Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Polity Prelims > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Territorial jurisdiction for issuing writs is wider for SC than HC
  2. High court may refuse to exercise it’s writ jurisdiction under article 226
A

Both correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Constitution allows people to ban autocracy and adopt democracy

A

Not necessarily. Constn doesn’t always specify for democracy. Ex: Syrian constn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following suggestions made by swaran singh commitee to be included as FD
a. Duty to pay taxes
b. Family planning
c. Casting vote

A

Only duty to pay taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Only states where President rule has not been imposed so far

A

Chatisgarh and telegana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Constn leaves the choice of having leg council to the parliament

A

Art 169 - choice is to individual states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Consider the statements regarding North East council
1. Initially sikkim was not part of it. Added in 2002
2. Min of DOner is the exofficio chairman

A
  1. True.
  2. Home min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The president enjoys not just suspensive veto but absolute veto over state bills

A

True

Withhold assent not only in first instance bit also second instance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Consider the following statements.
1. Each village, demarcated as per the Census, must have its own dedicated Gram Sabha and Gram
Panchayat.
2. Anyone who is eligible to vote in Lok Sabha elections from a particular village can also vote in Gram
Panchayat elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

Solution: b)
The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a Panchayat. This could be only one
village or a few villages. In some states, a village meeting is held for each village.
Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the Gram Sabha. These adults
also have a right to vote in Lok Sabha (LS) elections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

18) Consider the following statements regarding Law Commission of India.
1. The Law Commission of India is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to
time.
2. The commission is re-constituted every five years.
3. The Law Commission shall suo-motu, undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) None of the above

A

Solution: a)
The Law Commission shall, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertake
research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations. It
shall also undertake studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for elimination of
delay in procedures, speedy disposal of cases, reduction in cost of litigation etc.
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is re-constituted every three years.
The various Law Commission have been able to make important contribution towards the progressive
development and codification of Law of the country.
The Law Commission will be constituted for a period of three years from the date of publication of its Order in the
Official Gazette.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

25) Consider the following statements.
1. Right to cast a vote in elections is neither a fundamental right nor a right under common law.
2. Prisoners can cast their vote from jails through postal ballot.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A

The Supreme Court had observed that the right to cast a vote in elections is neither a fundamental right
nor a right under common law.
Who can vote and who cannot?
Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, individuals in lawful custody of the police
and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote. Undertrial prisoners are also
excluded from participating in elections even if their names are on electoral rolls.
Only those under preventive detention can cast their vote through postal ballots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

8) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘sealed covers’ submitted by the government or its agencies
to the Supreme Court during case hearing.
1. The practice of submission of confidential material to the court in sealed covers is not backed by any
law.
2. The Government has the privilege of non-disclosure of some documents and communications on the
ground of national security.
3. The action taken report on any case ca

A

In the Muzaffarpur shelter home sexual abuse case, the former Chief Justice N.V. Ramana wondered why even an
‘action taken’ report should be in a sealed envelope.
It is true that the law permits the submission of confidential material to the court in some cases. In addition,
courts can order some contents to be kept confidential. The Evidence Act also allows the privilege of nondisclosure of some documents and communications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

44) Consider the following statements regarding Food Corporation of India.
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, transport, distribute and sell food grains and other
foodstuffs.

A

The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory
body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other
foodstuffs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The initiative DARPAN, sometimes seen in news is related to
a) Improve the quality and governance of school education
b) Platform for all voluntary organisations/NGOs engaged in development activities.
c) Expand immunization coverage across the country.
d) Disaster preparedness, and responses during health emergencies

A

NGO-DARPAN is a platform that provides space for interface between Non-Government organizations (NGOs)/
Voluntary Organizations (VOs) in the country and key Government Ministries / Departments / Government
Bodies.
It started out as an initiative of the Prime Minister’s Office, to create and promote a healthy partnership between
NGOs/VOs and the Government of India. Now it is an e-governance application offered by NITI Aayog to
electronically maintain data and transparency regarding NGOs/VOs in the country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Consider the following statements regarding The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
1. The Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity of a
good or service, and misleading advertisement.
2. Central Consumer Protection Authority is constituted under the Act, which is an advisory body.
3. Central Consumer Protection Authority will be headed by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A

Central Consumer Protection Authority constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer
concerns. The new Act recognises offences such as providing false information regarding the quality or quantity
of a good or service, and misleading advertisements. It also specifies action to be taken if goods and services are
found “dangerous, hazardous or unsafe”.
The CCPA aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and
misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers.
The CCPA will have the powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or
unfair trade practices suo motu, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government.
CCPA will have Chief Commissioner as head, and two other commissioners as members.
The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following Chief Justice of India has acted as President of India?
A. M. Hidayatullah
B. P.B.GajendraGadkar
C. P.N.Bhagwati
D. All of the above

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

So far no case has gone to supreme court regarding repromulgation of ordinance by the president

A

True!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Constitution has not fixes any emoluments for the VP in that capacity

A

True

Draws salary as exofficio chairmam of RS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Even after dissolution of lok sabha, com do not cease to hold office

A

True

That’s what SC said. Prez cannot exercise executive power without the aid and advise of council of min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The classification of COM into 3 tiers ( cabinet, min of state, deputy) though not mentioned in the constn is mentioned in salaries and allowances act of 1952

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Size of COM os fixed by the constn at 15% of the size of lok sabha

A

Size is not fixed

Constn speaks about the limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

4) Consider the following statements regarding the President’s address in the Parliament.
1. In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of
India Act of 1919.
2. President’s address is the only occasion in the year when the entire Parliament come together.
3. In the past, there are instances where the President’s speech is delivered by the Vice president
discharging the functions of the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A

In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act
of 1919. This law gave the Governor-General the right of addressing the Legislative Assembly and the Council of
State. The law did not have a provision for a joint address but the Governor-General did address the Assembly
and the Council together on multiple occasions. There was no address by him to the Constituent Assembly
(Legislative) from 1947 to 1950. And after the Constitution came into force, President Rajendra Prasad addressed
members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha for the first time on January 31, 1950.
The President’s address is one of the most solemn occasions in the Parliamentary calendar. It is the only occasion
in the year when the entire Parliament, i.e. the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha come together.
In the past, there are instances where the President’s speech is delivered by the Vice president discharging the
functions of the President.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Citizenship Act, 1955.
1. According to the Act, any Indian citizen who acquires foreign citizenship ceases to be an Indian citizen.
2. The Act specifies the procedure required for termination of Indian citizenship in case of acquisition of
foreign citizenship.
3. Some of the provisions of the law does not apply when India is at war with any country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1 only

A

India does not allow dual citizenship. According to Section 9 of the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, any Indian citizen
who acquires foreign citizenship ceases to be an Indian citizen.
“Any citizen of India who by naturalisation, registration, otherwise voluntarily acquires, or has at any time
between the 26th January, 1950 and the commencement of this Act, voluntarily acquired the citizenship of
another country shall, upon such acquisition or, as the case may be, such commencement, cease to be a citizen of
India,” Section 9 says.
The only exception when this law does not apply is when the two concerned countries are at war with each
other.
Neither the Act nor the Citizenship Rules of 2009 specify any procedure required for termination of citizenship
in case of acquisition of foreign citizenship. Legal experts say the law is clear that Indian citizenship will cease to
exist the moment one acquires foreign citizenship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The summoning of Parliament is based on the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Any question regarding the age of SC judge is determined by SC

A

No

Such authority and in such manner as provided by the parliament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Constn authorizes prez to appoint other place or places as seat of sc

A

False

Cji

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Strength of HC is decided by

A

President

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Question regarding age of HC judge is decided by

A

President after consultation with CJI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The retired judges of HC are banned from practicing after retirement

A

But can plead in SC or any other hc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is true wrt supervisory jurisdiction of HC
1. Extends to all courts and tribunals within the territory whether they are subject to the appellate jurisdiction of HC or not
2. It is a revisional jurisdiction
3. Includes both administrative and judicial superintendence

A

All 3 are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Governor’s action of withholding assent to a Bill cannot be struck down as unconstitutional by the
courts.

A

It may be noted that the Governor while declaring that he withholds assent will have to disclose the reason for
such refusal. If the grounds for refusal disclose mala fide or extraneous considerations or ultra vires, the
Governor’s action of refusal could be struck down as unconstitutional. This point has been settled by a
Constitution bench of the Supreme Court in Rameshwar Prasad and Ors. vs Union Of India and Anr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Consider the following statements.
1. Free and fair election is a basic structure of the Constitution of India and includes within its ambit the
right of an elector to cast his vote without fear of reprisal.
2. Representation of People Act, 1951 defines “electoral right” as the right of a person to vote or refrain
from vote at an election.
3. Granting a paid holiday to every person employed in any business, trade, industrial undertaking or any
other establishment, is mentioned in the Representation of People Act, 1951.

