-QUIT-NOW)

Combining counselling and smoking cessation medication is more effective than either alone

Counselling by a variety or combination of delivery formats (self-help, individual, group, helpline, web-based)

Multiple counselling sessions

Practical counselling on problem solving skills or skill training

Regular follow-up to assess response, provide support and modify treatment as necessary

Peak withdrawal at 2-3d

Highest relapse at 2-3w

Refer patients/clients to relevant resources where appropriate

527
Q

3 pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation

A

varenicline
-Varenicline begin 1w before quit date 0.5mg/d x3d then 0.5mg BID x3d then 1mg BID >12 weeks (evidence up to 12 months) [OR 2.89]

Nicotine
-gum, patch, inhaler, lozenge

bupropion

nortriptyline

528
Q

side effects of varenicline

A

AE: Insomnia, headache, abnormal dreams, GI upset

529
Q

bupropion side effects and C-I

A

AE: Insomnia, headache, dizziness, tachycardia, xerostomia, weight loss

Avoid in seizure disorder, eating disorder, alcohol withdrawal

530
Q

name 3 typical and 3 atypical bacterias for pneumonia

A

Typical: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

Atypical: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Legionella spp

531
Q

definition of community acquired pneumonia

A

No hospitalization within 14d of onset OR <4d prior to onset

532
Q

diagnosis of PNA

A

Two symptoms (fever, rigors, cough change, pleuritic chest pain, SOB), AND auscultatory findings (localized crackles, bronchial breath sounds), AND X-ray opacity

533
Q

investigations of PNA

A

chest XR (PA and lateral)

Labs:
CRP

pro calcitoin
leukocytosis

if severe:
-urine legionella/pneumococcal Ag
sputum gram stain and culture (r/o MRSA, P aeruginosa)
-legionella culture
Nasopharyngeal swat viral PCR (influenza, coronavirus)

534
Q

how to determine if a patient needs hospitalization for pneumonia

A

CURB-65:
-confusion
-BUN> 9 mmol/L urea
-RR over 30
-systolic BP under 90
-age >65

PSI:
Sex

M (0 points)

F (-10 points) Demographic factors

Age (1 point for each year)

Nursing home resident (10 points) Comorbid illnesses

Neoplastic disease (30 points)

Liver disease (20 points)

Congestive heart failure (10 points)

Cerebrovascular disease (10 points)

Renal disease (10 points) Physical examination findings

Altered mental status (20 points)

Respiratory rate ≥30/minute (20 points)

Systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg (20 points)

Temperature <35 degrees C or ≥40 degrees C (15 points)

Pulse ≥125/minute (10 points) Laboratory and radiographic findings

Arterial pH <7.35 (30 points)

Blood urea nitrogen ≥30 mg/dL (11 mmol/L) (20 points)

Sodium <130 mEq/L (20 points)

Glucose ≥250 mg/dL (14 mmol/L) (10 points)

Hematocrit <30 percent (10 points)

Partial pressure of arterial oxygen <60 mmHg or oxygen saturation <90% (10 points)

Pleural effusion (10 points)
535
Q

pneumonia outpatient treatment in adults

A

If no antibiotics in past three months

Clarithromycin 500mg PO BID x7d or Azithromycin 500mg PO daily x1 day then 250mg PO daily x 4 days or Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 7 days

Promote less resistance to macrolides by using clarithromycin

Amoxicillin 1g PO TID x7d (less emphasis on covering atypicals)

Pediatrics - Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/d PO divided TID x7-10d (consider atypical coverage in children ≥5 years old)

536
Q

in adults, pna tx If comorbidities (chronic cardiac or pulmonary, hepatic or renal issues, immunosuppression, chimio, db) or recent antibiotics

A

Amoxicillin OR amoxicilline/clavulanate with atypical coverage (Clarithromycin or Azithromycin or Doxycycline)

Second-line (after failed 72-96h)
-Levofloxacin 750mg PO daily x 5 days or Moxifloxacin 400mg PO daily x 7d

537
Q

pna tx in adults if hospitalized

A

Cefotaxime 1-2g IV q8h or Ceftriaxone 1-2g IV q12-24h AND Levofloxacin or Moxifloxacin or Azithromycin

Note: Ceftriaxone superior to Pip/Tazo (as 15% Strep pneumo resistant to Pip/Tazo in community-acquired pneumonia)

538
Q

risk factors and sx of pna with legionella

A

Risk factors: Elderly, immunosuppression, smoker, lung disease

T>39ºC

Neurological (Confusion/Weakness/Gen det)

GI (diarrhea)

Electrolytes (Hyponatremia. hypophosphatemia, renal/hepatic dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, leukococytosis)

Hematuria

Hotel, cruise ships, residence (water reservoir contamination)

539
Q

when to repeat cxr in pna fu

A

Repeat CXR in 6w (r/o underlying disease) if

> 50yo or immunosuppressed, lung disease, alcohol, smoker, >5% weight loss in past month

Extensive/necrotizing pneumonia

540
Q

prevention of pna

A

smoking cessation

Hygiene (handwashing)

Vaccination

Influenza

Pneumococcal >65yo or comorbidity

Prevents invasive pneumococcal disease (bacteremia)

541
Q

pna treatment if allx to pnc in adults

A

If non-anaphylactic penicillin allergy
-Cefuroxime or Cefadroxil + atypical coverage (consider monitor in office 1-2h)
-or cefprozil

Anaphylactic penicillin allergy
-Levofloxacin or Moxifloxacin as below

542
Q

indications d’hospitalisation pour pneumonie chez enfants

A
  • Âge < 3 à 6 mois;
  • Enfant toxique ou léthargique;
  • Détresse respiratoire importante;
  • Besoin en oxygène;
  • Maladie cardiaque ou pulmonaire sousjacente;
  • Immunodéficience;
  • Pneumonie compliquée (épanchement, empyème,
    abcès, etc.);
  • Contexte épidémiologique d’un pathogène virulent/
    multirésistant;
  • Déshydratation, incapacité de s’alimenter;
  • Vomissements;
  • Non-réponse à une antibiothérapie orale;
  • Faible participation parentale permettant d’assurer
    l’adhésion au traitement.
543
Q

treatment of pna in children

A

amoxicilline 90 mg /kg/TID x 7-10 days

if usage of antibiotics in past 30 days; amoxicilline and clavulanate

if suspicion of atypical PNA: clarythromycine or azithromycine

544
Q

community acquired pneumonia in children tx if allx to PNC

A

cefuroxime
cefprozil

if anaphylactic:
clarithromycine
azithromycine

545
Q

sx of flu

A

Apparition soudaine de fièvre1
(≥ 38,5°C) OU de toux (sèche), ET
d’au moins l’un des symptômes
suivants:
„ Mal de gorge
„ Arthralgie
„ Myalgie
„ Prostration2
ou fatigue extrême

Chez les adultes :
„ Maux de tête
Chez les enfants :
„ Symptômes gastro-intestinaux (ex. : nausées, vomissements,
diarrhée et douleurs abdominales)

Chez les personnes âgées :
„ Toux parfois tardive
„ Fièvre gériatrique3
ou parfois absente

546
Q

severity of flu

A

PEU SÉVÈRE
Symptômes typiques parfois
accompagnés de diarrhée et de
vomissements

MODÉRÉMENT SÉVÈRE
Symptômes typiques ET signes ou
symptômes plus sévères :
„ Douleurs thoraciques
„ Hypoxie légère
„ Insuffisance cardiopulmonaire (ex. :
hypotension artérielle)
„ Atteinte légère du système nerveux
central (ex. : confusion, altération de
l’état mental)
„ Déshydratation grave
„ Exacerbation des maladies
chroniques existantes

SÉVÈRE
Signes et symptômes associés aux
conditions suivantes :
„ Insuffisance respiratoire nécessitant
une oxygénothérapie
„ Anomalies du système nerveux
central (ex. : encéphalite,
encéphalopathie)
„ Complications liées à une
hypotension artérielle (ex. : choc,
défaillance d’organe)
„ Myocardite ou rhabdomyolyse
„ Infection bactérienne secondaire
invasive (ex. : fièvre élevée
persistante et autres symptômes audelà de 3 jours)

547
Q

risk of complications of influenza and high risks of complications

A

2 yo and below
75 yo and above
resident from elderly residence
chronic disease (heart/lung/renal/hepatic/hamatologic, immunosuppressed, obesity)

children with chronic ASA treatment

pregnant women in T2-3

high risks of complications:
„ Personnes immunosupprimées (ex. : receveurs
d’une allogreffe ou d’une greffe d’organe solide
récente, personnes sous chimiothérapie)
„ Personnes avec pneumopathies sévères
„ Personnes avec comorbidités multiples

548
Q

indications to treat influenza with oseltamivir or zanamivir

A

Peu sévère
„ Enfant âgé d’un an et plus1
avec un facteur de risque de
complications de l’influenza (en plus de l’âge)
„ Personne âgée de moins de 75 ans avec un facteur de
risque de complications de l’influenza
„ Personne qui vit sous le même toit qu’une personne à
risque de complications de l’influenza ou qui prend soin
d’elle à domicile
„ Personne âgée de 75 ans et plus
„ Personne à haut risque de complications de l’influenza
„&raquo_space;Amorcer l’antiviral si les
symptômes sont apparus
depuis 48 heures ou moins

si moderement ou severe: traiter même si
les symptômes sont apparus
depuis plus de 48 heures

treat all regardless of severity if:
„ Résident d’un centre d’hébergement et de soins de
longue durée, d’une résidence pour aînés ou d’une
ressource intermédiaire, qu’ils soient publics ou privés
„ Personne hospitalisée avec influenza

549
Q

diagnosis of COPD

A

Spirometry FEV1/FVC <0.70 post-bronchodilator

Grade

Mild = FEV1>80% predicted

Moderate = 50-80%

Severe = 30 to <50%

Very Severe <30%

550
Q

risks factors for having COPD

A

Smoking, air pollution, occupational exposures (dusts, chemical agents), genetic factors (alpha-1 antitrypsin), age and female, abnormal lung development, chronic bronchitis, childhood infections

551
Q

who to screen for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

WHO recommends all patients with COPD should be screened once, especially if high prevalence area

Consider if early onset COPD, family history of AATD, <20py smoker, asthma poorly responsive to therapy

Classic <45yo with panlobular basal emphysema

552
Q

non pharmalogical treatment of COPD

A

Smoking cessation, exercise

Yearly influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine (>65yo or risk)

Pulmonary rehabilitation for exercise-limited patients or FEV1<50%

Oxygen therapy for severe resting chronic hypoxemia (PaO2 <55mmHg, SaO2<88%)

Non-invasive ventilation (CPAP) for OSA or chronic hypercapnia with history hospitalization

Bronchoscopic and surgical treatments for advanced COPD

553
Q

prevention of COPD

A

Lifestyle

Stop smoking

Exercise

Vaccine

Influenza

Pneumococcal 23-valent

Meds

LA bronchodilators/anticholinergics

Teach inhaler technique

Action plan

When to go to Emergency Department

Refer

Pulmonary Rehab

Resp therapy/Respirology/Specialty clinic

Smoking cessation group

554
Q

treatment of COPDe

A

Non-invasive ventilation for respiratory failure

Mild

SABA (eg. 4-8 puffs inhaled q20mins up to 4h then q1-4h PRN) +/- LAMA

Moderate

Antibiotics and corticosteroids (Pred 40mg PO daily x5d) indicated if increased sputum purulence with one of: sputum volume or dyspnea (or if requires ventilation)

If simple COPDE, Amoxicillin 500mg TID x 7d, or clarithromycin 500 BID x 7d, or azithromycin, or cefuroxime, or doxycycline, or TMP-SMX

If complicated (FEV1<50%, >3 COPDE/y, comorbidity, oxygen needs, chronic inhaled steroid, recent antibiotic use)

Moxifloxacin 400mg PO daily x 5d, Levofloxacin 500mg PO daily x 7, or Clavulin

if pseudomonas risk: ciprofloxacin

Consider
-Procalcitonin
-Sputum cultures if recurrent or severe, r/o pseudomonas

Severe:

Magnesium sulfate 2g IV over 20 minutes may reduce hospitalizations (NNTB = 7)

Hospitalization/ER visit

555
Q

pharmalogical tx of COPD

A

Bronchodilators

Short-acting bronchodilator (beta-agonist and/or anticholinergic)

SABA

Salbutamol (Ventolin) 100 mcg/actuation 1 to 2 puffs inhaled PO q4h PRN, Levalbuterol

SAMA (if not on long-acting anticholinergic)

Ipratropium (Atrovent HDA) MDI 17mcg/actuation 2 inh QID, then additional actuations PRN

Combination SAMA/SABA

Ipratropium/Salbutamol (Combivent Respimat) 20/100mcg 2inh q4-6h PRN

Long-acting

LABA

Indacaterol (Onbrez Breezhaler) 1 capsule (75mcg) inhaled once daily using Breezhaler inhalation device

Olodaterol (Striverdi Respimat) 2.5mcg/actuation two inhalations once daily

LAMA (anticholinergic- muscarinic)

Tiotropium (Spiriva Respimat) 2.5mcg/actuation two inhalations once daily

Umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta) 1 inhalation (62.5mcg) once daily

Combination if symptomatic

ICS/LABA: Fluticasone furoate/vilanterol trifenalate (Breo Ellipta) 100/25 mcg/dose one inhalation once daily

LAMA/LABA: Umeclidinium-vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) 62.5mcg/25mcg one inhalation once daily

Inhaled glucocorticoid if repeat exacerbations/symptoms despite combination long-acting bronchodilators

Combination LABA and ICS

Formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort Turbuhaler) 12/400mcg inhaled BID

Salmeterol/fluticasone (Advair Diskus) 50/250mcg inhaled BID

Vilanterol/fluticasone (Breo Ellipta) 1puff inhaled once daily

556
Q

chronic bronchitis definition

A

chronic cough and sputum for more than 3 months per yeat, more than 2 years

557
Q

ddx of COPD

A

Asthma, CHF, GERD,TB, Bronchiolitis, alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency

558
Q

COPD complications

A

skeletal muscle deconditioning, right heart failure, polycythemia, MDD

559
Q

somatic sx disorder definition

A

One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life.
Excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms or associated health concerns as manifested by at least one of the following:
Disproportionate and persistent thoughts about the seriousness of one’s symptoms.
Persistently high level of anxiety about health or symptoms.
Excessive time and energy devoted to these symptoms or health concerns.
Although any one somatic symptom may not be continuously present, the state of being symptomatic is persistent (typically more than 6 months).

560
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness.
Somatic symptoms are not present or, if present, are only mild in intensity. If another medical condition is present or there is a high risk for developing a medical condition (e.g., strong family history is present), the preoccupation is clearly excessive or disproportionate.
There is a high level of anxiety about health, and the individual is easily alarmed about personal health status.
The individual performs excessive health-related behaviors (e.g., repeatedly checks his or her body for signs of illness) or exhibits maladaptive avoidance (e.g., avoids doctor appointments and hospitals).
Illness preoccupation has been present for at least 6 months, but the specific illness that is feared may change over that period of time.

561
Q

conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder)

A

One or more symptoms of altered voluntary motor or sensory function.
Clinical findings provide evidence of incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological or medical conditions.
The symptom or deficit is not better explained by another medical or mental disorder.
The symptom or deficit causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning or warrants medical evaluation.

562
Q

treatment of somatisation

A

Rule out comorbid psychiatric disorders that require treatment (Anxiety, Depression)
Schedule regular visits
Acknowledging symptoms
Focus on psychosocial and not just physical symptoms
Assessing and treating diagnosable medical and psychiatric disorders
Limiting tests and referrals
Reassuring the patient that grave medical diseases have been ruled out (emphasize mind-body connection)
Functional improvement the goal of treatment

Pharmacotherapy (eg. Fluoxetine 20mg PO daily and titrate up, or Amitriptyline)

Psychotherapy (CBT or Mindfulness-based therapy)

Consult Psychiatry once to clarify diagnosis and reduce investigations

563
Q

questions to ask to determine if they have a substance abuse disorder

A

Impaired Control

Had times when you ended up using X more, or longer, than you intended?

More than once wanted or attempted to cut down or stop X but couldn’t?

Spent a lot of time using/getting/recovering from X

Craving: Wanted X so badly you couldn’t think of anything else?

Social Impairment

Obligations: Found that X—or being sick from X—often interfered with taking care of your home or family? Or caused job troubles? Or school problems?

Interpersonal: Continued to use X even though it was causing trouble with your family or friends?

Given up or cut back on activities that were important or interesting to you, or gave you pleasure, in order to use X?

Risky Use

More than once gotten into situations while or after using X that increased your chances of getting hurt (such as driving, swimming, using machinery, walking in a dangerous area, or having unsafe sex)?

Continued to drink even though it was making you feel depressed or anxious or adding to another health problem? Or after having had a memory blackout?

Pharmacological indicators

*Tolerance: Had to use X much more than you once did to get the effect you want? Or found that your usual number/amount had much less effect than before?

*Withdrawal: Found that when the effects of X were wearing off, you had withdrawal symptoms (e.g., alcohol: trouble sleeping, shakiness, restlessness, nausea, sweating, racing heart, seizure? Or sensed things that were not there?)

564
Q

elements in history of substance use disorder to ask

A

Amount

Frequency

Duration of use

Last use

Signs of tolerance/withdrawal

Affect on function

Safety of patient and others

Consider substance-specific screening tools (eg. AUDIT, CAGE)

565
Q

risk factors of substance use

A

Psychiatric disease, chronic disability, family or personal history of substance use disorder

Associated symptoms, eg. Functional decline, confusion, delirium, syncope

Associated medical problems, especially if not responding to appropriate intervention (alcohol in hypertriglyceridemia, inhalation drugs in asthmatic)

Prescription medication that are commonly misused (opioids, sedatives, hypnotics, or anxiolytics, stimulants)

566
Q

Safety recommendations for opioids, sedatives, hypnotics, or anxiolytics, stimulants

A

Do not share medication

Do not receive medications from other sources

Store medication in secure location (out of reach of children, adolescents)

Ensure regular visits to healthcare provider, and regular urine samples for drug screens as requested

Inform your healthcare provider of any changes to health, and if you would like to adjust your prescribed dose

Avoid concurrent use of sedatives/depressants (eg. Alcohol, benzodiazepines)

567
Q

transient ischemia attacks definition

A

Brief episode of neurological dysfunction without evidence of acute infarction, back to baseline <24h
3% risk of stroke in first 2 days after TIA, risk stratify with ABCD2 score >3 admission

568
Q

definition of stroke

A

Sudden onset focal neurological dysfunction from infarction or hemorrhage in the brain lasting >24h

569
Q

sx of stroke

A

Acute onset
Hemiparesis / Motor weakness
Neglect
Amaurosis fugax
Slurred speech
Dysphagia
Sensory deficits / Decreased reflexes
Mental status change / Confusion / Inattention
Impulsivity

570
Q

stroke risk factors

A

smoking
obesity
Hypertension
family history
sedentary lifesty;e
diabetes
hyperlipidemia
alcohol
prior TIA/stroke

571
Q

ddx of stroke

A

transient ischemic attack [TIA], brain tumour
hypoglycemia
subdural hematoma, subarachnoid bleed

Recrudescence of old stroke from metabolic or infectious stress
Todd’s paralysis after seizure
Complex migraine
Psych
Mass/tumor
CNS infections
Bells palsy (central causes will spare the forehead)
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (sudden onset severe headache, stiff neck, photophobia, diplopia)
Subdural hematoma

572
Q

presentiaon of L supratentorial stroke

A

Aphasia, right hemiparesis / right hemianopia

573
Q

R supratentorial stroke presentation

A

Left hemispatial neglect, left hemiparesis / hemianopia

574
Q

posterior or infratentorial stroke presentation

A

Mental status changes / Confusion
Diplopia
Dysphagia
Unilateral dysmetria/incoordination

575
Q

acute management of stroke

A

ABC
Vitals, serum glucose
12-lead EKG, cardiac monitor
IV x 2
Oxygen >90%
Determine onset of stroke symptoms (or last observed normal)

576
Q

labs to ask in stroke

A

CBC
INR PTT
Creat
lytes
glucose
Blood type and screen

consoder troponine

577
Q

investigation other than labs in stroke

A

Brain imaging (CT or MRI) with vascular imaging (CTA or MRA from aortic arch to vertex, or carotid doppler)
>50% symptomatic (>60% asymptomatic) carotid stenosis should be offered carotid endarterectomy as soon as possible

ECG and 24-hour cardiac monitoring + Holter (if no Afib on ECG and 24h monitor)

TTE (or TEE if high suspicion)
Thrombi, endocarditis, calcifications, tumour
Patent foramen ovale (No clear evidence for PFO closure)

Antiphospholipid

Vasculitis

578
Q

Management of hemorrhagic stroke

A

reverse anticoagulation
monitor ICP
consult neurosurgery

579
Q

managemetn of ischemic stroke

A

tPA if elligible
IV thrombolysis alteplase
control BP to target
consider Eligibility for endovascular neurointerventional care

ASA if no tPA

580
Q

elligibility for tPA in stroke

A

Age 18 years or older
Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke causing neurological deficit
Time of symptom onset <3-4.5 hours
One study showed benefit up to 9 hours or on awakening

581
Q

contraindication to tPA (6)

A

Active or history of intracranial hemorrhage
<3 months neurosurgery, head trauma, stroke
Uncontrolled hypertension >185/110
Known intracranial AV malformation, neoplasm, aneurysm
Active internal bleeding
Suspected endocarditis, suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage
Bleeding disorder (Plat<100, heparin with elevated aPTT, INR>1.7, DOAC)
Abnormal glucose <2.7mmol/L

582
Q

target BP in stroke

A

<185/110 prior to treatment, and <180/105 for first 24h if thrombolytic therapy
If no thrombolytic, only treat if >220/120 or other indication
Consider Labetalol, Nicardipine, Clevidipine

583
Q

Eligibility for endovascular neurointerventional care (large vessel occlusion [MCA, ACA, Carotid], small infarct, large penumbra)

A

National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) >6
Vision, aphasia, neglect (VAN) assessment +
Pronator drift x10s, only continue if positive (mild drift, severe weakness, or paralysis)
Stroke vision
Aphasia
Neglect

584
Q

non pharmalogical management of stroke

A

Early mobilization (<24h post-stroke),
NPO until Swallowing assessment
Nutritional support
Dedicated stroke unit
Assess for functional impairment

585
Q

complications of stroke

A

Cardiac
Depression
Dementia
Dysphagia
Fatigue
Ulcer
Venous thromboembolus (25% early death post-stroke is from PE, consider prophylaxis)
Pain
Seizure (no evidence for prophylaxis)

586
Q

non disabling stroke and TIA risk of stroke and recurrence

A

High Risk of Stroke Recurrence
-<48h of TIA or nondisabling stroke and transient, fluctuating and/or persistent unilateral weakness or speech disturbance
-Immediate referral to ER with capacity for advanced stroke care (access to tPA)
-CT or MRI and noninvasive vascular imaging (eg. CTA or MRA from arch to vertex)
-ECG

<48h without motor weakness or speech disturbance
-Same-day assessment (ER or stroke prevention clinic)

Increased risk:
-48h-2w with symptoms of transient, fluctuating or persistent unilateral weakness or speech disturbance
24h clinical evaluation and investigation
-48h-2w without motor weakness or speech disturbance
2w clinical evaluation and investigation
->2w of TIA or nondisabling ischemic stroke
<1 month by neurologist

587
Q

6 preventive measuresof stroke

A

Antiplatelets
-Clopidogrel (75mg daily) vs. aspirin/dipyridamole (25/200mg BID) vs. aspirin alone (delay 24h if given tPA)

For minor stroke and TIA, consider dual antiplatelet for 10-21d

Lifestyle:
Smoking / Alcohol
Obesity (Weight loss)
Diet (avoid fat, sodium, sugar)
Physical activity

Atrial fibrillation (anticoagulate as per CHADS65)
If ECG negative, can consider prolonged ECG monitoring (Holter)

Lipids (Statin in all ischemic stroke/TIA)

Screen and Treat:

Diabetes (HbA1c)

Blood pressure

Hormone (Consider stopping hormone replacement therapy and OCP)

OSA

Review FAST (symptoms of stroke)

588
Q

causes of ischemic stroke

A

cardioembolic from a fib
atheroemboli from athrosclerotic dz
arterial dissection
vasospasm
vasculitis
hypercoagulable state

589
Q

ddx of abdominal pain according to systems

A

Cardiovascular:
ACS, pericarditis
Aortic dissection, mesenteric ischemia, sickle cell crisis
Pulmonary:
Pneumonia, embolus
Biliary:
Cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, cholangitis
Gastric:
Esophagitis, gastritis, peptic ulcer, small-bowel mass or obstruction
Colonic:
Appendicitis, colitis, diverticulitis, IBD, bowel obstruction, peritonitis, celiac disease
Hepatic:
Hepatitis, abscess, mass
Pancreatic:
Pancreatitis, mass
Renal:
Cystitis, nephrolithiasis, pyelonephritis
Splenic:
Abscess
Gynecologic:
Ectopic pregnancy, ovarian mass, ovarian torsion, PID, fibroids, endometriosis, ovulatory pain, ruptured ovarian cyst
Abdominal wall:
Herpes zoster, muscle strain, hernia
Metabolic:
Uremia, DKA, porphyria, adrenal insufficiency, narcotic withdrawal, heavy metal poisoning
Psych:
IBS

590
Q

Do NOT Miss Dx in Acute Pelvic Pain in Women

A

Life-threatening
Ectopic pregnancy
Appendicitis
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Fertility-threatening
PID
Ovarian Torsion

591
Q

red flags of abdominal pain

A

Fever (after onset of vomiting or pain)
Bilious vomiting
Bloody diarrhea
Absent bowel sounds
Voluntary guarding
Rigidity
Rebound tenderness
** Do not forget testis **

592
Q

abdo pain ddx in less than 1 yo

A

Common: Colic, constipation, GERD, food protein allergy
Urgent: Acute gastroenteritis, malrotation without volvulus, pyloric stenosis
Emergent: Trauma (abuse), midgut volvulus, NEC, omphalitis, incarcerated hernia, intussusception

593
Q

abdo pain ddx in 1-5 yo

A

Common: UTI, constipation
Urgent: Acute gastroenteritis, HSP, pneumonia, Meckel diverticulum
Emergent: Trauma, appendicitis, asthma

594
Q

abdo pain in 5-12yo ddx

A

Common: UTI, constipation, functional
Urgent: Acute gastroenteritis, IBD, HSP, pneumonia
Emergent: Trauma, appendicitis, gonadal torsion, DKA, asthma

595
Q

> 12yo abdo pain ddx

A

Urgent: Gastroenteritis, IBD, pneumonia, hepatitis, pancreatitis, nephrolithiasis, PID
Emergent: Trauma, appendicitis, gonadal torsion, ectopic pregnancy, DKA, asthma

596
Q

investigations in abdominal painin children

A

Consider urinalysis, CBC, pregnancy test, ESR/CRP
Consider ultrasound prior to proceeding with abdominal CT

597
Q

high morbidity mortality ddx of abdo pain

A

MI, AAA, dissection, neoplasia, PID, peritonitis, cholangitis, abscess, pancreatitis, ectopic, SBO/strangulated hernia, perforation, appendicitis, PE, pneumonia, zoster, depression, DKA, drugs, anemia, UTI

598
Q

Chest Pain DDx according to systems

A

Cardiac
Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)
Myocarditis
Pericarditis
-Pleuritic chest pain, decreased on leaning forward
-Diffuse ST elevation, PR depression, pericardial friction rub
-Treatment
-Supportive, NSAIDs, steroids

Pulmonary
Pulmonary Embolism
Tension pneumothorax (see trauma)
Pneumonia
COPDE
Acute chest syndrome (sickle cell)

Thoracic aortic dissection
-Sudden, severe pain radiating to back
Widened mediastinum on CXR, >20mmHg -difference in BP on left vs. right
-Treatment
-Decrease contractility and BP (target sBP <120)]
-ABC, surgery/ICU

GI
Boerhaave’s sydrome (esophageal rupture)
-Treatment
-NPO
-IV Abx, IV PPI, Endoscopy/surgical repair
GERD/PUD

Chest wall
Costochondritis
MSK
Herpes Zoster
Psychogenic (Anxiety)

599
Q

Marburg Heart Score (MHS)

A

Age/sex: men 55 years or older, women 65 years or older
Known clinical vascular disease (CAD, occlusive vascular disease, cerebrovascular disease)
Pain worse with exercise
Pain not elicited with palpation
Patient assumes pain is of cardiac origin
0-1 points predicts a 1% CAD risk
0-2 points predicts a 3% CAD risk

600
Q

Cholelithiasis (Gallstone) Risk factors

A

Female
Fat (Obesity), also recent weight loss
Fertile (Estrogen), Pregnancy
Forty (Elderly)
Fair (Caucasians/Northern European but also Hispanic)
Family history
Liver transplant

601
Q

Choledocolithiasis / Cholangitis tx

A

Antibiotics

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with stone removal/cholecystectomy

602
Q

investigations of cholecystitis

A

Abdominal Exam
Murphy’s sign
Labs
Leukocytosis (left shift)
Bilirubin
Alk Phos
ALT
Amylase
Abnormal LFTs are not common in uncomplicated acute cholecystitis, as obstruction limited to gallbladder
Ultrasonography
Sonographic Murphy’s sign
Gallbladder wall thickening >4mm or edema (double wall sign)
Pericholecystic fluid
CT vs. MRCP if ultrasound unclear or if complications suspected

603
Q

management of gallstones

A

Surgery referral for symptomatic gallstones (biliary colic)
Analgesia (NSAIDs, narcotic as second-line)

Expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones (only 10-20% will become symptomatic within 5-20y)

Surgery may be considered in asymptomatic gallstones in the following situations:
Calcification of the gallbladder (porcelain gallbladder) because of high risk for gallbladder cancer
Hemolytic anemia (e.g., sickle cell disease)
Large gallstones (greater than 3 cm) because of high risk for gallbladder cancer
Morbidly obese undergoing bariatric surgery because of high risk to becoming symptomatic during rapid weight loss
Aboriginals because of high risk for gallbladder cancer
Planning for a transplant

604
Q

cholecystitis vs biliary colic

A

Lack of pain resolution, fever, peritonitis, abnormal labs

605
Q

2 different types of cholecystitis

A

Calculous cholecystitis
Acalculous cholecystitis - 10% (usually in critically ill patients)

606
Q

cholecyctitis tx

A

Treatment
No need for antibiotic prophylaxis in low risk
Cholecystectomy
Untreated, resolves within 7-10d but risk of complications (20% gallbladder gangrene, 2% perforation)

607
Q

charcot’s triad

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain (risk of pancreatitis and acute cholangitis)

+ raynaud’s pentad
confusion and shock

608
Q

ddx of appendicitis

A

DDx: IBD, ruptured cyst, abscess, ectopic pregnancy, testicular torsion

609
Q

management of appendicitis

A

ABC
Intravenous fluids
NPO/ Bowel rest
Consider antibiotics
Consider prophylactic antibiotics (Cefoxitin/Cefotetan/Cefazolin PLUS Metronidazole) 60 mins prior to surgery
If surgery delayed until next day, consider empiric antibiotics (Ertapenem, Pip-Tazo, Cefazolin/Ceftriaxone/Cipro/Levo PLUS Metronidazole)
Surgical consult for appendectomy

610
Q

risk factors of diverticulitis

A

Use of Aspirin and NSAIDs
Older age
Obesity
Lack of exercise

611
Q

imaging in diverticulitis

A

CT abdomen with double contrast (PO and IV)
Colonoscopy is contraindicated in acute diverticulitis but patients should have a colonoscopy in 4-6 weeks after resolution to assess extent of diverticular disease and to r/o colon cancer

612
Q

Treatment of mild uncomplicated diverticulitis (if mild symptoms, able to tolerate oral intake, and no signs of peritonitis):

A

Clear liquid and FU in 2-3 days
Consider broad spectrum oral antibiotics against gram-negative rods and anareobic bacteria
Septra DS 160/800mg po BID
Ciprofloxacin 500-750mg po BID + Metronidazole 500mg po Q6H for 7-10 days

613
Q

Treatment of moderate to severe diverticulitis

A

Hospital admission
IVF
IV antibiotics with PipTazo 3.375g IV Q6H or 4.5g IV Q8H until resolution of symptoms then transition to 10-14 days of oral antibiotics
NPO
CT abdomen

614
Q

Complications if diverticulitis

A

Abscess (CT guided percutaneous drainage)
Bleeding
Perforation
Fistula
Obstruction

615
Q

Prevention of recurrences in diverticulitis

A

Increase dietary fibers
Smoking cessation
Regular exercise
Weight loss if BMI > 30

616
Q

which grain contian gluten

A

wheat rye barley

617
Q

clinical spectrum of celiac disease

A

Classical
Malabsorption (diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss, growth failure)

Nonclassical
Absent signs of malabsorption but intestinal/extraintestinal symptoms

Subclinical (found on screening)
Below clinical detection but abnormal serological test and villous atrophy

Potential (latent)
Abnormal antibody but normal intestinal mucosa - may develop intestinal lesion (requires monitoring)

618
Q

conditions increasing risk of celiac disease

A

1st degree relative celiac (5-20%)
DM1 (3-10%)
Consider serology screening q1-2y
Down syndrome
Turner syndrome
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Autoimmune liver disease
Selective IgA deficiency

619
Q

sx of celiac disease

A

Malabsorption
Abdominal pain/Bloating/Distension
Chronic diarrhea/Constipation/IBS
Weight loss/Fatigue
Iron deficiency anemia
Vit-D/Calcium - Dental enamel defects/Premature Osteoporosis
B12/Folate - Neurological symptoms (Peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, seizures)
Skin
Dermatitis Herpetiformis (“Celiac of the skin” - pruritic papulovesicular rash on extensor)
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
Infertility
Abnormal LFTs
Additional features in children
Irritability
Recurrent vomiting
Delayed puberty
Growth failure/Short stature

620
Q

investigation/ diagnosis of celiac disease

A

IgA tTG antibody (Sensitivity and Specificity 95%)

False-negative
-Age<2yo
-Consider in <2yo, screen with both IgA tTG and IgG DGP Ab
-Lab error
-Reduction/elimination of gluten (may be negative within weeks of GFD)
–Gluten-containing diet should be resumed before ordering test
–Consider HLA-DQ2/DQ8 for patients on a GFD
-Note: HLA present in almost all patients with Celiac (95% DQ2, 5% DQ8)
-Selective IgA deficiency
-Immunosuppressed (eg. steroids)
-Seronegative Celiac disease (rare) - if high suspicion, consider referral for small intestinal biopsy or HLA testing

Total IgA
If <0.2g/L, consider testing IgG DGP antibodies

Positive IgA tTG Ab requires endoscopic small intestinal biopsies to confirm
-Do NOT start GFD prior to biopsy (as this will heal mucosa)
-If GFD started, resume 3g gluten daily x 2-6w and referral to GI

621
Q

diagnosis of celiac disease in children

A

In children can avoid biopsy with three criteria:
Positive tTG Ab >10x ULN
Positive endomysial Ab
Positive HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8

622
Q

treatment of celiac disease

A

Strict Gluten-free diet (avoid wheat, barlet, rye - caution with oats)
Referral to dietician
Consider iron, folic acid, vitamin D and B12 testing
Consider TSH and liver transaminase q1-2y

623
Q

complications of celiac disease

A

Nutritional deficiency (anemia)
Osteoporosis
Growth failure
Autoimmune disorders (thyroid, liver)
Malignancy (GI, LYMPHOMA)

624
Q

pancreatitis etiology

A

IGETSMASHED”

I - Idiopathic
G - Gallstones
E - Ethanol
T - Tumors
S - Scorpion bite
M - Microbiology (TB, mumps, rubella, varicella, hepatitis, CMV, HIV)
A - Autoimmune (SLE, polyarthritis nodosa, Crohn’s)
S - Surgery / trauma
H - Hypertriglyceridemia (TG >11.3), hypercalcemia, hypothermia
E - Emboli / ischemia
D - Drugs (furosemide, estrogen, H2 blockers, valproate, antibiotics, ASA)

625
Q

treatment of pancreatitis

A

Early goal-directed fluid resuscitation
Analgesia : hydromorphone, fentanyl,
Nutritional support

severe pancreatitis treatment:
Intensive care unit (ICU) care
Enteral nutrition preferred over parenteral nutrition
Antibiotics for extrapancreatic infections and infected necrosis
Necrosectomy (removal of necrotic tissue) for infected necrosis
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for acute pancreatitis and concurrent acute cholangitis
Drainage of pseudocysts

626
Q

crohn’s disease vs ulcerative colitis

A

Crohn’s Disease
Any part of GI tract from the mouth to the rectum
Transmural involvement
Endoscopy: Skip lesions, cobblestoning, ulcerations, strictures
Histology: Neutrophilic inflammation, noncaseating granulomas, Paneth cell metaplasia, and intestinal villi blunting

Ulcerative Colitis
Continuous lesions starting in rectum (generally only in colon)
Mucosa and submucosal involvement only
Endoscopy: Pseudopolyps, continuous areas of inflammation

627
Q

risk factors for IBD

A

Smoker in CD, but may be protective for the development UC
Ashkenazi Jewish, White (compared to Black, Hispanic)
Sedentary lifestyle, Obesity
“Western” diet (processed, fried, sugar)
Acute gastroenteritis, recent antibiotic use
NSAID use
Family history of IBD

628
Q

Extraintestinal manifestations of IBD (CD and UC)

A

Arthritis
Peripheral arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis (UC)
Sacroileitis
Dermatological
Aphthous stomatitis
Erythema nodosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Ocular
Episcleritis and Scleritis (CD)
Uveitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (UC)

629
Q

DDx of IBD

A

Infectious colitis
Ischemic colitis
Radiation-induced colitis
Diverticulitis
Appendicitis
Colorectal malignancy (obstructing/perforating), lymphoma
Celiac
IBS

630
Q

initial testing and subsequent labs for IBD

A

CBC
BUN
Creatinine
Liver enzymes
CRP and ESR
Consider stool Cx and C. diff toxin PCR
Consider fecal calprotectin if IBS vs. IBD

Subsequent testing
Iron profile
Vitamin B12, Folate
Albumin, prealbumin
Vitamin D, calcium

631
Q

imaging diagnosis of IBD

A

Colonoscopy with ileoscopy and biopsy
Capsule endoscopy (avoid in strictures)
CT enterography
MR enterography
Small bowel follow-through
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy recommended if upper GI symptoms, unexplained iron deficiency anemia, active Crohn’s disease with normal colonoscopy

632
Q

preventative measures for IBD (8)

A

Smoking cessation
Consider avoid NSAIDs (may exacerbate disease)
Avoid pregnancy in women of childbearing age
Conflicting data about OCP and IBD, may have small risk of association

Ensure routine immunizations
Tetanus and diphtheria, Polio, MMR, Varicella, Meningitis
HPV
Herpes zoster
Influenza
Pneumococcal
Hepatitis A and B

Prior to starting anti-TNF agents, obtain PPD testing and CXR (rule out TB), and update immunizations including Hep B
Anxiety/depression
Osteoporosis
Screening/prevention if on chronic systemic steroids
Colorectal Cancer
Screening for colorectal cancer based on extent of disease
Usually begin 8y after onset, q1-2 years (with random biopsies)
Cervical Cancer
Consider more frequent screening if on immunosuppressive therapy

633
Q

treatment of IBD

A

Induction of Remission
5-ASA (sulfasalazine, mesalamine)
Pentasa total 4g daily divided QID or BID
If achieve remission, maintain dose or reduce to 3g daily
Creat at 6w, 3mo, 6mo, 12mo, then yearly
Glucorticoids (Topical Ileal release budesonide (Entocort EC), prednisone)
Prednisone 40 mg PO x 1 week and then taper 5mg weekly for total duration of 8 weeks

Maintenance
5-ASA (sulfasalazine, mesalamine)
Immunomodulators (azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine, methotrexate)
Anti-TNF agents (infliximab, adalimumab)
Consider Probiotics Lactobacillus GG and Escherichia coli Nissle 1917

Symptomatic
Loperamide if no systemic (fever, tachycardia)
Avoid opioids as may mask acute abdomen
Consider avoid NSAIDs (limited data may worsen disease)

634
Q

heart failure sx

A

Breathlessness

Fatigue

Weight gain

Peripheral edema

Orthopnea (LR 2.2)

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (LR 2.6)

Confusion in elderly

635
Q

CHF risk factors (8)

A

Hypertension

Ischemic heart disease (LR 3.1)

Valvular heart disease

Diabetes mellitus

Alcohol, substance use

Chemotherapy/radiation therapy

Family history cardiomyopathy

Smoking

Hyperlipidemia

636
Q

heart failure P/E findings

A

Bilateral lung crackles

Elevated JVP (LR 5.1)

Positive abdominal jugular reflex

Peripheral edema (LR 2.3)

Laterally isplaced apex

S3 (LR 11), S4 or any heart murmur

Low BP or HR>100

Note: In heart failure with narrow pulse pressure, think high output heart failure (eg. anemia, thyrotoxicosis)

637
Q

2 types of heart failure

A

HFrEF (reduced)

LVEF <40%
_________________________________
HFmrEF (mid-range)

LVEF 40-49%

Elevated natriuretic peptide

Relevant structural heart disease (LVH +/- LAE) or diastolic dysfunction

__________________
HFpEF (preserved)
💡 A preserved ejection fraction on a routine echocardiogram does not rule out the clinical syndrome of heart failure

LVEF >50%

Elevated natriuretic peptide

Relevant structural heart disease (LVH +/- LAE) or diastolic dysfunction

638
Q

NYHA classification for severity of symptoms

A

I = No limitation of physical activity. Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea (shortness of breath).

II = Slight limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea (shortness of breath).

III = Marked limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea.

IV = Unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure at rest. If any physical activity is undertaken, discomfort increases.

639
Q

labs to ask in context of CHF

A

CBC

Ferritin

Glucose

Electrolytes

Creat/eGFR

TSH

UA

LFTs

Lipids & A1c (risk factor management)

Consider if diagnosis uncertain or if high suspicion

Troponin → r/o ACS and prognosis

NT-proBNP >125pg/mL → consider echocardiography

HF unlikely if < 300; highly likely if > 900 (1800 if age >75)

BNP>50 pg/mL → consider echocardiography

HF unlikely if < 100; highly likely if >400

640
Q

investifation other than blood test to ask in CHF

A

ECG
-Afib, new T-wave change, Q waves, LVH, LBBB, HR>100,

Lung ultrasound
-B-profile bilaterally, pleural effusion

CXR
-Cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous redistribution, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, Kerley B lines

Echocardiography
-Decreased LVEF

-Increased LV diameter/LVH

-Wall motion abnormalities, diastolic dysfunction

-Increased RV size, RV dysfunction

-Valve dysfunction

-Elevated pulmonary arterial pressures (PAP)

641
Q

acute management of CHF

A

Acute Management
💡 LMNOP (Lasix, Modify medications, Nitroglycerine, Oxygen, Position (upright) +/- Positive Pressure (BiPAP)

Oxygen ≥ 90-92%

NIPPV (BiPAP > CPAP) if SpO2 < 90% despite supportive O2

Position upright

Hypotension (cardiogenic shock)→ Pressor (eg. Norepinephrine) to maintain MAP 65-80

Hypertension (SCAPE)→ High-dose nitroglycerin IV

Nitroglycerine (NTG) SL 0.4mg x 3 q5 mins until IV nitroglycerine started (note SL nitro only 40% bioavailable)

Nitroglycerine 100mcg/min IV infusion, increase by 20mcg/min every 10 mins until sBP decreases

Then maintain until improvement in symptoms, then gradually reduce IV infusion until stop

Alternatively may give intermittent nitroglycerin bolus 1-2mg IV q3-5 minutes

Avoid in PDE5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil) or concomitant inferior STEMI (preload dependent)

If suspect total body hypovolemia, no B-lines on lung ultrasound, hypoperfusion,

Consider careful fluid bolus challenge (250mL isotonic crystalloid)

If suspect total body hypervolemia (eg. B-lines on lung ultrasound, pedal edema, jugular vein distension, history of nonadherence to diuretics or missed hemodialysis)
Note: Many patients may be euvolemic and have a maldistribution of fluids into the lungs

Furosemide (Lasix) 20-80mg IV bolus (once stable)

If taking regular furosemide at home, can give home PO dose as IV

Consider the addition of acetazolamide 500mg IV daily to improve loop diuretic efficiency

Monitor diuretic effect ~q6h while stabilizing

Monitor daily weights and urine output, goals: urine output 3-5 L; 0.5-1.5 kg weight loss

Increase/decrease diuretic by ~25-50% to meet above criteria

If not responsive, consider adding metolazone 1.25-5mg one to seven times per week

Consider consultations (e.g., cardiology, ICU) for advanced measures (e.g., intra-aortic balloon pumps, LVAD, ECMO, etc.)

642
Q

pharmalogical management of congestive heart failure + sx management threapies

A

💡 The classic “triple” therapy for HFrEF has recently expanded to “quadruple” therapy with the addition of SGLT2 Inhibitors in the updated CCS 2021 Guidelines.

Quadruple Therapy for most patients with HFrEF (LVEF < 40% and symptoms)

ACEi (or ARB if not tolerated)

ACEi: Target Ramipril 10mg, Perindopril 8mg, or Lisinopril 20-35mg

ARB: Target Candesartan 32mg

BB (Careful initiating in NYHA III-IV)

Target Bisoprolol 10mg or Metoprolol CR/XL 200mg

MRA (Monitor potassium, creatinine)

Target Spironolactone 50mg

SGLT2 Inhibitor

Target Empagliflozin 10-25mg or Dapagliflozin 10mg

Convert from ACEi/ARB to ARNI if persistent/worsening symptoms despite adequate quadruple therapy (hospitalization and mortality benefit)

Target Sacubitril/Valsartan 200mg BID (97mg:103mg)

💡 There is less evidence supporting the benefit of pharmacotherapy for patients with preserved EF (HFpEF). For patients with HFpEF consider SGLT2 and MRA as first-line therapies.

Symptom Management
Additional therapies should be considered for patients with HFrEF and persistent NYHA II-IV symptoms, despite optimization of quadruple therapy:

Diuretic at lowest effective dose to maintain euvolemia

Consider (with specialist involvement)

Ivabradine if NSR and HR ≥ 70 bpm despite BB

Vasodilators (e.g., hydralazine/Isosorbide dinitrate) if renal intolerance to ACEi/ARB/ARNI

Digoxin (e.g., if poorly controlled AF despite BB)

Device therapy (ICD, CRT) if LVEF ≤ 35% and NYHA I-IV (ambulatory)

643
Q

clinical sx of parkinson’s

A

> 60yo
Resting tremor, often unilateral, 4-6 Hz (cycles per second), pill-rolling, increased with stress, decreased with voluntary activity
Muscle rigidity/cogwheeling (resistance to passive movement)
Bradykinesia (slow movements)
Postural instability, falls
Shuffling gait, decreased arm swing, unsteady turning, difficulty stopping, stooped/flexed posture
Mask-life facial expression, infrequent blinking
Speech changes (hypophonia), micrographia
Non-motor: Constipation, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorder, depression, olfaction impairment, personality changes

644
Q

non pharmalogical management of parkinson

A

Improve quality of life and function
Refer to neurology untreated within 6w
Physical therapy
Gait, balance, flexibility
Occupational therapy
Mobility, self-care, safety
Speech therapy
Vocal loudness, swallowing
Parkinson Society of Canada / Support Groups

Monitor for Depression, Dementia, Psychotic symptoms, Sleep disturbance, Autonomic dysfunction
Psychosis
Consider antipsychotics that have less antidopamine effects (Clozapine, Pimavanserin, Quetiapine)
Postural hypotension
Increase salt, head up, elastic stockings
Midodrine or fludrocortisone

645
Q

name 5 tx rx parkinsons

A

First-line: Levodopa/carbidopa (Dopamine precursor)

Dopamine agonists - pramipexole (best early in disease)
Anticholinergics - benztropine
NMDA-receptor antagonist - amantadine
MAOIs - selegiline
COMT inhibitor - entacapone

646
Q

side effects of levodopa

A

Impulse control disorder (eg. compulsive gambling, hypersexuality, binge eating and obsessive shopping)
Dyskinesia
Somnolence
Orthostatic hypotension/dizziness
Nausea, Dyspepsia
Psychotic symptoms and hallucinations

647
Q

poisons not bound by activated charchoal

A

caustic acids and alkalis, alcohols, lithium, heavy metals

648
Q

activated charchoal is usefulwith wich toxines

A

Dose: 1 to 2g/kg
Multiple dosing q2-6h effective in phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine, salicylates, digitalis, theophylline and dapsone

649
Q

indications of bowel irrigation in intox

A

Toxic foreign bodies (drugs packets), sustain release drugs, or toxic materials not bound by AC

Contraindications: Mechanical obstruction, ileus, perforation

650
Q

in which intox should you do gastric lavage + contraindication + complications

A

Indications: Highly toxic substances or large ingestions, substances not adsorbed by activated charcoal (lithium, iron, lead, methanol) and potential jeopardized airway (altered mental status)
Contraindications: Ingestion of corrosives, hydrocarbons, depressed gag reflexes who are not intubated, clinically insignificant ingestions
Complications: Aspiration, perforation of esophagus/bronchus

651
Q

poisoning management

A

ABC, Oxygen (consider intubation), Mental status
Vitals q5 mins
Temperature, glucose
IV access
Cardiac monitor, EKG

DON’T forget in Universal Antidotes in altered mental status: Dextrose, Oxygen, Naloxone (Narcan), Thiamine

CALL POISON CONTROL

652
Q

investigations in poisonning

A

Labs

CBC, electrolytes, glucose
Hepatic and renal function
High creatinine with normal BUN consider isopropyl alcohol or DKA
Urinalysis
Serum osmolarity
VBG + lactate
Quantitative drug serum levels: Acetaminophen, Salicylates, Ethanol
Other: Digoxin, iron, lithium, theophylline, anticonvulsants, methanol, ethylene glycol
Qualitative urine drug screen
Pregnancy test

Other

EKG
QRS, QTc
CXR for aspiration, or medications (salicylates, narcotics, sedative-hypnotics) for pulmonary edema

653
Q

osmolar gap equation

A

Osmolar gap = Measured - (2 x [Na+] + [glucose] + [urea]) > 10

AGMA ([Na+] – [Cl−] – [HCO3−]>12)

654
Q

drugs causing Excitation (high HR, BP, RR, T)

A

Anticholinergic, sympathomimetic, hallucinogenic, drug withdrawal
Treat with benzodiazepines and supportive care

655
Q

recreative drugs causing depression

A

Ethanol, sedative-hypnotic, opiates, cholinergic (parasympathomimetic), sympatholytics, toxic alcohol (methanol, ethylene glycol)

656
Q

toxic dose of acetaminophen

A

Toxic above 150mg/kg (7.5-10g for an adult)

657
Q

sx of acetaminophen intox within 24 h and after 24h

A

0.5-24h: Asymptomatic (possible nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
24-72h: RUQ pain (hepatic injury)

658
Q

labs for acetaminophen intox

A

Initial and more importantly >4h Acetaminophen Level evaluate on Rumack-Matthew normogram
ALT and INR (if ALT abnormal)

659
Q

treatment for acetaminophen intoxication

A

Activated Charcoal 50g within 2h (up to 4h) of ingestion unless contraindicated (unable to protect airway)
N-acetylcysteine (NAC, Mucomyst)
-If known time of ingestion, and above treatment line as per normogram
-Time of ingestion not known or >24h, or chronic ingestion, treat if any acetaminophen concentration or abnormal AST/ALT
-First dose, if serum level not available until >8h post-ingestion
-Continue NAC if serum acetaminophen >10mcg/mL or elevated AST/ALT
-ANY signs of liver injury (preferable to start NAC prior to elevated ALT)

660
Q

aspirin fatal dose

A

Fatal above 10g in adults, 3g in children

661
Q

clinical sx of aspirin intox

A

Tinnitus, tachypnea, vertigo, vomiting, diarrhea
Respiratory alkalosis initially, mixed, then metabolic acidosis

662
Q

investigations in aspirin intox

A

Serum salicylate levels >40mg/dL (2.9mmol/L) possible toxicity
Measure q2h until decreasing, below 40mg/dL, asymptomatic and normal respiratory effort

Blood gas

663
Q

treatment of aspirin intox

A

AVOID intubation (risk of neurotoxicity in acid pH from apnea)
Consider multi-dose activated charcoal in enteric-coated (50g q4h)
Alkalinization (serum and urine) with IV sodium bicarbonate (3 amps NaHCO3 in 1L D5W at maintenance rate x 2 )
Target urine pH >7.5 (repeat q1h)
Monitor for hypokalemia
Glucose especially if altered mental status
Early nephrology for possible dialysis

664
Q

Methanol, ethylene glycol intox
Clinical Manifestations:

A

Profound metabolic acidosis (HCO3<8mEq/L) and osmolal gap (>25mOsm), status epilepticus, shock, ischemic bowel
Visual blurring, scotoma, blindness -> Methanol
Flank pain, hematuria -> Ethylene glycol

665
Q

Investigations of methanol, ethylene glycol intox

A

Blood gas
Electrolytes (anion gap), serum osmolality, ethanol (determine osmolal gap), calcium (ethylene-glycol associated hypoglycemia)
Methanol, ethylene glycol and isopropranol
Urinalysis (oxalate crystals)

666
Q

treatment of methanol, ethylene glycol intox

A

Blood gas
Electrolytes (anion gap), serum osmolality, ethanol (determine osmolal gap), calcium (ethylene-glycol associated hypoglycemia)
Methanol, ethylene glycol and isopropranol
Urinalysis (oxalate crystals)

667
Q

treatment of methanol, ethylene glycol intox

A

Fomepazole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibition) or ethanol
Sodium bicarbonate
Hemodialysis in severe toxicity

668
Q

benzodiazepine poisoning toxicity

A

Rarely toxic, rule out coingestant
Risk of propylene glycol poisoning if receiving large IV BZDs (used as a diluent)

669
Q

investigation fo benzodiazepine intox

A

Urine BZD identifies metabolites of 1,4-BZD (oxazepam), may not detect clonazepam, lorazepam, midazolam, alprazolam

670
Q

treatment of benzodiazepine poisoning

A

Intubate if needed
Consider avoid Flumazenil given risk of seizures in chronic benzodiazepine use
Avoid GI decontamination (risk of aspiration) unless airway protected and coingestant treatable by charcoal

671
Q

beta blocker treatment

A

Airway
NS IV bolus with atropine 1mg IV (up to 3 doses)
Glucagon 5mg IV bolus (may be repeated)
Calcium chloride (central venous access)
Vasopressor (eg. epinephrine)
IV high-dose insulin and glucose
IV lipid emulsion

672
Q

opioids clinical manifestation

A

Respiratory depression
Miotic pupils (coingestants may make pupils normal/large)

673
Q

treatment of opioids

A

Naloxone (Narcan) titrated to RR>12 (not until normal LOC)
Consider very small doses 0.04mg IV (or IO/IM/SC) q1min
In cardiorespiratory arrest, no evidence of benefit, may consider 2mg IV (or IO/IM/SC) q1min
If overshoot, manage withdrawal symptoms expectantly (not with opioids)
If no effect after 5-10mg consider other diagnoses

674
Q

antipsychotics antidote (acute dystonic reaction)

A

Benztropine, diphenhydramine

675
Q

anticholinergic antidote

A

Physostigmine salicylate (Antilirium)

676
Q

betablocker antidote

A

glucagon

677
Q

CCB antidote

A

calcium

678
Q

cholinergic antidote

A

Atropine, Pralidoxime

679
Q

digoxine antidote

A

Digoxin immune Fab (Ovine, Digibind)
Consider MgSO4 to stabilize if delay in digoxin antibodies

680
Q

iron antidote

A

Deferoxamine (Desferal)

681
Q

TCS antidote (Cardiotoxicity, convulsion, coma)

A

Sodium Bicarbonate 1-2mEq/kg

682
Q

wellchild care to avoid intoxication

A

Keep items locked and out of reach/sight
Keep in original containers (safety lids)
Don’t take medications in view of children
Don’t refer to medicine as “candy”

683
Q

BPH risk factors

A

Age, obesity, diabetes, family history

684
Q

BPH complications

A

UTI, bladder stone, urinary retention, hydronephrosis, renal failure

685
Q

ddx of urinary retention

A

BPH, UTI, urothelial cancer, BPH, prostate CA, urethral stricture, urethral diverticulum (women), medication, infection, trauma, neuro (spinal cord injury)

686
Q

sx of BPH

A

Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS)

Voiding - predominant in bladder outlet obstruction (BOO) secondary to BPH
Hesitancy, Weak Stream, Intermittence, Straining
Storage - r/o overactive bladder (OAB)
Urgency, Frequency, Urgency Incontinence, Nocturia
Postmicturition
Dribbling, Incomplete Emptying

687
Q

investigation for BPH

A

Urinalysis +/- culture (r/o infection)
PSA
PVR if considering anticholinergics (eg. storage symptoms suggesting OAB)

688
Q

management of nocturnal polyuria

A

Voiding/Frequency chart 2-3 days
If urine output ≥3L
Decreased intake, aim for urine output 1L
If nocturnal urine output >33% nocturnal polyuria diagnosed
Consider Desmopressin

689
Q

non pharmalogical Management of BPO/ BPH for mild sx

A

Follow IPSS, DRE, PSA (if on 5-ARIs) as response to treatment
Mild (Symptom score <8, or if not bothered by symptoms)
Lifestyle and watchful waiting
Fluid restriction particularly prior to bedtime
Avoidance of alcohol, caffeine, spicy foods
Avoidance/monitoring of some drugs (e.g., diuretics, decongestants, antihistamines, antidepressants)
Timed or organized voiding (bladder retraining)
Pelvic floor exercises
Avoidance or treatment of constipation
Phytotherapy/herbal medicine (Saw Palmetto) has very weak evidence, although minimal side effects

690
Q

mod-severe sx in BPH management

A

Moderate-Severe (SS≥8)
For smaller prostates, Alpha-blockers alone (relax smooth muscle, onset 3-5 days)
eg. Tamsulosin (Flomax) CR 0.4mg PO daily (avoid in sulfa allergy)
Side effects: Orthostatic hypotension, retrograde ejaculation (ejaculation failure)
For larger prostates (eg. DRE>25mL or PSA>1.5 ng/dL), combination therapy more effective with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (onhibit conversion of testosterone to DHT, onset 4-6 months)
eg. Dutasteride (Avodart) 0.5mg PO daily , or Finasteride (Proscar)
Side effects: Decreased libido, erectile dysfunction
After 6-9 months of combination therapy, consider stopping alpha blocker
Consider addition of PDE-5 inhibitors for LUT symptoms, eg. Tadalafil (Cialis) 5mg PO daily
Consider addition of anticholinergics (eg. Tolterodine, Oxybutynin, Mirabegron) especially if component of OAB (storage symptoms), caution if PVR >250mL

691
Q

when to refer to urology in BPH

A

Failure of symptom control despite combination therapy, for possible Surgery (TURP)
Complications: Hematuria, recurrent UTIs, urinary retention, renal failure
Suspect prostate cancer (DRE/elevation in PSA)
PSA<10 low risk (routine), PSA 10-20 (semiurgent referral), PSA>20 high risk (urgent)
Upgrade urgency if DRE abnormal (firm or irregular)

692
Q

prostatitis categories

A

Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
Tender prostate
Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
Intermittent UTIs with same bacteria
Chronic Prostatitis / Chronic Pelvic Pain Syndrome
Inflammatory Chronic Prostatitis
Non-inflammatory Chronic Prostatitis
Asymptomatic Inflammatory Prostatitis
Leukocytosis

693
Q

prostatitis sx

A

Fevers, chills, dysuria, pelvic or perineal pain, and cloudy urine, obstructive symptoms

694
Q

risk factors of prostatitis

A

Indwelling catheter, urogenital instrumentation, prostate biopsy, HIV/immunosuppression, STI risk factors, BPH

695
Q

bacterias in cause of prostatitis

A

Enterobacteriaceae (typically Escherichia coli or Proteus species).
STIs (Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis) in sexually active men, may have concurrent urethritis or epididymitis.

696
Q

investigations of prostatitis

A

Urinalysis, urine culture and-sensitivity testing, gono/chlam urethral/rectal PCR and culture

697
Q

treatment of prostatitis

A

Acute/Chronic Bacterial
Septra DS 1 tab q12h x 6 weeks (or 12 weeks for chronic) or Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO q12h x 6 weeks (for both acute and chronic)

Consider Urine culture at 7 days (if still positive, consider change in management)
Rule out prostatic abscess in immunosuppressed or poor response to therapy

698
Q

treatment of non infectious prostatitis

A

Target UPOINTS
Urinary (storage/voiding symptoms)
Tamsulosin 0.4mg PO daily (a-blocker), antimuscarinics
Psychosocial
CBT, counselling, antidepressants, anxiolytics
Organ specific (prostate tenderness, hematospermia)
Quercetin, pollen extract
Infection (positive cultures in prostate sample, previous UTI)
Fluoroquinolone x 6 weeks
Neurologic / Pain
Acetaminophen, NSAIDs
Gabapentinoids, TCA, acupuncture
Tenderness (pelvic floor spasm, trigger points)
Physiotherapy (pelvic floor relaxation), exercise, heat therapy
Sexual dysfunction
PDE-5 inhibitors
Refer to urologist if does not improve significantly with initial treatment

699
Q

hypertensive urgency definition

A

(dBP≥130mmHg) or emergency (severe elevation of BP in the setting of any below) → Immediate diagnosis management

Emergency

Cerebrovascular

Hypertensive encephalopathy

Intracranial hemorrhage

Cardiac

Acute aortic dissection

Acute LV failure

Acute coronary syndrome

Renal

Acute kidney injury

Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia

Catecholamine-associated HTN

700
Q

diagnostic value of BP for HTN with AOBP and non AOBP in non DB

A

AOBP over or equal to 135/85
non AOBP over 140/90

701
Q

diagnostic value of BP for HTN with AOBP and non AOBP in DB patients

A

130/80

702
Q

out of office measurements diagnostic value of BP for HTN with ABPM and home BP series

A

ABPM daytime mean over 135/85
24h mean over 130/80

home BP mean over 135/85

703
Q

gold standard of BP measuring

A

automated office blood presssure (AOBP)

704
Q

when to take home BPq

A

2 readings before breakfast, 2 readings 2h after dinner, eliminate day 1 readings and average other 6 days (total 24 readings)

705
Q

how to measure BP accurately

A

Cuff with appropriate bladder size (Bladder width 40% of arm circumference and length 80-100% of arm circumference)

Nondominant arm, unless SBP difference >10mmHg (use higher value arm)

Rest comfortably for 5 minutes in seated position, back support, arm supported at heart level

No caffeine/tobacco 1h, no exercise 30mins preceding

706
Q

diagnosis of HTN in children

A

Consider BP measured annually in children and adolescents ≥3 y of age.

Diagnosis of HTN if a child or adolescent if auscultatory-confirmed BP readings ≥95th percentile at 3 different visits.

707
Q

HTN target organ damage examples

A

Cerebrovascular

Stroke

Dementia (Vascular)

Hypertensive retinopathy

Cardiac

LV dysfunction

LV hypertrophy

CHF

CAD (MI, angina, ACS)

Renal (CKD, albuminuria)

PAD (claudication)

708
Q

target BP in DB and all

A

Diabetes <130/80

All (including elderly and CKD) <140/90

High risk consider ≤120

SPRINT population ≥ 50yo
CV disease
CKD
FRS ≥15%
Age ≥75yo

709
Q

routine tests for HTN

A

Urinalysis (Grade D);
Blood chemistry (potassium, sodium, and creatinine; Grade D);
Fasting blood glucose and/or glycated hemoglobin (Grade D);
Serum total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), and non-HDL choles-terol, and triglycerides (Grade D); lipids may be drawn fasting or nonfasting (Grade C); and
Standard 12-lead electrocardiography (Grade C).