A

In PUCL vs Union of India, the Court said: “… free and fair election is a basic structure of the Constitution and
necessarily includes within its ambit the right of an elector to cast his vote without fear of reprisal, duress or
coercion.
Section 79 D of the Representation of People Act, 1951 defines “electoral right” to mean the right of a person
to… vote or refrain from vote at an election”. The same provision exists in the Indian Penal Code, vide Section
171A (b).
The law completely enables, but does not force, citizens to vote. Section135B of the Representation of People
Act, 1951, grants a paid holiday to every person employed in any business, trade, industrial undertaking or any
other establishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

. Only the Union Government has the power to identify and deport foreign nationals who are in India
illegally.

A

Section 3(2)(c) of the Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the Centre the right to deport a foreign national. The power to
identify and deport foreign nationals who are in India illegally has been delegated to the states, Union
Territories and the Home Ministry’s Bureau of Immigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ministry of urban Development deals with urban local govt in states and UTs

A

For UT it is ministry of home affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

There can be a seperate act for each municipal Corporation in the state

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

President can place the personnel system of any authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of upsc

A

False

Only parl can extend the jurisdiction of upsc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The president can exclude posts, services, and matters from the purview of upsc

A

True

But such regulations should be laid before both house of parl for atleast 14 days. The parl can amend or repeal them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CAG compiles and maintains the account of only state govt

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

) Consider the following statements regarding Model code of conduct (MCC).
1. This code is based on consensus among political parties.
2. It is part of the Representation of the People Act 1951.
3. MCC is issued by Election Commission of India (ECI) in exercise of its powers under Article 324.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A

2 is wrong

The model code of conduct issued by the ECI is a set of guidelines meant for political parties, candidates and
governments to adhere to during an election.
* The code has been issued in exercise of its powers under Article 324.
* Since it is a code of conduct framed on the basis of a consensus among political parties, it has not been
given any legal backing.
* Although a committee of Parliament recommended that the code should be made a part of
the Representation of the People Act 1951, the ECI did not agree to it on the ground that once it becomes a
part of law, all matters connected with the enforcement of the code will be taken to court, which would delay
elections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the difference between negative and positive liberty?

A

Positive liberty is the ability to act on one’s free will, as opposed to negative liberty, which is freedom from external restraint on one’s actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Consider the following statements regarding All India Services:
1. All-India Service is compositely administered under Article 312.
2. Under Article 312 Centre, states are empowered to erect and maintain services for running their
administration.
3. Rule 6 of the IAS (Cadre) Rules 1954 seeks tripartite consent of the officer, the state, and the
central government.
Which of the statement given above is/are correc

A

Article 312. (2) of the Indian Constitution, which includes All India Services. Hence, the Services known at
the commencement of this Constitution as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service
shall be deemed services created by Parliament under this article. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 309 of the Constitution, the Centre and states are empowered to erect and maintain services for
running their administration. Both the Centre and the states exercise full control over their services
independently.
Article 312 states that Unlike a central service or state service, an All-India Service is compositely
administered under Article 312. While the Centre determines recruitment and allotment to a cadre, the
states determine the work and posting. So, statement 2 is not correct.
All India Services officers held all posts under the control of the Central Government, which includes posts
under an association or body of individuals, which is controlled by the Central Government for all posts
under Rule 6(2)(ii) of the IAS/IPS/IFS (Cadre) Rules. Hence, it does not seek tripartite consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

) With reference to the star campaigners during elections, consider the following statements.
1. Both recognized national and state can field a maximum of 40-star campaigners.
2. The expenditure of the star campaigner has to be shared between the party and the
candidate for which he campaigns.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A

Both 1 and 2

Expenditure incurred on electioneering by the star campaigner is not added to a candidate’s poll expenditure giving him/her more scope for expenditure.
However, for an individual candidate to get relief from campaign expenditure, the star campaigner has to limit oneself to general campaigning for the party.
According to the Representation of People’s Act, these expenses will be borne by the political parties.

The MCC guidelines say when a prime minister or a former prime minister is star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including on the bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate.
However, if another campaigner travels with the prime minister, the individual candidate will have to bear 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Quorum of gst council

A

One half of the total members of the council

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Art 359 operates only in case of external emergency and not armed rebellion

A

False

358- only in case of external emergency
359- both external and internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A law that violates the provision in the Directive principles cannot be declared void by the courts.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The introduction of Fundamental Duties placed our Constitution in accordance with Article 29 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights

A

TRUE
Article 29 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948, states Everyone has duties to the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution ended the feudal mode of society to usher in the democratic republic that the makers of the Nation dreamt of ?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 19

A

(b) Article 18

the hereditary titles of nobility like Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai Bahadur, Rai
Saheb, Dewan Bahadur, etc., which were conferred by colonial States, are banned by Article 18 as these are against the principle of equal status of all. Thus, it helped to end the feudal mode of society,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In the event of a national emergency, the writ of Habeas Corpus remains effective.

A

Under the original Constitution, the President had the power to suspend any fundamental right, including personal liberty (Article 21). In order to uphold citizens’ liberty, Parliament enacted the 44th constitutional amendment act of 1978, in which the President cannot suspend personal liberty (which includes the right to file writ petitions like Habeas corpus if any other personal liberty is curtailed) even during a National Emergency. So, statement 2 is correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Right to establish Educational Institutions is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under which Article of the
Constitution to all the citizens of India ?
(a) Article 30
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 15

A

(b) Article 19

The recent judgment of the Supreme Court held that the right to establish educational institutions is a fundamental right under article 19(1)(g) with some reasonable restrictions that the State can impose only by law and not executive instruction.
As per article 19(1)(g), all citizens have the right to practice any profession, including establishing
educational institutions like schools, colleges, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In Indian democracy, the right to vote is an absolute constitutional right

A

Under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution- Every citizen has to attain the age of 18 to exercise this
particular right. Full voting rights were guaranteed to the citizens of India under the concept of ‘Universal Suffrage,” So it is a constitutional right. At the same time right to vote is a legal right under section 62 of the Representation of People’s Act (R.P.A.) 1951 with some exemptions (i.e., the prisoner cannot vote).
So, the right to vote is not absolute.
Thus, the right to vote is a non-absolute constitutional right. So, Statement 1 is not correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

right to strike is not a fundamental right but a legal one

A

In India, the right to protest is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution of India. But the right to strike is not a fundamental right but a legal one under the Industrial Dispute Act of 1947

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Consider the following statements :
1. Writs of certiorari and prohibition are not available against legislative bodies.
2. Writ of Quo Warranto can be sought by an aggrieved person only.
3. Writ of prohibition is not available against administrative authorities.

A

In 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting individuals’ rights; the prohibition and certiorari are not available against legislative bodies and private individuals

The writ Quo Warranto means ‘by which authority or by what warrant.’ It is issued by the Court to
enquire into the legality of a person’s claim to a public office. Hence, it prevents the illegal hold of public office by a person. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person

The writ prohibition means ‘to forbid.’ It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the occurrence from exceeding its jurisdiction that it does not possess. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who will act as VP in case of vacancy of his office

A

Constitution is silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When the president uses his absolute veto

A

two cases:
When the bill passed by the Parliament is a Private Member Bill
When the cabinet resigns before President could give his assent to the bill. The new cabinet may advise the President to not give his assent to the bill passed by the old cabinet.
Note: In India, the President has exercised his absolute veto before. In 1954, it was exercised by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a President and later in 1991, it was used by the then President R Venkataraman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

President can declare war and conclude peace subject to the approval of the parliament

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A person must prove his majority in the Loksabha before being appointed as the PM

A

False
First appoint and prove within a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The form of oath of office and secrecy for Pm is similar to that for any union minister

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Council of ministers don’t have collective functions

A

True !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All the States and Union Territories have representation in the Zonal Council

A

Until now, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, have not been members of the Zonal Councils. However, they are presently special invitees to the Southern Zonal Council.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

. The Supreme Court has the power to decide whether the emergency should be continued if the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse, or
malafide

A

false

the supreme court has the power to decide only the ground of declaration is relevant or not and it cannot declare the emergency void.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The common law doctrine of riparian rights has been codified in India by

A

the Indian Easements Act of 1882. Under the Easements Act, the rights of a riparian, i.e., a person who owns the land adjoining a river or a water stream, is recognized by this right. A riparian owner is bestowed with the right to use a water stream that flows past his land equally with other riparian owners. So

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

. Taxes on the sale of aviation turbine fuel is levied, collected and retained by the Centre.

A

Article 269 (F) states the Taxes Levied, Collected and Retained by the States: These are the taxes
belonging to the states exclusively. They are enumerated in the state list and are 18 in number; taxes on the sale of petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit (commonly known as petrol), natural gas, aviation turbine fuel, and alcoholic liquor for human consumption, So statement 3 is not correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before the
amendment, a proclamation could be revoked by the President on his own, and the Lok Sabha had
no control in this regard

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

. The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become
inoperative as soon as the emergency has ceased to operate.

A

The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

With respect to the Head of the State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution empowers the Chief Justice of India to discharge President’s function if the
President’s and vice president’s offices remain vacant.
2. Unlike the USA, the impeachment of the President of India requires the consent of more than half of the State legislature.
Which of the above-given statement is/are correct?

A

The Constitution of India does not provide for the Chief Justice of India to act as President.
➢ The President (Discharge Of Functions) Act, 1969 provided that In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both the President and the Vice-President, by reason in each case of death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of India available shall discharge the function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

With reference to the Power of the President, Consider the following statements:
1. All laws enacted by the Parliament are enforced by him/her
2. The President summons, Adjourns and prorogues the Houses of Parliament.
3. The President being an integral part of Parliament enjoys legislative powers.
Which of the above-given statement is/are correct?

A

A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent. All
executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name. He can make rules
specifying how the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.
So, statement 1 is correct

The power of adjournment, as well as adjournment sine die, lies with the presiding officer of the House, not by the President.

The President is integral to the Parliament of India and enjoys some legislative powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Attorney General is a full-time counsel for the Government.

A

Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall into the category of a government servant. Hence, he is not debarred from private legal practice. S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

As per convention, Attorney general of India is not eligible for reappointment

A

Attorney General can be reappointed or is eligible for any other government appointment after ceasing to hold office. Recently K.K. Venugopal has been reappointed as the Attorney General (A-G), the country’s top law officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

) Who acts as the Chief advisor to the Governor when President’s Rule is imposed in the State?

A

Chief Secretary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Regarding the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003:
It mandates the strength of the Council of Ministers should not exceed 10% of the total legislature in the Union territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

A

The 69th constitutional amendment Act made special provisions with respect to Delhi. Added article 239AA, which says, “There shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than ten percent, of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor.” Hence 69th constitutional amendment made this provision and not the 91st amendment act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Consider the following statements in relation to Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
(SEBCs):
1. Article 342A empowers the President to notify any class of citizens as Socially and Educationally
Backward Classes (SEBC).
2. The List of SEBCs notified by the President shall be used only for the purposes of the Central
Government.
3. Every State or Union Territory may, by law, prepare and maintain for its own purposes a separate list of SEBCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

Article 342A(1) empowers the President to specify the socially and educationally backward classes which shall, for the purposes of this Constitution, be deemed socially and educationally backward classes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Article 342A specifies that the List of SEBCs notified by the President shall be only for the purposes of the Central Government alone and that the ‘Central List’ means only the list “prepared and maintained by and for the Central Government.” So, Statement 2 is correct.

The 105th Constitution Amendment aimed at restoring to the States their power to identify socially and educationally backward classes. Article 342A which clarify that state governments have the power to identify OBCs or socially and educationally backward classes to be included on the respective state lists only. So, Statement 3 is correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The Electoral College for electing the President of India comprises only the elected members of
Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.

A

false

The electoral college system for electing the President of India consists of all the elected members of the Upper and Lower Houses of Parliament (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha MPs) and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories (MLAs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The Office of the Attorney General is not a public authority under RTI Act

A

The recent verdict of the Delhi high court found that the attorney general’s office would not be a public authority and does not fall within the Right to Information Act (RTI). The role of the AGI is not limited to merely acting as a lawyer for the Government of India. The AGI is a constitutional functionary and is obliged to discharge the functions under the Constitution and any other law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

) Consider the following statements regarding the election of the President:
1. Members of the Electoral College can vote freely and are not bound by any party whips.
2. An elector under preventive detention can cast his vote through a postal ballot.

A

Recently, The Election commission of India has clarified that political parties cannot issue any whip to their MPs and MLAs in the matter of voting in the Presidential election. And also clarified Anti-defection law does not apply to presidential polls. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The election commission clarified that it would allow electors of the presidential election under preventive detention to cast their vote in the presidential election through postal ballot. Thus, An elector (MP or MLA) under preventive detention can cast his vote through a postal ballot, which will be sent to him by the Election Commission at the place of his detention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

According to the provisions of Article 356, President’s Rule in a state can be imposed for a maximum duration of three years, and till now this provision has not been breached in any state.

A

However, in the past, President’s Rule has been extended for significantly longer periods under specific circumstances. For instance, Punjab was under President’s Rule from 1987-1992 due to the growing militancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Article 356 was inspired by

A

the Government of India Act, 1935.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In the pre constitution era high court jurisdiction didn’t extend over revenue matters

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The first Government defeated by a NO-confidence motion was

A

Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in the year 1999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The High court has no jurisdiction over the Armed forces tribunal.

A

In January 2020, the Supreme Court made it clear that the verdicts of the Armed Forces Tribunals (AFT)
can be challenged before the high courts. In march 2022, Delhi High Court held that the Armed Forces
Tribunal Act 2007 excludes the administrative supervision of the High Court under Article 227(4) of the
Constitution but “not judicial superintendence” and “certainly not” jurisdiction under Article 226 of the
Constitution. It clarified that the Supreme Court had reinstated the right to challenge verdicts of AFTs
in the High Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The High court has no jurisdiction over the Armed forces tribunal.

A

In January 2020, the Supreme Court made it clear that the verdicts of the Armed Forces Tribunals (AFT)
can be challenged before the high courts. In march 2022, Delhi High Court held that the Armed Forces
Tribunal Act 2007 excludes the administrative supervision of the High Court under Article 227(4) of the
Constitution but “not judicial superintendence” and “certainly not” jurisdiction under Article 226 of the
Constitution. It clarified that the Supreme Court had reinstated the right to challenge verdicts of AFTs
in the High Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

With respect to the process of Inclusion of Communities in the Scheduled Tribes List, consider the
following statements:
1. Only those proposals recommended and justified by the concerned State/UTs can be processed further.
2. Every State in India has at least one community as a designated Scheduled Tribe.
3. The Lokur Committee is associated with the Scheduled Tribes List.

A

1 and 3

According to the Government of India order dated 15.6.1999, only those proposals recommended and justified by the concerned State Government / UT Administration can be processed further. After that, it has to be concurred with by the Registrar General of India (RGI) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) for consideration for amendment of legislation. So, Statement 1 is correct.

No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe with the State of Haryana and Punjab and the
Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

According to the Constitution, any Member of Parliament may propose a no-confidence motion

A

Noconfidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (or state assembly, as the case may be). It is not
allowed in Rajya Sabha (or state legislative council). So, Statement 1 is not correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

) With reference to the Adjournment Motion, consider the following statements:
1. It was raised to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance.
2. It can only be moved with the Speaker’s approval.
3. To be adopted, the motion should raise a question of privilege.
4. If it is admitted, it results in the suspension of the House’s regular business
5. It involves an element of Censure against the Government.

A

1,2,4 and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

) With reference to the Adjournment Motion, consider the following statements:
1. It was raised to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance.
2. It can only be moved with the Speaker’s approval.
3. To be adopted, the motion should raise a question of privilege.
4. If it is admitted, it results in the suspension of the House’s regular business
5. It involves an element of Censure against the Government.

A

1,2,4 and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

whats the procedure if Constitution Amendment Bills is sponsored by a private member

A

If sponsored by a Private Member, the Bill must be examined in the first instance and recommended for introduction by the Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions before it is included in the List of businesses. Motions for the introduction of the Bills are decided by a simple majority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

na

A

na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

With reference to the Calling Attention, consider the following statements:
1. The Calling Attention procedure is taken from British Parliament
2. The House will not vote on the Calling Attention issue.
3. The matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government cannot be raised under it.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

With reference to the Calling Attention, consider the following statements:
1. The Calling Attention procedure is taken from British Parliament
2. The House will not vote on the Calling Attention issue.
3. The matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government cannot be raised under it.