710
Q

global cardiovascular risk factors

A

Age ≥55yo

Male

Family Hx CAD (Age <55 in men, <65 in women)

Sedentary lifestyle

Poor dietary habits

Abdominal obesity

Dysglycemia

Smoking

Dyslipidemia

Stress

Nonadherence

711
Q

when to FU on pts with HTN

A

Adjusting antihypertensive drug therapy q1-2 months

Modify health behaviours q3-6 months

712
Q

lifestyle modifications for HTN

A

Exercise

30-60 mins of moderate-intensity dynamic exercise (walking, jogging, cycling, swimming) 4-7 days per week in addition to routine ADLs

Weight loss (dietary education, physical activity, behaviour modification)
-BMI 18.5-24.9 and waist circumference <102cm for men <88cm for women

Alcohol consumption

≤2 drinks per day (Men <14/week, women <9)

Diet

Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension [DASH]

Reduce saturated fat, cholesterol

Emphasis on fruits, vegetables, low-fat dairy products, dietary and soluble fibre, whole grains, and protein from plant sources

Sodium <2000mg (1 tsp salt) per day

Potassium increase dietary intake to reduce BP (if no risk of hyperkalemia)

Stress management (cognitive behaviour interventions with relaxation techniques)

Smoking cessation

Re-assess habits (steroids, licorice), meds (NSAIDs, OCP), OTC meds

713
Q

causes of secondary HTN

A

renovascular hypertension
endocrine hypertension

Hyperaldosteronism
Pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma

714
Q

INVESTIGATION for secondary HTN

A

Rule out renovascular hypertension with imaging (eg. duplex ultrasound of renal arteries, MRA, CTA, captopril-radioisotope renal scan) if ≥2 of below
Sudden onset, worsening HTN and age >55 or <30*

Abdominal bruit*

HTN resistant to ≥3 drugs*

Serum creatinine ≥30% increase with ACE-I or ARB

Atherosclerotic vascular disease (smoke/DLP)

Recurrent pulmonary edema with hypertensive surges

Consider r/o fibromuscular dysplasia with CTA/MRA if any of three above* or unexplained asymmetry of kidney sizes (>1.5cm), family history of FMD, or FMD in other territory

_________________
Rule out endocrine hypertension

Hyperaldosteronism (Plasma aldosterone and renin/renin activity)

K<3.5mmol/L or marked diuretic-induced hypokalemia (K<3)

HTN resistant to ≥3 drugs

Pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma (24h urinary total metanephrines and catecholamines or 24h urine fractionated metanephrines, plasma free metanephrine/normetanephrines)

Paroxysmal, unexplained, labile, severe (≥180/110) HTN refractory to usual therapy

Symptoms of catecholamine excess (headache, palpitations, sweating, panic attacks, pallor)

HTN triggered by BB, MAO-i, micturition, changes in abdominal pressure, surgery, anesthesia

Incidental adrenal mass

Hereditary (MEN2A/B, neurofibromatosis type 1, Von Hippel-Lindau)

715
Q

initial therapy for HTN

A

No other indications

Long-acting Thiazide diuretic (eg. Chlorthalidone, indapamide)

BB (<60yo)

ACE-i (nonblack)

Long-acting CCB (eg. Amlodipine)

ARB

716
Q

therapy for HTN for DB

A

ACE-i, ARB

717
Q

Cardiovascular disease

CAD
HTN med

A

ACE-i, ARB

BB or CCB in stable angina

718
Q

HTN med for pt with recent MI

A

ACE-i (or ARB), BB

719
Q

Heart failure htn med

A

ACE-i (or ARB), BB

Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone) in recent CV hospitalization, acute MI, elevated BNP or NYHA class II-IV

Monitor potassium

720
Q

LV hypertrophy htn med

A

ACE-i, ARB, Long-acting CCB, Thiazide

721
Q

previous stroke/TIA htn med

A

ACE-i and thiazide combination

722
Q

Non-diabetic CKD

A

ACE-i (or ARB) if proteinuria, Diuretics as additional therapy

723
Q

Routine use of aspirin in healthy women younger than 65
years is not recommended to prevent myocardial infarction T or F

A

T

724
Q

why the diagnostic evaluation process for obstructive CAD is challenging

A

because of lower pretest
probability, atypical symptom presentation, and
greater prevalence of microvascular disease

725
Q

key points to reduce cardiovascular risk in pts with DB2

A

A = A1C – Blood glucose control. The target is usually 7.0% or less.
B = BP – Blood pressure control (less than 130/80 mmHg).
C = Cholesterol – LDL-cholesterol less than 2.0 mmol/L. Your physician/nurse practitioner may advise you to start cholesterol-lowering medication.
D = Drugs to protect your heart – These include blood pressure pills (ACE inhibitors or ARBs), cholesterol-lowering medication (“statins”), and, in people with existing cardiovascular disease, certain blood glucose lowering medications. These blood glucose-lowering medications can protect your heart even if your blood pressure and/or LDL-cholesterol are already at target.
E = Exercise/Eating — Regular physical activity, which includes healthy eating, and achievement and maintenance of a healthy body weight.
S = Stop smoking and manage stress.

726
Q

should we start ASA in patints with diabetes for primary CVD prevention

A

Pooled estimates suggest that, for primary prevention of CVD events in people with diabetes, ASA results in no reduction of MI and stroke, but an important increase in gastrointestinal hemorrhage (61–64).

Despite a plethora of data, there remains uncertainty about the use of ASA in the primary prevention of CVD events in persons with diabetes, and its routine use in primary CVD event prevention is not recommended. However, some people with multiple CV risk factors and evidence of vascular inflammation, as reflected by C-reactive protein levels, may cross the risk-benefit threshold in which the potential benefits justify the potential increase in hemorrhagic events.

727
Q

red flags of HA

A

Systemic - fever, weight loss, HTN, myalgias, scalp tenderness

Neuro - confusion, decreased LOC, papilledema, visual field defect, CN asymmetry, extremity drift/weakness, reflex asymmetry, seizure

Onset - Sudden

Older - New onset or progressive >50yo

Pattern change/progressive - Different or new

Papilledema

Postural aggravation

Precipitated by valsalva (cough, sneeze)

Secondary risk factors- HIV, malignancy, trauma, early morning/nocturnal

728
Q

primary Headache differential dx

A

Primary:

Migraine

4-72h (untreated)

2 of unilateral, pulsatile, moderate-severe pain, worse with or avoid routine physical activity

1 of nausea/vomiting, photo/phonophobia

Tension

2 of Bilateral, non-pulsating (pressing), mild-moderate intensity, not worse with or avoid routine physical activity

No N/V, no more than one of photo/phonophobia

Cluster

Severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain, 15-180mins (untreated)

One symptom/sign ipsilateral (Conjunctival injection, lacrimation, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, eyelid edema, sweating, flushing, ear fullness, miosis, ptosis)

Sense of restlessness or agitation

If ≥15d/mo for ≥3mo

Chronic migraine

Chronic tension

Medication overuse headache (usually present on wakening)

≥15d/mo simple analgesics (acetaminophen, aspirin, NSAID)

≥10d/mo ergotamine, triptan, opioids

Hemicrania continua

Strictly unilateral, persistent with exacerbations, cranial autonomic symptoms, restlessness, responsive to indomethacin

New daily persistent headache

Abrupt onset, daily, unremitting from onset (or within 3d of onset) typically in patients without history of headache

729
Q

Secondary HA ddx

A

Infection: Meningitis, sinus, mastoid, dental

Hypertension: Preeclampsia

Systemic illness

Carbon monoxide

Extracranial:

Eye disorder (refractory errors, glaucoma), Carotid dissection, TMJ

730
Q

intracranial HA ddx

A

Vascular: Subarachnoid hemorrhage (thunderclap), Temporal arteritis, Venous Sinus Thrombosis, SDH (worsening over time), Cervical artery dissection (TIA/neuro deficit in young)

Nonvascular: Increased/decreased (eg. CSF leak) ICP, Tumor, Chiari malformation (Valsalva)

731
Q

HA investigation’s

A

Neuro exam, fundoscopy r/o increased ICP

CT if red flags or risk of intracranial pathology

Lumbar puncture if symptoms of secondary cause

Valsalva/exercise, systemic illness (fever/rash/neck stiffness/meningismus), neuro sign (papilledema/seizure)

Consider ESR/CRP if suspect temporal arteritis

Consider CT/LP to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)

Ottawa SAH Rule (100% sensitive, 15% specific - if negative helpful to rule out, excluded neuro deficits, brain tumors, chronic recurrent headache)

Age≥40, Neck Pain/Stiffness, LOC, Onset during Exertion, Thunderclap, Limited Neck Flexion on exam

CT (diagnosis 90% SAH within 24h)

Lumbar Puncture (If negative CT)

Elevated opening pressure, elevated RBC count that does not significantly diminish, Xanthochromia (hemoglobin degradation if blood in CSF >2h)

If diagnosed SAH, proceed to angiography to rule out aneurysmal

732
Q

non pharmalogical tx of HA

A

Keep headache diary, record frequency, intensity, triggers, medication

Lifestyle changes

Reduce caffeine

Regular aerobic exercise

Avoid irregular/inadequate sleep or meals

Avoid triggers

Fluids

Stress management

Relaxation training

CBT

Pacing activity

Biofeedback therapy

Acupuncture

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation

733
Q

4 pharmalogical tx of migraines

A

Ibuprofen 400mg, ASA 1000mg, Naproxen 500mg, Acetaminophen 1000mg

Second Line: Triptans (eg. Sumatriptan 100mg PO)

Sumatriptan 6mg subcutaneous if vomiting or resistant to oral triptans

Contraindicated in CV diseases, pregnancy, ergots

Consider Gepants (Ubrogepant and Rimegepant) for patients with cardiovascular disease (for whom triptans are contraindicated)

734
Q

prophylaxis pharmalogical tx of migraines and criterias

A

Prophylaxis if 4+/month, or >12h, or increased in frequency or rebound (trial of at least 2 months needed, treat for 6-12 months then taper to reassess need)

Betablocker (Propranolol, Metoprolol, Timolol), Antidepressants (Amitriptyline, Venlafaxine), Anticonvulsants (Valproate, Topiramate)

Less evidence:

Calcium channel blockers (Verapamil)

Melatonin 3mg (as effective as amitriptyline in one RCT)

Riboflavin (Vit B2) 400mg/d after three months

735
Q

ER IV medication for migraines

A

1L bolus NS, Prochlorperazine 10mg, Diphenhydramine 25mg , Ketorolac 30mg, Dexamethasone 10mg

Maxeran (metoclopramide )

736
Q

tension type HA treatment

A

Ibuprofen 400mg, ASA 1000mg, Naproxen 500mg, Acetaminophen 1000mg

Prophylactic: TCA (Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline)

737
Q

cluster HA treatment

A

100% oxygen 12L/min x 15 mins through non-rebreather mask

Sumatriptan 6mg subcutaneous, Zolmitriptan 5mg intranasal

Triptans contraindicated in Cardio/Cerebrovascular disorders

Bridge with Corticosteroids (prednisone), Ergotamine, Occipital nerve block

Prophylactic Verapamil 240-480mg/d or steroids

Early specialist referral

738
Q

medication overuse treatment

A

Stop offending medication

Can bridge with NSAID (naproxen) or prednisone

739
Q

Hemicrania Continua or Daily Persistent Headache treatment

A

Indomethacin

Specialist referral

Consider MRI Brain

740
Q

meds that can cause overuse HA

A

ergots, triptans, analgesics or codeine, opioids more than 10 adays a month
or tylenol or NSAIDS more than 15 a month

741
Q

Mandatory Immigration Medical Examination (before arriving to Canada)

A

Complete physical examination (including vision/hearing screen)
>5yo - Urinalysis for protein, glucose (think diabetes), blood (think shistosomiasis)
If abnormal, urine microscopy
>11yo - CXR r/o TB
>15yo or risk factor (eg. known infected mother, unprotected sex)
HIV testing, Syphilis

742
Q

Recommended Screening (by Canadian Collaboration for Immigrant and Refugee Health 2011)

A

Hep B (Africa, Asia, Eastern Europe and parts of South America)
Vaccinate susceptible, refer chronic infection for treatment (and consider screen HCC as indicated)
Hep C (specifically subSaharan Africa [10%]; eastern Europe, especially Uzbekistan and Tajikistan [27%]; Egypt [25%–50%]; Vietnam [10%]; and Pakistan [5-35%]) and exposure to contaminated blood, usually as nosocomial transmission through unscreened blood products, surgery or receipt of intramuscular injections)
If positive, vaccinate Hep A/B, limit alcohol and refer for treatment
TB PPD skin test (Sub-Saharan Africa, Asia, and Central and South America, and some in Eastern Europe)
CXR to rule out active disease
HIV (sub-Saharan Africa, Caribbean, Thailand)
Post-test counselling and refer to HIV treatment program
Intestinal parasites if from endemic area, compatible sign/symptoms of infection (asthma) or evidence of peripheral eosinophilia
Strongyloides serology (consider in immigrants from Southeast Asia and Africa)
If positive, treat with ivermectin (or albendazole)
Shistosomiasis serology (Africa)
If positive, treat with praziquantel
DM2 >35yo South Asian, Latin American and African
Iron-deficiency anemia with hemoglobin for women of reproductive age, and children 1-4yo
Dental disease (ask all if any pain, and look for evidence of disease)
Refer to dentist (and treat pain with NSAID)

743
Q

history to take with new immigrant

A

Medical Interpreter (consider CanTalk - telephone interpreter)
Document findings (scars)
Medication review, including alternative/herbal remedies
Infection
Consider malaria, TB, hepatitis, HIV, parasitic disease in differential
Chronic disease
Age-appropriate screening
Screening for immigrants as above (Hep B/C, TB, HIV, parasites, DM2, Iron-deficiency anemia, Dental)
Consider other screening
Sickle cell, Thalassemia
Vision
Mental Health
Depression, PTSD
Trauma (child neglect, genital mutilation, intimate partner violence, torture, abuse, war)
Culture/tradition/religion/gender roles
Women’s health
Contraception
Cervical cancer screening
HPV vaccine
Vaccination
Primary immunization schedule according to age (Tdap, MMRV, etc…)
Consider Hepatitis A/B
If positive for sickle cell or thalassemia
-Consider pneumococcal, H influenzae, meningococcal

744
Q

definition of obesity in adults

A

Adult BMI
≥25 Overweight
≥ 30 Obese class 1
≥ 35 Obese class 2
≥ 40 Obese class 3

Overestimated/underestimated depending on muscle:fat distribution
eg. South Asian criteria for BMI
≥23 Overweight
≥25 Obese

745
Q

comorbidities of obesity

A

Hypertension, diabetes, coronary artery disease, sleep apnea, osteoarthritis

746
Q

secondary causes of obesity

A

Endocrine (hypothyroidism, Cushing’s, PCOS)
Medications (insulin, sulfonylureas, antipsychotics)

747
Q

hx and pe of obesity

A

History and physical exam rule out secondary causes (Endocrine, OSA)
Vitals (Blood pressure)
Weight, height, waist circumference
Impact personal and social life
Rule out depression, eating disorder

748
Q

investigations in obesity

A

HbA1c or fasting blood glucose
Lipid profile
Consider Thyroid (avoid repeating if confirmed normal)

749
Q

non pharmalogical management of obesity

A

Readiness to change
Support
Multidisciplinary approach
Dietician
Personal Trainer
Psychology/Psychiatry (Cognitive behavioural therapy)
Obesity specialist/Endocrinologist
Lifestyle
Diet
May consider a weight los diet (reduction in dietary energy)
High protein - Low fat diet
Exercise
30 minutes daily of moderate intensity, increase to 60 minutes daily

BMI ≥30 (Obesity class 2-3) after lifestyle/behavioural changes have failed
Structured behavioural interventions (weight loss program)

750
Q

pharmacotherapy for BMI over 30 in obesity

A

Orlistat 120mg PO daily-TID
Stop medication if weight loss <5% at 3 months
No effect on mortality
Adverse effects: Bloating, steatorrhea, fecal incontinence
Lack of longterm safety data
Supplement with multivitamin 2h before or after medication
Consider GLP-1/SGLT2 for weight loss in diabetes (in addition to Metformin)

751
Q

when to consider bariatric surgery

A

BMI ≥ 40 or ≥ 35 with comorbidity (OA, OSA), consider Bariatric Surgery
Weight loss
Reduce prevalence of chronic disease (eg. DM, HTN, DLP, MSK pain - RR decrease by 25%)

752
Q

obesity in childhood definition

A

Normal - BMI < 85th percentile
Overweight- BMI > 85th percentile
Obese > 97th percentile
Severe Obesity >99th percentile

753
Q

management of obesity in children

A

Structured behavioural interventions
Family-wide changes in diet and activity (family-oriented behaviour therapy)
Avoid counterproductive interventions (e.g., berating or singling out the obese child)
Encourage positive reinforcement
Diet
Family meals
Healthy snacking
Decreased sugar consumption (juices, drinks)
Decrease portion size
Increase vegetables
Activity (WHO recommends 60 minutes moderate-vigorous daily)
Focus on fun/recreational activity
Limit screen time
Limit motorized transport
Limit time spent indoors
Limit sitting (eg. stroller)
Sleep

754
Q

when to do CT before LP

A

(r/o midline shift, hydrocephalus - enlarged ventricles, posterior fossa mass)
Do CT head prior to LP if any of the following (prevent brain herniation):
Age >60yo
Immuncompromised (HIV, immunosuppressive therapy)
CNS disease (mass lesion, stroke, or focal infection)
Seizure (new onset within 1 week)
Focal neurological deficit (excluding cranial nerve palsies)
Papilledema
Altered mental status (GCS<10)
Unable to answer two consecutive questions or follow two consecutive commands

755
Q

common bacterias and viruses causing meningitis

A

Neonates (0-1mo) = LEG
Listeria monocytogenes
E Coli
Group B Strep (S agalactiae)
>1mo = SHiN
S Pneumonia
H influenza
N Meningitidis
If >50yo or immunocompromised, alcoholism
Listeria monocytogenes
Viral (aseptic)
Enterovirus
HSV
Lyme (Borrelia burgdorferi)

756
Q

risk factors of bacterial meningitis

A

Age ≥65 years old, Neonates, Aboriginal groups, Students living in residence
Immunocompromised (16%), Alcoholism, IVDU
Infection
Recent otitis or sinusitis (25%), mastoiditis
Pneumonia (12%)
Endocarditis
Recent neurosurgery, Head trauma
Recent travel to area with endemic meningococcal disease (eg. sub-Saharan Africa)

recent abdominal surgery

757
Q

sx of meningitis

A

Headache, fever, neck stiffness, and altered mental status (two of the following 95% sensitive)
99% have at least one classic feature - thus absence of all four findings above essentially excludes bacterial meningitis
Nausea, vomiting
Photophobia
Seizure and focal neurologic deficits (especially in Listeria)
Rhombencephalitis (manifested as ataxia, cranial nerve palsies, and/or nystagmus)
Petechiae and palpable purpura (especially in N meningitidis)
Arthritis (especially in N meningitidis)

758
Q

physical exam findings of meningitis

A

Meningeal signs
Neck stiffness (31% sensitive)
Kernig’s (9%)
Inability or reluctance to allow full extension of the knee when the hip is flexed 90 degrees
Brudzinski (11%)
Spontaneous flexion of the hips during attempted passive flexion of the neck
Jolt accentuation (97%)
Accentuation of headache by horizontal rotation of the head at a frequency of two to three times per second
Bulging fontanelle in children
Neurological
Papilledema, seizure, focal deficit
Petechiae and palpable purpura

759
Q

treatment of meningitis

A

Droplet precautions (until 24h after antibiotics)
Empiric Antibiotics (do not delay beyond 1h if possible)
0-1mo: Ampicillin + Cefotaxime (or Ampicillin + aminoglycoside)
>1mo: Vancomycin + 3rd gen cephalosporin (Ceftriaxone 2g IV q12h or Cefotaxime 2g IV q4-6h)
Vancomycin 15-20mg/kg IV q8-12h (pre 4th dose trough levels 15-20mcg/mL) + Ceftriaxone 2g IV q12h
>50y: Add Ampicillin 2g IV q4h to cover Listeria monocytogenes
Dexamethasone 10mg q6h x 4 days if suspect S. pneumoniae (reduce mortality), or H influenzae (reduce hearing loss)
Best to administer prior or with initial antibiotic therapy
Consider Rifampin instead of vancomycin if bacteria not sensitive to ceftriaxone, as vancomycin may not enter CSF as well after steroids decreased inflammation
Consider Acyclovir if suspect HSV encephalitis (changes in personality, behaviour, cognition, AMS)
Consider covering for P. aeruginosa in immunocompromised with Cefepime or Meropenem 2g IV q8h
Consider covering for tuberculous and cryptococcal meningitis in immunocompromised

760
Q

true of false: in meningitis, Do not delay treatment for investigations, increase in mortality of 13% per hour of delay

A

T

761
Q

when to do LP in meningitis

A

Consider delaying LP if unstable, signs of herniation, coagulopathy, overlying infection,
If no concerns or negative CT head, proceed to lumbar puncture

762
Q

what to analyse in LP for meningitis

A

CSF opening pressure (if done in left lateral decubitus)
CSF leukocyte count, protein, glucose
CSF culture (70-85% positive, antibiotics decreases yield by 10-20%)
CSF Gram stain (60-90% positive with excellent specificity, yield decreases 20% if antibiotics)

Gram-positive rods and coccobacilli (think L monocytogenes) add Ampicillin
Gram-positive diplococci = pneumoccocal
Gram-negative diplococci = meningococcal
Small pleomorphic gram-negative coccobacilli = H influenzae

CSF PCR (Meningococcal, Pneumococcal, Enteroviral, HSV, VZV)
Consider CSF lactate and CRP to differentiate bacterial from aseptic (limited value if received antibiotic or CNS disease)

763
Q

note:
Neonates or immunocompromised may have normal CSF findings in bacterial meningitis
Consider using Clinical Decision Rule in children
L monocytogenes may present with CSF profile similar to viral, WBC >100 and normal glucose

A
764
Q

labs in meningitis

A

CBC
Electrolytes (Mild hyponatremia)
LFTs
Coags
VBG (AGMA)
Blood cultures x2 (60% positive) before first dose of antibiotics if possible
Consider
If sexual history or substance use: serum RPR, CSF VDRL, serum HIV Ab and HIV PCR
In children (to guide diagnosis): Serum CRP and pro-calcitonin
Throat swab for meningococcal culture

765
Q

prevention of meningitis and treatment of ppl in close contact

A

Droplet precautions
Chemoprophylaxis to close contacts and direct exposure to respiratory secretions
Contact public health for post-exposure prophylaxis for close contacts (7d prior to symptom onset until 24h treatment)

N meningititidis (>8h close contact or oral secretions)
-Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO x1, Rifampin 600mg PO q12h x2d, Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x1

H influenzae (household with unvaccinated)
-Rifampin

Vaccination (H influenzae B, Pneumococcal, N Meningitidis)

Pregnancy
-Pen G to cover GBS as indicated
-Avoid soft cheeses with unpasteurized milk, raw sprouts, melons, cold cuts, smoked seafood (Listeria monocytogenes)

766
Q

Anorexia nervosa definition

A

Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight (BMI<18.5 or <5th percentile in children, or rate of weight loss) in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health.
Intense fear of gaining weight or of becoming fat, or persistent behavior that interferes with weight gain, even though at a significantly low weight.
Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or persistent lack of recognition of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
Subtypes
Restricting type: During the last 3 months, the individual has not engaged in recurrent episodes of binge eating or purging behavior (i.e., self-induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas). This subtype describes presentations in which weight loss is accomplished primarily through dieting, fasting, and/or excessive exercise.
Binge-eating/purging type: During the last 3 months, the individual has engaged in recurrent episodes of binge eating or purging behavior (i.e., self-induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas).

767
Q

Bulimia Nervosa (BN) diagnostic criteria

A

A. Recurrent episodes of binge eating, as characterized by both:
Eating, within any 2-hour period, an amount of food that is definitively larger than what most individuals would eat in a similar period of time under similar circumstances.
A feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating.

B. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors in order to prevent weight gain such as self-induced vomiting; misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications; fasting or excessive exercise.

C. The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors occur, on average, at least once a week for 3 months

D. Self-evaluation is unjustifiability influenced by body shape and weight.

E. The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

Specify if:
Partial remission: After full criteria were previously met, some but not all of the criteria have been met for a sustained period of time.
Full remission: After full criteria were previously met, none of the criteria have been met for a sustained period of time.

Current severity1:
Mild: An average of 1–3 episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week.
Moderate: An average of 4–7 episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week.
Severe: An average of 8–13 episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week.
Extreme: An average of 14 or more episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviors per week.

768
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) diagnostic criteria

A

An eating or feeding disturbance (e.g., apparent lack of interest in eating or food; avoidance based on the sensory characteristics of food; concern about aversive consequences of eating) as manifested by persistent failure to meet appropriate nutritional and/or energy needs associated with one (or more) of the following:
Significant weight loss (or failure to achieve expected weight gain or faltering growth in children).
Significant nutritional deficiency.
Dependence on enteral feeding or oral nutritional supplements.
Marked interference with psychosocial functioning.
The disturbance is not better explained by lack of available food or by an associated culturally sanctioned practice.
The eating disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, and there is no evidence of a disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The eating disturbance is not attributable to a concurrent medical condition or not better explained by another mental disorder. When the eating disturbance occurs in the context of another condition or disorder, the severity of the eating disturbance exceeds that routinely associated with the condition or disorder and warrants additional clinical attention.

769
Q

screening questions to ask patients with eating disorder

A

Does your weight/body shape cause you stress?
Recent weight changes?
Dieted in the last year?
SCOFF
Do you make yourself Sick (induce vomiting) because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you worry that you have lost Control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than One stone (14 lb {6.4 kg}) in a three-month period?
Do you think you are too Fat, even though others say you are too thin?
Would you say that Food dominates your life?

ate/amount of weight loss
Dietary intake (quantity, restriction)
Compensatory behaviour (vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, exercise)
Attitudes about weight / Body image
Mood symptoms, suicidality
Menstrual history
Associated symptoms

770
Q

Risk Factors of eating disorder

A

Early puberty
Poor or abnormal growth curves in children and adolescents
Low or high body mass index, or weight fluctuations
Weight concerns among normal weight individuals
Activities and occupations that emphasize body, shape, and weight (e.g. ballet, gymnastics, modeling)
Amenorrhea (primary or secondary)
Type 1 diabetes
Family history of ED

771
Q

associated physical sx of ED

A

Exertional or chronic fatigue, weakness, dizziness, pre/syncope, hot flashes, cold intolerance, depression
Cardio: Palpitations, CP, SOB, peripheral edema
Dental: Tooth pain (decay/cavities), mucosal bleeding/trauma and parotid gland enlargement
GI: Abdominal pain, early satiety, bloating, constipation
Endo: Amenorrhea, decreased libido, infertility
Derm: Hair loss, brittle nail and skin changes, poor healing

772
Q

physical exam findings of of ED

A

Vital Signs (eg. HR<60, BP<90/60, Temp<36)
Orthostatic vitals (supine, standing)
General Appearance
Height/Weight and BMI; weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared
Hydration status
HEENT
Enlargement of parotid or submandibular salivary glands in BN
Dental erosion due to frequent vomiting
Cardiac, r/o murmur
Skin
Brittle hair and fingernails
Lanugo hair
Dry skin
Pretibial edema
Russell sign (callous on MCP from teeth abrasion during self-induced emesis)
MSK
Muscle strength
Sit-up Squat Stand test (muscle weakness)

773
Q

investigations for ED

A

EKG
Bradycardia, non-specific ST-T wave changes including ST segment depression, U waves in the presence of hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
CBC (hemoglobin, leukocytes, platelets)
Serum electrolytes (Na, K, Glucose, Blood urea nitrogen, Creatinine, Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphate)
TSH, T4, T3
Liver function tests (AST, ALT, bilirubin)
Amylase/lipase
Albumin, transferrin
UA
BhCG r/o pregnancy
Consider celiac screen

If underweight > 6 months
Bone densitometry to assess for osteopenia and osteoporosis
Abdominal ultrasound to assess maturity of ovaries and uterus
FSH, LH, and estradiol levels in females
Testosterone levels in males

774
Q

non pharmalogical treatment of ED

A

Medical stabilization
Assess outpatient vs. admission if needed for safety
Assess and treat coexisting psychiatric conditions (MDE, anxiety, substance use)
Nutritional rehabilitation with multidisciplinary approach
Family-based treatment
Individual Psychotherapy, FBT/CBT
Psychiatry
Dietician / nutritional rehab
School
Support groups / resources
Target weight range in AN (90% of expected weight)
Gradual weight gain in AN (1lb/week)
Limit exercise
Regular appointments with vitals, weight/BMI, and blood tests repeated
Complications (tooth decay, amenorrhea, electrolyte)
Disease activity (eating patterns, exercise, laxative)

775
Q

pharmacotherapy of ED

A

SSRI / Fluoxetine at higher doses (60mg/d) in BN
Multivitamins with iron and Vitamin D
Consider Zinc 50mg PO daily (aids in weight gain)
Treat acne (as patient re-experience puberty as they gain weight)

776
Q

indication for hospitalization

A

suicide risk, food refusal
Vitals unstable
Core temperature < 35.5°C or 95.5°F
Heart rate < 40 beats per minute or severe bradycardia
Blood pressure < 90/60 mm Hg or orthostatic hypotension
ECG arrhythmia
Electrolyte abnormalities
Sodium < 127 mmol/l
Potassium < 2.3 mmol/l
Hypoglycaemia; blood glucose < 2.5 mmol/l
Hypophosphataemia; phosphorous below normal on fasting
Magnesium < 0.6 mmol/l (normal above 0.7 mmol/l)
Rapid and progressive weight loss
Acute medical complications of malnutrition
Signs of inadequate cerebral perfusion (confusion, syncope, loss or decreased level of consciousness, organic brain syndrome, ophthalmoplegia, seizure, ataxia)
Seizure
Heart failure
Pancreatitis
Severe acrocyanosis
Dehydration that does not reverse within 48 hrs
Muscular weakness
Comorbid psychiatric or medical (poorly controlled diabetes type 1)
Pregnancy with an at risk foetus
Inadequate weight gain, failure of outpatient treatment

777
Q

indication for hospitalization

A

suicide risk, food refusal
Vitals unstable
Core temperature < 35.5°C or 95.5°F
Heart rate < 40 beats per minute or severe bradycardia
Blood pressure < 90/60 mm Hg or orthostatic hypotension
ECG arrhythmia
Electrolyte abnormalities
Sodium < 127 mmol/l
Potassium < 2.3 mmol/l
Hypoglycaemia; blood glucose < 2.5 mmol/l
Hypophosphataemia; phosphorous below normal on fasting
Magnesium < 0.6 mmol/l (normal above 0.7 mmol/l)
Rapid and progressive weight loss
Acute medical complications of malnutrition
Signs of inadequate cerebral perfusion (confusion, syncope, loss or decreased level of consciousness, organic brain syndrome, ophthalmoplegia, seizure, ataxia)
Seizure
Heart failure
Pancreatitis
Severe acrocyanosis
Dehydration that does not reverse within 48 hrs
Muscular weakness
Comorbid psychiatric or medical (poorly controlled diabetes type 1)
Pregnancy with an at risk foetus
Inadequate weight gain, failure of outpatient treatment

778
Q

risks associated with refeeding syndrome

A

Metabolic changes during refeeding of a malnourished patient
Risk of hypophosphatemia leading to heart failure, arrhythmia, respiratory failure
Prevent with careful slow refeeding/monitoring and phosphate supplementation

779
Q

Diagnosis of menopause

A

Perimenopause
Irregular periods and VMS until menopause
Menopause
>45yo and no period for 12 consecutive months and not using contraception
If no uterus, diagnose based on symptoms
Consider FSH <40-45yo
If elevated FSH on 2 blood samples 4-6w apart and <40yo, diagnose premature ovarian insufficiency

780
Q

6 sx of menopause

A

Vasomotor symptoms (VMS)
Hot flashes, sweats
Genitourinary syndrome of menopause (GSM) - previously vulvovaginal atrophy
Urinary frequency/urgency/incontinence, dysuria
Vaginal dryness/burning/pruritus, post-coital bleeding, sexual dysfunction, dyspareunia
Mood, irritability
Sleep changes
Joint and muscle pain

781
Q

non pharmalogical treatment of menopause

A

Healthy weight
Diet (low sodium, low sugars - increase vegetables/fibers)
Avoid VMS triggers (hot drinks, alcohol, caffeine)
Exercise >150mins moderate-vigorous per week
Routine Vitamin D +/- calcium
STOP Smoking, alcohol
Optimize sleep, relationship, mood
Assess for HTN/DM/DLP

782
Q

pharmalogical tx for menopause, VMS

A

Hormone replacement therapy first-line if <60yo or <10y past menopause (can be continued beyond 65yo in cases where risk>benefit)
Offer choice of preparations
Estrogen-progesterone (EP) or tissue-selective estrogen complex (eg. Duavive)

Transdermal
Climara Pro (matrix patch) 45mcg Estradiol + 15mcg LNG once weekly
Estalis 50mcg Estradiol + 140mcg NETA (or 250mcg NETA) twice weekly

Oral
FemHRT 2.5mcg EE + 0.5mg NETA once daily
Premplus continuous 0.625mg CE + 2.5mg MPA (or 5mg MPA) once daily
Premplus cycle 0.625mg CE + 10mg MPA 2 tabs once daily

If post-hysterectomy (no need for endometrial protection), estrogen only

If comorbidities (Diabetes mellitus, HTN, smoking, obesity, DLP/CVD risk, gallstones), Transdermal preparation recommended

Consider off-label transdermal testosterone therapy for menopausal women with low sexual desire if HRT alone is not effective
Consider tissue-selective estrogen complexes (eg. Duavive) for breast/endometrial safety
Non-hormonal (Clonidine, Pregabalin, SSRI, SNRI) are second-line, if failed HRT or contraindicated

783
Q

contraindications of HRT

A

unexplained vaginal bleeding, pregnancy, history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease, a previous venous thromboembolic event or stroke, or active liver disease

784
Q

Risks per 1000 women with five years of hormone use (HRT for VMS)

A

Coronary heart disease (CHD) – 2.5 additional cases
Invasive breast cancer – 3 additional cases
Stroke – 2.5 additional cases
Pulmonary embolism – 3 additional cases
Colorectal cancer – 0.5 fewer cases
Endometrial cancer – no difference
Hip fracture – 1.5 fewer cases
All-cause mortality – 5 fewer events