A

Like zero hours, it is also an “Indian innovation” in the parliamentary procedure and has existed since 1954. However, unlike the zero hours, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

It’s applicable under all houses where democratically elected candidates meet throughout India (Lok
Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha of respective states). Each member gets 2 chances during a single session for a Calling Attention Motion. Hence, The House will not vote on the Calling Attention motion. So, statement 2 is correct.

Calling Attention Motion is a parliamentary protocol for an immediate discussion in the purview of public
interests. Only those matters, primarily the Union Government’s concern, can be raised through a calling
attention notice. So, statement 3 is not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

All the resolutions passed by the House have the force of law and should be complied with.

A

➢ Resolutions that have statutory effect: The notice of a Statutory resolution is given in pursuance
of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament. Such a resolution, if adopted, is
binding on the Government and has the force of law. Not All resolution has the force of law. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A member elected in a bye-election serves only for the remainder of the term of the vacancy caused.

A

Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates the Election Commission to fill
the casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures through bye-elections within
six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy, provided that the remainder of the term of a
member in relation to a vacancy is one year or more. And the newly elected member will serve only
for the remaining term of the vacancy caused. So, Statement 2 is correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Parliament may extend the provisions of 73rd and 74th caa to UTs

A

False
President

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

6th schedule was based on the reports of

A

of Bardoloi Committee formed by the Constituent Assembly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Subordinate courts can issue writs suo motu in the interest of justice

A

Article 32 and Article
226 of the Indian Constitution warrant the Supreme Court and High Court to take up matters
independently. Suo motu cognizance can be taken up by the Supreme Court or high courts in
the following matters: (1) contempt of Court, (2) reopening of old cases, (3) probing new cases.
Subordinate courts do not have the authority to act Suo moto in the interests of justice. So, statement 3 is not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The Writ of habeas corpus is not issued where the

A

(a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for
contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the Jurisdiction of the Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the income limit eligibility for free legal services in Supreme court

A

Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act

A person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or
any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a
Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme
Court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

There are 25 High Courts in the country, with five having jurisdiction over more than one
State.

A

There are 25 High Courts in the country, three having jurisdiction over more than one State. Among the Union Territories Delhi,- and Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh have a High Court of their own. The other five Union Territories come under the Jurisdiction of different State High Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

“Divorce” shall not be settled in Lok Adalat

A

true

95
Q

Who appoints executive chairman of NALSA?

A

According to the Legal Services Authority Act 1987, the Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the NALSA. A serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court is to be nominated by the President, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, as the Executive Chairman.

96
Q

NALSA disburses funds and grants to State Legal Services Authorities and NGOs for implementing legal aid schemes and programs

A

TRUE

97
Q

Which of the following situations calls for the formation of a Constitutional Bench in the Supreme
Court?
1. A case involves a “substantial question of law” related to Constitutional interpretation.
2. When the President seeks the Supreme Court’s opinion on a legal or factual issue.
3. When a two-judge bench and later a three-judge bench issue opposing rulings on the same
matter.

A

ALL 3

98
Q

With reference to the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, consider the following statements
1. It is applicable to the whole of India, including the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and
Nagaland.
2. The proceedings and the judgment of this nyayalayas shall be in the local language and not
in English.

A
  1. The Act extends to the whole of India, except to the States of Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and to the tribal areas of the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution
  2. The proceedings before the Gram Nyayalaya and its judgment shall, as far as practicable, be in one of the official languages of the State other than the English language. So, statement 3 is not correct.
99
Q

With reference to Fast Track Special Courts, consider the following statements
1. It is a scheme implemented by the Department of Justice to provide immediate relief to the
victims.
2. There is no budgetary support for this Scheme.
3. The first states to join this Scheme are West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh, and Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
4. An online monitoring framework for monthly monitoring of case statistics has been created by
the Department of Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1,4 CORRECT

Out of 31 states and UTs eligible, 28 states have joined this Scheme and Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal and A&N islands are yet to join the schemes. The first fast-track special court was established in Andhra Pradesh. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

100
Q

With reference to special courts for MP/MLA, consider the following statements
1. This special Court deals with the expeditious trial of civil cases only involving MP/MLAs.
2. This Court is being monitored by the respective High Courts of the State in which MP/MLAs
are involved.
3. This special Court is constituted in Tamil Nadu, NCT of Delhi, Karnataka and West Bengal

A

The Special Court for MP/MLAs deals with the expeditious trial of criminal cases, not civil cases involving MP/MLAs.

The performance of these special courts is being monitored by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India,

There are 12 Special Courts (02 in the NCT of Delhi and 01 each in the States of UP, Bihar, WB, MP,
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu and Kerala) were constituted. 10 Special Courts are functional in 9 States (the Special Court of Bihar and Kerala were discontinued as per the apex court’s direction dated 04.12.2018).

101
Q

The 12th Finance Commission has recommended for the set-up of the family courts.

A

The 14th Finance Commission had recommended setting up 235 Family Courts during 2015-2020
in districts where the same were available, not the 12th Finance Commission.

102
Q

Consider the following statements about the National Judicial Academy
1. It is an independent body that works under the Supreme Court’s directions and is fully funded
by the Government of India.
2. The President of India is the Chairperson of this body.
3. It provides the judges training in both their judging role and in administration work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1 and 3 only

In accordance with the Memorandum of the Association of NJA Governing Council (GC) and the General Body (GB) are established to govern the functioning of NJA. The Chief Justice of India is the Chairp

103
Q

What are the provisions of free legal aid provided by the Legal Services Authorities under the
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?
1. Advocate representation in legal proceedings
2. Payment of process fees
3. Witness expenses
4. Special leave petition drafting

A

ALL

104
Q

Consider the following statements about the Armed Forces Tribunal
1. It will follow the procedure as practiced in the Supreme Court of India.
2. All the proceedings in this Tribunal will be in English.
3. Retired High Court judges are the judicial members of this Tribunal.
4. Only the Chandigarh and Lucknow regional benches of this Tribunal have three benches each;
all other branches have a single bench.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

2,3,4
The Armed Forces Tribunal shall transact their proceedings as per the Armed Forces Tribunal
(Procedure) rules, 2008. The Tribunal will normally follow the procedure practiced in the High Courts
of India, not the supreme Court

The Judicial Members are retired High Court Judges, and Administrative Members are retired Members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/ equivalent or above for a period of three years or more;

105
Q

Consider the following statements
1. Tele-Law mobile applications are available in all 22 scheduled languages.
2. Under integrated delivery of legal services, tele-law is free of cost for the citizens of India.
3. Under the facility of tele law legal services, a lawyer can attend a maximum of 15 calls of 20
minutes each per day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

1, 2 and 3

106
Q

The strength of the Supreme Court of India has been increased to 33 by the President of
India.

A

The strength of the Supreme Court of India has been increased to 33 by the Act of Parliament, and
judges are appointed by the President of India. So, Statement (3) is not correct.

107
Q

There was a provision to conduct immediate elections for Panchayats in states even before the 73rd Amendment Act.

A

Before the 73rd amendment, in many States, there used to be indirect elections to the district bodies, and there were no provisions before the 73rd Amendment Act to conduct immediate elections to panchayats. So, statement 1 is not correct.

108
Q

When the urban municipalities is dissolved, they must be given an opportunity to be heard.

A

73rd Amendment Act also makes two more provisions with respect to dissolution:
(a) a municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution, and
(b) no amendment of any law for the time being in force shall cause the dissolution of a municipality
before the expiry of the five years term. So, statement 2 is correct

109
Q

With reference to nyaya panchayats, consider the following statements :
1. These are judicial panchayats aimed to provide speedy justice.
2. They can deal with both civil and criminal cases.
3. The state government will appoint lawyers to plead the cases

A

EXPLANATION:
Nyaya panchayats are judicial and a reminder of ancient village panchayats that settled local disputes. They are set up to provide speedy and inexpensive justice. It resolves minor criminal and civil issues in which the parties present their arguments to the Panchayat members. The jurisdiction of Nyaya Panchayat varies from State to State – one such Panchayat is set up for five or more gram panchayats.
So, statement 1 and 2 is correct

As determined by State law, Nyaya panchayats’ tenure is between 3 and 5 years. Nyaya Panchayats generally deal with petty civil and criminal cases and can impose fines up to Rs. 100 only. There are no lawyers to plead the cases in Nyaya Panchayat. Parties to the disputes argue their cases. So, statement 3 is not correct

110
Q

With reference to nyaya panchayats, consider the following statements :
1. These are judicial panchayats aimed to provide speedy justice.
2. They can deal with both civil and criminal cases.
3. The state government will appoint lawyers to plead the cases

A

EXPLANATION:
Nyaya panchayats are judicial and a reminder of ancient village panchayats that settled local disputes. They are set up to provide speedy and inexpensive justice. It resolves minor criminal and civil issues in which the parties present their arguments to the Panchayat members. The jurisdiction of Nyaya Panchayat varies from State to State – one such Panchayat is set up for five or more gram panchayats.
So, statement 1 and 2 is correct

As determined by State law, Nyaya panchayats’ tenure is between 3 and 5 years. Nyaya Panchayats generally deal with petty civil and criminal cases and can impose fines up to Rs. 100 only. There are no lawyers to plead the cases in Nyaya Panchayat. Parties to the disputes argue their cases. So, statement 3 is not correct

111
Q

When an election dispute regarding Panchayat comes, it is a constitutional mandate that high courts should intervene and resolve such issues

A

Under Article 243 k of the Indian Constitution, The superintendence, direction and control of the
preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. There is no power of high courts to intervene and resolve such issues. So, statement 1 is not correct.

112
Q

The elections for the Delhi legislative assembly will be conducted by

A

Election Commission of India

113
Q

With reference to the ordinance-making power of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, consider the following
statements :
1. He can promulgate an ordinance when the Assembly is dissolved and suspended.
2. He can also promulgate ordinances during the recess of the Assembly.
3. Prior permission of the President is necessary to promulgate and withdraw the ordinance by him.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A

The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances during assembly recess.
So, statement 2 is correct.
➢ Under the Act, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the Assembly is dissolved and suspended.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
➢ No such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
So, statement 3 is correct

114
Q

The establishment of legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry union territories has diminished the supreme control of the President and the Parliament over them.

A

The establishment of the legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry in the union territories does not diminish the President’s and Parliament’s supreme control over them. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry, Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir, which have their local Legislature. So, statement 2 is not correct.

115
Q

Any other body cannot annul the decisions taken by the Gram Sabha.

A

The power to declare invalid a decision of
the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only. So, statement 3 is correc

116
Q

The V.P.Singh Government granted constitutional status to local government institutions in 1993

A

he Congress Government, under the prime ministership of PV Narasimha Rao, considered the matter of the constitutionalization of Panchayati raj bodies

117
Q

What were the reasons the local Government (including panchayats) did not receive adequate importance in the Constitution ?
1. The Constitution had a strong unitary inclination due to the turmoil brought on by the Partition.
2. Nehru viewed extreme localism as a threat to national unity and integration.
3. Mahatma Gandhi was concerned that the caste system in rural society would undermine the noble goal of local Government.

A

c) 1 and 2

118
Q

Elected Sarpanchs of gram panchayats is the ex-officio members of Panchayat Samitis.

A

The second or middle tier of the panchayat raj is Panchayat Samiti, which links Gram Panchayat and a Zila Parishad. The strength of a Panchayat Samiti also depends on the population in a samiti area. In Panchayat Samiti, some members are directly elected. Sarpanchs of gram panchayats is ex-officio members of Panchayat Samitis. However, all the sarpanches of Gram Panchayats are not members of Panchayat Samitis at the same time. So, statement 4 is correct.

119
Q

With reference to Zila Parishads, consider the following statements :
1. Panchayat Samiti chairpersons are the ex-officio members of Zila Parishads.
2. Members of Parliament from their respective districts can be nominated as Zila Parishad members.
3. The Chairperson of a Zila Parishad is chosen among the members who are directly elected.

A

all correct

120
Q

Currently, anti-defection law is applicable in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the statesbut not in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of the State.

A

Currently, anti-defection law is applicable in Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the states.It also applies to every vote, even in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of states, where the Government’s stability is not at stake. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

121
Q

) With reference to the electoral bond scheme introduced in 2018, consider the following statements
1. Only a political party that has been registered under the Representation of People’s Act, 1951 and secured more than one percent of the votes polled in the last election to the Lok Sabha is qualified
to receive funds under this scheme.
2. It is like a promissory note.
3. The bonds are purchased from the State Bank of India in denominations ranging from Rs 1,000 to
Rs 1 crore.
4. There is a cap of Rs 1 crore on the donation amount by a bearer.

A

) 1, 2 and 3 only

There is no upper cap on the donation amount by a bearer

122
Q

. Under the provision of the Representation of People Act 1950, the following members are qualified as service voters

A

A member of the Armed Forces of the Union.
➢ A member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950.
➢ A member of an Armed Police Force of a State serving outside that State.
➢ A person who is employed under the Government of India in a post outside India

123
Q

With reference to election manifestos, consider the following statements
1. A manifesto is a published declaration of intentions or views of a political party.
2. The promises made under the election manifesto cannot be counted as a corrupt practice under the Representation of Peoples Act 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

both are correct

he recent judgment of the Supreme Court of India declares that poll promises made by political parties to influence voters do not fall within Section 123 (corrupt practices) under the Representation of the People (RP) Act 1951. So, Statement 2 is correct.

124
Q

With reference to the Model Code of Conduct, consider the following statements
1. It goes into effect from the date of the announcement of elections till the announcement of the
election results
2. This code is applicable throughout the country during the Lok Sabha elections.
3. This code evolved with the consensus of political parties.

A

all 3 correct

The Model Code of Conduct remains in place during the elections in respect of political parties and candidates, which remains in force from the date the Commission announces the elections till the completion of results/elections.

125
Q

With reference to Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements
1. The possibility of casting invalid votes is being completely eliminated by the EVMs.
2. The major problem with this machine is there is a possibility for a voter to register his/her vote more than once.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A

As soon as a particular button on the
Balloting Unit is pressed, the vote is recorded for that particular candidate, and the machine gets locked

126
Q

A Presidential candidate cannot file more than one nomination paper

A

The Presidential candidate cannot file more than four nomination papers of a candidate, which will be received by the Returning Officer. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

127
Q

The electors of the Presidential election can choose their place of voting.

A

The electors of the Presidential election can choose their place of voting. The Members of Parliament vote in New Delhi, and the members of the State Legislative Assemblies, including the members of the
Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry, vote at the place fixed in each State/UTcapital.
Facilities are provided by the Election Commission for any MP to vote in the capital of the State.

128
Q

Consider the following statements about elections to the Rajya Sabha
1. For a person to be nominated as a member of the Rajya Sabha by the President, he/she shall not be less than 25 years of age against 30 years of age.
2. The same proposer cannot propose the nomination of more than one candidate as per the law.

A

any person is to be chosen as a nominated Rajya Sabha member. He must not be less than 30 years of age

There is no bar under the law against an elector proposing the nomination of more than one candidate.
Thus, an elector subscribing as the proposer for one candidate’s nomination may subscribe to the nominations of one or more other candidates. Even a candidate himself may propose the nomination of another candidate for the same election. So, statement 2 is not correct.

But this is not possible for presidential elections

129
Q

The Returning Officers for the State Assembly Elections are appointed by the

A

election commisison

130
Q

There were multimember parliamentary constituencies in India before 1962, where more than one member was elected by the electors.

A

There were both single-member and multimember constituencies before 1962. These multimember constituencies used to elect more than one member. The multimember constituencies were abolished
in 1962. So, statement 3 is correct.

131
Q

Who will constitute the new Lok Sabha after the declaration of results in all parliamentary
constituencies?

A

According to Section 73 of the Representation of People Act, 1951. after the results of all Parliamentary constituencies are declared, the Election Commission will constitute the new Lok Sabha by notifying the elected members in the official gazette.

132
Q

The third schedule of the Indian Constitution states the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following persons:

A

A Minister for the Union
Every member of either House of Parliament
Judge of the Supreme Court
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
A Minister for a State
A candidate for election to the Legislature of a State
Judges of a High Court.

133
Q

No reservations are provided for scheduled tribes in the Council of States

A

As of now, No reservations are provided for scheduled tribes in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and Legislative Council of States. The absence of reservation for SCs and STs in the Rajya Sabha has neither been contested nor considered.

134
Q

Which grounds would allow the Election Commission of India to deregister political parties?

A

A party can only be deregistered if its registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.

135
Q

. Unlike a recognized political party candidate, the nomination paper of an independent candidate is signed by at least one proposer.

A

but if the candidate contests the election as a candidate set up by registered unrecognized political party or as an independent candidate, in that case, ten electors of
the constituency are required to sign the nomination paper as proposers.

136
Q

The Official Languages (Use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976 is extended to the whole of India, except the State of Tamilnadu.

A

correct.

137
Q

. The eighth schedule has been amended only one time since the adoption of the Constitution

A

The eighth schedule has been amended four times since the adoption of the Constitution. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22 languages; 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
The Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967. After that, three more languages, viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali, were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003; Subsequently, Oriya was renamed as ‘Odia’ by the 96th Amendment Act of 2011.