785
Q

treatment of genitourinary sx of menopause

A

Water-based lubricants/moisturizer (equivalent to vaginal estrogen in a recent RCT)
Vaginal estrogen (even if on systemic HRT)
Estradiol 10mcg intravaginal tablet (Vagifem) daily x 2 weeks, then twice per week
Estradiol 2mg intravaginal ring (Estring) in place for 90 days
Estradiol 0.1mg/g cream (Estrace) 2-4g daily x 1-2w, then half dose 1-2 weeks, then maintenance dose of 1g 1-3x/week
Conjugated estrogens 0.625mg/g cream (Premarin), dose 0.5-2g cream twice weekly (or cyclic 21 days on, 7 days off)
CBT for mood and anxiety
Limited evidence (efficacy and safety) for complementary and alternative medicine

786
Q

CV comorbidities of CAD

A

CKD, Stroke, peripheral vascular disease, heart failure, valvular heart disease

787
Q

initial tests for stable coronary disease

A

Hb, full cholesterol panel, fasting glucose, HbA1c, creatinine, LFT, TSH, 12 lead EKG

788
Q

in suspicion of CAD< who should go for non invasive testing

A

adults over 30 yo with 2-3 angina criteria
men over 40 or women over 60 with 1 of 3 anginal features

men under 40 and women under 60 with only 1 of 3 anginal features with CV risk (abnormal baseline EKG, DB, smoking, DLP, HTN, chronic kidney disease)

789
Q

for dx of CAD which are the non invasive testing options

A

treadmill exercise testing with 12 lead ECG and BP monitoring

if cannot exercise:
consider pharmalogical testing with vasodilator perfusion imaging or dobutamine echocardiography

if LBBB or ventricular paced rhythm consider vasodilator perfusion imaging (with adenosine or persantine)

in pts with very low pre test probability: cardiac CT angiography can be considered
-avoid if arrythmia, significant renal dysfct or contreast media allx

790
Q

all patients with suspicion of stable ischemic heart disease should have rest left ventricular function test

A

true

791
Q

classical chest pain 3 features

A

Dull RSCP (discomfort, heaviness, aching, pressure; not changing in intensity with inspiration, cough or position change; with or without radiation into jaw, neck, shoulders, arms)
Provoked by exertion or emotional stress (lying down, post-prandially)
Relieved within <5 min by rest or Nitroglycerin.
Non-classical symptoms might include: SOB(OE), N/V, diaphoresis, fatigue, dizziness

Atypical chest pain in DM, women, patients without risk factors (eg. young)
New CP
Duration >20 min
Occurrence at rest

792
Q

8 modifiable RF of ischemic heart disease

A

Smoking
DLP
DM2
CKD
HTN
Obesity or Metabolic syndrome
Physical Inactivity
Diet
Depression

793
Q

4 non modifiable RF of CVD

A

Age
Sex (male)
Ethnicity (Hispanic, Native American, African American, Asian)
Family history of premature CVD (1st degree relative, <55yo men, <65yo women)

794
Q

criterias to do non invasive testing for dx of CAD

A

All ≥30 years of age with ⅔ or more anginal features → noninvasive testing
Men ≥ 40 and women ≥ 60 years of age with ⅓ anginal features → noninvasive testing

795
Q

criterias for low test probability (<7%) of ischemic heart disese

A

Men <40 or Women <60 + ⅓ symptoms → assess for other causes, non-invasive testing not recommended
Consider non-invasive testing only if other risk factors (abnormal baseline ECG, diabetes, smoking, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, chronic kidney disease)

796
Q

when to consider coronary angiography in CAD (not ACS)

A

Indicated if
High pretest probability of stable ischemic heart disease
High-risk features on non-invasive testing
Persistent symptoms or inadequate QOL despite optimal medical treatment
History of ACS
Life-threatening arrhythmias

797
Q

non pharmalogical management of stable ischemic heart disease

A

Counselling
Review treatment options
Medication adherence for symptom relief and prevent disease progression
Explanation of CV risk
Treat any concurrent DM2 or DLP or HTN
Lifestyle
Smoking cessation
Weight loss
Diet (high intake of vegetables, whole grains, fresh fruit; reduce salt, saturated/trans fat)
Physical activity (150 min/week of moderate or vigorous activity)
Assess and manage stress/depression
Red flags when to seek medical care
Non-invasive testing as above within 2w
Then referral to cardiologist/specialist within further 6w

referral to a comprehensive cardiac rehab program

798
Q

meidcation improving prognosisi of ischemic heart diseease

A

ASA 81mg (or Clopidogrel 75mg if ASA intolerance)
High-intensity Statin (eg. Rosuvastin 20-40mg daily, Atorvastatin 80mg daily)
ACEI (or ARB) if HTN, DM2, CKD, LVEF ≤ 40%
b blocker
Revascularization therapy (PCI or CABG) in patients who underwent coronary angiography

799
Q

sx relief of ischenic heart disease

A

Nitroglycerin (short-acting) 0.4mg SL tab or spray q5 mins PRN, seek prompt medical attention if pain persists after 3 doses
Beta-blockers especially if prior MI, HF, LVEF ≤ 40%, eg. Bisoprolol, target HR 55-60 bpm
If cannot tolerate BB or symptomatic on monotherapy, start/combine
Long-acting CCB (eg. Amlodipine or Diltiazem)
Avoid non-dihydropyridine CCB in combination with BB if risk of AV block and excessive bradycardia
Nitroglycerin transdermal patch 0.2mg/hour titrate up to 0.8mg/hour (remember to remove patch 12-14h, eg. apply 8AM-8PM)

800
Q

what to assess during FU of stable ischemic heart disease

A

Severity and progression of symptoms
Impact on daily function and QOL
NYHA Class I-IV
Complications of CAD (arrhythmia, heart failure, ACS)
Medication compliance
Appropriate use of medication (Nitro SL prn)

ECG if symptom change or annually
Routine CBC, creat, FBG/HbA1c, lipids

801
Q

in patients with suspicion of SIHD, within how long should pt have non invasive testing and specialist assessment

A

Non-invasive testing as above within 2w
Then referral to cardiologist/specialist within further 6w
revascularization if indicated within 6 w

802
Q

when to give bblocker to pts with SIHD

A

chronic stable angina with MI, or reduced LVEF or heart failure

target HR 55-60

GIve bblocker or long acting CCB chronic stable angina in uncomplicated patients

if not tolerated, add long acting nitrate

803
Q

when should optimization of medical therapy be achieved after initial evaluation

A

within 12-16 weeks

804
Q

initial management of ACS

A

ABC vitals, exam

ASA 160-325 mg to chew
O2 for sat over 90%
12 lead EKG
activate cardiac cath lab
morphine for pain control
nitroglycerin sublingual or spray
IV access

cardiac markers, CBC, coag studies, CXR

805
Q

management of STEMI

A

PCI goal of 90 minutes

door to needle fibrinolysis goal of 30 min

nitro
heparin
Acei
statin
consider: b blocker, clopidogrel, glycoprotein 2b/3a inh

806
Q

NSTEMI management

A

consider early invasive strategy if:
refractory ischemic chest pain
recurrent or persistent ST deviation
V tach
hemodynamic instability
signs of Heart failure

start tx: nitro
heparin
Acei
statin
consider: b blocker, clopidogrel, glycoprotein 2b/3a inh

807
Q

in ED management of low/intermediate risk ACS

A

consider admisison for CP
serial cardiac markers
repeat EKG, telemetry
consider non invasive dx test

808
Q

ddx of syncope

A

Reflex (neurally-mediated) syncope

Orthostatic syncope

Cardiac arrhythmias

Structural cardiopulmonary disease

Pseudosyncope

Seizure

Sleep disturbances

Accidental falls

Psychiatric

809
Q

investigation for LOC

A

EKG

Orthostatic BP

Sustained decrease in sBP ≥20 mmHg or dBP ≥10 mmHg within 3 min of assuming upright posture

Labs (only if indicated)

Consider CBC, BhCG, troponin

Cardiac (if abnormal EKG or suspect cardiac)

Consider echocardiogram if abnormal EKG or suspect structural abnormality

Consider Holter 24-48h only if symptoms reoccur daily

Consider carotid sinus massage if >40yo and no contraindications
-Patient supine 5-10 seconds of massage to each carotid sinus (start with right)
-Positive if asystolic or ventricular pause > 3s or decrease in sBP of 50 mm Hg
-If negative, repeat with patient upright at approximately 60 to 70 degrees
-Avoid in recent stroke/TIA <3mo or if carotid bruits

Neurologic (only if suspect epilepsy, focal neuro deficit)
-Consider EEG, CT head

810
Q

criterias of high risk of syncope with hospital recommended

A

Clinical history suggestive of arrhythmic syncope (e.g., syncope during exercise, palpitations, or without warning or prodrome)

Comorbidities (e.g., severe anemia, electrolyte abnormalities)

ECG suggestive of arrhythmic syncope (e.g., bifascicular block, sinus bradycardia < 40 beats per minute in absence of sinoatrial block or medication use, QRS preexcitation, abnormal QT interval, ST segment elevation leads V1- V3 [Brugada pattern], negative T wave in right precordial leads and epsilon wave [arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy])

Family history of sudden death

Hypotension (sBP < 90 mm Hg)

Older age

Severe structural heart disease, congestive heart failure, or coronary artery disease

811
Q

EKG suggestive of arrhythmic syncope

A

bifascicular block, sinus bradycardia < 40 beats per minute in absence of sinoatrial block or medication use, QRS preexcitation, abnormal QT interval, ST segment elevation leads V1- V3 [Brugada pattern], negative T wave in right precordial leads and epsilon wave [arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy

812
Q

low risk criterias of syncope

A

Age less than 50 years

No history of cardiovascular disease

Normal electrocardiographic findings

Symptoms consistent with neurally mediated or orthostatic hypotension syncope

Unremarkable cardiovascular findings

813
Q

low risk criterias of syncope

A

Age less than 50 years

No history of cardiovascular disease

Normal electrocardiographic findings

Symptoms consistent with neurally mediated or orthostatic hypotension syncope

Unremarkable cardiovascular findings

814
Q

non pharmalogical management of syncope

A

Education and reassurance

Avoid triggers

Lying down quickly with onset of presyncope

Salt and water intake

Removal of offending medications

Counter-pressure manoeuvers (leg-crossing, limb/abdominal contractions, squatting), compression garments, and head-up tilt sleeping

assess fitness to drive (can drive right away if single episode of typical vasovagal syncope, otherwise 1 month if recurrent)

815
Q

phamracological management of syncope and orthostatic hypotension

A

Fludrocortisone 0.2mg PO daily or Midodrine 5-15mg PO TID (eg. q4h)

816
Q

important questions to ask in LOC

A

duration, trauma, preexisting conditions, drugs, toxins, medications and seizure activity

817
Q

Examine unconscious patients for localizing and diagnostic signs (e.g., ketone smell, liver flap, focal neurologic signs).

In patients with a loss of consciousness and a history of head trauma, rule out intracranial bleeding.
In patients with a loss of consciousness who are anticoagulated, rule out intracranial bleeding.

A
818
Q

Assess and treat unconscious patients urgently for reversible conditions (name 5)

A

shock, hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, and narcotic overdose)

819
Q

syncope ddx

A

arrythmia, VT, VF, AV block
Ao stenosis, hypertrophic hypermyopathy, myxoma, PE
CHF, cardiomyopthy
vasovagal, orthostatic, acs, arrythmia, ao dissection, valvular disease HF, hypoglycemia

meds: alpha blocker ,antihypertensives, b blockers, CCB, diuretics, antiepileptic, nitrates

820
Q

red flags of syncope

A

cp, palpitations, dyspnea, HA, no warning or during exertion or supine without warning, p,hx cvd, fx hx sudden death

821
Q

statin indicated conditions

A

DB2: age over 40, over 30 yo with 15 y duration (type 1), microvasc disease
AAA over 3 cm or previous surgery
clinical atherosclerosis (MI, ACS, angina, over 10% stenoses, stroke, TIA, carotid disease, PADm claudication or ABI below 0.9)
CKD (over 3 months, ACR ober 3, eGFR under 60)

822
Q

indications to start statin

A

FRS over 20%
FRS 10% -19% with LDL over 3.5 or Non HDL over 4.3 or apoB over 1.2
-or men over 50 or women over 60 with additional RF: low HDL C, impaired fasting glucose, high waist circumference, smoker, HTN

statin indicated conditions

LDL over 5 (genetic dlp)

823
Q

health modifications to decrease cholesterol

A

exercise 150 min per week (mod to vigourous)
smoking cessation
mediterranean diet

824
Q

target LDL, apoB or non HDL after starting a statin

A

LDL-c under 2 or 50% reduction
apoB under 0,8 g/L or non HDL C under 2.6 mmol/L

825
Q

if pt on statin and target not achieved, what to add on

A

-target maximally tolerated dose of statin

consider add on:
-ezetimibe as 1st line
-BAS as alternative
-for statin indicated conditions: consider PCSK9

826
Q

who to screen for DLP

A

men and women over 40 yo
women post menopausal

until 75 yo

regardless of age:
clinical evidence of atherosclerosis
AAA
DB2
arterial HTN
smoking
stigmata of dlp (arcus cornea, xanthelasma, xanhoma)
family hx of premature CVD
family hx of DLP
CKD
obesity
IBD
HIV infx
erectile dysfct
COPD
hypertensive dz of pregnancy

automatically high risk if pre existing CVD

827
Q

risk assessment of DLP tool

A

Framingham (2x risk if first degree relative F<65yo or M<55yo)

Sex, Age, Total Chol, HDL, Smoker, sBP (or if treated)

QRISK2 if CKD

828
Q

tests to do in dlp

A

screening;
LDL-c, TC, HDL-C, TG, non HDL-C, glucose, eGFR
optional: apoB, UCR

eGFR, A1c, TSH

829
Q

which statin to use in DLP

A

Rosuvastatin 2.5mg, 5-10mg, 20-40mg PO daily (Cheapest)

Alternatives: Atorvastatin, Simvastatin, Lovastatin, Avoid Pravastatin in >65yo risk of cancer

830
Q

what to do if pt has myalgias with statin

A

Stop statin, follow CK until normal, consider restarting at lower dose / different statin / referral

Consider baseline CK, ALT but generally NOT needed to be followed

CK or ALT levels only if symptomatic or high risk of adverse events

831
Q

do you need to monitor FLP after starting statins

A

Cholesterol target for reducing CVD NOT required (statins have been shown to reduce risk regardless of LDL)

Monitoring lipid levels during therapy NOT required

Note: CCS guidelines still recommend LDL targets despite no conclusive data for using targets

LDL-C <2 mmol/L or >50% reduction

Alternative target variables are apoB < 0.8 g/L or non-HDL-C < 2.6 mmol/L

832
Q

in ACLS when to defibrillate

A

fibrillation (V fib), or pulseless or symptomatic ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

833
Q

treatment of digoxin toxicity

A

EKG: Many arrhythmias (eg. PVCs, ventricrular bigeminy/trigeminy, slow Afib, sinus brady, AV block, regularized AF, VT)

Suspect in bradycardia and GI symptoms

Consider activated charcoal if <2h, alert and protected airway

Treat arrhythmia, end organ dysfunction or hyperkalemia with antidote digoxin-specific antibody (Fab) fragments (Digibind)

If antidote not available, can use atropine 0.5mg IV for bradycardia

834
Q

cocaine intox management

A

EKG: Tachycardia +/- ischemic changes

ABC, vitals

Airway management (avoid succinylcholine, consider rocuronium or other nondepolarizing agent)

Manage hypothermia/hyperthermia

Diazepam 5mg IV q3-5 mins for agitation (and hypertension)

Phentolamine 1-5mg IV for hypertension

Avoid beta-blockers

Sodium bicarbonate 1-2mEq/kg IV push for QRS widening

Look for emergencies (eg. arrythmias, seizures, ICH, ACS, dissection, arterial thromboembolism)

835
Q

BLS principles and how to do compressions

A

nspecter les lieux (sécurité du site), le patient
Identifier l’arrêt cardiaque: état de conscience, vérifier pouls pendant max 10 sec (carotidien chez adulte) et respiration (agonale) en même temps
Demander de l’aide, 911 (services préhospitaliers d’urgence ou équipe de réanimation) et DEA
Massage (en l’absence de pouls) et DEA
C: Compressions
100-120 par minute, entre 5-6 cm, relaxation thoracique après chaque compression
30 compressions pour 2 insufflations ou 3 x 200 compressions avec insufflateur passif d’O2
A: Voies respiratoires
Ouvrir voies aériennes en basculant la tête avec soulèvement du menton OU subluxation mandibulaire
Restriction de la mobilité cervicale manuelle
Collier cervical par SMU
B: Ventilation (1 insufflation par seconde)
2 x 1 sec en 10 sec max, entre 2 cycles
Si advanced airway: q 6 secondes pendant les compressions
Si IPO: faire 200 compressions avant
Dès que DEA arrive:
Vérifier si c’est un rythme défibrillable: choquer si oui
RCR 2 min
Revérifier avec DEA et choquer

836
Q

opioid intox BLS management

A

Évaluer état de conscience, appeler 911, obtenir DEA et naloxone
Vérifier si le pt respire ou non, ou respi agonale
RCR 2min
Naloxone 2 mg intranasale ou 0.4 mg IM q 4 min
Répéter et utiliser DEA dès que c’est dispo

837
Q

FV TV no pulse ACLS algorhytm

A

Donner de l’O2
Fixer le dispositif de surveillance ou le défibrillateur
Défibrillation biphasique Choc 200 J (dire: Défibrillateur en charge! Je vais choquer à 3. Je suis prêt à choquer (s’assurer qu’il n’y a personne autour).)
RCR en continue x 2 min
Massage RCR en continue
Ouvrir 2 grosses voies antécubitales
Trouver les causes réversibles
Ventilation q 6-8 secondes avec O2 maximale et envisager intubation, capnographie
Épinéphrine 1 mg et finir cycle de 2 min.
Choc 200 J
Amiodarone 300 mg et cycle de 2 min.
Choc 200 J
Épinéphrine 1 mg et cycle de 2 min
Choc 200 J
Amiodarone 150 mg et cycle de 2 min
Choc 200 J
Épinéphrine 1 mg et cycle de 2 min
Choc 200 J
Lidocaïne 1.5 mg/ kg et cycle de 2 min
Choc 200 J
Épinéphrine 1 mg et cycle de 2 min
Choc 200 J
Lidocaïne 0.75 mg/ kg et cycle de 2 min

838
Q

asystoly ou PEA management

A

Donner de l’O2
Fixer le système de surveillance ou défibrillateur
Rythme défibrillable: choc; si asystolie, AESP: RCR 2 min
Massage RCR en continue
Ouvrir 2 voies antécubitales et intra-osseux PRN
Épinéphrine 1 mg q 3-5 min
Envisager intubation, capnographie
Défibriller après 2 min si défibrillable
Trouver les causes et traiter les causes de DEM, AESP
6 H/6T

839
Q

6H and 6 T in PEA

A

6 H:
Hypothermie
Viser 35 degré
Acidose
Bic IV
Hypoglycémie
Glucose IV
Hypo ou hyperkaliémie
Hypo: 1 perf de K
Hyper: chlorure de calcium, hyperventilation, bic 1 meq/ kg, insuline et glucose IV
Hypoxie:
intuber
Hypovolémie
Crystalloïdes
6T:
Pneumothorax sous tension, trachée déviée
décompression immédiate à l’aiguille par l’insertion d’une aiguille de gros calibre (p. ex., 14 ou 16) dans le deuxième espace intercostal sur la ligne médio-claviculaire
Vérifier DT 5e espace mid-axillaire
Tamponnade
Péricardiocentèse à l’aiguille
Trauma
ATLS
Trouver le saignement
Toxicologie DDR
Thrombose cardiaque IDM
Thrombolyse, coro
Thrombose pulmonaire
Thrombolyse ou embolectomie chirurgicale

840
Q

soins post arret cardiaque ACLS

A

Fio2 minimale pour sat ≥ 94%
Envisager intubation et capnographie, ne pas hyperventiler
Traiter/éviter hypotension (MAP<65mmHg, systolique <90mmHg)
Bolus 1-2L LR IV, IO
perfusion d’adrénaline IV 0.1-0.5 microgramme par kg par min
OU perfusion dopamine IV 5-10 microgramme par Kg par min
OU perfusion noradrénaline IV 0.1 à 0.5 microgramme par kg par min
Traiter causes traitables
ECG 12 dérivations:
si IM STEMI: reperfusion coronarienne
Gestion ciblée de la température (viser 32 à 26 C en 24 h)
Soins intensifs

841
Q

tachycarda with pulse QRS fin ACLS

A

Déterminer et traiter la cause sous-jacente
Garder les voies aériennes dégagées, O2, ventilation PRN
Moniteur cardiaque pour déterminer le rythme, surveiller la pression artérielle et l’oxymétrie
Si persistante avec hypotension, altération état d’éveil, signes d’un choc, inconfort thoracique ischémique, insuffisance cardiaque aiguë
Sédation si possible: (ex) diazépam, fentanyl
Cardioversion synchronisé ss sédation
À complexe étroit synchronisé: 50-100 J
À complexe étroit irréguliers: 120-200 J en biphasique ou 200 J en monophasique
FA: 120-200 J
TV 100J
TSV, Flutter: 50-100J
Dire défibrillateur charge!, appuyer sur charge
Je vais choquer à 3!, je suis prête à choquer!
Si tachy persiste, augmenter le niveau d’énergie et rechoquer
Si tachycardie à complexes étroits réguliers, envisager adénosine 6 mg IV push suivi de rinçage avec du soluté physiologique
Si pas de hypotension, altération état d’éveil, signes d’un choc, inconfort thoracique ischémique, insuffisance cardiaque aiguë:
Accès IV et ECG à 12 dérivations
Viser FC 220-âge
Tachycardie avec pouls réguliers (>150 bpm) QRS fin
SI pas de souffles carotidiens:
Manoeuvres vagales par massage du sinus carotidien
Vérifier si FC baisse
Adénosine 6 mg IV push (suivi par rinçage soluté physiologique)
Adénosine 12 mg-12 mg IV
Métoprolol 5 mg IV en 5 min
OU vérapamil 2.5 mg IV en 15 min
OU Diltiazem 0.25 mg/ kg IV en 2 min
OU amiodarone 450 mg IV en 30 min
Tachycardie avec pouls irrégulier QRS fin (FA, extrasystoles, > 150 bpm)
Accès IV et ECG à 12 dérivations
Métoprolol 5 mg IV en 5 min OU Diltiazem 0.25 mg/ kg en 2 min

842
Q

Tachycardie avec pouls QRS large (> 150 bpm, QRS 0.12 sec+)

A

Déterminer et traiter la cause sous-jacente
Garder les voies aériennes dégagées, O2, ventilation PRN
Moniteur cardiaque pour déterminer le rythme, surveiller la pression artérielle et l’oxymétrie
Si persistante avec hypotension, altération état d’éveil, signes d’un choc, inconfort thoracique ischémique, insuffisance cardiaque aiguë
Cardioversion synchronisée ss sédation
À complexe large synchronisé?: 100 J
À complexe large irréguliers: Défibrillation non synchronisée 200 J
Si pas de persistante avec hypotension, altération état d’éveil, signes d’un choc, inconfort thoracique ischémique, insuffisance cardiaque aiguë
Accès IV et ECG à 12 dérivations si disponible
Tachycardie avec pouls, régulier, QRS large (> 150 bpm, QRS 0.12 sec+)
Adénosine 6mg IV push puis rinçage IV avec soluté physiologique-12 mg -12 mg
Sinon: Amiodarone 150 mg en 10 min, répéter PRN. Puis perfusion d’entretien 1-4 mg par min
OU Procaïnamide 20-50 mg/min IV, puis entretien de 1-4 mg par min
OU sotalol 100 mg (1.5 mg/ kg) IV en 5 min (ATT pour torsade de pointe)
Envisager de consulter un spécialiste
SI Tachycardie avec pouls irrégulier QRS large (> 150 bpm)
Défibrillation (idem FV/TV) car tachycardie pré-code
Traiter la cause sous-jacente

843
Q

Bradycardie avec pouls (< 50 bpm)
ACLS

A

Évaluer condition clinique
Déterminer et tx cause ss-jacente (garder voies aériennes dégagées, oxygène, moniteur cardiaque, pression artérielle, oxymétrie, accès IV, ECG à 12 dérivations)
Si bradyarythmie non persistante: Surveiller et observer
Si bradyarythmie persistante causant hypoTA, altération marquée état conscience, signes choc, DRS, IC aigue…
Atropine: Bolus de 0,5 mg, répéter toutes les 3 à 5 minutes, dose max 3 mg
Après 20 min, on peut retenter atropine ad 3mg
** risque de ne pas être efficace pour Mobitz 2 et BAV 3
Atropine inefficace:
Perfusion IV dopamine (2 à 20 microgram par kg par min)
Perfusion IV adrénaline (2 à 10 microgram par min)
Envisager consultation d’un spécialiste + stimulation transveineuse transcutanée (bloc AV mobitz 2, BAV 3)

844
Q

anaphylaxie management

A

Épinéphrine 0.3 mg adulte au tiers proximal cuisse en antéro-latéral q 5-15 min
Sinon, Bolus IV de 0.05-0.1mg aux 5-15 min avec monitoring hémodynamique
Perfusion si choc régractaire: 5-15 mcg/ min
Si bronchospasme résistant à l’épinéphrine: b2-agoniste en nébul (2.5-5 mg dans 3 ml salin)
Cesser les contacts, perfusions en cours, bannir le latex
Caller le code précocément
100% O2
Regarder langue, lèvres, pharynx oral, faire parler le pt
Intubation précoce si atteinte des VRS, éveillée à la fibre optique ou au vidéo laryngoscope avec légère sédation et anesthésie locale
Décubitus dorsal avec membres inférieurs surélevés
2 grosses voies veineuses
Accès intra-osseux PRN
Monitoring cardio pulmonaire, prise TA fréquente
Donner 2L LR sous pression si coeur sain
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25-50 mg IV ad 400 mg en 24h
Méthyprednisolone 1-2 mg/ kg/ j
Observer ad 4h après résolution des sx non cutanés

845
Q

frequency of breath once advanded airway is in place in ACLS

A

once q 6 secs

846
Q

ddx low back pain

A

Serious (RED FLAGS)

Cord Compression (Urinary/Fecal incontinence/retention, saddle anesthesia, motor weakness/numbness)

Infectious - Discitis/epidural abscess/pyelonephritis (Fever, IV drug use, severe, recent surgery, recent infection, immunocomprised)

Metastatic Cancer (Hx, weight loss, age>50, persist, night pain, pain at rest)

Vertebral Fracture (Osteoporosis, steroid use, age, trauma)

Ruptured AAA (pulsations)

Spondyloarthritis (Improvement with exercise, pain at night (with improvement upon getting up/activity), insidious onset, age <40 years, no improvement at rest, inflamamtory arthritis, enthesitis, uveitis, psoriasis, family history)

Radicular pain (leg pain, sensory loss, reduced reflex, myotomal weakness)

Intervertebral disc herniation

Neurogenic claudication (Bilateral buttock/thigh/leg pain, pseudoclaudication)

Central spinal canal stenosis

Non-specific (mechanical)

Beyond lumbar spine

Gyne

Renal (kidney stones)

GI

Hip joint

DISK MASS:
Degenerative (DDD, OP)
Infection (PID< UTI, osteomyelitis, prostatitis)
Injury
Spondyloarthropathy, prondylitis (ankylosing, rhuematoid, SLE)
Kidney stone, infarction, infection
Multiple myeloma
Aneurysm
Slipped disc, spinal stenosis
Strain, Scoliosis, skin

847
Q

P/E elements in back pain

A

Vitals (Temperature)

Gait/Posture

Heel-toe, Squat and Rise

Spine

Abnormalities

ROM

Schober’s test (marks at 5cm below L5 and 10cm above, flexion should increase distance from 15 to >20cm)

Vertebral Tenderness

Waddell’s Signs (Non-organic)

Superficial or nonanatomic tenderness

Simulation test

Axial loading

Rotation of shoulder/Pelvis in same plane

Distraction

Discrepency between sitting and supine straight leg raise

Regional disturbances

Cogwheel (give-way) weakness

Nondermatomal sensory loss

Overreaction

Straight Leg Raise

Motor/Sensory (Saddle anesthesia, sphincter tone)

DF ankle, EHL

Reflexes

Joint above and below (eg. hip)

FABER for SI joint

848
Q

investigations in back pain

A

CBC, ESR (tumor, infection)

SPEP (multiple myeloma)

X-ray (fractures)

X-ray or CT Sacroiliac joints (ankylosing spondylitis)

HLA-B27 antigen (ankylosing spondylitis)

MRI (cauda equina)

849
Q

non pharmalogical treatment of acute and chronic low back pain

A

Superficial heat (moderate-quality evidence)

Massage, acupuncture, or spinal manipulation (low-quality evidence)

Maintain activity and re-assurance (95% improve in 6 weeks)

Chronic low back pain:
Exercise, multidisciplinary rehabilitation, acupuncture, mindfulness-based stress reduction (moderate-quality evidence)

Tai chi, yoga, motor control exercise, progressive relaxation, electromyography biofeedback, low-level laser therapy, operant therapy, cognitive behavioral therapy, or spinal manipulation (low-quality evidence)

850
Q

pharmalogical tx of acute low back pain

A

Topical NSAIDs

NSAIDs (eg. ibuprofen 600mg PO QID) or skeletal muscle relaxants (eg. cyclobenzaprine 10mg PO TID) (moderate-quality evidence)

851
Q

chronic low back pain pharmalogical tx

A

NSAIDs as first-line therapy

Tramadol (50-100mg PO QID) or Duloxetine (30-60mg PO daily) as second-line therapy

Opioids if failed above (weak recommendation, moderate-quality evidence)

Keep opioids <90mg morphine equivalents if possible

852
Q

serious spinal disease of low back pain

A

vertebral fracture
metastatic disease
spinal infection
axial spondyloarthritis
cauda equina syndrome

other ddx serious dz:
-AAA, pyelonephritis, cancer

853
Q

red flags of low back pain

A

neuro deficit
urinary retention, fecal incontinence, saddle anessthesia
fever, IV drug use, immunossupressed
fracture, trauma, OP
tumor, x cancer, B sx
inflammation, morning stiffness, improves with exercise

854
Q

investigations to consider in case of possibly compression or pathologic fx

A

XR
BMD, CBC, SPEP, ALP, TSH, Creatinine

855
Q

physical issue ddx of behavioural issues

A

Hearing/vision impairment

CNS (head trauma, seizures)

Metabolic (thyroid)

Toxin (lead)

Anemia

Perinatal/Genetic

856
Q

psychosocial ddx of behavioural issues and psychological ddx

A

Child abuse/neglect

Housing/food

Substance use

Life Stressors (eg. family/peer issues)

Parental expectations/parenting style

857
Q

psychosocial ddx of behavioural issues and psychological ddx

A

Child abuse/neglect

Housing/food

Substance use

Life Stressors (eg. family/peer issues)

Parental expectations/parenting style

psych:

Mood disorder (eg. bipolar)

Psychotic disorder

ADHD

Learning disorders

Autism Spectrum Disorder

M-CHAT screening
If you point at something across the room, does your child look at it? (FOR EXAMPLE, if you point at a toy or an animal, does your child look at the toy or animal?)
Have you ever wondered if your child might be deaf?
Does your child play pretend or make-believe? (FOR EXAMPLE, pretend to drink from an empty cup, pretend to talk on a phone, or pretend to feed a doll or stuffed animal?)
Does your child like climbing on things? (FOR EXAMPLE, furniture, playground equipment, or stairs)

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

Conduct Disorder

858
Q

P/E to do in behavioural issues

A

Head circumference (micro/macrocephaly, increase/decreased growth velocity)

Weight and height (growth)

Dysmorphic features (hypertelorism, micrognathia)

Eyes (visual acuity, strabismus, cataracts)

Ears (hearing acuity, effusion)

Abdomen (organomegaly)

Skin (Cafe-au-lait spots for neurofibromatosis)

Neuro

Tone, strength, deep tendon reflexes, primitive reflexes

Midline defects, spina bifida

859
Q

non pharmalogocal management of behavioural issues

A

Parent management therapy (encourage parents to be more positive and less harsh)

Peer support groups for family (Autism Society)

Behavioral interventions (positive reinforcement, charts, checklists, reachable goals, set limits and clear consequences for misbehaviour)

Time management (schedules)

School-based interventions (accomodations)

Social skills / psychotherapy

Psychometric testing

860
Q

ASD DM5 definition

A

Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts, as manifested by the following, currently or by history

Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity, ranging, for example, from abnormal social approach and failure of normal back-and-forth conversation; to reduced sharing of interests, emotions, or affect; to failure to initiate or respond to social interactions.

Deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviors used for social interaction, ranging, for example, from poorly integrated verbal and nonverbal communication; to abnormalities in eye contact and body language or deficits in understanding and use of gestures; to a total lack of facial expressions and nonverbal communication.

Deficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships, ranging, for example, from difficulties adjusting behavior to suit various social contexts; to difficulties in sharing imaginative play or in making friends; to absence of interest in peers.

Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities, as manifested by at least two of the following, currently or by history

Stereotyped or repetitive motor movements, use of objects, or speech (e.g., simple motor stereotypies, lining up toys or flipping objects, echolalia, idiosyncratic phrases).

Insistence on sameness, inflexible adherence to routines, or ritualized patterns or verbal nonverbal behavior (e.g., extreme distress at small changes, difficulties with transitions, rigid thinking patterns, greeting rituals, need to take same route or eat food every day).

Highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus (e.g, strong attachment to or preoccupation with unusual objects, excessively circumscribed or perseverative interest).

Hyper- or hyporeactivity to sensory input or unusual interests in sensory aspects of the environment (e.g., apparent indifference to pain/temperature, adverse response to specific sounds or textures, excessive smelling or touching of objects, visual fascination with lights or movement).

Symptoms must be present in the early developmental period (but may not become fully manifest until social demands exceed limited capacities, or may be masked by learned strategies in later life)

Symptoms cause clinically significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of current functioning.

Severity

Level 1 “Requiring support”

Level 2 “Requiring substantial support”

Level 3 “Requiring very substantial support”

861
Q

ODD definition

A

A pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months as evidenced by at least four symptoms from any of the following categories, and exhibited during interaction with at least one individual who is not a sibling.

**Angry/Irritable Mood

Often loses temper.

Is often touchy or easily annoyed.

Is often angry and resentful.

***Argumentative/Defiant Behavior

Often argues with authority figures or, for children and adolescents, with adults.

Often actively defies or refuses to comply with requests from authority figures or with rules.

Often deliberately annoys others.

Often blames others for his or her mistakes or misbehavior.

***Vindictiveness

Has been spiteful or vindictive at least twice within the past 6 months.

Impacts negatively on social, educational, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.

862
Q

conduct disorder definition DSM5

A

A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as manifested by the presence of at least three of the following 15 criteria in the past 12 months from any of the categories below, with at least one criterion present in the past 6 months:

Aggression to People and Animals

Often bullies, threatens, or intimidates others.

Often initiates physical fights.

Has used a weapon that can cause serious physical harm to others (e.g., a bat, brick, broken bottle, knife, gun).

Has been physically cruel to people.

Has been physically cruel to animals.

Has stolen while confronting a victim (e.g., mugging, purse snatching, extortion, armed robbery).

Has forced someone into sexual activity.

Destruction of Property

Has deliberately engaged in fire setting with the intention of causing serious damage.

Has deliberately destroyed others’ property (other than by fire setting).

Deceitfulness or Theft

Has broken into someone else’s house, building, or car.

Often lies to obtain goods or favors or to avoid obligations (i.e., “cons” others).

Has stolen items of nontrivial value without confronting a victim (e.g., shoplifting, but without breaking and entering; forgery).

Serious Violations of Rules

Often stays out at night despite parental prohibitions, beginning before age 13 years.

Has run away from home overnight at least twice while living in the parental or parental surrogate home, or once without returning for a lengthy period.

Is often truant from school, beginning before age 13 years.

Clinically significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning.

If the individual is age 18 years or older, criteria are not met for antisocial personality disorder.

863
Q

antisocial disorder

A

A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15 years, as indicated by three (or more) of the following:

Failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, as indicated by repeatedly performing acts that are grounds for arrest.

Deceitfulness, as indicated by repeated lying, use of aliases, or conning others for personal profit or pleasure.

Impulsivity or failure to plan ahead.

Irritability and aggressiveness, as indicated by repeated physical fights or assaults.

Reckless disregard for safety of self or others.

Consistent irresponsibility, as indicated by repeated failure to sustain consistent work behavior or honor financial obligations.

Lack of remorse, as indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another.

The individual is at least age 18 years.

There is evidence of conduct disorder with onset before age 15 years.

The occurrence of antisocial behavior is not exclusively during the course of schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.

864
Q

conduct disorder treatment

A

psychothera[y
-parent management training, individual therapy, family therapy and social skills training

pre scholl: no evidence for stimulants, meds, focus on parent management therapy

school aged children: if very disruptive, parenting skills training and training for child

adolescents: decreased importance of parenting and incrased internal selft regulation strategies

865
Q

RF of conduct disorder

A

male, low socioeconomic status, familial aggregation

866
Q

pharmacotherapy of conduct disorder:

A

insufficient monotherapy
adjunts + crisis management + short term intervention

ritalin, dexedrine to reduce aggression
bupropion, prozav to deal with impulsiveness in ADHD + CD
dilantin, tegretol, valproic acid, lithium to decrease aggression
clonidine to decrease agression and impulsivity

867
Q

T or F :in conduct disorder, No evidence for boot camps, shock incarcerationk isolated medication trials, psych hospitalization, 12 session CBT

A

T

868
Q

sx domains of ASD

A

1) social communication impairments

2) restricted repetitive patterns of behaviours and interests

869
Q

secondary causes of ASD

A

fragile X, neuro cutaneous disorder, phenylketonuria, fetal alcohol syndrome, angelman syndrome, rett syndrome, smith lemli opitz syndrome

870
Q

RF of ASD

A

male, first degree relative, older parents (over 35), maternal obesity, DM, HTN, infection, close spacing of pregnancies, low birth wt, extreme prematurity

871
Q

investigations in ASD

A

hearing test CBC, ferritin, TSH, thyroxine

872
Q

ASD

A

refer to developmental peds, child psych or psychologist with expertise in ASD

873
Q

red flags suspicious of ASD at 6-12 m, 9-12 m, 12-18m, 15-24m

A

any age: parental concerns, developmental regression, decreaed loss of social behaviour, communication

6-12 months: decreaed smiles, joyful expressions, limited eye contact, limited reciprocal sharing or sounds, smiles or facial expressions, decreased babbling/gestures/response to name

9-12 m: repetitive behaviours, unusual play

12-18 months :no single word, no compensatory gestures, no pretend play, no joint attention

15-24 m: diminished, atypical , or no spontaneous or meaningful 2word phrases

874
Q

reasons to end physician patient relationship

A

Irreconcilable breakdown of relationship
Fraud, theft
Threats, abuse to staff
Give patient adequate notice to find another physician
In QC, physician must have reasonable and just cause to end relationship
Call CMPA for help

875
Q

reasons to end physician patient relationship

A

Irreconcilable breakdown of relationship
Fraud, theft
Threats, abuse to staff
Give patient adequate notice to find another physician
In QC, physician must have reasonable and just cause to end relationship
Call CMPA for help

876
Q

breast lump DDX

A

Not a lump
Prominent rib
Costochondral junction
Firm margin at edge of breast
Defect secondary to previous biopsy
Lump
Normal glandular tissue (upper/outer quadrant)
Fibrocystic changes (25%)
Nodular nondiscrete tender mass, changes with menses, cyclical or constant pain
Cancer (10%)
Infiltrating ductal (most common)
Infiltrating lobular and inflammatory breast cancer often present with no discrete mass
Gross Cyst
Galactocele - milk retention cyst in breasfeeding women
Fibroadenoma
Fat necrosis
Trauma, associated with ecchymosis

877
Q

breast cancer risk factores

A

Female
Age >70 (RR 18)
Prior hx of breast CA
BRCA1/2 (RR 3-7)
Prior hx of biopsy (RR 1.7-3.7)
1st degree relative with breast CA (RR 2.6)
Unopposed estrogen
Bone density - High (RR 2.7-3.5)
Nulliparity/Age at first birth* >30 (RR 1.9-3.5)
Menarche<12 (RR 1.5)
Menopause >55yo (RR 2)
HRT* (RR 1.2)
OCP* (RR 1.07-1.2)
Alcohol* (RR 1.4)
Radiation (Mantle radiation in Hodgkin’s)
Benign breast disease

878
Q

protective factors of breast cancer

A

Oophorectomy <35yo (RR 0.3)
Postmenopause BMI* <22.9 (RR 0.63)
Exercise* (RR 0.70)
Parity* ≥5 (RR 0.71)
Breastfeeding* ≥16mo (RR 0.73)
Aspirin* ≥weekly for ≥6 mo (RR 0.79)

879
Q

questions to ask when assessing breast cancer/mass

A

Change in breast mass (increase/decrease in size, change in symmetry)
Changes with menstrual cycle (benign if prominent premenstrual and regress during follicular phase)
Skin changes
Nipple discharge
New (acquired) nipple inversion
Benign (ectasia)
Central, symmetric, transverse slit with normal areola
Malignant
Asymmetrical, areola changes, flattened nipple, varied nipple position

880
Q

P/E elements of breast cancer

A

Inspection with arms by side, raised above head, pressing on hips leaning forward
Regional lymph nodes
Cervical, supraclavicular/infraclavicular, axillary, mammary chain
Skin changes
Ecchymosis/erythema
Peau d’orange
Ulceration
Dimpling/retraction
Nipple/Areolar changes
Discharge/crusting
Inversion/retraction
Breast Mass
Obvious/Subtle
Well-defined/Nondiscrete margins
Density - Soft/Firm/Hard
Mobile/Fixed to chest wall or skin
Tender/Non-Tender

881
Q

initial management of breast cancer

A

Feature of cancer (hard irregular fixed mass, palpable ipsilateral nodes, peau d’orange)
-Mammography, U/S, core biopsy, breast surgeon referral

Benign
-Ultrasound or initial aspiration to differentiate between cystic vs. solids lesions

882
Q

diagnosis of breast cancer and first line imaging accordin gto age

A

Clinical exam, Imaging, Non-excision biopsy (FNAC/Core)
Any abnormal result requires surgical referral +/- further investigation

1st line imaging
<35yo or Pregnancy/Lactation - Ultrasound*
Mammography in all age groups if suspicious findings
35-50yo - Mammography + Ultrasound
>50yo - Mammography

883
Q

screening age in women for breast cancer

A

Women 50-74yo routine mammography q2-3y

884
Q

benefits and risks of breast cancer screening

A

Benefits:
Reduces absolute risk of death from breast cancer by 0.13-0.22%

Risks:
False positive mammogram 20-25%
Unnecessary breast surgery 0.5%

885
Q

which women to send to genetics for assessment of risks of breast cancer

A

Personal Hx Breast CA ≤ 40 or Ovarian CA at any age
Fam Hx Breast CA ≤ 50

886
Q

sx of a fib

A

Palpitations, tachycardia, angina, dyspnea

Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, lightheadedness, reduced exercise capacity, presyncope

Increased urination (due to the release of atrial natriuretic peptide)

Right-sided heart failure (peripheral edema, weight gain, ascites)

Embolic event

887
Q

causes of a fib

A

Cardiac

Hypertension (1.4 x risk)

Coronary heart disease (ischemia/MI)

Valvular heart disease (including rheumatic heart disease)

Heart failure

Cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic, dilated, restrictive)

Congenital heart disease (ASD)

Venous thromboembolic disease (DVT/PE - likely due to right atrial strain from resistance/afterload)

Myocarditis/Pericarditis

Pulmonary

COPD

OSA

Metabolic

Hyperthyroidism (including subclinical hyperthyroidism)

Obesity

Diabetes (1.5 x risk)

Metabolic syndrome (hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and dyslipidemia)

Chronic Kidney disease

Other

Age

Alcohol (heavy alcohol use in men - holiday heart syndrome), note: no evidence that caffeine can provoke arrhythmias

Stroke/TIA

Family history

Inflammation/infection

Medications: Beta-agonists (norepi, epi, dobutamine), theophylline, adenosine

Surgery (highest in cardiac surgery)

888
Q

different time categorizations of a fib

A

New-onset

Paroxysmal: Continuous AF episode longer than 30 seconds but terminates spontaneously or with intervention within 7 days of onset (episodes may recur)

Persistent: Continuous AF sustained >7 days

“Long-standing” persistent: ≥ 12 months

Permanent: Joint decision by patient and clinician to cease further attempts to restore/maintain sinus rhythm

889
Q

investigation in a fib

A

EKG (r/o MI, pre-excitation, conduction disturbances)

Transthoracic Echocardiogram (structural/valvular heart disease, function, atrial enlargement)

Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) for LA thrombi to guide cardioversion

Labs:

CBC

Serum Na, K, Calcium, Magnesium

Serum Creatinine/eGFR

TSH

LFT

A1C, Lipids (risk stratification, can be done as outpatient)

INR (baseline)

Other

Holter monitoring/exercise testing to evaluate rate control

CXR if pulmonary disease or heart failure suspected

BNP or N-terminal pro-BNP may be elevated in paroxysmal and persistent AF in the absence of clinical heart failure (and decrease in sinus)

Electrophysiological Study if AF due to SVT where ablation may be helpful to prevent/reduce recurrences of AF (suspect pre-excitation when delta wave on EKG)

Troponin if suspect ischemia/infarction

Sleep study if suspect obstructive sleep apnea

890
Q

acute management of unstable a fib

A

Always ABCs!

Unstable if Hypotension or ACS or pulmonary edema (heart failure)

Consider other causes of hypotension if HR<130 (MI, PE, sepsis, hypovolemia)

Urgent Electrical DC cardioversion (AP pads, 200J synchronized) if hemodynamic instability (especially if >150) or if rate control not effective

Consider procedural sedation, eg. Etomidate 0.1mg/kg (7-10mg) IV

Immediate anticoagulation x 4 weeks

Manage hypotension

Fluids (care for pulmonary edema)

Vasopressors

891
Q

acute management of stable AF

A

Treat underlying/reversible causes

Review medications

Avoid beta-adrenergic vasopressors (epi/norepi/dobutamine), consider using phenylephrine instead

Optimize volume status

Treat pain, anxiety, withdrawal

Treat electrolyte abnormalities (potassium, magnesium)

Consider empiric magnesium 2-4g IV if magnesium levels not available

Treat hypoxemia or respiratory distress (CPAP/BiPAP/HFNC)

r/o sepsis, PE, thyrotoxicosis, etc…

r/o WPW or pre-excitation syndrome (bizarre QRS change in width beat to beat and HR >220)

If WPW, do NOT start AV node slowing medications (Amiodarone, BB, CCB), consider only electrical cardioversion

Rate vs. Rhythm control

892
Q

when to consider rate control over rhythm in a fib

A

Asymptomatic

Chronic AF (eg. >1y diagnosed AF)

Onset AF>48h and not anticoagulated (risk of thrombus)

893
Q

medication to use for acute rate control in a fib

A

LVEF≥40%:

Beta-blockers

Metoprolol IV 5mg q5mins x 3 PRN (max 15mg)

Convert to PO with a 1:2.5 (IV:PO) ratio, start 30mins after effective IV rate control

Esmolol IV

ND-CCBs

Diltiazem 15-25mg IV bolus (0.25mg/kg) x1, can repeat q15 mins once, then infusion at 2.5-15mg/h (consider reduce dose after target heart rate reached as diltiazem can accumulate)

LVEF<40%:
B-blockers
Severe heart failure and longstanding AF: Digoxin 0.25mg IV x1
Borderline hemodynamic instability: Amiodarone

894
Q

when to chose acute rhythm control in a fib

A

Highly symptomatic (especially if symptomatic despite adequate rate control)

Risk of hemodynamic instability (heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, mitral stenosis)

Newly diagnosed AF (within 1 year)

Low risk (NVAF<12h with no recent stroke/TIA, or <48h with CHADS2<2) or if on OAC≥3w

Atrial Flutter

Associated with reduced CV deaths and rates of stroke

895
Q

DCCV vs pharmalogical rhythm control in a fib

A

Electrical more effective (150J biphasic, or greater)
-Ideal if unknown medical history

-Consider paddles with force in obese patients
-Consider preparation of atropine and pacing in the event of prolonged sinus pause
-Consider second trained operator managing sedation and airway

Pharmacological ideal on non-fasting patient and does not require procedural sedation
-AVOID if hypotension, ischemic heart disease, heart failure, conduction system disease/significant structural heart disease, and Brugada syndrome.

896
Q

which medication to use for rhythm control (chemical cardioversion)

A

Procainamide 1g (or 15-18 mg/kg) IV over 60 min

Time to conversion 60 minutes, avoid in Brugada

Amiodarone 150-300mg IV bolus then infusion at 1mg/min, can repeat bolus x1

OAC x 4w, then as per CHADS65

897
Q

who to hospitalize in a fib

A

YES if highly symptomatic with acute medical illness/complex medical conditions, inability to achieve rate control, or require monitoring/testing not available as outpatient

898
Q

which patient with a fib to give OAC

A

Short-term OAC x 4 weeks after cardioversion

Long-term OAC if CHADS65

899
Q

when to consider long term rate control in a fib

A

persistent a fib

900
Q

target of resting HR in a fib

A

100

901
Q

which long term rate control agent to chose in a fib depending on comorbidities

A

CHF: BB preferred+/- Digoxin

CAD: BB preferred

No CHF/CAD: CCB preferred if no compelling indication for BB, Digoxin or combo

HTN or reactive airway disease: CCB

902
Q

name 3 beta blockers and 3 other agents used in long term a fib rate control

A

Beta-blockers as initial therapy in MI or LV systolic dysfunction:
-Bisoprolol 2.5mg PO daily (target 10mg PO daily)
-Preferred if LV dysfunction

Metoprolol 12.5-25mg PO BID (target 100-200mg PO BID)
-Preferred if CAD, HTN

Carvedilol 6.25mg BID (target 25 mg BID)
-Preferred if LV dysfunction

___________-
Diltiazem extended release 120-360mg PO daily

Verapamil extended release 180-480 mg PO daily or immediate release divided TID-QID

Digoxin 0.0625-0.25mg PO daily (max trough 1.2mcg/mL) in selected older/sedentary individuals with HF and for those with inadequate response or contraindication to BB/CCB

903
Q

when to chose acute rhythm control in acute stable a fib

A

Highly symptomatic (especially if symptomatic despite adequate rate control)

Risk of hemodynamic instability (heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, mitral stenosis)

Newly diagnosed AF (within 1 year)

Low risk (NVAF<12h with no recent stroke/TIA, or <48h with CHADS2<2) or if on OAC≥3w

Atrial Flutter

Associated with reduced CV deaths and rates of stroke

904
Q

when to consider rhythm control in rate-controlled patients

A

Symptoms or extreme impairment QOL

Recently diagnosed within 1 year

Multiple recurrences

Arrhythmia-induced cardiomyopathy.

However long-term oral antiarrhythmic therapy when AF becomes permanent

AVOID IF: advanced sinus or AV nodal disease unless PPM or ICD

Intermittent antiarrhythmic “pill in pocket” if 1-2 episodes / year

905
Q

which medication for long term rhythm control to use for a fib , depending on the LV function + 1 other non pharmalogical intervention

A

Normal Systolic Function
-Dronedarone 400mg PO BID (avoid in permanent AF or CHF)
-Flecainide (50-75mg daily, max 150mg) or Propafenone (150mg daily, max 300mg) used with BB (eg. Metoprolol 25mg) or ND-CCB
–Time to convert 2-6h
-administer BB or ND-CCB ≥ 30mins before Class Ic antiarrhythmic (prevent risk of Atrial Flutter 1:1 AV conduction)
-sotalol (40mg BID, max 160mg)
-Amiodarone

LV systolic dysfunction or CHF
-Amiodarone:
-loading: 400 mg PO twice daily x 1 week then 400 mg daily x 2 weeks, or 400 mg daily x 1 month
-maintenance: 100-200mg daily

CAD:
-Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Sotalol

Catheter Ablation
-First line for symptomatic Atrial Flutter

Consider if symptomatic despite antiarrhythmics, if rhythm control strategy remains desired

Not an alternative to anticoagulation – still need anticoagulation after successful catheter ablation

906
Q

CHADS65

A

(Congestive Heart Failure, Hypertension, Age 65, Diabetes, Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack)

907
Q

when to start OAC in a fib or ASA

A

OAC alone if age >65, or stroke/TIA, or HTN or HF or Diabetes

ASA alone if CHADS65=0, and arterial vascular disease (coronary, aortic, peripheral) with none of above

908
Q

which anticoagulation to use in a fib

A

DOAC (apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran)
warfarin

909
Q

when to chose warfarin rather than DOAC in anticoagulation of a fib (4 pros)

A

DOAC preferred over warfarin in non-valvular AF (warfarin recommended in valvular AF, breastfeeding, liver failure, gastric bypass)

-Careful in low eCrCl, measure CrCl regularly (6-12 months) and with acute illness

910
Q

name 4 doacs

A

Apixaban 5mg PO BID (2.5mg PO BID if two of creat>133mcmol/L, age>80y, wt ≤60kg), avoid in CrCl<15)

Rivaroxaban 20mg PO daily (15mg PO daily in CrCl 30-49, avoid in CrCl<30)

Edoxaban 60mg PO daily (30mg PO daily in CrCl 30-49, weight ≤60kg, P-glycoprotein inhibitors)

Edoxaban 15mg PO daily can be considered in elderly patients when standard oral anticoagulants are considered inappropriate (eg. bleeding risk)

Dabigatran 150mg PO BID (110mg PO BID if age≥80y or >75y and high risk of bleed, avoid in CrCl<30)

911
Q

lifestyle counselling in prenatal care

A

Smoking cessation
Weight control (under or overweight)
Avoid alcohol/drugs
Avoid consumption of undercooked meats and unpasteurized foods (risk of toxoplasmosis, CMV, listeria)
Avoid mosquito (clothing, repellents)

Optimizing natural fertility
Intercourse timing
Simple = 3x/week
Fertile during 5 days prior to ovulation until ovulation (14 days prior to onset of menses)
So take longest and shortest cycles (eg. 28-32 days) so ovulation on D14-18, so intercourse D9-18 q2-3d
>10 days of abstinence can decrease sperm quality
Avoid lubricants
Reasonable time frame to conceive (85% pregnant in one year)
Advise that risk of spontaneous pregnancy loss and chromosomal abnormalities increases with age of both of mother and father
Disease optimization (eg. glycemic control)

Folic acid 0.4-1mg/d (high risk 5mg daily)

912
Q

prenatal investigations and indications for certain genetic screening

A

STI screen
HbA1c
Rubella and Varicella
If lack of immunity, immunize and wait one month before conception
Genetic screening based on family history
Thalassemia (AR): CBC, Hb electrophoresis
Mediterranean, South East Asian, Western Pacific
Sickle Cell (AR) same as Thalassemia
African, Caribbean
CF (AR): CFTR gene DNA
Mediterranean, Finnish, Caucasian, or FHx
Tay Sachs (AR): Enzyme HEXA or DNA HEXA gene
Ashkenazi Jewish* (Canavan disease, Familial Dysautonomia, ask for Fam Hx of Gaucher, CF, Bloom, Niemann-Pick), French Canadian, Cajun
Fragile X (X-linked): FMR 1 gene DNA
Fam Hx

913
Q

common medication to stop during pregnancy

A

Stop retinoids / Vitamin A >10,000 units/day (risk of malformations in T1)
Stop ACE-i/ARB (risk of fetal kidney disease in T2/T3)
Change to methyldopa, labetalol, calcium channel blocker (Nifedipine XL)
Stop oral anti-hyperglycemic
Consider metformin or glyburide
Stop warfarin (risk of malformations in T1)
Consider heparin/LMWH
Avoid lithium (very low risk of Ebstein anomaly and malformations in T1)
Avoid valproic acid/anticonvulsants (risk of malformations in T1)
Avoid Sulpha drugs and Trimethoprim (anti-folate risk in T1, and kernicterus in T3)
Avoid tetracycline (bone development, teeth staining)
Avoid NSAIDs (cardiac defects, spontaneous abortion)
Risks of untreated depression often outweigh risks of antidepressants
Low risk of teratogenicity (some data suggests paroxetine may have small increase in congenital heart defects, other studies have not found this association)
May be associated with a small reduction in gestational age at birth that is not clinically significant

914
Q

pregnancy 1st visit investigations

A

Confirm pregnancy with urine or serum bhCG
Accurate dates by LMP
Confirm with T1 dating ultrasound
Requisition for 20w morphology ultrasound

915
Q

in pregnancy Consider low-dose 80-160mg ASA at bedtime ideally before 16 weeks gestation, if either 1 high risk factor or 2 moderate risk factors (name the risk factors)

A

1 high risk factor: history of preeclampsia, multifetal gestation, chronic hypertension, DM1 or DM2, renal disease, autoimmune disease (SLE, antiphospholipid)
2 moderate risk factors: Nulliparity, Obesity (BMI≥30), family history of preeclampsia, age 35 years and older, sociodemographic risk factors (low socioeconomic status, etc), or personal history factors (fetus is small for gestational age, previous adverse pregnancy outcomes, etc)

916
Q

routine T1 bloodwork

A

Blood type and screen (Rh and Ab)
CBC
HIV
Rubella
Syphilis
HepBsAg
HepCAb
UA, UCx
Gono chlam
Consider VZV, TSH (Target <2.5, then <3 for third trimester), ferritin, Hb electrophoresis, random glucose/HbA1c/fasting glucose

917
Q

types of T21 screening

A

Serum Integrated Prenatal Screen (85% detection rate [DR], 4.4% false positive [FP], covered in Quebec)
9-13.6 (best 10-11.6) PAPP-A
15-20.6 (best 15.2-16) AFP, uE3, hCG, inhibin-A
Integrated Prenatal Screen (87% DR, 1.9% FP)
SIPS + Nuchal Translucency ultrasound (11-13.6w, best at 12-13.3w)
Quad screen (77% DR, 5.2% FP)
15-20.6 (best 15.2-16) AFP, uE3, hCG, inhibin-A
Cell-free Fetal DNA screen (99.9% DR, however confirm with amniocentesis as 33% FP)
After 9w
Chorionic villus sampling (amniocentesis to rule out false positive for mosaic karyotype)
10-12w
Amniocentesis (if abnormal serum screen, anomalies on U/S or previously affected fetus)
After 15w
Risk <1/200 for loss of pregnancy

918
Q

when to administer winrho

A

If Rh negative, schedule for Rh Ig (WinRho) 300mcg IM at 28w

everytime there is a bleed

919
Q

when to do ultrasounds in pregnancy

A

T1 US for dating

20 w morphology ultrasound

920
Q

labs in pregnancy to be done at 26-28w

A

50g OGT, CBC, ferritin, repeat type and screen in RH neg

repeat HIV, gono chlam, syphilis if high risk

921
Q

when to do GBS screen in pregnancy

A

35-36w - GBS vaginal and rectal swab (results valid for 5w)

922
Q

when to start cervical examination and membrane stripping

A

38 weeks

923
Q

what to use to UTI in pregnancy: Treat midstream culture positive >10^5 cfu/mL or symptomatic with >10^2cfu/mL to prevent pyelo, chorio, preterm birth

A

amoxicillin 500 PO TID x 7 days
Nitrofurantoin 100mg PO BID x 7 days (avoid at labour because of hemolytic anemia)

TMP SMX 1 DS tab BID x 3 days (avoid in first trimester and near term)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate 500 mg PO BID x 7 d
consider repeat culture 1-2 weeks after tx

924
Q

how to prevent GBS intrapartum

A

IV Pen G 5mill units + 2.5 units q4h (cefazolin if low risk, clinda if high risk and sensitive or vanco if not sensitive)

Adequate intrapartum Abx is >4h of IV Abx

925
Q

which pt to give pen G for GBS coverage in pregnancy

A

Treat if
Previous infant with GBS
GBS bacteriuria during current pregnancy
Positive screen
GBS unknown and one of: Preterm or ROM>18h or T>38C

926
Q

in neonates, who to do CBC and blood cultures 9high risk of sepsis_

A

If infant well, but inadequate Abx AND
Preterm <37w OR ROM>18h → consider Blood culture, CBC
If WBC <5, high risk of sepsis and consider Abx

If symptomatic (apnea, fever, tachypnea, tachycardia, lethargy, poor feeding) → septic workup (CBC, cultures, CXR, lumbar puncture) and early treatment

927
Q

risk factors of prelabour rupture of membranes

A

Amniocentesis
Cervical insuff/cerclage
Prior conization/LEEP
PPROM, preterm
Vaginal bleed, Placental Abruption
Polyhydramnios
Multiple pregnancy
Smoking
STI, BV
Low SES

928
Q

investigations of PROM

A

No Digital
Sterile speculum
Look for fluid from cervix, cord
Pooling in posterior fornix of vaginal vault
Ferning on microscopic examination
Liquid pH (>6) will turn nitrazine test blue (positive)
Commericial tests (AmniSure, Actim PROM, ROM Plus)
Consider collect fluid for lung maturity (fibronectin)
Culture for STI and GBS
Ultrasound for low AFI (Max vertical pocket <2cm or AFI ≤5 cm)

929
Q

Complications of PROM

A

infection (fetal/maternal), umbilical cord prolapse, compression

930
Q

management of PROM if term

A

Admit and regular vitals with daily BPP and WBC

Term PROM
Avoid Digital until labour/induction
Consider antibiotics if indicated (no evidence in term PROM)
IV Oxytocin for induction of labour in all term PROM
Vaginal Prostaglandin higher chorio rates (but consider in unfavourable cervix)
PO Misoprostol easier to administer
If patient chooses expectant management >24h, need to evaluate for infection, avoid digital exams

931
Q

management of pretern PROM PPROM

A

Admit and regular vitals with daily BPP and WBC

Preterm <37w (PPROM)
Unclear if expectant vs IOL (preterm vs infectious risks)
If <34w generally expectant, prophylaxis with antibiotics (prolongs latency)
Glucocorticoids (betamethasone x2) <34w
Magnesium sulphate for neuroprotection <32w

932
Q

treatment of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid 15mg/kg/day
Early delivery at 36w
Follow LFTs up to 8w post-partum

933
Q

at what gestational age to cover with Mg SO4 for neuroprotection

A

under 32 w

934
Q

at wahat gestational age to cover with dexamethasone for lung development

A

under 34w

935
Q

gestational diabetes in pregnancy complications (fetal and maternal, 5 each)

A

Maternal
Hypertension
Polyhydramnios
Retinopathy
Hypoglycemia
Pyelonephritis/UTI

Fetal
Macrosomia
IUGR
Hypoglycemia
Polycythemia
Fetal lung immaturity

936
Q

RF for GDM (3)

A

Obesity
Previous pregnancy with GDM or IGT
Family history of DM

937
Q

diagnosis of GDM and values

A

Screen at 24-28w with 50g OGTT, consider early HbA1c or fasting glucose if higher risk
1h 50g OGTT
<7.8 mmol/L = normal
7.8-11.0 -> Indication for 2h 75g OGTT
≥ 11.1 GDM

2h 75g OGTT
FPG ≥ 5.3 mmol/L
1h ≥ 10.6 mmol/L
2h ≥ 9.0 mmol/L

938
Q

management of GDM

A

Dietary advice
Pharmacotherapy (insulin, metformin, glyburide)
Target A1C ≤6.5 (ideally ≤6.1)
Blood glucose targets: Prepandial <5.3, 1h Postprandial <7.5 (or <7.8), 2h Postprandial <6.7mmol/L
Serial ultrasound to monitor growth
Induce by 40w gestation
Blood sugars hourly during labour
Follow-up with repeat 75g OGTT between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum (risk of DM2)

939
Q

targe A1c in pregnancy

A

≤6.5 (ideally ≤6.1

940
Q

target blood glucose in pregnancy

A

Blood glucose targets: Prepandial <5.3

1h Postprandial <7.5 (or <7.8),

2h Postprandial <6.7mmol/L

941
Q

stages of labour

A

First stage - regular contractions + cervical change (dilation/effacement)
Latent (days):
Nulliparous up to 3-4cm dilation
Parous up to 4-5cm
Active
Contractions leading to cervical change after above cervical change
Second stage - Full dilation to delivery (active = pushing)
Third stage - Delivery of baby to placenta
Fourth stage - Placenta to one hour postpartum

942
Q

dystocia definition

A

First stage (active) 4h of <0.5cm/hr dilation or no cervical dilation>2h
Obstructed (lack of dilation/descent) if evidence of strong contractions
Second stage (active) >1h active pushing without descent

943
Q

causes of dystocia

A

Power (50-60mm Hg above baseline by IUPC, >60 seconds) -oxytocin
Passenger (fetal position, attitude, size, abnormalities) - reposition
Passage (pelvic/soft tissue factors) - ensure bladder empty
Psyche (pain/anxiety)

944
Q

management of dystocia

A

Prevent
If epidural analgesia, augment ARM/oxytocin early
Analgesia, hydration, rest
Amniotomy
Oxytocin augmentation, IUPC to assess contractions,
Start at 1-2 mU/min increase q30mins to reach target 8-12mU/min (max at 20-30), or high-dose protocol start at 2-4mU/min
Assisted vaginal Birth
C-section

945
Q

risk factors of shoulder dystocia

A

Antepartum: Suspected macrosomia (induction does not prevent risk), diabetes, GA>42w, multiparity, previous hx dystocia, previous macrosomia, weight gain, obesity
Intrapartum: Prolonged labour, operative vaginal delivery, labour induction, epidural anesthesia

946
Q

complications fo shoulder dystocia

A

fetal: hypoxia, asphysia, fracture, brachial plexus palsy, death
Brachial plexus injury most common at C5-6 (forearm flexor/supinator) → waiter’s tip = Erb-Duchenne, most recover
C8-T1 = Klumpke (claw-hand) is rare