138
Q

There is no Scheduled Tribe population in 3 States

A

There is no Scheduled Tribe population in 3 States (Delhi NCR, Punjab and Haryana) and 2 UTs (Puducherry and Chandigarh), as no Scheduled Tribe is notified.

139
Q

The Dhebar Commission contributed to the self-governance system in the Scheduled areas (pesa)

A

The Bhuria Committee recommended a three-tier structure of self-governance in the tribal areas, Not the Dhebar Commission. So, statement 1 is not correct.

1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.

140
Q

The 73rd Constitutional amendment Act covers neither the Fifth Schedule Area nor the Sixth Schedule Area.

A

the tribal-dominated areas listed under the fifth schedule of the Constitution were kept out of the purview of the Panchayati Raj Acts.

” The 73rd Constitutional amendment Act does not apply to Meghalaya and Mizoram, But Assam and Tripura states are covered under this Act

The provisions of part IX are not applicable to the following:
• Entire states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
• Hill areas in the State of Manipur for which District Councils
• Further, the district level provisions shall not apply to the hill areas of the District of Darjeeling in the State of West Bengal which affect the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council.
• The reservation provisions are not applicable to Arunachal Pradesh.

141
Q

Q.10 Can an elector propose or second the nomination of more than one candidate at a Presidential election?

A

No. An elector can propose or second the name of only one candidate at a Presidential election. If he subscribes as proposer or seconder, the nomination papers of more than one candidate, his signature shall be deemed operative only on the nomination paper first delivered to the Returning Officer.

142
Q

Is it compulsory for an elector at a Presidential election to mark his preference for all candidates?

A

No. Only the marking of first preference is compulsory for a ballot paper to be valid. Marking other preferences is optional

143
Q

Only legal system in the world that defines basic structure within its constitution

A

Bangladesh

144
Q

Secularism in India- a policy of the state cannot have an exclusively religious rationale

A

False
In India state led religious reform can happen

145
Q

With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission, consider the following statements
1. It comes under the direct control of Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India.

A

CVC is an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, and is charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India. Hence, the CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body that is only responsible for the Parliament

146
Q

Can the CVC investigate a case against anybody?

A

Firstly, the CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers. Secondly, the CVC orders investigation in to cases of officials of Central Government Departments/Companies/Organisations only.

147
Q

The statutory functions of Directorate of Enforcement

A
  1. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
  2. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
  3. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
148
Q

Intelligence and security organizations are exempted from providing information under the RTI act 2005, even in cases of corruption and human rights violations cases.

A

Intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule to the Act are exempt from
furnishing information under the Right to Information Act. However, this exemption does not apply if the requested information pertains to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations. S

149
Q

A minimal fee is charged by the nhrc on the complainant.

A

no

150
Q

With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal
There are no fees for the applicant to file a case before this Tribun

A

An Original Application can be filed by remitting a nominal fee of Rs. 50/- before the Tribunal. A
provision has also been made in the Rules that where the Tribunal is satisfied that an applicant cannot pay the prescribed fee on the ground of indigence, it may exempt such an applicant from the fee payment. Thus, the Tribunal has duly justified its creation through speedy and inexpensive disposal of pending cases.

151
Q
  1. The disposal rate of cases of the Central Administrative Tribunal is more than 90 %.
  2. . The Parliament is empowered to frame rules of procedure and practice of the Central Administrative Tribunal.
A

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) achieved a disposal rate of 91% in five years, and there
continues to be a steady rise in the disposal of cases. Over 91 percent disposal rate was achieved from 2015 to 2019

The Central Administrative Tribunal is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
Parliament is not empowered to frame its own rules

Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.

152
Q

) The jurisdiction of Lokpal covers which of the following offices?
1. Prime Minister
2. Members of Parliament
3. Group A and B officers of the Union Government
4. Chairpersons of statutory bodies
5. All Society/trusts receiving foreign donations

A

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

It covers the society/trust that receives foreign contributions above ₹10 lakhs, not all the
society.

153
Q

The preliminary inquiry of lokpal should be completed within

A

. The preliminary inquiry should normally be completed within 90 days of receipt of the complaint.

154
Q

Lokpal will have two main branches

A

The Administrative branch will be headed by an officer of the rank of Secretary to Govt of India and will have in its fold:
Inquiry/ Investigation branch to be headed by an officer not below the rank of Additional Secretary to Govt of India
Prosecution wing to be headed by an officer not below the rank Additional Secretary to Govt of India
Central Registry
Scrutiny wing
Establishment, Coordination, Media and Publication
Budget, Finances and Accounts
The Judicial Branch will be headed by a Judicial officer of appropriate level and will assist the Lokpal discharge their judicial functions.

155
Q

Consider the following statements about The National Human Rights Commission
1. The National Human Rights Commission cannot intervene in proceedings of human rights violation
cases that are pending before the courts.
2. Its recommendations are binding on the Government and courts in human rights violatio

A

all 3 not correct

. The Commission can intervene in any
proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a Court with the
approval of such Court.

156
Q

sectors the fifteenth finance commission has allocated the specific grants?

A

for eight sectors:
➢ Health
➢ School education,
➢ Higher education,
➢ Implementation of agricultural reforms,
➢ Maintenance of PMGSY roads,
➢ Judiciary,
➢ Statistics, and
➢ Aspirational districts and blocks.
A portion of these grants will be performance-linked.

157
Q

Members of the Finance Commission shall not be eligible for reappointment.

A

false

158
Q

The Governor and Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank of India hold office for

A

periods not exceeding
five years. The government may fix the governor’s term at the time of his appointment. (Urjit Patel and Raghuram Rajan were appointed for three years, though a governor can get five-year tenure). Governor (and Deputy Governors) is eligible for reappointment or extension under Section 8 (4) of the RBI Act.

159
Q

. The judiciary is outside the purview of Lokpal and Lokayukta

A

true

160
Q

338,338a,338b

A

338-sc
A- ST
B-OBC

161
Q

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) were made independent of the government by the Montagu and Chelmsford reforms in 1919

A

TRUE!!

162
Q
  1. According to the Constitution, the whole proceeds of any Surcharge shall form part of the
    Consolidated Fund of India
A

Article 271 of the Indian Constitution states that the Parliament may at any time increase any of the duties or taxes referred to in those articles by a surcharge for purposes of the Union, and the whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India. So, statement 1 is correct.

163
Q

Consider the following statements:
1. When elections are held only for the Parliament, all the expenses are borne entirely by the Union Government.
2. When elections are held only for the State Legislature, the Union Government and the concerned State bears the expenditure.

A

Statement 1 is correct.

The elections are held only for the State Legislature; the expenditure is borne entirely by the concerned State.
In simultaneous elections to the Parliament and State Legislature, the expenditure is shared equally between the Union and the State Governments. The expenditure is shared equally for Capital equipment, expenditures related to preparation for electoral rolls and the scheme for Electors’ Identity Cards. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

164
Q

The Director of Central Bureau Investigation has been provided security of two-year tenure ensured by

A

CVC Act, 2003

165
Q

FOR CBI The Union Government’s permission is required to Investigate Cases against the Joint secretary and above in the Union Government.

A

The CBI draws its power from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act. Central Bureau
Investigation is required to get Prior approval from the Central Government to conduct an inquiry or investigation on the employees of the Central Government, of the level of Joint Secretary and above is a big obstacle in combating corruption at higher levels of bureaucracy.
However, on May 6, 2014, the Supreme Court held invalid the legal provision that makes prior
sanction mandatory for the Central Bureau of Investigation to conduct a probe against senior
bureaucrats in corruption cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

166
Q

Regarding Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBF), consider the following
statements:
1. It is Constituted under the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
2. It covers all Public Banks, Public Financial Institutions, and Public Sector Insurance companies
3. Its Logistical and Secretarial services and necessary funding are provided by the Department of
Financial Services
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

A

) 1 and 2 only

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has constituted an Advisory Board for Banking Frauds
(ABBF) headed by a former Vigilance Commissioner to examine bank fraud of over ₹50 crores and recommend action.

The Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds, formed in consultation with the RBI, would
function as the first level of examination of all large fraud cases before recommendations or references are made to the investigative agencies by the respective public sector banks (PSBs)

Recently, the Central Vigilance Commission has extended the scope of the existing Advisory Board
for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) to cover all fraud cases involving an amount of Rs.3 Crore
and above and examine the role of all levels of officials/whole Time Directors (including exofficials/ex-WTDs) in Public Sector Bank, Public Sector Financial institutions, and Public Sector
Insurance companies

Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds is Headquartered in Delhi. The Reserve Bank of
India will provide the required secretarial services, logistic and analytical support, and the necessary
funding to the board. The Department of Financial Services does not provide funding

167
Q

d) The MCC will also apply to the content posted by the parties and candidates on the internet, including social media sites.

A

true

168
Q

Consider the following statements about the Gram Nyayalayas:
1. The State government appoints the presiding officer in consultation with the High Courts.
2. Appeals in civil and criminal cases shall be heard and disposed of within six months from the date
of filing of the appeal.
3. The Gram Nyayalaya is subjected to any rule made by the high court.

A

1, 2 and 3

The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. So, statement 3 is correct.

169
Q

Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own.

A

true

➢ The Jammu and Kashmir High Court is the common high court for the two union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

170
Q

The reservation of seats in Panchayat for the scheduled castes does not apply to the State of Arunachal Pradesh.

A

The provision relating to reserving seats in panchayats (both members and chairpersons) for the scheduled castes does not apply to the State of Arunachal Pradesh. This is because the State is inhabited fully by indigenous tribal people, and there are no scheduled castes. This provision was
added later by the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000. So, statement 2 is correct.

171
Q

Union Territories (UTs) that existed during the State reorganization in 1956 are:

A

Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2) Delhi
3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands
5) Manipur
6) Tripura

172
Q

Objectives Resolution that was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru and seconded by Purushottam Das Tandon in the constituent assembly is the source of the Preamble

A

true

173
Q

Case (1994), the court held that the Preamble indicates a basic
structure of the Constitution.

A

S.R Bommai’s Case

174
Q

Consider the following statements
1. ‘Development Support Services for States (DSSS)’ is a Centre-State partnership model for cooperation established by Niti Aayog
2. The vision of the project is to achieve transformational and sustained delivery of infrastructure
projects in India

A
175
Q

Consider the following statements
1. ‘Development Support Services for States (DSSS)’ is a Centre-State partnership model for cooperation established by Niti Aayog
2. The vision of the project is to achieve transformational and sustained delivery of infrastructure projects in India

A

NITI Aayog has implemented a structured initiative named “Development Support Services for States (DSSS)” for Infrastructure Projects. The key objective behind the initiative is to create PPP success stories and reboot infrastructure project
delivery models to establish a sustainable infrastructure creation cycle. DSSS has the following key
objectives:
➢ Establish a Centre-State partnership model for cooperation. S

176
Q

why ut has maximum seats in lok sabha

A

delhi -7
j and k-5

177
Q

election petition should be filed within

A

Such a petition must be filed within 45 days of the poll results; courts entertain nothing after that. Although the Representative of the People Act of 1951 suggests that the High Court should try to conclude the trial within six months, it usually drags on for much longer, even years

178
Q

The Speaker disqualifies a member of his/her membership in case of the office of profit.

A

false

A Union or state government minister is not considered to hold the office of profit. Also, the Parliament can declare that a particular office of profit will not disqualify its holder from parliamentary membership. Hence, Speaker will not do.

179
Q

) With reference to the Inter-state River Water Disputes Act of 1956, Consider the following statements
1. The act empowers the Central government to constitute a Water Disputes Tribunal for the adjudication of the water dispute between two different states
2. The Tribunal consists of three members, with the chief justice of any High court as the chairman
3. The decision of the Tribunal is final and binding on the parties to the dispute

A

1 and 3 only

The Water Disputes Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other members nominated on this behalf by the Chief Justice of India from among persons who, at the time of such nomination, are Judges of the Supreme Court or a High Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.

180
Q

) The state finance commission makes provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and auditing such accounts.

A

The state legislature may make provisions concerning the maintenance of accounts by the panchayats and auditing such accounts, not the state finance commission

181
Q

Consider the following statements about the Central Council of Local Government:
1. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by order of the President of India.
2. The union minister of Panchayati Raj acts as the Chairman of the Council.

A

The Union minister of housing and
urban affairs acts as the Chairman of the Council.

182
Q

In case the Lok Sabha stands dissolved at the time of the proclamation of National emergency under Article 352, which among the following remains the consequences

A

Approved by Rajya Sabha within one month and later by Lok Sabha within one month of the start of its next session

183
Q

Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution mentions the scheduled areas and tribal areas?

A

Part X

184
Q

some countries follow semi-presidential system of government

A

Egypt, France, Lebanon, Ukraine, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Mongolia etc.

185
Q

The presiding officer can take up a defection case only when he receives a complaint from a member of the House.

A

true

186
Q

“Article 356 must be used as the last resort” is the recommendation of which the following committee
(a) Sarkaria committee
(b) Justice V.Chelliah Commission
(c) Rajamannar Committee (1971)
(d) Option (a) and (b)

A

Option (a) and (b)

187
Q
  1. Generally, the High court cannot entertain a writ petition by way of Public Interest Litigation questioning the validity of a statute.
A

Ordinarily, the High Court should not entertain a writ petition by way of PIL questioning the constitutionality or validity of a statute or a statutory rule. So, statement 2 is correct.

188
Q

Lokayukta is responsible to the state legislature.

A

The Lokayukta presents annually to the governor of the State a consolidated report on his performance. The governor places this report along with an explanatory memorandum before the state
legislature. The Lokayukta of a state is usually responsible to the state legislature. S

189
Q

issuing whip for presidential election is criminal offence

A

Anti-defection law does not apply to presidential polls. No political party can issue a whip to its MPs nd MLAs for a particular candidate, which would be constituted as an offense Under section 171C of the IPC. So, Statement 1 is correct

190
Q

The “Team India Wing” of NITI Aayog comprises which of the following?
(a) Think tank of top-notch domain experts, specialists and scholars.
(b) Representatives from every state and ministry, and it serves as a permanent platform for national collaboration.
(c) Chief ministers of all states, Union territories with legislatures and Lt. governors of other union territories.
(d) None of the above.

A

➢ The Team India Wing will comprise representatives from every State and Ministry and serve as a permanent platform for national collaboration. Each representative will ensure every state/ministry has a continuous voice and stake in the NITI Aayog. So, option (b) is correct.

191
Q

With reference to Constituent Assembly, Consider the following statements
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were partially elected from Princely states and partially nominated by the provincial assemblies.
2. There was no representation of independent members in the Constituent Assembly.
3. The First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was presided over by Dr Rajendra Prasad.

A

all are wrng

The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces) were held in July-August 1946. In the election, The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League had 73 seats, and the small independent groups got the remaining 15 seats. So, Statement 2 is not correct
The First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was presided over by Dr. Sachidanand. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

192
Q

) Which among the following is/are associated with the Admission or establishment of new States under
Article 2 of the Indian Constitution?
1. A constitutional amendment under Article 368
2. Prior recommendation of the President
3. Parliamentary law
4. Assent of half of the Indian states

A

Any Bill that seeks to change or alter the boundaries or name of any state by separation of territory from any state under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Thus, the bill under Article 3 requires prior
permission of the President, not under Article 2 of the Indian Constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct

193
Q

In the context of the recent Supreme Court judgment, which among the following fundamental rights
has/have Horizontal application
1. Prohibition of untouchability under Article 17
2. Right to a clean environment under Article 21
3. Right of free speech and expression under Article 19

A

1, 2 and 3

Fundamental rights have a vertical application of rights, which means they can be enforced only against the State, while a horizontal approach would mean it is enforceable against other citizens.

Recently, A constitutional bench of the Supreme Court has said that A fundamental right under Articles 19 and 21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.

194
Q

“Right to be forgotten” was recognised as the legal right in which of the following country/group of
countries
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) European Union

A

The European Union in 2018. It has adopted the General Data Protection
Regulation (GDPR), Article 17 of which provides for the right to the erasure of certain categories of personal data that which is considered no longer necessary, that for which consent has been withdrawn or processing of which has been objected to, personal data unlawfully processed, and data
where there is a legal obligation for erasure. It is not recognized as a legal right in India, yet courts in recent months have held it to be an intrinsic part of the right to privacy under article 21.

195
Q

) Which among the following committees is/are related to Fundamental Duties
1. Swaran Singh Committee
2. Sarkaria Commission
3. Verma Committee
4. VKRV Rao Committee

A

1, 3 and 4 only

VKRV Rao Committee (Rao and Singh 1976) criticized the Swaran Singh Committee Report’s recommendations on the grounds that Fundamental Duties cannot be followed if there is no le gal action for their violation. S

196
Q

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List

A

Education,
➢ Forests,
➢ Weights and measures,
➢ Protection of wild animals and birds, and
➢ Administration of justice; Constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.