Maternal: PPH, uterine rupture, 4th degree tears

947
Q

management of shoulder dystocia (ALARMER)

A

Avoid the 4 P’s (Pull, push, panic, pivot head)
Do ALARMER:
Ask for help, Tell patient to STOP pushing until manoeuvre completed
Lift legs in McRoberts
Flatten head of bead and hyperflex legs
Anterior Shoulder disimpaction (apply suprapubic pressure to the posterior anterior shoulder)
If steady pressure not working, try rocking pressure
Adduct anterior shoulder by applying pressure to posterior shoulder (Rubin) to push towards chest of baby
Rotate posterior shoulder like screw (Wood’s)
Manual removal posterior arm - Grab posterior hand and sweep across chest and deliver (can lead to fracture)
Roll onto all fours - allows easier access for rotation and removal of posterior arm
Episiotomy can facilitate above maneuvers but does not relieve dystocia

948
Q

diagnosis of chorioamnionitis

A

Fever (T (≥39°C or ≥38°C on two occasions 30mins apart)
One of
Baseline FHR >160/min for ≥10 mins (excluding periods of variability)
Maternal WBC >15 in absence of corticosteroids (ideally showing left shift)
Purulent fluid from cervical os visualized by speculum

949
Q

treatment of chorioamnionitis

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, eg. Ampicillin 2g IV 6h and Gentamicin 5mg/kg once daily
Consider Clindamycin or Metronidazole to cover aneaerobes if undergoing surgery
Prompt induction or augmentation of labor (cesarean only for standard obstetrical indications)

950
Q

normal Fetal heart monitoring

A

Normal FHR baseline 110-160, at least 2 accelerations (≥15bpm lasting ≥15s) in 40mins strip

Moderate variability (5-25bpm)

951
Q

abnormal features of FHR

A

Abnormal >160 for 10 mins or <110 for 10 mins, changing FHR baseline, decelerations
Tachy: Reposition (alleviate cord compression), rule out fever/dehydration/drug/prematurity, IV fluids, maternal pulse/BP
Brady: As above, check for cord prolapse
Decelerations: As above, check amniotic fluid for meconium, oxygen if mother hypoxic or hypovolemic
Early: gradual decrease, usually same time beginning, peak and ending
Due to fetal head compression
Late: gradual decrease, peak after contraction peak
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Variable: abrupt decrease (onset to nadir <30 seconds)
Complicated : <70bpm for >60 seconds, loss of variability, biphasic, prolonged secondary acceleration, fetal tachy/brady
Cord compression
If unresponsive to resuscitation → consider continuous EFM, fetal scalp sampling, delivery

Decreased variability
Sleep <40 mins
Meds (sedative, BB, MgSO4, steroids)
Preterm <32w
Fetal tachycardia
Congenital Anomalies

Uterine activity (frequency averaged over 30 mins, duration, intensity, resting tone)
Normal uterine contractions = <5 in 10 minutes, lasting <90 seconds between 25-75 mmHg, resting tone <7-25mmHg

952
Q

fetal rescucitation steps

A

Stop/decrease oxytocin
Change position (left/right lateral)
Improve hydration with IV fluids
Vaginal exam r/o cord
Amnioinfusion if variable decelerations
Reduce maternal anxiety
Consider oxygen if needed

953
Q

DSM 5 dx of schizophrenia

A

≥2 for most of the month (with one of the first three)
Delusions (eg. perscution, passivity [thoughts/actions controlled by external force])
Hallucinations
Disorganized Speech
Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior
Negative symptoms (eg. avolition, diminished emotional expression)
Marked dysfunction
r/o schizoaffective, depression, bipolar

Schizophrenia >6mo

954
Q

types of delusions (6)

A

Persecutory
Grandiose
Erotomanic (eg. movie star is in love with them)
Somatic (eg. sinuses infested by worms)
Delusions of reference (eg. dialogue on TV directed towards patient)
Delusions of control (eg. thoughts/movements controlled by others)

955
Q

types of hallucinations

A

Auditory (most common)
Visual
Tactile
Olfactory
Gustatory

956
Q

types of though disorganisation

A

Alogia/poverty of content – Very little information conveyed by speech
Thought blocking – Suddenly losing train of thought, exhibited by abrupt interruption in speech
Loosening of association
Tangentiality – (circumstantiality if content eventually returns to original topic)
Clanging or clang association – Using words in a sentence that are linked by rhyming or phonetic similarity (eg, “I fell down the well sell bell.”)
Word salad – Real words are linked together incoherently, yielding nonsensical content
Perseveration – Repeating words or ideas persistently, often even after interview topic has changed

957
Q

psychiatric DDX of psychosis

A

Brief psychotic disorder >1d-1mo
Schizophreniform >1mo - <6mo
Schizophrenia >6mo
Schizoaffective (major mood episode, and >2w of delusions/hallucination in absence of mood)
Bipolar I with psychotic features
Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
Personality disorder (schizotypal, borderline)
PTSD
ADHD, CD, ODD

Substance-induced psychotic disorder

958
Q

Medical DDX of schizophrenia

A

Autoimmune (SLE, MS)
Infection (HIV, Neurosyphilis, HSV encephalitis, Lyme, Prion disorders)
Endocrine (Thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal)
Metabolic (Wilson’s disease, acute intermittent porphyria)
Dementia
Neurologic (trauma, lesion, seizure, stroke)
B12 deficiency
Malignancy
Medication
Delirium

959
Q

screening questions for schizophrenia

A

Do you ever hear voices when you are alone? What do these voices say to you?
Do you ever feel that people are talking about you behind your back? Or that they are out to get you?
Do you ever think that people can pick up on or control what you are thinking?

960
Q

investigation of schizophrenia

A

CBC +/- blood culture
Electrolytes
LFT
TSH
Syphilis screen
HIV
UA +/- urine culture
Urine drug screen
B12
Consider Head CT/MRI
Consider baseline EKG, lipids

961
Q

management of schizophrenia

A

Family intervention and CBT
Housing, vocational, financial support, social worker
Admission, day-time inpatient care
Detoxification

Agitation PRN Cocktail (LAB) - can mix all three in one syringe -Loxapine 25-50mg PO/IM q1-2h or Haldol 5mg IM q1-2h (max 4/24h)
-Ativan 1-2mg PO/IM q1-2h
-Benadryl 25-50mg PO/IM q1-2h

atypical antipsychotic
-Risperidone 1-6mg/day smallest risk for metabolic side effects
-Clozapine for non-responders

962
Q

adverse effects of clozapine

A

Adverse: agranulocytosis, seizure, myocarditis, cardiomyopathy

963
Q

what to do during FU of schizophrenia

A

Positive and negative symptoms
Suicidal, homicidal ideation
Function (social, home, ADLs)
Psychosocial supports
Medication adherence
Medication side effects

Signs/symptoms
Function
Suicidal/aggressive thoughts/behaviour
Substance use
BMI
Labs: Fasting glucose/Lipids baseline, 3mo, then yearly

964
Q

side effects of antipsychotics

A

EPS, hyperprolactinemia, cardiometabolic risk (weight gain, diabetes, dyslipidermia), anticholinergic, antihistamine (sedation), antiadrenergic (orthostatic hypotension)

965
Q

name 4 extrapyramidal sx

A

acute dystonia
akathisia
parkinsonism
tardive dyskinesia

966
Q

management of EPS

A

Consider antipsychotic dose reduction
Consider switching to agent with less EPS
Consider dystonia prophylaxis if treating with haloperidol or high risk

967
Q

treatment of acute dystonia

A

Acute Dystonia (hours-5days, involuntary contractions of major muscle groups)
Severe - Benztropine 1-2mg IM/IV or Diphenhydramine 25mg IM
Mild - Benztropine 1-2mg PO daily

968
Q

akathisia (restlessness, most common EPS) treatment

A

Beta-blocker - Propranolol 10mg (to 40mg) PO BID
Anticholinergic - Benztropine 1-2mg PO BID
Benzodiazepine - Lorazepam 0.5mg PO BID

969
Q

parkinsonism sx in EPS side effects of antipsychotics treatment

A

Anticholinergic - Benztropine 1-2mg PO BID
Non-anticholinergic - Amantadine 100mg PO BID-TID

970
Q

tardive dyskinesia treatment and definition

A

(years of treatment - lip smacking, facial grimace, jaw movements, choreiform movements of extremities/trunk)

Switch to antipsychotic with low risk TD (quetiapine, clozapine)
Benzodiazepine - Clonazepam
Other - Botox injections, tetrabenazine, anticholinergic, deep brain stimulation

971
Q

neuroleptic malignnat syndrome definition

A

Altered mental status, rigidity, hyperthermia (>38-40C), dysautonomia (tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea

In the setting of neuroleptic use of dopamine withdrawal
r/o infection (eg. meningitis) or drug-induced
r/o serotonin syndrome (shivering, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, ataxia, GI symptoms)

972
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome treatment

A

Stop neuroleptic
ICU - aggressive supportive therapy
Treat hyperthermia
Follow serum CK
Consider benzodiazepines, dantrolene, bromocriptine, amantadine if no response to supportive care within 1-2d

973
Q

types of seizures

A

Generalized: Tonic-clonic (grand mal), absence (petit mal), myoclonic
Diffuse motor activity and LOC at onset
Partial (focal, eg. one extremity)
Complex = Consciousness affected
Partial = No LOC
Status epilepticus if >5-15mins or multiple seizures without full return to consciousness

Pseudoseizure
Diffuse motor activity (moving all extremities) with preservation of consciousness (eg. speaking)
Eyes squeezed shut (most epileptic patients do not resist eyelid raising)
Responsive noxious stimuli (nasal swab)
Out-of-phase movement of limbs (usually limbs move synchronously)
Unusual movmeents (pelvic thursting, side-to-side head movement)

974
Q

status epilepticus management

A

Protect airway, oxygen, intubation if unable to terminate seizure
IV access if possible
Terminate seizure (prevent brain damage)
First-line: Benzodiazepines
Lorazepam 0.1mg/kg IV up to max 8mg IV,
Midazolam 10mg IM
Diazepam 10mg IV/rectal/ET q5 mins x 3

r/o hypoglycemia - Glucose 1-2 amps of D50W (25g-50g) IV (can be given empirically if no glucose test available)
r/o hyponatremia - 150mL of 3% NaCl (with repeat bolus if persistent seizure) or 2 amps of NaCO3 (100mEq in 100mL)

Anti-epileptic for ALL status epilepticus (seizure >5mins)

If seizure persists, prepare for intubation
Propofol 1.5mg/kg + Ketamine 2mg/kg + Rocuronium 0.6mg/kg (lower dose so that does’t last to long)
Then propofol infusion at 3-5mg/kg/hour (avoid propofol infusion syndrome, keep <5mg/kg/h)
Prepare pressors PRN (norepinephrine)
If severely hypotensive, consider Midazolam 0.2mg/kg loading dose with 0.1mg/kg/h infusion
If seizure persists, consider re-bolus propofol and ketamine or high-dose ketamine 1-2mg/kg q5mins PRN (up to 10mg/kg cumulative dose)
Consult neurology, ICU

975
Q

anti-epileptic medication for status epilepticus (after benzo)

A

Keppra 60mg/kg IV (up to 4500mg) over 10 minutes
Preferred as safe, no contraindications, and minimal side effects (SIADH)
Valproic acid 40mg/kg (up to 3000mg) over 10 minutes
Fosphenytoin
Phenobarbital (usually in alcohol withdrawal)

976
Q

anti-epileptic medication for status epilepticus (after benzo)

A

Keppra 60mg/kg IV (up to 4500mg) over 10 minutes
Preferred as safe, no contraindications, and minimal side effects (SIADH)
Valproic acid 40mg/kg (up to 3000mg) over 10 minutes
Fosphenytoin
Phenobarbital (usually in alcohol withdrawal)

977
Q

ddx of seizure

A

TIA
Eclampsia
Syncope
Migraine
Cardiac disorders (Dysrhythmias, Long QT syndrome, HOCM)
Sleep disorders (Narcolepsy)
Movement disorder
Acute dystonia
Rigors
Pseudoseizure

978
Q

causes of seizures

A

Stroke
Metabolic / Electrolyte
Hypo/hyperglycemia
Hypo/hypernatremia
Hypophophatemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperammonemia/hepatic encephalopathy
Uremia
Hypoxia
Hyperthermia
Hypertension (encephalopathy, PRES, eclampsia)
CNS trauma, tumor, bleed, stroke (ischemic>hemorrhagic), infection (meningitis, encephalitis, abscess)
Drug intoxication (anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antipsychotics, isoniazid, opioids, theophylline, sympathomimetics)
Drug withdrawal (alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines)
Low dilantin (in known epilepsy)

979
Q

investigations of seizures

A

Known seizure
Serum anticonvulsant levels
First seizure
Glucose
Chem (Sodium, Creat, Calcium, Magnesium, Phos, Urea)
Consider LFT, ammonia in cirrhosis
B-hCG
CBC
Consider CK for rhabdo
Consider anti-epileptic drug levels (for adherence)
Consider toxicology (cocaine, methamphetamine)
Head CT generally recommeneded unless obvious cause (non-adherence to anti-epileptic)
In children, if <1yo and in those with cognitive or motor developmental delay, unexplained neurologic abnormalities, a history of focal seizures, or findings on electroencephalography (EEG) that are incompatible with benign partial epilepsy of childhood or primary generalized epilepsy
EEG within 24-48h
LP if immunosuppressed (r/o meningitis, encephalitis)

980
Q

when to start Keppra

A

Do not need to start antiepileptic medication in first seizure
Consider if risk factor (eg. abnormal EEG results or brain injury/lesion)
If no risk factor, counsel on excellent prognosis, and can consider medication if second seizure episode occurs
Consider as per patient’s preference or work (eg. pilot)
Anticonvulsants (valproic acid, phenytoin) are teratogenic, advise taking folic acid and be on lowest dose

981
Q

side effect of keppra

A

Osteoporosis, hematologic (decreased WBC, pancytopenia), liver failure (phenytoin), GI symptoms, fatigue
Antibiotics may interfere with anticonvulsant levels

982
Q

what to counsel ppl with seizure on safety issues

A

Dangers of swimming, living alone, operating machinery, chewing gum, heights
Seizure free x 1 year before driving

983
Q

indication for screening for CKD/RF

A

Hypertension

Diabetes

Age 60-75 with Cardiovascular disease

Age 18+ First Nations, Inuit, Metis

Other: Hereditary kidney disease, vasculitis, auto-immune (SLE)

984
Q

diagnosis of CKD

A

eGFR and urine ACR (Albumin-to-Creatinine ratio)

If eGFR <60, repeat test in 3 months (or sooner if suspect clinical concern for rapid decline)

Adjust for black patients (eGFR multiplied by 1.21)

If urine ACR ≥ 3 mg/mmol, repeat total of three times in next three months (at least 2 out of three should be elevated to diagnose)

Acute illness/acute kidney injury (AKI) which may require more rapid evaluation

Reversible causes (NSAIDs, contrast, BPH/urinary retention)

985
Q

rapidly reversible causes of AKI

A

(NSAIDs, contrast, BPH/urinary retention)

986
Q

CKD workup

A

Once CKD diagnosed,

Urine R+M (urinalysis and microscopy), electrolytes

Repeat eGFR and urine ACR q6 months
___
If eGFR<60

UA, CBC, HBsAg, HBcAb, HBsAb, PPD

If UA 2+ blood/moderate or >10RBC/hpf, suspect autoimmune, anemia, or hypercalcemia

Add C3, C4, ANA, ANCA, SPEP, Ig’s, free light chains

If history of stones, obstruction, frequent UTIs, family history PCKD, gross hematuria

Renal ultrasound

____
Consult nephrology if

eGFR<30

ACR>60

Progressive decline in eGFR

Unable to achieve blood pressure targets

Electrolytes abnormalities (potassium)

RBC casts or hematuria >20RBC/hpf

987
Q

lifestyle management of CKD

A

Smoking cessation

Healthy weight (nutrition, exercise)

Diet modification if eGFR<60 (not on dialysis)

Limit sodium (<2g/day or <5g salt/day), protein (0.8g/kg/day), phosphate (0.8g/day), calcium (1.5g/d), potassium (1.5g/d)

Consider Vaccination

Influenza annually

Pneumococcal with repeat five years after

988
Q

pharmalogical management of CKD

A

Manage hypertension (sBP<120 as per KDIGO 2021, or <130/80 for transplant and diabetic)
-ACEI or ARB (Consider in non-hypertensive if Urine ACR >30mg/mmol)
–Follow creatinine and potassium 2 weeks after starting
–Stop if eGFR >25% drop from baseline

Manage diabetes (A1c<7)

Manage hyperlipidemia

Statin if
-≥50 years old
-≥18 years old AND diabetes or CAD or CVA or 10 year Framingham risk >10%

Renally dose medications

Minimize further kidney injury
-Avoid NSAIDs, Aminoglycosides, Lithium, contrast media

Sick Day Medications list (to avoid if unable to maintain hydration)
-SADMANS (Sulfonylureas, ACEI, Diuretics, Metformin, ARB, NSAIDs, SGLT2i)

989
Q

management of complications of CKD

A

volume overload
hyperkalienia
metabolic acidosis
hyperphosphatemia
hyperparathyroidism
hypertension
anemia
decrease in EGFR

990
Q

management of volume overload in CKD

A

Restrict dietary sodium (eg. <2g/d)

Diuretic therapy (usually daily loop diuretic, eg. furosemide 80mg)

991
Q

management of hyperkalemia in CKD

A

Low-potassium diet (<1.5g/d)

Avoid medications that raise serum potassium (NSAIDs)

992
Q

management of metabolic acidosis in CKD

A

Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3) 1000 mg BID to maintain normal serum bicarbonate (>20-22mEq/L)

993
Q

management of hyperphosphatemia in CKD

A

Restrict dietary phosphate (<0.8g/d)

Phospate binders (eg. Sevelamer 800mg PO TID meals)

994
Q

management of hyperparathyroidism

A

Treat hyperphosphatemia, vitamin D deficiency

If >150-200pg/mL, consider calcitriol or vitamin D analog
-Do not use calcitriol if serum phosphate or corrected serum total calcium is elevated
-Adjust dose to maintain PTH <150pg/mL

995
Q

management of hypertension in CKD

A

Sodium restriction

ACEi/ARB

If edema, loop diuretic +/- thiazide diuretic

If no edema, diuretic or CCB (consider non-DHP CCB in proteinuria)

Resistent hypertension, consider spirinolactone

996
Q

investigation and management of anemia in CKD

A

Work-up: CBC, retic, iron studies, ferritin, B12/folate, r/o GI loss

Replete iron stores if TSAT ≤30% and Ferritin ≤500ng/mL
-eg. Venofer 300 mg IV q 2 weeks x 3 doses

If Hb<90 and iron replete or treated for iron deficiency consider Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA)
-Aranesp 0.45 mcg/kg/week
–Adverse: CVA, AVF clotting hypertension, cancer recurrence
–Target Hb 100-115

Monitor Hb monthly until stable, Fe q3 months

997
Q

causes for decrease in EGFR in CKD

A

Progression of disease

Hypovolemia (vomiting, diarhea, excessive diuresis)

UTI

NSAID, medications

Obstruction

998
Q

complications of end stage renal disease

A

Pericarditis/pleuritis

Uremic encephalopathy/neuropathy (confusion, asterixis, myoclonus, wrist/footdrop, seizures)

Uremic bleeding

Fluid overload refractory to diuretics (CHF/LVH)

Hypertension poorly responsive to medications

Metabolic disturbances
-Hyperkalemia
-Hyponatremia
-Hyper/hypocalcemia
-Hyperphosphatemia
-Metabolic acidosis

Malnutrition

Other Complications
AKI

Drug toxicity

Infection

Hypothyroidism

999
Q

analgesia in renal failure

A

Encourage non-pharmacological

Acetaminophen

Topical capsaicin

Hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, buprenorphine

Gabapentin, Pregabalin

TCA (amitriptyline, nortriptyline)

Avoid NSAIDs, morphine, codeine, tramadol

1000
Q

ckd pain sources

A

Nociceptive pain is usually due to tissue injury. Causes of nociceptive pain common to patients with advanced CKD include (but are not limited to) osteoarthritis, renal osteodystrophy, dialysis-related amyloid arthropathy, and kidney or liver capsule distension from autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)
-tx with acetaminophen, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone or buprenorphine

Neuropathic pain arises from abnormal neural activity secondary to disease, injury, or dysfunction of the nervous system. Common examples of neuropathic pain among patients with advanced CKD include diabetic neuropathy, phantom limb pain, and carpel tunnel syndrome.
-treat with acetaminophen, gabapentin or pregabalin

1001
Q

elements of geriatric assessments

A

Immunizations (influenza, tetanus/diphteheria, pneumococal, herpes zoster)

Habits (smoking, alcohol, substance, sexual)

Nutrition (diet, appetite, weight loss, dentition,m swallowing)

Bowel and Bladder (incontinence, constipation, diarrhea)

Communication (vision, hearing)

Pain

Cancer screening

____

Cognition: MCI vs dementia vs. Delirium– MMSE / MOCA

BPSD (Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia)- SMART approach

Safety – remove patient to safe environment

Medical – perform an organic workup to treat reversible causes; reduce medication load

Assess competency – decisions regarding personal care, finances, driving; protect assets

Rest, nutrition, hydration ensured; address problems with pain, ambulation, vision, hearing, constipation

Trial of medication – cholinesterase inhibitor/antipsychotic/antidepressant/ mood stabilizer

Mood – Depression (MSIGECAPS) – PHQ-9 or geriatric depression scale

Elder mistreatment/abuse
-__
Function
ADLs (dressing, eating, ambulating, toileting, transferring, hygiene/bath)

IADLs (shopping, housework, accounting, food prep, telephone, transportation, taking meds)

Fall risk (postural hypotension, vertigo)

Vision

Hearing

Physical activity

Mobility

Driving
_____–

Polypharmacy - Meds

Non-prescription medication (herbal, OTC, vitamins)

Consider efficacy/side effect profiles

Convenient dosing/route

Dispill / Blister pack

Avoid treating side effect with another medication (medication cascade)

Beer’s Criteria

STOPP/START criteria

Social and Environmental

Social activities, hobbies, interests

Care support, POA

Local resources

Managing at home (financial, legal)

Anticipate need for increased services

Advance care planning (resuscitation)

1002
Q

Modifiable Risk Factors in the Elderly (10)

A

Medical

Visual/hearing impairment

Polypharmacy

Dizziness or orthostasis

Incontinence

Diabetes

Depression

Cognitive impairment/Dementia

Vaccines

Cancer, AAA screening

Osteoporosis (Calcium, vitamin D, BMD)
___
Mobility

Balance/gait impairment

Muscle weakness

Exercise level

Environmental lighting

Footwear
___
Habits

Smoking

Alcohol

1003
Q

Commonly missed dx in elderyl

A

Lack of symptoms (eg. fever), or may present with confusion/delirium

Commonly missed diagnoses are cancer, pulmonary embolus, coronary disease, aneurysms, appendicitis

Depression can present with somatic complaints (cognition, functional, sleep, energy)

1004
Q

4 features of parkinson’s

A

resting Tremor (FYI: 4-6 Hz, pill rolling)

muscle Rigidity (FYI: with cogwheeling)

Akinesia/bradykinesia (slow movements, difficulty initiating movements) - (this answer changed from akathisia to akinesia, Feb 2021)

Postural instability (FYI: late feature)

1005
Q

Other than changes in vital signs, what other features might you find on physical exam of parkinson’s?

A

masked facies/stare/reduced blink rate

hypophonia (quiet voice/speech)

drooling

seborrhea of face/scalp

micrographia

positive glabella tap reflex

stooped, shuffling gait

difficulty initiating gait

dysarthria

1006
Q

ddx of parkinsonism

A

Dementia

Depression

Essential tremor

Huntington’s disease

Multiple system atrophy

Progressive supranuclear palsy

Wilson’s disease

Multiple sclerosis

Primary cerebellar dysfunction

EtOH withdrawal or toxicity

Liver failure

1007
Q

ddx of parkinsonism

A

Dementia

Depression

Essential tremor

Huntington’s disease

Multiple system atrophy

Progressive supranuclear palsy

Wilson’s disease

Multiple sclerosis

Primary cerebellar dysfunction

EtOH withdrawal or toxicity

Liver failure

1008
Q

side effects of levodopa

A

Somnolence

Dizziness/orthostatic hypotension

Headache

Dyskinesia/impairment in voluntary movement (FYI: this is the #1 side effect)

Confusion

Brief duration of action/need for frequent dosing

Psychosis: Hallucinations/delusions

Agitation

Disinhibition/impulse control problems

1009
Q

other than levodopa, name other tx of parkinsons

A

Dopamine agonists FYI: bromocriptine, pramipexole

COMT (catechole-o-methyl transferase) inhibitors FYI: Entacapone, tolcapone

MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors) FYI: Selegiline

Anticholinergics FYI: Benztropine

NMDA receptor antagonist FYI: Amantadine

1010
Q

non pharmalogic interventions that can be used in patients who are receiving no benefit from optimal medical management for parkinsons

A

deep brain stimulation

1011
Q

Urinary Tract Infection
women 1st line atbx, pna and children

A

Nitrofurantoin 100mg PO BID x 5-7d
fosfomycin
tmpsmx

Man/Complicated/Pyelonephritis: Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO BID x 7d

Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg/day PO ÷ TID x 5d afebrile, 10d febrile
Complicated: Cefixime 16mg/kg first day, then 8mg/kg daily

1012
Q

Uncomplicated Cellulitis (no MRSA coverage) tx

A

Adult: Cefadroxil 1g PO daily (or BID) x 5-14d
Pediatrics: Cephalexin 50-100mg/kg/d ÷ QID x 10-14d

1013
Q

Acute Otitis Media antibiotics for adults and children

A

Adult: Amoxicillin 500mg PO TID x 5-7d
Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day PO ÷ BID x 5d-10d (10d if <2yo or severe symptoms)

1014
Q

otitis externa tx

A

Ciprodex otic suspension 4 drops BID x 5d

1015
Q

Strep Pharyngitis treatment in adults and peds

A

Adult: Penicillin V 600mg PO BID x 10d
Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg PO daily (max 1g/day) x 10d

1016
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia tx in children and adults

A

Adult: Clarithromycin 500mg PO BID x 7d (or Amoxicillin 1g PO TID x7d if do not need to cover atypicals)
Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 90mg/kg/day (max 3g/day) ÷ TID x 7-10d

1017
Q

acute rhinusinusitis tx in adults and children

A

Adult: Amoxicillin 500mg PO TID x 5-10d
Pediatrics: Amoxicillin 90mg/kg/day (max 2g/day) ÷ BID x 10-14d
Second-line or if suspect resistance (S pneumo) Amox/Clav 40-80mg/kg/day ÷ BID (or 875/125 mg PO BID)

1018
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis tx

A

Metronidazole 500mg PO BID x 7d

1019
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus tx

A

First episode Acyclovir 400mg PO TID x 7-10d
Recurrent Episode: Acyclovir 400mg PO TID x 5d (or 800mg PO TID x 2d)

1020
Q

Gonorrhea/Chlamydia tx

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM or Cefixime 800mg PO x1 + Azithromycin 1g PO x1 or Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 7d

1021
Q

Moderate-Severe Gastroenteritis (>3BM/d, blood, fever)

A

Consider Cipro 500mg PO BID x 3 days or 750mg PO x1
Consider Azithromycin 1g PO x1 if travel to Asia (resistance to fluoroquinolones)

1022
Q

C-difficile Colitis tx

A

Vancomycin 125mg PO QID x 10-14d
Pediatrics: 40mg/kg/d PO (max 2g/d) ÷ TID-QID x 10-14d

1023
Q

Peptic Ulcer Disease (non-NSAID related) treatment

A

PPI PO BID + Amoxicillin 1g PO BID + Clarithromycin 500mg PO BID x14d (eg. HP-PAC)
Second-line or if high resistance, add Metronidazole 500mg PO BID (CLAMET)

1024
Q

antibiotic rash tx

A

Stop antibiotic, and avoid further antibiotics until cleared
Unlikely true IgE-mediated allergy
IgE-independent reaction (eg. Red Man Syndrome with vancomycin)
Delayed T-cell reaction (usually concomitant viral infection, eg EBV)

Referral to Allergy for challenge testing

1025
Q

ddx of rash after starting antibiotics

A

Unlikely true IgE-mediated allergy
IgE-independent reaction (eg. Red Man Syndrome with vancomycin)
Delayed T-cell reaction (usually concomitant viral infection, eg EBV)
Rule out
Serum Sickness (Type 3) - vasculitic rash, arthralgias, flu-like symptoms, fever
DRESS (fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, blood count abnormality [eosinophilia, thrombocytopenia])
SJS/TEN (desquamation, positive Nikolsky’s sign, mucosal-involvement)

1026
Q

featuers of serum sickness

A

vasculitic rash, arthralgias, flu-like symptoms, fever

1027
Q

clinical features of DRESS

A

(fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, blood count abnormality [eosinophilia, thrombocytopenia])

1028
Q

clinical features of SJS/TEN

A

desquamation, positive Nikolsky’s sign, mucosal-involvement

1029
Q

sx of grief

A

Denial, anger, disbelief, yearning, anxiety, sadness, helplessness, guilt, sleep and appetite changes, fatigue, and social withdrawal

1030
Q

management of grief

A

Acknowledge the loss and the associated grief
Actively listen to and explore patients’ concerns, reinforce patients’ strengths in coping with their illness
Encourage external sources of support including family, friends, and faith communities, or support groups
Consider psychotherapy if requests or in complicated grief

1031
Q

weight loss definition

A

Loss of ≥5% weight over 6-12 months

1032
Q

definition of weight loss

A

Loss of ≥5% weight over 6-12 months

1033
Q

ddx of weight loss

A

Malignancy
GI (PUD, celiac, IBD)
Psychiatric (depression, eating disorders)
Endocrine (hyperthyroidism, diabetes, adrenal insufficiency)
Infectious (HIV, viral hepatitis, tuberculosis, parasite)
Chronic disease (heart failure, renal failure, autoimmune)
Neuro (stroke, dementia)
Medications/substances

1034
Q

labs for weight loss

A

CBC (Hb, WBC)
Chem (Creat, Calcium)
Glucose, A1C
TSH
LFT (Alk Phos), Albumin
ESR/CRP, LDH
UA
FOBT
CXR
Consider
PPD (TB), HIV, Hep C
Abdominal ultrasound
Age-appropriate cancer screening

1035
Q

treatment of weight loss

A

Limited evidence for nutritional and pharmacological agents
Treat underlying cause
Consider Mirtazapine in Depression
Watchful waiting 3-6 months
Can consider exercise and nutritional supplements at meal times

1036
Q

DDx of neck pain

A

lymphoma, carotid dissection
myocardial infarction, pseudotumour cerebri

Axial Neck Pain Syndromes:
Cervical strain
Cervical spondylosis
Cervical discogenic pain
Cervical facet syndrome
Whiplash injury
Cervical myofascial pain
Diffuse skeletal hyperostosis

Extremity pain/neurological deficit:
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
Cervical radiculopathy
Brachial plexus injury (eg. burner/stinger)

Non-spinal:
Thoracic outlet syndrome
Herpes Zoster
Diabetic neuropathy
Other (Malignancy, vascular, cardiovascular -MI, carotid/basilar artery dissection, infection, visceral, referred, rheumatologic, neurologic)

1037
Q

red flags of neck pain

A

Trauma
Cancer or constitutional symptoms
Infectious symptoms, Immunosuppression or IVDU (Epidural abscess, discitis)
Neurological signs/symptoms (cord compression, demyelinating process)
Severe ripping neck pain, unstable (carotid/vertebral dissection)
Chest pain, SOB, diaphoresis (MI)
History of rheumatoid arthritis (atlanto-axial disruption)

1038
Q

physical exam of neck pain (nerve roots and motion)

A

Neurological examination of upper limbs (strength, sensory, reflex)
C1, C2 - Neck flexion
C3 - Neck lateral flexion
C4 - Shoulder elevation (Trapezius)
C5 - Shoulder abduction/external rotation, bicep reflex
C6 - Biceps/brachioradialis reflex
C7 - Triceps reflex
C8 - Finger abduction, grip
T1 - Hand intrinsics

1039
Q

criterias for CT C spine in cervical injuries

A

Consider NEXUS criteria (caution using criteria in <2yo, and>65yo)
Neuro deficit (focal)
Spinal (midline) tenderness
Altered LOC
Intoxication
Distracting injury
There is some data showing that you may consider clearing C-spine even in distracting injury

Consider Canadian C-Spine Rule in alert, stable trauma patients (excluded known spine disease/surgery, non-trauma, GCS<15, age <16 years - consider NEXUS)
-Can clear C-spine if no high risk factor:
Age ≥ 65 years
Extremity paresthesias
Dangerous mechanism (Fall ≥3 ft/5 stairs, axial load to head [eg. diving], MVC >100km/h or rollover or ejection, motorized recreational vehicles, bicycle crash)
-One low risk factor present AND able to actively rotate neck 45° left and right:
Sitting position in the ED
Ambulatory at any time
Delayed (not immediate onset) neck pain
No mid-line tenderness
Simple rear-end motor vehicle collision

1040
Q

Name antibiotics classes

A

Penicilin
cephalosporines
carbapenems
monobactam
chloramphenicol
lincosamides
oxalidinome
macrolides/ketolides
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
fluoroquinolones
lipoglycopeptides (vancomycin)
sulfonamides (TMP SMX)

1041
Q

types of antibiotics in PNC family and indications

A

Penicillin G (IV)
Used in Strep pneumo, GAS, N meningitidis, Syphilis, Pasteurella multocida, Listeria monocytogenis, Actinomyces Israeli

Pencillin V (oral)
Strep throat from GAS

Amino penicillins (Ampi, Amox)
Broader gram -neg, covers enterococci

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins IV (Methicillin, Naficillin, Oxacillin)
Skin infections (not MRSA)

Pencillinase-resistant penicillins Oral (Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin)
Skin infections (not MRSA)

Antipseudomonal penicillins (Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin, Piperacillin)
Anaerobic and pseudomonas coverage

Combination with beta-lactamase inhibitors (Amoxi/Clav, Ticarcillin/Clav, Ampi/sulfabactam, Pip/Tazo)
Broad coverage, including anaerobes, Timentin and Pip/Tazo cover pseudomonas
Used for hospital-acquired pneumonias

1042
Q

types of cephalosporines

A

Each generation has increasing spectrum against gram negatives but less against gram positives (except fourth)

Note: MRSA and enterococci resistant to cephalopsporins

First gen (eg. cephalexin, cefazolin, cefadroxil)
Excellent gram-positive coverage
Used as alternative to penicillin for staph/strep infection when penicillin allergy
Used before surgery as prophylaxis

Second gen (eg. cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan)
Cefuroxime good coverage against strep pneumoniae and H influenza
Used for CAP, sinusitis, otitis media
Cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole have good anaerobic coverage (bacteroides fragilis)
Used for intraabdominal infection, aspiration pneumonias, colorectal surgery prophylaxis

Third gen (eg. ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefotaxime, cefixime)
Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime excellent CSF penetration for meninigits
Cefotaxime in neonates/children (ceftriaxone can interfere with bilirubin metabolism in neonates)
Ceftriaxone for N gonorrhea (many resistant to penicillin and tetracycline)
Ceftazidime, cefoperazone antipseudomonal

Fourth gen (Cefepime)
Added benefit against gram positives (and covers gram negatives like 3rd gen) and pseudomonas
Pseudomonas (Pseudomonas coverage with Ceftazidime, Cefepime)

Fifth gen (Ceftaroline)
Only cephalosporin with activity against MRSA

1043
Q

types of cephalosporines

A

Each generation has increasing spectrum against gram negatives but less against gram positives (except fourth)

Note: MRSA and enterococci resistant to cephalopsporins

First gen (eg. cephalexin, cefazolin, cefadroxil)
Excellent gram-positive coverage
Used as alternative to penicillin for staph/strep infection when penicillin allergy
Used before surgery as prophylaxis

Second gen (eg. cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan)
Cefuroxime good coverage against strep pneumoniae and H influenza
Used for CAP, sinusitis, otitis media
Cefotetan, cefoxitin, cefmetazole have good anaerobic coverage (bacteroides fragilis)
Used for intraabdominal infection, aspiration pneumonias, colorectal surgery prophylaxis

Third gen (eg. ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefotaxime, cefixime)
Ceftriaxone and cefotaxime excellent CSF penetration for meninigits
Cefotaxime in neonates/children (ceftriaxone can interfere with bilirubin metabolism in neonates)
Ceftriaxone for N gonorrhea (many resistant to penicillin and tetracycline)
Ceftazidime, cefoperazone antipseudomonal

Fourth gen (Cefepime)
Added benefit against gram positives (and covers gram negatives like 3rd gen) and pseudomonas
Pseudomonas (Pseudomonas coverage with Ceftazidime, Cefepime)

Fifth gen (Ceftaroline)
Only cephalosporin with activity against MRSA

1044
Q

Carbapanems (Meropenem, Imipenem, Ertapenem) examples

A

Broad coverage (except MRSA)
Ertapenem IV once a daily
Drug of choice for severe diabetic foot infections (usually polymicobic)
Ertapenem is only carbapenem that does NOT cover pseudomonas

1045
Q

Monobactam (Aztreonam) indications

A

Magic bullet for gram negative aerobic bacteria, including pseudomonas
Used with gram positive antibiotics like Vancomycin and Clindamycin for broad-coverage

1046
Q

Lincosamides (Clindamycin) indications

A

Anaerobic, gram positive and MRSA coverage
Not useful against gram-negative
Side effects pseudomembranous colitis (C-diff)
Used with aminoglycoside (cover gram-neg) in wound infections of the abdomen
Female genital tract infections
Septic abortions
Alternative to metronidazole for bacterial vaginosis
Used with beta-lactam (penicillin) or vancomycin for toxic shock syndrome with GAS or staph aureus
Aspiration pneumonia

1047
Q

Oxalidinones (Linezolid) indications

A

Gram-positive, MRSA, VRE
Expensive
Side effects Serotonin Syndrome (avoid if on antidepressants)
Used with beta-lactam to cover hospital acquired pneumonia

1048
Q

Macrolides/Ketolide antibiotics

A

Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Telithromycin (Ketolide)

1049
Q

Macrolides/Ketolide indications

A

Gram-positive, some gram-negative, atypicals (Legionella, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Mycoplasma)
Use for outpatient community-acquired pneumonia
Telithromycin efficacy against macrolide resistant Strep pneumo
Black box warning for respiratory failure in myasthenia gravis

1050
Q

Tetracyclines (name 1 )

A

Doxycycline

1051
Q

DOxycycline indication

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Walking pneumonia)
Animal/Tick-borne Bruciella and Rickettsia
Acne
Side effects: Phototoxic dermatitis

1052
Q

Aminoglycosides (name 4)

A

Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin (good against resistant), Neomycin (topical, as toxic)

1053
Q

Aminoglycosides in dications

A

Break down cell walls, used with beta-lactams
Aerobic gram-neg, Pseudomonas
Side effects: CN8 toxicity (Hearing loss irreversible), renal toxicity, neuromuscular blockade

1054
Q

fluoroquinolone name 3

A

Ciprofloxacine

levofloxacine
moxifloxacine

1055
Q

Fluoroquinolones
Ciprofloxacin indication

A

Gram-negatives, best for Pseudomonas
Enterobacteriacae except anaerobes (E coli, salmonella, shigella, Campylobacter)
Complicated UTI, prostatitis, epididymitis
Gram-neg intracellular (Legionella, Burcella, Salmonella, Mycobacterium)

1056
Q

Levofloxacin indication

A

Expanded gram-positive
Community acquired pneumonia, skin infections

1057
Q

Moxifloxacin indication

A

Strep pneumo and anaerobic (intraabdominal infections)
Poor urinary concentration

1058
Q

Lipoglycopeptides (Vancomycin) indication

A

All Gram-posiitve (MRSA, enterococcus, indwelling IV catheter resistant staph epidermidis)
Endocarditis (Strep/staph) in penicillin-allergic
Red man syndrome (rapid infusion, treat with slow infusion and antihistamine)
Daptomycin similar to vancomycin with some side effects:
Monitor CPK levels (myopathy risk)
Eosinophilic pneumonia (stop dapto and give steroids)

1059
Q

Sulfonamides (TMP SMX) indication

A

Gram positive, gram negative, some protozoans (Pneumocystis carinii, Toxoplasma gondii, Isospora belli)
Increases INR
T (Resp Tree): Otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia
M (Mouth): Shigella, Salmonella, E coli
P (Pee): UTI, prostatitis, urethritis
S (AIDS): PCP prophylaxis

1060
Q

name 4 antibiotics covering pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Penicillins (Ticarcillin, Ticarcillin/Clav, Piperacillin, Pip/Tazo)
Third gen cephalosporins (Ceftazidime)
Fourth gen cephalosporins (Cefepime)
Carbapenems (Imipenem, Meropenem, Doripenem)
Aztreonam
Ciprofloxacin
Aminoglycosides (Amikacin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin)
Polymixins

1061
Q

antibiotics for anaerobes (bacteroides fragilis)

A

Penicillins with beta-lactamase inhibitor (Amoxi/Clav, Ticarcillin/Clav, Ampi/subactam, Pip/Tazo)
Second gen cephalosporins (Cefoxitin, Cefotetan, Cefmetazole)
Carbapenems (Imipenem, Meropenem, Doripenem, Ertapenem)
Chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Metronidazole
Moxifloxacine
Tigecycline

1062
Q

Atypical (Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella)antibiotics

A

Fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
Macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin)
Doxycycline

1063
Q

MRSA antibiotics

A

Vancomycin
Linezolin
Daptomycin
Quinupristin/dalfopristin
Tigecycline
Ceftaroline
Clindamycin
TMP/SMX
Tetracycline (Doxycycline/Minocycline)

1064
Q

VRE antibiotics

A

Linezolid
Daptomycin
Tigecycline

1065
Q

C-diff antibiotics

A

Oral vancomycin (or metronidazole)

1066
Q

in which bacterias should u avoid tazo

A

SPACE (Serratia, Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, and Enterobacter) infections (inducible β-lactamase AmpC

Avoid Tazo as 30% treatment failure
Use Cipro/Carbapenem

1067
Q

management in case of fluoroquinolone allx

A

If history of anaphylaxis reaction to one fluoroquinolone, avoid entire class
For delayed on-set maculopapular nonpruritic rash, may consider graded challenge of another fluoroquinolone

1068
Q

vancomycin allergy presentation and management

A

Avoid if bullous reaction or thrombocytopenia
If Red Man Syndrome (flushing, pruritus, urticaria), premedicate with antihistamine (diphenhydramine) and acetaminophen, hold opiates if possible, and infuse slower (eg. half rate, or 1g over >100 mins)

1069
Q

management of spinal cord compression in oncology

A

New/escalating back pain at rest, may progress to motor/sensory neurologic deficits
MRI whole spine
Treat with steroids, and consider surgery/radiotherapy

1070
Q

Superior Vena Cava Obstruction management in oncology

A

Lung cancer, lymphoma
Treat symptoms (SOB, pain, anxiety)
Treat with steroids, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, stents

1071
Q

treatment of hypercalcemia in oncology

A

Multiple myeloma, breast, NSCLC
Symptomatic (weakness, confusion, coma) above corrected calcium >3mmol/L
Treatment
Stop calcium intake (supplements)
IV hydration (eg. NS 200-300mL/h for urine output of 100-150mL/h)
Severe if calcium>3.5mmol/L and symptomatic
Consider calcitonin +/- zoledronic acid/pamidronate
Consider denosumab in longterm control
Consider glucocorticoids in lymphomas, sarcoid, granulomatous
Consider calcimimetic and hemodialysis if renal failure or calcium >5mmol/L

1072
Q

pericardial tamponade treatment in oncology

A

Percutaneous or surgical drainage of pericardial effusion

1073
Q

tumor lysis synndrome presentation and management

A

Myalgia, dark urine, seizure, AKI
Supportive care
Hydration, follow potassium, creatinine, phosphate, calcium and uric acid
Consider rasburicase for uric acid

1074
Q

febrile neutropenia management in oncology

A

T>38, ANC<0.5
Empiric antibiotics and pan-culture

1075
Q

definition of infertility

A

No conception after 12 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse
Primary (no previous pregnancy)

Secondary (after previous conception)
Always ask about pregnancy with other partners!

1076
Q

when to start investigating for infertility

A

> 1 year of trying to conceive (85% will conceive after one year)
35yo at 6mo
40yo immediately
Sooner if history of infertility, PID, pelvic surgery/CT/RT (in either partner), recurrent pregnancy loss, moderate-severe endometriosis

1077
Q

DDX of female infertility

A

Ovulatory dysfunction - 20%
PCOS
Premature ovarian failure
Hypothalamic suppression (exercise, eating disorder, stress, hyperprolactinemia)
Thyroid disease
Advanced maternal age
Turner syndrome
Medications (contraceptives, corticosteroids, antidepressants, antipsychotics, chemotherapy)

Uterine/tubal factors - 20%
PID
Prior ectopic pregnancies
Endometriosis
Adhesions
Fibroids
Asherman syndrome
Cervical factors (eg. cervical stenosis)
Peritoneal factors

1078
Q

medication causing infertility (female and male)

A

female: contraceptives, corticosteroids, antidepressants, antipsychotics, chemotherapy

male: chemotherapy, steroids, spironolactone, phenytoin

1079
Q

male infertility causes

A

Testicular (sperm disorders - eg. azoospermia)
Cryptorchidism
Irradiation
Varicocele
Androgen insensitivity
Klinefelter syndrome
Infection (Mumps orchitis)
Drugs (Marijuana, spirinolactone, ketoconazole, alcohol)

Pre-Testicular
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Hypothyroidism
Hyperprolactinemia
Pituitary tumor
Drugs, alcohol, smoking
Medications (chemotherapy, steroids, spironolactone, phenytoin)

Post-Testicular
Hypospadias
Vas deferens obstruction
Congenital absence of Vas deferens in Cystic Fibrosis
Infection (prostatitis)
Retrograde ejaculation
Erectile dysfunction
Iatrogenic (vasectomy)

1080
Q

investigations (labs) of infertility in women

A

Prolactin, TSH, testosterone
Ovarian reserve testing

Day 3 FSH, LH, estradiol
-Ovarian aging if FSH >14IU/L and high estradiol
-Clomiphene challenge has poor predictive value

Mid-Luteal Day 21 (or LMP -7d) progesterone
-Progesterone >5ng/mL (15.9 nmol/L) r/o anovulatory
-Consider repeating progesterone weekly if irregular until menses

Consider
Clomiphene citrate challenge test (CCCT)
AMH (anti-mullerian hormone)
DHEA
r/o STI (HIV, Hep B, Hep C, G+C)

Preconception
Rubella, Varicella titres
Pap
Genetic testing if indicated/ caryotype if RPL, POIm suspicion x fragile or turner

1081
Q

Imaging in infertility

A

Hysterosalpingography
Pelvic U/S (antral follicle count, r/o fibroids, cysts)
Hysteroscopy
Laparoscopy (endometriosis)

1082
Q

infertility labs in men

A

Semen analysis: Count (>20mill), motility (>50%), volume (2-5mL), morphology (>30%), pH, WBC (<1mil/mL)
3-6 days abstinence
Repeat if abnormal in one month

1083
Q

non pharmalogical management of infertility

A

Encourage weight loss if BMI >30
Stop smoking, drugs, alcohol
regular unprotected vaginal intercourse
home ovulation kits (LH peak 1-2 days before ovulation)
Limit caffeine, alcohol, avoid tabacco (for both partners)

Referral to fertility specialist
Assisted reproductive technology (IVF, ICSI)
Sperm/ovarian donation
Consider adoption

1084
Q

medication for infertility

A

-folic acid 0,4 mg
-subclinical hypothyroidism to treat

-Consider Clomiphene Citrate 50mg PO daily x 5 days on day 3-5
-femara (letrozole 2.5 mg day 3 or 7 or cycle (or post withdrawal bled)

-Counsel on risks of multiple pregnancy, hyperstimulation syndorme, thrombosis, ovarian cancer
-If no pregnancy after 3-6 cycles, refer to specialist

Referral to fertility specialist
Ovulation induction
Clomiphene citrate
Metformin (PCOS)
Gonadotropin
Bromocriptine (to lower prolactin)

1085
Q

surgical treatment of infertility

A

Tuboplasty
Lysis of adhesions

1086
Q

surgical treatment of infertility

A

Tuboplasty
Lysis of adhesions

1087
Q

causes of infertility

A

combined factors: 40%
male factors: 26-30 %
ovulatory dysfunction 21-25%
tubal factors 14-20 %
other : cervical, peritoneal, uterine) 10-13 %
unexplaned 25-28%

1088
Q

3 classes of ovulatory dysfunction

A

1) hypothalamic (low FSH, LH, low estradiol)
-low BMI, amenorrhea, athletes, ED, pituitary tumors, prolactinoma)

2) hypothalamic ituitary ovarian axis:
-Normal FSH LH, normal Estradiol
-oligomenorrha and other signs of hormonal imbalance

3) hypogonadic - ovarian insufficiency (high FSH LH, low estradiol)
-amenorrhea, signs of estrogen deficiency
-hot flashes, vaginal dryness, POI, post chemo

1089
Q

aim of TSH in fertility/conception

A

TSH under 2.5

1090
Q

folate sensitive defects:

A

neural tuve defects, congenital heart and urinary tract defects, oral facial clefts, limb reduction anaomalies

1091
Q

dose for folic acide in rpe conception and indication for high dose

A

(0.4֪-1.0 mg)

If a woman with obesity
has had a previous fetus or child with a folate-sensitive fetal
anomaly other than a neural tube defect, she should take a folic acid
supplement containing the recommended dosage for women at
increased risk (4e5 mg) (conditional, low)

1 to 4-5 mg /d if:
-previous pregnancy iwth neural tube defect or
women with a previous
fetus or neonate with
another folic acidesensitive
congenital anomaly,
such as:
! congenital heart defects
! oral facial clefts
! limb-reduction defects
! urinary-tract defects

-neural tube defect in mother,
-first relative with neural tube defect
-pre-gestationl diabetes, GI pathologies, surgical bypass
-use of methotrexate, phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate, sulfasalazine
-alcohol use disorder
-hx non compliance iwth oral med

1 mg if moderate risk
-from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation
and switching to the standard low-dose regimen of 0.4 mg
of folic acid daily after 12 weeks

1092
Q

how long should the high dosage supplementtation of folic acide in conception last?

A

2 separate periods of
supplementation: from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation (see
below), and from 12 weeks gestation until completion of breastfeeding, when the folic acid supplementation dosage reverts to the
low-dosage regimen (strong, high

1093
Q

for how long should pregnant women take folic acid?

A

2-3 months before conception,
throughout the pregnancy, and for 4e6 weeks postpartum or as
long as breastfeeding continues

1094
Q

for how long should pregnant women take folic acid?

A

2-3 months before conception,
throughout the pregnancy, and for 4e6 weeks postpartum or as
long as breastfeeding continues

1095
Q

cranial nerve root associated with different reflexes

A

biceps C6
tricep C7
brachioradialis C5-6
hyperreflexia: check upper motoneuron signs and check lower extremity
plantar reflexes

1096
Q

open fracture management

A

irrigation of wound
reduction
splint
tetanus booster
IV antibiotics Cefazolin (ancef) 1st line

1097
Q

scaphoid fracture management

A

Snuffbox tenderness
* Ulnar deviation
If no snuffbox tenderness but still
high index of suspicion?
* Splint and repeat X-ray in 10-14 days
* OR CT/MRI/bone scan and cast q2
weeks until clinically healed
* Fracture clinic

1098
Q

complication sof scaphoid fx

A

Risk of non-union and avascular
necrosis
* Highest risk in the proximal 1/3 of the
scaphoid

1099
Q

type of splint for scaphoid fx

A
  • Thumb spica splint
1100
Q

supracondylar fracture signs on XR

A
  • Posterior sail sign
  • When in doubt, compare
    with X-ray of opposite
    elbow

High risk of
neurovascular injury

1101
Q

most common elbow fracture

A

supracondylar fracture

1102
Q

most commonly injured artery and nerves in supracondylar fracture

A

brachial artery

Most commonly injured
nerve?
* Anterior interosseous
nerve (extension)
* Ulnar nerve (flexion)

1103
Q

management of supracondylar fracture

A

Non-circumferential sugartong and gutter splint
* Sling 1-3 weeks
* Orthopedic follow-up

1104
Q

complications of fracture in splint

A

compartment syndrome

1105
Q

shoulder dislocation exam

A

neuro exam:
-axillary nerve,
radial and ulnar nerves

1106
Q

shoulder dislocation associated bony injuries

A

Bony Bankart lesion (anterior
glenoid rim #)
* Hill-Sachs deformity (cortical
depression in the posteriolateral
head of the humerus)
* Avulsion of greater tuberosity

CT/MRI for bony Bankart

1107
Q

most common type of dislocation

A

anterior 95%

1108
Q

management of acute shoulder dislocation without a fracture

A
  • Cunningham (gentle downward traction while
    massaging)
  • Stimson (prone with affected arm hanging
    down)
  • Milch (longitudinal traction and external
    rotation)
  • Traction – countertraction
    Analgesia (conscious sedation vs. intra-articular lidocaine)
1109
Q

post reduction management of shoulder dislocation

A

Repeat neuro exam
* Repeat X-ray
* Sling immobilization 1-3 weeks, ortho follow-up,
and physiotherapy

1110
Q

diagnosis if rapid development of knee after acute injury

A

hemarthrosis

1111
Q

knee XR ottawa rules

A

age 55 or older
isolated tenderness to patella
tenderness to head of fibula
connot flex 90 degrees
unable to bear weight both immediately and in the ER for 4 steps

1112
Q

associated fractures with ACL tear

A

segond fracture
tibial spine fracture

1113
Q

management of ACL tear in ER if no fracture seen

A

tensor bandage,
crutches
reassess in 2 weeks
ortho FU
physiotherapy

1114
Q

Gwen, 86
* From semi-autonomous residence, history of
hypertension, diabetes, COPD
* Unwitnessed fall, found face down
* Pain left knee and groin
* No obvious shortening or internal rotation
* No swelling or pain on palpation of her left knee
* Cannot walk or raise her leg

What would you like to do first?

A

ABCs, vitals, glucose
* Mental status exam. Confused? Agitated?
* CT head? CT C-spine?
* ECG
* Labs (eg. CK, creatinine)
* Imaging

1115
Q

hip fracture presentation in elderly

A
  • Hip injury may present as
    knee pain, especially in the
    elderly
  • Findings suspicious for hip #:
  • New inability to weight bear
  • Hip pain on axial loading of leg
  • Inability to straight leg raise
1116
Q

pt pt has suspcion of fracture but not seen on Xr, what is the next step

A

CT/MRI of the left hip

1117
Q

hip fracture management

A

Admission
* Orthopedics consult (need for ORIF depends on baseline function
and operative risk)

Analgesia (acetaminophen, opioids)
* Consider fascia iliaca block

1118
Q

what to Suspect if tenderness of instability on palpation of ASIS, ecchymosis of pelvis/perineum, blood from urethral meatus

A

Pelvic fracture
Consider pelvic binder/tourniquet

1119
Q

limb-threatening injury - urgent orthopedic consultation (VONCHOP)

A

Vascular compromise
Open fracture
Neuro compromise (Cauda equina syndrome) or potential neuro compromise (unstable C-spine fracture)
Compartment syndrome
Hip dislocation
Osteomyelitis / Septic arthritis
Unstable Pelvic fracture

1120
Q

salter components

A

1- Same = Transverse through growth plate
2 - Above = Through metaphysis
3 - Low = Through epiphysis
4 - Through = Both metaphysis/epiphysis
5 - Ram = Crush injury

1121
Q

types of orientation and alignment of fractures

A

Orientation (eg. Transverse, oblique, comminuted, intra-articular)
Alignment (displacement, distracted angulation, translation, rotation)

1122
Q

Common occult fractures (negative initial imaging)

A

Scaphoid fractures (see below)
Distal radius, femur neck fracture, radial head fracture, supracondylar fracture, growth plate fracture in children

1123
Q

indications for Open reduction (Surgery)

A

Open fracture (irrigate/clean/debride wound)
Displaced / Non-union
Intraarticular (Salter-Harris 3,4,5)
Polytrauma / Comminuted
Spiral/Oblique (Easily to be displaced)

1124
Q

Closed reduction procedure

A

Local nerve block, hematoma block, procedural sedation
Three-way slab splint if significant swelling or cast (ensure joint immoblized)
Post-reduction X-ray

Antibiotics and Tetanus as needed

1125
Q

complications of fractures

A

Arterial injury / Avascular necrosis
Nerve injury
Compartment syndrome
Thromboembolic disease / Fat embolism
Infection / Open fracture
Fracture blisters

Non-acute
Osteomyelitis
Nonunion / Malunion
Osteoarthritis / Post-traumatic arthritis
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

1126
Q

testssca for scaphoid

A

Radial deviation of wrist (scaphoid compressed between radius and second metacarpal)
Scaphoid compression test (axial loading/telescope thumb into wrist, to compress scaphoid between radius and first metacarpal)
Ulnar deviation with Snuffbox tenderness (use pinky to be more precise)
Wrist extension and tenderness on volar-side scaphoid tubercle (only will be positive in proximal injuries)
Watson’s Test (extend wrist and then radial/ulnar deviate while pushing on volar-side of scaphoid looking for pain/click)
Rule out scapholunate dissociation (ligament injury that should be treated like scaphoid fracture)

1127
Q

findings on Xr for scaphoid fracture

A

Widened space (>3mm) between scaphoid and lunate = Scapholunate dissociation

1128
Q

distal radius ulnar joint injury findings on exam

A

pain over distal ulna after FOOsh injury

Piano Key sign (ballot ulnar styloid)
Crepitus in pronation/supination
Ulnar fovea sign (point tenderness over ulnar capsule)

1129
Q

Xr findings of distal radius ulnar joint injury

A

AP wrist
Widening distal ulna/radius >2mm
Lateral wrist
Dorsal displacement (in most DRUJ dislocations)
Reduce and above-elbow splint in forearm supination

1130
Q

management of lisfranc injury

A

Posterior back slab, non weight-bearing
Follow-up orthopedics

1131
Q

calcaneal fracture xray finding

A

Suspect in fall from height (Calcaneus, ankle, pelvic, spinal)
Harris view X-ray - look for Bohler’s Angle <20%
Consider Ortho

1132
Q

knee dislocation imaging to do

A

Consider CT angiogram in suspected knee dislocations (3+ ligament laxity

1133
Q

what to suspect if acute pain, inability to actively extend knee, suprapatellar gap

A

quadriceps tear
-immobilize (zimmer splint) and ortho FU

1134
Q

what to suspect in Young <25yo, with hip/buttock/groin pain usually after running, jumping, kicking

A

pelvic apophyseal avulsion fracture
Management
Non-weight-bearing (crutches) then weaning as tolerated

1135
Q

findings on exam for hio fracture

A

Percussion test (stethoscope on pubic symphysis and percuss on patella each side)
Groind tenderness
Inability to SLR
Painful hip movement
Pain on axial loading

1136
Q

ottawa ankle and foot rule criterias

A

bone tenderness at posterior edge or tip of lateral malleolus (6 cm) or medial mallolus, or base of 5ft metatarsal or navicular bone
inability to bear with immediately and in er department

1137
Q

canadian c spine rule criteria

A

over 65 yo
dangerous mechanism
paresthesias in extremities
able to actively rotate neck

low risk factors to assess ROM:
-simple rearend MVC
stitting position in ED
ambulatory at any time
delayed onset of neck pain
absence of midline C spine tenderness

dangerous mechanism
-fall from elevation more than 3 feet or 5 stairs
axial load to head (ex diving)
mvc high speed (over 100km/h), rollover, ejection
motorized recreational vehicles
bicycle collision

1138
Q

contraindication to vaccines

A

Anaphylaxis or other serious reaction (eg. Guillain-Barre syndrome) upon administration of previous dose of a particular vaccine

Anaphylactic reaction or other serious reaction to a component of a vaccine (eg. egg, gelatin, latex, neomycin, thimerosal)

Pregnant or immunocompromised/suppressed, active TB should not receive LIVE vaccines (BCG, Zostavax, LAIV, MMRV, rotavirus, Smallpox Typhoid [oral], Yellow fever)

Consider delaying inactivated vaccines 1-3 months after immunosuppressive therapy

1139
Q

name live vaccines

A

BCG, Zostavax, LAIV, MMRV, rotavirus, Smallpox Typhoid [oral], Yellow fever

1140
Q

contraindications to Live attenuated influenza vaccine:

A

Severe asthma

Medically attended wheezing in the 7 days prior to vaccination

1141
Q

Rotavirus vaccine containdication

A

Uncorrected congenital malformation of GI tract

Previous intussusception

1142
Q

Measles vaccine contraindications

A

Neomycin/gelatin allergy

1143
Q

can Minor acute illness receive vaccines

A

yes

except;
GI illness for rotavirus (if does not affect dose scheduling age limit), oral cholera, and traveller’s diarrhea vaccine

Significant nasal congestion that will impede delivery of live-attenuated influenza vaccine

1144
Q

Adverse events that are not contraindications to vaccination

A

Limb swelling, febrile seizure, hypotonic-hyporesponsive episode, inconsolable crying, oculo-respiratory syndrome (except influenza contraindicated)

1145
Q

when to immunize

A

In infancy

Before pregnancy

Before traveling

When new to the country if not previously immunized

1146
Q

how to answer to myths about vaccines side effects

A

Most common side effects are mild fever and sore extremity. Serious reactions (death, encephalopathy) are so rare that their incidence cannot be calculated.

1147
Q

how to counsel on link between autims and vaccines

A

The original paper in the Lancet publishing this association was recently withdrawn and there have been no definitive cases to support this claim. This was originally associated with a preservative agent called thimerosal. The only vaccines in Canada that are given to children and contain thimerosal are the multidose influenza vaccine and Hepatitis B. Both these vaccinations are available in formulations that do not contain thimerosal (ex. Vaxigrip for children and pregnant mothers). The only true contraindication to thimerosal is anaphylaxis.

1148
Q

how to counsel on pts who say Vaccines don’t work

A

No vaccine is entirely effective. If a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak does occur, some vaccinated individuals will contract the disease. However the proportion of unvaccinated individuals who contract the disease will be much higher than the proportion of vaccinated individuals.

1149
Q

how to counsel on pts who say Vaccine-preventable diseases no longer exist in Canada

A

Certainly some vaccine-preventable diseases are rarely, if ever, seen in Canada and herd immunity for unvaccinated individuals does occur. However, unvaccinated individuals may still be exposed in their lifetime given the immigrant population that may not have been vaccinated or if the unvaccinated chooses to travel later in life.

1150
Q

why vaccinate

A

To protect yourself from common (HiB, Influenza, Varicella) or serious (Tetanus, Hepatitis, Meningococcemia) preventable infectious diseases.

To protect individuals in society who are unable to receive vaccinations (newborns, immunocompromised, elderly)

1151
Q

when should premature infants receive immunization

A

Premature infants should receive immunizations at the same time (chronological age) as term infants, ie. do not delay vaccinations - in Quebec first vaccines at 2 months old

1152
Q

which vaccine to give patients who have asplenia, hyposplenia

A

Pneumococcal (most common infection in asplenia)

Meningococcal

Haemophilus Influenza Type B

Influenza

Hep A and B if repeated transfusions

1153
Q

which vaccine to give pts who have chronic liver disease

A

Hepatitis A and B

Influenza

+/- Pneumococal

1154
Q

indications for Pneumococcal 23-valent

vaccine

A

≥65yo, <65 with specific risk factors

1155
Q

indications for Herpes zoster
vaccine

A

≥60yo (consider 50-59yo), immunosuppressed

Live attenuated (Zostavax) vs. Non-live recombinant adjuvanted (Shingrix)
-1 dose vs. 2 doses (2 months apart)
-Herpes Zoster relative risk reduction 51% (NNT 59) vs. 97% (NNT 37)
-Post-herpetic neuralgia RR reduction 67% (NNT 364) vs. 89%

Adults ≥50yo who are known VZV seronegative should be given univalent varicella vaccine rather than herpes zoster

1156
Q

HPV4 or HPV9 vaccination age and indications

A

9-26yo and ≥27yo who are at ongoing risk

PIQ recommends vaccinating women 9-45yo, men 9-26yo even if previous HPV exposure

1157
Q

Tetanus/Diphtheria (Td)
vaccine indication

A

Primary series for unimmunized, and booster every 10y (Note: In Quebec, current guideline is for one single booster after 50yo)

Earlier if non-clean/minor wound (if fully vaccinated >5y, if not fully vaccinated needs complete series with Ig)

1158
Q

Rabies vaccines indication

A

Pre- or post-exposure if high-risk, consider call local public health for risk assessment

1159
Q

pertussis indication

A

Once in adulthood (Tdap), as early as possible if close contact with young infants

One dose during each pregnancy ideally between 26-32 weeks gestation

1160
Q

Influenza indication

A

Annually for all, focus on high risk (6mo-5yo, ≥65yo, chronic disease, pregnancy/postpartum, healthcare worker, frequent contact with above)

Not recommended in <6 months old as effectiveness not proven

Children <9yo are recommended to get 2 doses one month apart for their first influenza vaccine

1161
Q

Hep A&B

indication

A

Risk or anyone who wants protection from hep B

1162
Q

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine

indication

A

Up to 24yo not immunized, or risk

1163
Q

MMR vaccine indication

A

For susceptible adults born in or after 1970 or risk of exposure (traveller, healthcare worker, student, military)

1164
Q

varicella vaccine indication

A

If susceptible or seronegative (2 doses)

1165
Q

mental competency definition

A

legal status judged by a legal professional

Situation-specific (care for self, sign out AMA, stand trial, sign a POA, change a will, financial decisions)

May be competent to make care decisions but not financial decisions

1166
Q

how is consent considered valid

A

Must be voluntary (without duress/coercion)
Patient must have the mental capacity to consent
Understands nature of proposed options, anticipated effect of options, and consequences of refusing
Patient must be properly informed
Diagnosis, proposed investigation/treatments, chance of success, alternatives, consequences of refusing

1167
Q

elements to discuss with patient who has no more mental competency

A

advance care directive (living will)

Substitute decision maker
If not assigned, by hierarchy:
Guardian appointed by the court
Power of Attorney for personal care
Representative appointed by Consent and Capacity Board
Spouse, common-law spouse or partner
Child (if >16yo) or parent (custodial)
Parent with right of access only (non-custodial parents)
Brother or sister
Any other relative
Office of the Public Guardian and Trustee

1168
Q

diagnosis that may increase the likelihood of cognitive and/or functional impairment

A

dementia, stroke, severe mental illness, head injury

1169
Q

wound treatment

A

Wound irrigation
Foreign body removal, necrotic tissue debridement
Tetanus vaccine as needed (minor clean wound >10y, otherwise >5y + Ig if not fully vaccinated)
priamry vs secondary closure

1170
Q

primary closure time frame

A

up to 18h (Facial wounds up to 24-72h if no risk factors for infection)

1171
Q

types of sutures for primary suture

A

Extends through dermis, careful approximation (eg. vermillion border), tension
Simple interrupted standard
Vertical mattress if tension and edges fall or fold into wound
Horizontal mattress for eversion in areas of high tension

1172
Q

procedure for primary closure

A

Clean with antiseptic around wound (but not inside wound to avoid impaired wound healing)
Local anesthetic 25-30G needle with lidocaine 1% with epi between dermis and subcutaneous tissue
Avoid dose exceeding:
Lidocaine without epi 5mg/kg (max 300mg = 30mL lidocaine 1%, 15mL lidocaine 2%)
Lido with epi 7 mg/kg (max 500mg = 50mL lido 1% with epi)
Irrigate wound vigorously (60mL syringe with splash guard)
Drape wound + sterile gloves
Explore wound (look for vessels, nerves, tendons, structure)
Suture (ensure depth greater than width, entering and exiting wound at 90 degrees)
6-0 for face, 3-0 for thick skin (back, scalp, palms, soles), 4-0 for rest

1173
Q

when to remove sutures

A

5 days (face), 7-10 days (scalp, arms), 10-14 days (trunk, legs, hands, feet), 14-21 days (palms, soles, high tension)

1174
Q

Tissue adhesive or tape indication

A

<5cm, low tension, elderly fragile skin

1175
Q

Staples indication

A

Noncosmetic region, long linear >5cm (faster closure)

1176
Q

when should u not close wound with sutures

A

Concern about wound infection, risk factors of proper wound healing (eg. immunocompromised, peripheral artery disease)

Animal bites (especially if noncosmetic area)
Consider prophylactic Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Clavulin) 25-45 mg/kg divided q12h (max dose 875/125) mg every 12 hours x5d (unless dog bite not on hand)
Consider post-exposure rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin within 24h if high risk (call public health, send animal to laboratory if available)
Consider HIV/Hep B/C in human bites

Deep puncture wounds when irrigation not effective
Actively bleeding (first hemostasis to prevent hematoma)
Superficial wounds (epidermis)

1177
Q

Differentiate joint vs. soft tissue

A

Arthritis: Pain on ROM, decreased ROM, swelling, erythema
Soft tissue: ROM preserved, tendernes over bursae, tendons, or ligaments

1178
Q

ddx of joint pain

A

Trauma
-Hemarthrosis is associated with intraarticular fractures, dislocations, ligamentous injury

Infection (Septic arthritis)
-Gonoccocal can present as purulent arthritis or a triad of tenosynovitis, vesiculopustular skin lesions, and polyarthralgias
-Non gonococcal bacterial infections should be suspected in IVDU, immunocompromised, prosthetic joint
Other: Mycobacterial, fungal, Lyme

Crystal-induced arthritis
Gout (monosodium urate crystal)
Pseudogout (CPPD)

Osteoarthritis

Systemic
-Seronegative spondyloarthritis (suspect in enthesitis, dactylitis, conjunctivitis/uveitis, psoriasis)
-Reactive arthritis
-Psoriatic arthritis
-Inflammatory bowel disease-associated arthritis

Sarcoid periarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Myelodysplastic and leukemic disorders
Mechanical derangement
Neoplasm

1179
Q

joint pain red flags

A

Hot/swollen joints
Constitutional symptoms (high-grade fever, weight loss, malaise)
Morning stiffness >30 minutes
Night pain
Weakness
Neurological (burning pain, numbness, or paresthesia)

1180
Q

skin changes related to joint pain

A

Skin changes (Psoriasis, Malar rash, Erythema nodosum)

1181
Q

investigations for joint pain

A

Imaging (XR, US, CT, MRI)
Consider avoiding imaging in absence of trauma or focal bone pain
Joint aspiration
Gross appearance
Crystal analysis
White cell count and differential
<2,000/mm3 usually non-inflammatory
>20,000 suspect septic arthritis
Gram stain and Culture
Consider Labs
CBC
LFT
ESR/CRP
ANA, RF, Anti-CCP
(HLA)-B27
Coags (in hemarthrosis)

1182
Q

ddx of liver disease

A

Noninfective
Alcohol
NAFLD/NASH
Drug-induced (Acetaminophen, INH, tetracyclines, antiepileptics/phenytoin)
Autoimmune
Infective
Hepatitis B/C/D (Blood/body fluid/sexual)
Hepatitis A/E (Fecal/oral, usually self-limited)

1183
Q

risk factors of hepatitis

A

Medication history (OTC, herbal and dietary supplements)
Alcohol consumption
IVDU / Needle stick exposures
Tattoos or body piercings
High-risk sexual contact
Blood transfusion prior to 1992
Travel to areas endemic for hepatitis

Prior hepatobiliary disease (including gallstones)
Prior inflammatory bowel disease (autoimmune)
History of diabetes, skin pigmentation, cardiac disease, arthritis, hypogonadism (hemochromatosis)
History of blood disorders (hemolysis)
Family history of inherited liver disorders

1184
Q

signs and sx of hepatitis

A

Light-colored stools, pruritus, dark urine (bilirubinuria)
Acute pain in RUQ, ascites (hematologic diseases, may have hepatic vein thrombosis)
Fever/weight loss/night sweats (acute viral hepatitis of any etiology)

1185
Q

P/E findings of liver disease

A

Jaundice
Malnutrition
Temporal and proximal muscle wasting
Hormonal
Spider nevi, caput medusa, palmar erythema, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
Decompensated Cirrhosis
Ascites, peripheral edema
Neuro
Hepatic encephalopathy
Asterixis
Alcohol abuse
Dupuytren’s contracture, parotid enlargement, testicular atrophy

1186
Q

Anti-HAV Ab positive interpretation

A

Past or current infection

1187
Q

Anti-HCV Ab positive interpretation

A

past or current infection

1188
Q

Infection (if persists >6 months = chronic infection)

A

Infection (if persists >6 months = chronic infection)

1189
Q

Anti-HBs

A

Immunity due to infection or immunization

1190
Q

Anti-HBc total (IgM and IgG)

A

Past or current infection (IgG usually persists for life)

1191
Q

HBeAg

A

High infectivity (viral replication)

1192
Q

Anti-HBe

A

Appears with recovery from acute infection
In chronic infection, the presence of Anti-HBe suggests low infectivity

1193
Q

Isolated Anti-HBc positive DDx

A

False positive result/lab error (most common)
Positive Anti-HBe infers prior HBV exposure, and unlikely false positive
“Window phase” - resolving acute infection before the appearance of anti-HBs
“Remote resolved HBV infection” - undetectable anti-HBs due to a decline in antibody titre over time
“Occult HBV”, chronic infection with undetectable HBsAg (rare)

1194
Q

HBV DNA viral load interpretation and management

A

If negative
Booster (or complete series) and follow-up HBsAb after 1-2 months if responds with immunity
If no response to booster to ensure not occult HBV, consider repeat viral load q3-6 months until undetectable x 2-3

Test co-infection HIV/HCV
See below (Positive Hepatitis) if chronic carrier

1195
Q

Hepatitis B screening labs and who to screen

A

HbsAg, anti-HBs, anti HBc total

Review HBV immunization history, previous testing
Consider screen if high-risk (eg. exposures, travel, family history, abnormal liver tests)
Screen all pregnancy, HIV/HCV, immunocompromised (or planned therapy)

1196
Q

who to screen for hep C

A

IVDU, needle-stick injury, hemodialysis, pregnancy
Canadian Taskforce does not recommend people born in Canada between 1950-1975 be screened

1197
Q

prevention from hepatitis

A

Abstain from alcohol
Vaccination against Hep A/B
Screen pregnancy
Mothers with high HBV viral loads should be given antiviral therapy to further reduce the risk of infection in the newborn
Follow-up infants (HBV vaccine and HBIG within 12h after birth, with repeat vaccine at 1 and 6 months)

1198
Q

management of pregnant women with high viral load

A

antiviral therapy
infants HBV vaccine and HBIG within 12h after birth
repeat vaccine at 1 and 6 months

1199
Q

management of hepatitis post exposure

A

Clean wounds, avoid any further blood/body fluid exchange until cleared
Vaccinate Hep A/B as indicated
Screen all contacts and offer PEP as indicated

1200
Q

Hepatitis A preventative measures

A

Hygiene practices: Handwash, avoid tap water, raw foods, heating foods >85°C

1201
Q

who to offer PEP for Hep A

A

close personal contacts, child care contacts, food handlers (not warranted in a single case of Hep A in school or hospital)

For healthy individuals aged 12 months to 40 years
HAV Vaccine (Havrix 1mL IM x1)
For individuals ≥41 years or <12 months, immunocompromised, chronic liver disease, allergic to the vaccine
Hepatitis A immune globulin 0.02 mL/kg IM x1

The combination vaccine TWINRIX should not be used for postexposure prophylaxis

1202
Q

hep B PEP

A

PEP not required if either source or exposed has either
Recorded previous (at any time) anti-HBs ≥10 IU/L
History of recovery from HBV infection
Hep B vaccine (0, 1-2, and 4-6 months) if source HBsAg-positive or HBV-unknown
Within 24 hours of exposure, and complete three-dose series (zero, one, six months) if not vaccinated
HBIG 0.06 mL/kg IM x1 if source HBsAg-positive or high risk (e.g., IVDU, MSM)
As soon as possible, within 7 days of percutaneous exposure or within 14 days of sexual exposure
Repeat dose at 28-30 days after exposure in non-responders to Hepatitis B vaccine or in patients who refuse vaccination
If PEP given, do anti-HBc and HBsAg after 6 months to assess for HBV transmission

1203
Q

Hepatitis C PEP

A

No PEP recommended
Close observation for those who had percutaneous or high-risk sexual exposure (unless source negative HCV RNA)
If source HCV RNA positive, repeat HCV RNA at 4w, and HCV RNA + HCV Ab at 3 and 6 months
If source HCV RNA unknown, repeat HCV Ab six months after exposure
Delay treatment for six months minimum to monitor for spontaneous clearance of HCV RNA

1204
Q

if pt is Hep B or C positive, how to do harm reduction

A

Inform health care providers (dentist, nurse, other physicians) and other providers eg. (acupuncturist, tattoo artist) of infection
Do not donate blood/semen/tissues
Safely dispose of blood (hygiene products, floss, bandages, needles)
Cover cuts/sores
Do not share personal hygiene materials and sharp instruments (razors, nail clippers, toothbrushes, glucometers)

Ensure all partner/household members/drug use partners are tested and immunized if susceptible (Hep B vaccine free for susceptible contacts)
Condom-use until partners test immune
Avoid medication or alternative therapies (herbals) that may affect or be affected by liver
Go to ER if black stools or vomiting blood

1205
Q

labs to do in hep B or C positive patient

A

Bilirubin (total and direct), albumin, INR (PT), creatinine
ALT, AST, ALP
CBC
Test co-infection HIV status, Hep B/C
Assess infectiousness - HBV DNA, HbeAg

1206
Q

how to manage HBsAg positive

A

Management focus on relief of symptoms, monitoring, prevention of complications and transmission
Does not require antiviral treatment for acute Hep B as most (95%) will clear
Refer if deteriorating liver failure (INR, bilirubin, platelet, encephalopathy)

1207
Q

management of chronic hep B carrier

A

If confirmed chronic carrier
HIV/HCV (if not done already)
HBeAg
Repeat labs
ALT q6 months
HBV DNA (viral load) q1 year
Ultrasound (+/- AFP) q6-12 months for HCC
Cirrhosis
HIV/HCV co-infection
African descent>20yo
Men>40yo, Women>50yo
Family history of hepatoma
Referral to specialist (treatment with interferon injections or oral nucleoside/nucleotide analogues)
Usually if elevated ALT or HBV DNA >2000 IU/mL

1208
Q

HRR risk factors

A

Cirrhosis
HIV/HCV co-infection
African descent>20yo
Men>40yo, Women>50yo
Family history of hepatoma

1209
Q

treatment of upper GI bleed

A

Gown, gloves, face shield mask
Oxygen, monitor, BP cycle
NPO
Two large IVs
NG + Elective endotracheal intubation if ongoing hematemesis, altered mental status, or risk of aspiration
Fluid resuscitation
Type and Screen or Cross-match if risk
Blood transfusions to maintain Hb >70g/L (consider >90g/L if massive bleeding or comorbid eg. CAD)
Avoid overtransfusing patients in variceal bleeding - can worsen bleeding
Consider platelets, plasma if receiving massive RBC transfusions
In patients with variceal bleeding OR undifferentiated bleeding in cirrhosis,
Prophylactic antibiotics (Ceftriaxone 1g IV daily x 7d) as 50% risk of infections when hospitalized for UGIB (UTI, SBP, pneumonia, bacteremia)
PPI - Reduces rebleeding in high-risk ulcers treated with endoscopic therapy
Omeprazole 40mg IV BID or Pantoloc 40mg IV BID
Pantoloc 80mg bolus and 8mg/h drip has not been shown to be superior
Prokinetic - Promotes gastric emptying, shown to reduce second endoscopy
Consider Erythromycin 3mg/kg or 250mg IV over 30 mins (30 mins-90mins prior to endoscopy)
Somatostatin (and analogs) in suspected variceal bleeding, however may have a role in nonvariceal bleeding in settings where endoscopy is unavailable
Octreotide 50mcg IV bolus then 50mcg/hour
Balance risks and benefits of anticoagulant and antiplatelet agents reversal
Warfarin → Vitamin K
Heparin → Protamine, Fresh frozen plasma
Dabigatran → Praxbind (Idarucizumab)
Balloon tamponade for uncontrollable hemorrhage, intubation necessary prior
GI consultation for early endoscopy vs. interventional radiologist (angiography)
Can risk stratify (AIMS65, or Glasgow-Blatchford Score 0-1 denotes “low-risk” safe for discharge)

1210
Q

t higher risk for GI bleed

A

previous GI
bleed, intensive care unit admission, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
drugs, alcohol

1211
Q

labs in upper GI bleed

A

CBC (Hb, platelets), Chem (BUN, creat), Liver enzymes (AST, ALT), Coag (INR), Albumin
EKG, Troponin if risk of MI (older, hx of CAD, chest pain or dyspnea)

1212
Q

ddx UGIB

A

Bleed
Peptic ulcer
Esophagogastric varices
AV malformations
Tumor
Esophageal (Mallory-Weiss) tear
Esophagitis/Gastritis
Not bleed
Beet
Iron
Pepto-Bismol

1213
Q

DDx LGIB

A

Diverticulosis - most common
Angiodysplasia
Colitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Infectious
Neoplastic
Anorectal (hemorrhoids, anal fissures, rectal ulcers)

1214
Q

labs in sexual assault

A

Urine and Serum B-hCG
STI screen
HIV : (0-6w-12w-24w)
Syphilis EIA or RPR
Gonorrhea and chlamydia PCR
HBsAg, HepBsAb
Optional
Wet mount/culture for trichomoniasis vaginalis
HCV (consider in high risk, IVDU)

1215
Q

management of sexual assault

A

Pregnancy prophylaxis :
-ullipristal
-plan B
- Yuzpe (estrogen + progesterone)
-copper IUD

Prevention of STI:
-cefixime 400mg x 1 for gono
-azithro 1g Ix 1 for chlam or doxy 100mg po BID x 7 d
-metronidazole if positive for trichomoniasis
-tx for syphilis
-hep B (HBIG, 3 doses of hep B vaccines 0-1-6m)
-HIV prophylaxis

1216
Q

treatment of gonorrhea:

A

urethral, endocervical or rectal : ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1
or Cefixime 800mg PO x1 AND azithromycin 2g PO x 1

if pharyngeal infection : Ceftriaxone 250 mg, IM, en dose unique

if oral exposition for partne

1217
Q

chlamydia tx

A

Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x7d or Azithromycin 1g PO x1

Doxycycline PO preferred for rectal chlamydia

Azithromycin PO preferred in pregnancy

1218
Q

syphilis

A

Primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis:

Pen G 2.4 million units IM x1

1219
Q

Trichomoniasis (green-yellow malodorous discharge, burning, dyspareunia)

A

Metronidazole 2g PO x1

Treat partner

Bacterial STI or trichomonas should abstain from unprotected sex until 7d after treatment of both partners complete

1220
Q

HSV1 (gingovostomatitis +/- pharyngitis, then recurrent herpes labialis)

A

Initial (within 72h or ongoing new lesions/pain): Acyclovir 400mg PO TID, Famciclovir 500mg PO TID , Valacyclovir 1000mg PO BID x 7-10d

If severe odynophagia, consider IV acyclovir

Recurrent episodic: Famciclovir 1500mg PO x 1 dose or Valacyclovir 2g PO BID x 1 day

Chronic: Acyclovir 400mg PO BID or Valacyclovir 500mg PO daily

1221
Q

HSV2 (genital herpes simplex) tx

A

Initial (within 72h or ongoing new lesions/pain): Acyclovir 400mg PO TID, Famciclovir 250mg PO TID , Valacyclovir 1000mg PO BID x 7-10d

Recurrent episodic: Acyclovir 800mg PO TID x2d, Famciclovir 1000mg PO BID x 1 day, Valacyclovir 500mg PO BID x3d

Chronic suppressive: Valacyclovir 500-1000mg PO daily

1222
Q

HPV tx

A

Imiquimod 5% cream qHS 3/week x 15w, wash off after 6-10h

Podofilox 0.5% solution BID x3d then none x4d, repeat PRN x4

Cryotherapy

1223
Q

tx for gonorrhea if allergy to pnc or cephaloscporine

A

Gentamicine6
240 mg IM (en deux injections de 3 ml)
ET
Azithromycine3
2 g PO en dose unique

1224
Q

une recommandation indiquant de s’abstenir d’avoir des contacts sexuels jusqu’à 7 jours après la fin d’un traitement à dose
unique OU jusqu’à la fin d’un traitement à doses multiples ET jusqu’à la résolution des symptômes2 :

A
1225
Q

In high-risk patients who are symptomatic for STIs, provide treatment before
confirmation by laboratory results

A
1226
Q

when to retest patient for chlamydia and who

A

Un test de contrôle n’est pas recommandé dans
les cas d’infection à C. trachomatis, sauf dans les
situations suivantes:
„ Persistance ou apparition de signes ou
symptômes
„ Grossesse
„ Problème anticipé d’adhésion au traitement
„ Utilisation d’un schéma thérapeutique autre
que ceux recommandés
„ Infection rectale à C. trachomatis traitée avec
azithromycine
„ Infection à C. trachomatis de génotype L1-3 (LGV

TAAN effectué le plus tôt possible à partir
de 3 semaines après la fin du traitement

1227
Q

when to retest for gonorrhea

A

Un test de contrôle est recommandé dans tous les cas
d’infection gonococcique, en particulier dans les situations
suivantes:
„ Persistance ou apparition de signes ou symptômes
„ Grossesse
„ Problème anticipé d’adhésion au traitement
„ Utilisation d’un schéma thérapeutique autre que ceux
recommandés
„ Infection pharyngée (même si traitée avec ceftriaxone)
„ Utilisation du schéma thérapeutique combinant la
gentamicine et l’azithromycine dans le cadre d’un
antécédent de réaction allergique
„ Résistance démontrée ou sensibilité réduite1
à l’un des
antibiotiques utilisés
„ Partenaire d’une personne chez qui une résistance ou une
sensibilité réduite1
à l’un des antibiotiques utilisés a été
démontrée

1228
Q

when and who to retest for gonorrhea after tx

A

En cas d’infection pharyngée2
:
TAAN3
et culture effectués le plus tôt possible à partir de
2 semaines après la fin du traitement OU culture4
effectuée le
plus tôt possible à partir de 3 jours et jusqu’à 2 semaines après
la fin du traitement.
En cas d’infection autre que pharyngée2 :
TAAN effectué le plus tôt possible à partir de 2 semaines après
la fin du traitement5
. Si la personne présente des symptômes
au moment de la visite de contrôle, procéder également à un
prélèvement pour culture. Une culture effectuée le plus tôt
possible à partir de 3 jours et jusqu’à 2 semaines après la fin du
traitement est également envisageable.

1229
Q

management of sexual partners after dx of stds

A

Partenaires à joindre s’ils ont eu un contact sexuel avec la personne atteinte:
„dans les 60 jours précédant les premiers symptômes ou le prélèvement; OU
„pendant que la personne avait des symptômes; OU
„avant la fin du traitement à doses multiples ou moins de 7 jours après un traitement à dose unique.
Il peut être justifié, dans certaines situations, de rechercher des partenaires sur une plus longue période.
L’intervention devrait inclure:
„une évaluation clinique comprenant l’identification des facteurs de risque d’ITSS;
„un dépistage de l’infection à laquelle la personne a été exposée et des autres ITSS selon les facteurs de risque décelés, consulter
l’outil ITSS à rechercher selon les facteurs de risque décelés;
„en l’absence de signes et de symptômes, un traitement épidémiologique sans attendre les résultats du dépistage: algorithme
décisionnel;
„en présence de signes ou de symptômes: une approche syndromique;
„le soutien auprès de cette personne dans sa démarche visant la notification et le traitement de ses partenaires si les résultats des
analyses microbiologiques sont positifs.
Pour plus d’informations, consulter les outils Personne exposée à une ITSS : que faire? et Soutenir la personne atteinte d’une ITSS pour
qu’elle avise ses partenaires : quatre étapes.
Traitement accéléré du partenaire (TAP) :
„Il est préférable de faire l’évaluation de la condition de santé du partenaire sexuel avant l’activité de prescription afin qu’il reçoive
les meilleurs soins préventifs.
„Dans certaines circonstances, le traitement accéléré du partenaire (TAP) peut être utilisé après une analyse judicieuse des avantages
et des inconvénients. Le TAP demeure une mesure d’exception.
Pour plus d’informations, consulter l’aide-mémoire pour les cliniciens et l’aide-mémoire pour les pharmaciens

1230
Q
  • Lorsque le TAAN est positif pour NG demander une culture avant le début du traitement afin de déterminer la
    sensibilité de la souche. La culture ne doit toutefois pas retarder le traitement.
A
1231
Q

Délai minimal et période fenêtre pour CT, NG et LGV
* Procéder aux prélèvements sans attendre. Si le dépistage est réalisé avant la fin de la période fenêtre :
– tenir compte du fait que les infections auxquelles la personne a été exposée pendant ses dernières activités
sexuelles comportant un risque de transmission pourraient ne pas être détectées ;
– effectuer de nouveaux prélèvements à la fin de la période fenêtre lorsque les résultats sont négatifs.
* Délai minimal : inconnu.
* Fin de la période fenêtre : 14 jours.

A
1232
Q

periode fenetre VIH

A

3 months

1233
Q

post exposure prophylaxis for HIV

A

(Truvada plus raltegravir 400mg PO BID x 28d) if known HIV (or high-risk, eg. sex worker, MSM, IVDU)

1234
Q

HBV screening

A

HBsAg, HBsAb, HBcAb
Post-exposure baseline serologies (ensure HBsAb immune)

Vaccinate

Immunoglobulin if contact known HepBsAg positive

Repeat serology 2 months after vaccine series

1235
Q

HCV - HCV Ab (IVDU or MSM)

A

Post-exposure baseline HCV Ab

HCV RNA 3w after exposure (or HCV Ab 6 months after exposure)

1236
Q

Window period for STDs
Repeat testing at 6w, 12w, 6mo in the case of sexual assault

A

1w - Gonorrhea

2w - Chlamydia

12w - Syphilis, HIV, HBsAg /HCV Ab

1237
Q

Empiric IV antibiotics and fluids
<1 month old with fever

A

Ampicillin (100-200mg/kg/d IV divided q6h) + Cefotaxime 50mg/kg IV q8h or Gentamycin 2.5mg/kg IV q8h or Tobramycin 6mg/kg IV q24h with dose adjustments

1238
Q

antibiotics for >1month, urinary findings with fever

A

Cefotaxime 50mg/kg IV q8h

1239
Q

ped
empiric IV antibiotics and fluids 1-3 months

A

Non-meningitic: Ceftriaxone 50mg/kg/day IV divided q12-24h
Meningitis: Ceftriaxone 100mg/kg/day IV divided q12-24h
Add ampicillin for Listeria or enterococcus concern
Add vancomycin for MRSA if concern

Consider empiric antivirals (acyclovir), especially if suspect HSV meningitis

1240
Q

labs for kawasaki

A

WBC, platelet, AST, ALT, CRP, ESR, Urinalysis for pyuria, consider viral testing for alternative diagnoses

1241
Q

kawasaki criterias

A

Fever ≥ 5 days (if any of the 4 below criteria present at any time during illness, diagnose on day 4 of illness)

Conjunctivitis (bilateral nonexudative)
Rash (polymorphic)
Adenopathy (Cervical lymph node >1.5cm)
Strawberry tongue (oral mucous membranes changes, also injected/fissured lips, injected pharynx)
Hands and feet edema (acute)/desquamation (convalescent)

1242
Q

investigations ofr encopresis

A

Abdominal X-ray r/o occult constipation
Lab if suspected or failed intervention with laxatives

TSH
Celiac
Electrolytes and calcium
Blood lead level
Urine culture (if enuresis)

1243
Q

indications for imaging in UTI in children

A

Renal-Bladder Ultrasound if child
<2yo with first febrile UTI within 2w of acute illness
Recurrent UTIs
Pyelonephritis (Complicated)
Family/personal history of urologic/renal abnormalities
VCUG if
Hydronephrosis on ultrasound that suggests high grade (4-5) VUR, in addition consult urology or nephrology
<2yo with second febrile UTI

1244
Q

ttx of UTI in children

A

Ampicillin 50 mg/kg/dose IV q6h + Gentamicin 7.5 mg/kg IV/IM once daily
Cefixime 8mg/kg PO daily (max 400mg/d)
TMP/SMX 6-12mg/kg/day divided q12h (max 320mg TMP daily), avoid in newborns
Amox/Clav 7:1 suspension, 45mg/kg/day of Amox divided q8h (max 3g Amox daily)
Alternatives
Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg/day divided q8h (max 3g daily)
Cephalexin 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h (max 500mg/dose)

1245
Q

ttx kawasaki

A

ASA and Ivig

1246
Q

SAMP” When asked what you would do next, state

A

What I would do
Why I would do it
How I would do it
When I would do it
Where I would do it
eg. “Inhaled oxygen stat in a resuscitation room to treat the patient’s respiratory distress”

1247
Q

6 hypoglycemics classes + Rx

A

biguanide, sulfonylurea, DPP4i (-gliptin), GLP1r-agonist (-tide), SGLT2i (-flozin), meglitinide, alpha-glucosidase-i, thiazolidinediones, insulin

1248
Q

5 anti-hypertensives:

A

BB, CCB, ACE-i, ARB, thiazide, aldosterone antagonist

1249
Q

4 anti-depressants

A

SSRI, SNRI, NDRI (buproprion), TCA, TeCA (tetracyclic - Mirtazapine), MAOI (Selegiline used in Parkinsons)

1250
Q

3 anti-HIV

A

NRTI (tenofovir/emtricitabine), Combination (Truvada), Integrase inhibitor (Raltegravir), NNRTI , Protease inhibitor

1251
Q

3 anti migraines

A

NSAIDs, acetaminophen, triptan

1252
Q

3 migraine prophylaxis

A

beta blocker
tricyclics (amytriptyline)
Valproate
SNRI: venlafaxine

1253
Q

5 antiparkinsonian

A

anticholinergics: benztropine
levodopa
dopamine agonisst
MAOB inhibitor (rasagiline, slegiline)
NMDA-receptor antagonist
COMT inhibitor

1254
Q

side effect of statins

A

myalgia, nausea, diarrhea, insomnia

1255
Q

NSAIds SE

A

dyspepsia, N/v/D, GI bleed, CV risk (MI, stroke)

1256
Q

SE of ACei

A

dry cough, angioedema, HA, fatigue, hyperK, elevated creat

1257
Q

HIV med SE

A

fatigue, nausea, diarrhea

1258
Q

triptan SE

A

fatigue, diziness, nausea, palpitations, vertigo, flushing

1259
Q

SSRI SE

A

Headache, nausea, sexual dysfunction, somnolence/insomnia

1260
Q

OCP se

A

Irregular/breakthrough bleeding, headache, nausea, breast tenderness

1261
Q

morphine SE

A

N/V/Constipation, urinary retention, dizziness, sedation, pruritus, resp depression, confusion

1262
Q

If unstable, FIRST STEP

ABCs + GMOVIE as above (the first step in acute management is NEVER medication)

A

A = Assess airway and if compromised begin by attempting secure it with chin lift or jaw thrust if necessary
B = Assess breathing, and begin to assist with bag and mask if necessary
C = Assess pulse, and start high-quality CPR if not palpable
G = Measure plasma glucose
M = Get monitors: pacing pads, cardiac monitor, BP monitor, SpO2 monitor
O = 100% non rebreather mask with O2 set to flush
V = Assess vital signs (6!)
I = Place large bore IVs x2 (14-16G)
E = EKG stat

1263
Q

Management is more than medication: use the acronym “SNOPQRST” for the exam

A

Safety: ABCs assessed and addressed? Vital signs stable? Admission to hospital? Stop driving?
Next visit: Regular f/u
Offer: Labs, imaging, investigations
Prevention: Diet, weight loss, exercise, safe sex, helmets, vaccines, screening for associated conditions
Quit: Smoking, EtOH, drugs, stress, offending medications
Refer: Specialists, clinics, allied healthcare professionals, multidisciplinary teams
Report to: Health authority for outbreaks, driving authority if unsafe to drive (eg. seizure)
Start: Non-pharmacologic and pharmacologic interventions
Teach: Counsel, refer to online resources, patient handouts; instructions to return sooner if Sx persist or worsen

1264
Q

ALWAYS screen for or treat the following if the stem hints at it

A

HIV
Pregnancy
Pain
Danger to self or others (Suicide)
Abuse
Vaccines
Eating disorders

1265
Q

Acetaminophen (child) dose and route

A

10-15mg/kg PO q4-6h

1266
Q

Ibuprofen (child) dose and route

A

4-10mg/kg PO q6-8h in>6mo

1267
Q

child Amoxicillin dose and route for stre, UTI, AOM, sisnusitis, pna

A

Child (duration usually 5-10d)
Strep pharyngitis: 50mg/kg/day PO daily
UTI: 50mg/kg/day PO div TID
AOM/sinusitis: 90mg/kg PO div BID
Pneumonia: 90mg/kg PO div TID

1268
Q

Adult amox dose for PNA

A

Pneumonia 1g PO TID x7d

1269
Q

STI tx for gono clham

A

: Cefixime 800mg PO x1 + Azithromycin 1g PO x1 (“fix az” soon as possible)

1270
Q

H pylori eradication dose and route

A

PPI (eg. Lansoprazole 30mg PO) BID
Amoxicillin 1g PO BID
Clarithromycin 500mg PO BID

1271
Q

smoking cessation drugs doses

A

Nicotine replacement, Champix 0.5mg/d x2d then BID , Zyban 150mg/d x3d then BID

1272
Q

ACLS doses (mg)

A

Epinephrine 1, Amiodarone 300/150, Atropine 0.5, Adenosine 6/12 push with rapid NS flush

1273
Q

dose and routeEpinephrine for Anaphylaxis

A

Child: 0.01mg/kg IM
Adults: Epinephrine 0.5mg IM

1274
Q

Vitamin B12 dosage and route

A

1mg (1000mcg) PO daily, or IM/deep SC weekly x one month then monthly

1275
Q

Nocturnal enuresis management dose and route

A

Lifestyle, wet alarm
DDAVP 0.2mg PO qHS (up to 0.6mg)