197
Q

. DBT Mission was created under the Cabinet Secretariat, which acts as the nodal point for the implementation of the DBT programs in India

A

DBT Mission was created in the Planning Commission to act as the nodal point for implementing the DBT programs, not under the cabinet secretariat.
DBT Mission and matters related thereto has been placed in Cabinet Secretariat under Secretary

198
Q

With reference to No Confidence Motions, Consider the following statements
1. Any member of the Lok Sabha can move a no-confidence motion by giving written notice to the
secretary general of the Lok Sabha
2. It can be moved only against the entire council of minister

A

Both 1 and 2

Any member of the House can pass the motion, which can be done by giving
written notice by 10 am to the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha. According to Rule 198, no reason is needed or required for any member to move the motion. So, statement 1 is correct

199
Q

A statement made by a minister, including MLAs and MPs, can be attributed vicariously to the government on the basis of collective responsibility

A

A statement made by a minister, including MLAs and MPs, cannot be attributed vicariously to the government even when applying the principle of collective responsibility, the Supreme Court said on Tuesday (January 3).

200
Q

So far, delimitation for the whole country has been carried out

A

The Constitution says boundaries of Assembly constituencies should be updated after every decadal Census, but through amendments in 1976 and 2001, the process of delimitation was put off for 25 years each time. So far, delimitation for the whole country has been carried out four times — under Delimitation Acts in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — and remains in abeyance till 2026.

During the last delimitation, which was completed in 2008, the government decided to leave out Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland, as well as Jammu and Kashmir

201
Q

which census for delimitation

A

According to Article 170 of the Constitution, the population numbers to be used for drawing boundaries of constituencies would be as per the 2001 Census until the first Census after 2026 is published. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 passed by Parliament had mentioned the population in the 2011 Census as the basis of delimitation

202
Q

. Parliament has only around 100 sittings a year; Committee meetings are independent of Parliament’s calendar.

A

true

203
Q
  1. There are 16 Departmentally Related Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and eight for Rajya Sabha
  2. every Committee has members from both Houses.
A

true

204
Q
  1. An invitation to appear before a Parliamentary Committee is equivalent to a summons from a court: If one cannot come, he or she has to give reasons, which the panel may or may not accept.
  2. the chairman should have the support of the majority of the members to summon a witness.
A

true

205
Q

vice presidents election- proportional representation election method.

While the marking of the first preference is compulsory for the ballot paper to be valid, other preferences are optional,”

A

true

206
Q

anti defection law -“a person may be said to have voluntarily given up membership of an original party even though he or she has not tendered resignation from membership of the party

A

In Rajendra Singh Rana v Swami Prasad Maurya (2007), a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court interpreted the term “voluntarily giving up membership of a political party”, and held that “a person may be said to have voluntarily given up membership of an original party even though he or she has not tendered resignation from membership of the party” and that an inference can be drawn from conduct of the member

207
Q

Currently, 54 nations are signatories to the Antarctic Treaty, but only 29 nations have a right to vote at the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meetings – this includes India.

A

true

208
Q

is the only Speaker since Independence who after assuming the office of Speaker formally resigned from his political party

A

Neelam SANJIVA REDDY

209
Q

With reference to the Financial emergency, consider the following statements:
It is not subject to judicial review.

A

. The 44th Amendment, 1978 (also known as the Corrective Amendment) says that the top court has the power to review the declaration of Financial Emergency

210
Q

The Constitution has declared Hindi and English only to be the languages for transacting business in Parliament.

A

Article 120- The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for transacting business in Parliament

211
Q

. Consider the following statements :
1. All the resolutions come in the category of substantive motions.
2. All the motions are not necessarily put to the vote of the House.
3. Every resolution is a particular type of motion.

A

1, 2 and 3

Resolutions are different from motions in the following respects: “All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion

212
Q

According to the Constitution, the Finance Bill must be enacted within 75 days.

A

According to the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e., passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President) within 75 days

213
Q

Consider the following statements about the State Legislature:
1. According to the Constitution, if a person is elected to both the House of the state legislature, his seat in the council becomes vacant.

A

article 190 of the Indian Constitution, A person cannot be a member of both Houses of state legislature simultaneously. If a person is elected to both Houses, his seat in one of the Houses falls vacant as per the provisions of a law made by the state legislature (not the seat in the state council will become vacant in all the scenarios).

214
Q

Lok Adalats:The parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their counsel, which is not possible in regular courts of law

A

true

215
Q

Currently, the Supreme court consists of 34 Judges, including the Chief Justice of India

A

Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, in February 2023, administered the oath of office to two newjudges (Justices Rajesh Bindal and Aravind Kumar) of the Supreme Court, taking the number of judges in the apex court to its full sanctioned strength of 34.

216
Q

National Green Tribunal territorial jurisdiction is subordinated to the High Court.

A

The Supreme Court has ruled that the National Green Tribunal is subordinate to high courts when both pass an order on the same issue so far as territorial jurisdiction is concerned. Tribunals are judicial or quasi-judicial institutions established by law. They intend to provide a platform for faster adjudication as compared to traditional courts, as well as expertise on certain subject matters. So, Statement 2 is correct.

217
Q

The constitution provided that all proceedings in SC and HC shall be in English until President otherwise provides

A

Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language until Parliament (not president) by law otherwise provides

218
Q

Constituent Assembly included all important personalities of India of that period, including M.A. Jinnah

A

The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M.A. Jinnah

219
Q

It is a constitutional mandate that only Indian citizens can hold important offices like President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, Governor of states, Attorney General of India and Advocate General of states.

A

true

220
Q

The State, under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, comprises
1. Judiciary
2. Airport Authority of India
3. Unaided minority school
4. Life Insurance Corporation
5. Industrial Finance Corporation

A

In Satimbla Sharma V. St. Paul Senior Secondary school case (2011), the Supreme Court has held that Unaided minority schools over which the Government has no administrative control due to their authority under Article 30 (1) of the Constitution are not “State” within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution.

In Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram case (1975), the Supreme Court, following the test laid down in Electricity Board Rajasthan’s case by 4:1 majority, (Alagiriswamy, J. dissenting) held that Oil and Natural Gas Commission, Life Insurance Corporation and Industrial Finance Corporation, are authorities within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution and therefore, they are ‘State’

2, 4 and 5 only

221
Q

directive principles of state policy are supplementary to fundamental rights.

A

They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights. So, statement 3 is correct

222
Q

The value of each MLA’s vote in a state for presidential election is determined based on the population as per 2001 census

A

1971 census

223
Q

The provision of joint sitting has been invoked only thrice since 1950.

A

Since 1950, the provision regarding the joint sitting of the two Houses has been invoked only thrice. The bills that have been passed at joint sittings are:
➢ Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960.
➢ Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977.
➢ Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.

224
Q

The chairman of RS can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of vice president

A

True

225
Q

President can prorogue the house while it’s in session

A

Possible

226
Q

The proceedings of a house are to be valid irrespective of any unauthorized voting Or any vacancy

A

True

227
Q

First time
1. Zero hour
2. Calling attention motion

A
  1. 1962
  2. 1954

Calling attention motion is mentioned in the rules of procedure unlike zero hour

228
Q

Ethics Committee was first formed in

A

Rajyasabha in 1997 and loksabha in 2000

229
Q

Deputy speaker is the chairman of which commitee

A

Commitee on private members bill

230
Q

The governor acts as the agent of the central govt

A

True

231
Q

CAG controls the issue of money from the consolidated fund of India

A

No
He is not a comptroller

232
Q

: “National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) ministry

A

min of parl affairs

233
Q

‘Global Food Security Platform

A

IFC’s Global Food Security Platform is part of
the World Bank Group’s ongoing $30 billion initiative to reduce food insecurity during the next
year

234
Q

With reference to the Secretariat of the
Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Constitutional body.

A

t is true that the Secretariat of the Parliament is a Constitutional body as it was set up under the provisions of Article 98 of the Indian Constitution. Article 98 states that each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff and Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament.

235
Q

Which of the following is the only
paramilitary force with a dual control
structure?

A

Assam Rifles

While the administrative control
of the force is with the MHA, its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD).

236
Q

The status of parties as national or state is
reviewed before every general election by
Election Commission of India

A

: Recently, Election Commission (EC) has amended rules, whereby it will now review the national and state party status of political parties every ten years instead of the present five.

237
Q

Who among the following can make
provisions for discharge of functions of
Governor in any contingency not provided in
the constitution?

A

According to Article 160 of the Indian Constitution, the President can make such provision as he thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of a State in any contingency not mentioned in the Constitution of India

Polity Prelims (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions