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Policy > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

Consular Notification: Who is responsible for notifying an arrestee or detainee’s consular? A list of mandatory consular notifications will be kept where?

A

The arresting officer; in the LT’s office bulletin board.

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2
Q

Legally Mandated Authority: The PD’s authority and responsibility is granted by what section of the ORC?

A

ORC 737.11

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3
Q

Authority to Carry and Use Weapons: The PD’s authority for sworn officers to carry and use firearms is granted by what ORC code?

A

ORC 109.80.1

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4
Q

Constitutional Rights: If a suspect wishes to make a statement, but refuses to sign the waiver (form 1.7), who should sign the waiver? A notation shall be made as to the reason for the refusal.

A

A witness and the investigating officer

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5
Q

Constitutional Rights: Arraignment timetables are governed by what ORC section?

A

ORC 2945.71

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6
Q

Constitutional Rights: If there is any question on what can be released to the media, the Staff Commander in charge of what shall be contacted?

A

Records Bureau

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7
Q

Constitutional Rights: What shall normally be released to the media?

A
  1. date and location of the offense
  2. name and address of the victim (except sex crimes/juveniles)
  3. name, address, charges against a formally charged suspect
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8
Q

Constitutional Rights: What will not be released to the media?

A
  1. suspect’s prior record
  2. motive
  3. evidentiary details
  4. content of statements
  5. possible pleas
  6. anything prohibited by judicial order
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9
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: What case law allows for an officer to conduct a stop and frisk of an individual when the officer has a tangible/reasonable belief to fear for his/her safety?

A

Terry v Ohio (1968)

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10
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: What case laws allow for the warrantless search of a vehicle under the movable vehicle exception?

A

Chambers v Maroney (1970) and US v Johns (1985)

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11
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: A warrantless search of a movable vehicle can be conducted when?

A
  1. PC that contraband or evidence exists in the car
  2. The vehicle is about to be or could be moved; and,
  3. Obtaining a warrant would be impractical
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12
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: In Anderson v Sanders (1979), the court held what in regards to exigent circumstances?

A

where the societal costs of obtaining a search warrant, such as the danger to law enforcement officers or the risk of loss or destruction of evidence, outweigh the reasons for prior recourse to a neutral magistrate, an officer can conduct a limited search and seizure.

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13
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: Examples of exigent circumstances include what?

A
  1. need to rescue (Mincey v Arizona (1978)

2. danger of escape or destruction/removal of evidence

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14
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: An inventory search of a motor vehicle will include a documented inventory search of the vehicle and contents, including what?

A

including closed containers, contents of trunk/cargo area, exterior of vehicle, and engine compartment

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15
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: If access cannot be gained to a locked briefcase, box, luggage, etc, officers WILL / WILL NOT forcibly open locked containers unless a search warrant is obtained.

A

WILL NOT

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16
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: Search incident to a lawful arrest is allowed for what? Maryland v Blue (1990) and NY v Belton (1981)

A
  1. Protection of the officer

2. Prevent the destruction of evidence

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17
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: Search incident to a lawful arrest is limited to what?

A
  1. Person

2. Immediate area the detainee may access to get a weapon or destroy evidence

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18
Q

Warrantless Search and Seizure: What two case laws allow for the seize or evidence or contraband that is in plain view?

A

Coolidge v New Hampshire (1971),

Horton v California (1990)

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19
Q

Procedures for Arrest: What ORC section allows for the arrest by anyone of someone who it is believed to have committed a felony?

A

ORC 2935.04

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20
Q

Procedures for Arrest: According to ORC 2935.07, when a person is engaged in the commission of a criminal offense, it IS / IS NOT necessary to inform him/her of the cause for the arrest.

A

IS NOT

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21
Q

Procedures for Arrest: Felony affidavits and warrants are filed with which court?

A

Municipal court of the county of offense

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22
Q

Procedures for Arrest: An officer may pursue outside of their jurisdiction and arrest and detain the person if?

A
  1. pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay
  2. pursuit is initiated within jursidiction
  3. offense is a felony, M1, M2, or where points are chargeable pursuant to 4510.036
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23
Q

Procedures for Arrest: A legal arrest is constituted of what four elements?

A
  1. An intent to arrest;
  2. Legal authority to arrest based on jurisdiction and venue;
  3. Accompanied by an actual or constructive seizure or detention or the person; and,
  4. Understood by the person being arrested.
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24
Q

Procedures for Arrest: What section of the ORC governs the procedures for arrest?

A

ORC 2935

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25
Q

Procedures for Arrest: The “no-knock” search warrant requirements are outlined in what ORC section?

A

ORC 2933.231

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26
Q

Procedures for Arrest: Which states are not violator compact states?

A

Michigan, Georgia, Wisconsin, California, Montana, Oregon, and Alaska.

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27
Q

Firearm Training: If an officer fails to qualify on their 3rd attempt, the officer assigned to a position that does not require a firearm and will be given how long to train under supervision?

A

2 weeks

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28
Q

Firearm Training: If, after the initial two weeks of training, the officer fails to qualify, the officer may be disciplined, but not?

A

may not be fired

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29
Q

Firearm Training: An additional two weeks will be given to train if after the first two weeks of training the officer did not qualify. If the officer does not qualify after the total of four weeks training, what happens?

A

the officer is terminated

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30
Q

Use of Force - Taser: Cartridges and probes of evidentiary value will be held a minimum of how many years?

A

2 years

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31
Q

Use of Force - Taser: Who is permitted to remove the Digital Power Magazine (battery) from the Taser?

A

Only a supervisor

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32
Q

Use of Force - Taser: Non-target areas for the Taser include what three areas?

A

head, neck, & groin

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33
Q

Use of Force - Taser: Do not use a Taser under which three specific conditions?

A
  1. suspect is in danger of falling
  2. in conjunction with OC spray (may be used after OC spray if it was ineffective)
  3. near flammable liquids
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34
Q

Use of Force - Taser: Probes that do not break the skin can be removed by who? Probes that are superficially in the skin will be removed by who? Probes that are in the face, neck, ear, breast, or groin or are deeply embedded will be removed by who?

A

Officer, MCFD, Doctor at MGH

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35
Q

Use of Force - Taser: A suspect who has the Taser cycled on them at least how many times will be taken to the hospital for treatment unless a supervisor decides he/she should go with less cycles due to circumstances?

A

4 or more times

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36
Q

Requesting Federal Assistance: Federal agencies will not normally be called upon for emergency situations. What people may call upon for federal help if needed?

A

Chief, Mayor, Staff Commander (for a criminal investigation and the Chief will be notified)

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37
Q

Requesting National Guard: The Mayor may appeal to who for National Guard Assistance?

A

Governor

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38
Q

Organizational Structure: The Planning and Research Function, Fiscal Mgmt, IA, Public Information function, SRT, and Community Involvement Coordinator falls under which division?

A

Chief

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39
Q

Organizational Structure: The Administrative Division is in charge of what?

A

Chaplain Program, Accreditation, Computer Operations, Emergency Operations, and the Property Room.

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40
Q

Written Directives: Training Bulletins may be issued by who?

A

Chief and Staff Commanders

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41
Q

Written Directives: Memos can be issued by who?

A

Any supervisor

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42
Q

Written Directives: Personnel Orders can be issued by who?

A

Chief or Staff Commander that it affects

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43
Q

Written Directives: General Orders can be issued by who?

A

Only the Chief

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44
Q

Written Directives: All written directives that revise rules, regs, policy, procedure will be disseminated how many days prior to adoption of the rule?

A

14 days; Staff Commanders have 3 days to respond with recommendations

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45
Q

Written Directives: All members will acknowledge all written directives within how many working days?

A

3 working days

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46
Q

Reserve Officer: An applicant for Reserve Officer must pass a written test with a score of no less than what percent?

A

70%

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47
Q

Reserve Officer: A Reserve Officer will be require to work how many hours per month?

A

minimum of 10 or maybe 20 hrs

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48
Q

Budget Process: The annual budget process begins in the month of April in the year proceeding and must be completed by when?

A

July 1st

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49
Q

Purchasing Procedures: For non-bid purchases, form 17.1 will be forwarded to the Admin Division, then to the Chief, then the Safety Director, then the Auditor, and finally who?

A

Requesting Officer

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50
Q

Purchasing Procedures: For bid purchases, the Chief will submit specs, costs, and basis for need to the Safety Director. The Safety Director forwards it to who? They then forward it to who?

A

Finance Committee for City Council; Full City Council for vote

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51
Q

Purchasing Procedures: Normally, the City is required to provide how many days notice to allow bidders to submit sealed bids? After this time, the Safety Director holds what?

A

30 days; public bid opening

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52
Q

Purchasing Procedures: After the open bid, the Safety Director make a recommendation to who? Who then must approve it?

A

Finance Committee; Full Council

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53
Q

Purchasing Procedures: A funds transfer must have the approval of what three people/committees?

A

the Mayor, Marion City Auditor, and the Legislative Finance Committee for the City of Marion.

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54
Q

Purchasing Procedures: Supplemental appropriations must have the approval of what three people/committees? These appropriations also require what?

A

the Mayor, Marion City Auditor, and the Legislative Finance Committee for the City of Marion; approval in the form of an ordinance and the majority vote of City Council

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55
Q

Line Item Accounting: The Auditor provides a statement on the status of each line item how often?

A

Monthy

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56
Q

Cash Funds: The MPD cash funds are audited how often?

A

at least quarterly

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57
Q

Cash Funds: The petty cash, controlled by the Admin Bureau, will have no more than $____ total and are for purchases of no more than $____.

A

$100, $20

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58
Q

Control of Property: A physical audit of all property is required how often?

A

At least biennially

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59
Q

Maintenance of Class Specs: Human Resources operate under what report for class specs?

A

The Yarger Report

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60
Q

Maintenance of Class Specs: Changes affecting MPD must be approved by who?

A

City Council and Civil Service

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61
Q

EAP: Front-line supervisors and the Command Staff will be trained on EAP at Staff Meetings at least how often?

A

Yearly

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62
Q

EAP: Who reviews EAP with other employees?

A

Their supervisors

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63
Q

Off-Duty Employment: Off-duty employment is limited to how many hours per week?

A

20 hours

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64
Q

Grievance Procedure: A member receiving a grievance shall forward it to the Grievance Coordinator within how many hours?

A

72 hours

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65
Q

Investigation of Cases of Dismissal: An officer subject to dismissal shall be given a statement citing what three things?

A
  1. reason for dismissal
  2. effective date of dismissal
  3. statement of benefits due the officer
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66
Q

Records of Disciplinary Actions: The original copy of the personnel action is placed where? Where is this file kept?

A

the member’s personnel file; Chief’s office

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67
Q

Records of Disciplinary Actions: Where are two other copies of the personnel action placed?

A

with the administrative file supporting the action in the IA records and to the affected member

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68
Q

Recruitment Program: Which Staff Commander is in charge of the Recruitment Program?

A

Administrative

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69
Q

Recruitment Program: The Administrative Staff Commander shall keep apprised of what two areas in regards to recruitment?

A

Affirmative Action Plan and Equal Opportunity Plans

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70
Q

Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The goal for minorities taking the Civil Service Exam is what percent of all applicants? What percent is the goal for females?

A

5% or more, 10% or more

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71
Q

Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The PD shall strive to participate in minority job fairs within how many miles of Marion?

A

100 miles

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72
Q

Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: The PD shall speak to Tri-Rivers and the Marion Police Academy at least how often about needing a work force representative of the community?

A

annually

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73
Q

Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: Who is responsible for the implementation of this plan?

A

Chief

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74
Q

Affirmative Action/Recruitment Plan: At the end of a testing cycle conducted by Civil Service, what shall be done?

A

a statistical summary to be compared to the benchmark in this section

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75
Q

Hiring Process: All records created by the PD of a candidate appointed to probationary status shall be kept by who? Records for those not hired shall be returned to who?

A

Chief; HR dept

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76
Q

Training Committee: The Training Committee is composed of what five members? Who will act as Chairman?

A
  1. Staff Commander in charge of Training
  2. LT selected by the Gold OLC
  3. PTL selected by the Blue OLC
  4. Member of COCO OLC
  5. Member of USWA Labor group;
    staff commander in charge of training will be Chairman
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77
Q

Training Attendance Requirements: Members shall provide a copy of the certificate for the training within how many working days after completion?

A

2 working days

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78
Q

Lesson Plans: Who must approve a lesson plan if a member of MPD is providing training?

A

Chief

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79
Q

Training Conducted by MPD: The Training Unit shall maintain a record of each training class it conducts or hosts that includes what 4 areas?

A
  1. course content/lesson plan
  2. names of those in attendance
  3. performance on tests, if administered
  4. names/agencies of each instructor
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80
Q

Training Academy: Certification by whom of the OPOTA serves as proof of compliance of the recruit of training standards of the Training Council?

A

Executive Director of OPOTA

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81
Q

Field Training Program: Newly commissioned members are prohibited from accepting or working special duty until when?

A

They have completed FTO

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82
Q

Field Training Program: The Field Training Program will be considered complete when?

A

Chief directs in writing that the recruit has completed FTO and receives their permenant assignment.

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83
Q

Field Training Program: The FTO shall have who many years of experience?

A

3 years

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84
Q

Field Training Program: After the FTO period, platoon LTs will evaluate the member how often?

A

Monthly

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85
Q

Advanced Training Programs: What 4 factors are considered in deciding if advanced training requests are to be considered?

A
  1. training budget
  2. needs of the unit
  3. staffing levels
  4. needs of department
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86
Q

Accreditation Training: Training on accreditation shall be done when?

A
  1. for newly hired members
  2. annually
  3. as part of the self assessment
  4. prior to an on-site assessment
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87
Q

Performance Evaluation System: This system will include what 4 elements?

A
  1. measurement definitions
  2. procedures for use of forms
  3. rater responsibilities
  4. rater training
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88
Q

Personnel Evaluation System: If an employee wants to contest their performance evaluation, they shall forward a request to whom through the proper chain of command?

A

Chief

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89
Q

Personnel Evaluation System: If an employee disputes their evaluation, the Chief will interview the employee. Who may also be present? What may the Chief do at the conclusion of the interview?

A

The rater or the rater’s supervisor; the Chief may amend the eval

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90
Q

Personnel Evaluation System: How long are performance evaluations kept?

A

Permanently

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91
Q

Unsatisfactory Performance: Non-probationary employees will be advised how when their performance is unsatisfactory and at least how many days prior to the end of the annual rating period?

A

In writing, at least 90 days

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92
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): What three steps comprise PEWS?

A
  1. Identification
  2. Development and Implementation
  3. Documentation and Conclusion
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93
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Whose responsibility is it to observe and document conduct and behavior of employees?

A

first-line supervisor

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94
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): First-line supervisors are tasked with taking remedial action, such as what three things?

A
  1. training recommendations
  2. referral to EAP
  3. personnel counseling
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95
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Any remedial action is to be documented by Memo and forwarded to who?

A

Chief

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96
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): In the Identification phase, a Staff-level employee will review information on use of force, complaints, etc at least how often?

A

semi-annually

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97
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A report is generated on a semi-annual basis listing who?

A

any employee with an occurance

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98
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS):What is the criteria for eligibility into the program?

A
  1. Use of force incidents
  2. Complaints against the employee
  3. Disciplinary action
  4. Crashes
  5. Excessive absences or tardiness
  6. Poor evaluations
  7. Duty-related injuries
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99
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A combined total of how many IA’s in 6 months and/or how many occurrences as identified in the Identification phase in 12 months will have an employee considered for entry into PEWS?

A

3 or more, 8 or more

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100
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): An outcome of a formal Admin Review may include an order by the Chief for an employee to participate in what?

A

EAP

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101
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Once an employee has been considered “eligible” for the program, a conference will be scheduled with the Chief or his designee within how many days?

A

30 days

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102
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): A conference under the Development and Implementation Phase may include who?

A
  1. Employee
  2. Employee’s direct supervisor
  3. Administrator of PEWS
  4. Chief or his designee
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103
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Any decision for entry into the program will be made how?

A

case by case basis

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104
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): If an employee may be entered into the program, the program may include what?

A
  1. Counseling
  2. Mandatory physical examination
  3. Mandatory psychological examination for fitness for duty
  4. Request employee voluntarily enter EAP
  5. Retraining
  6. Recommending change in duty assignment
  7. Weekly performance evaluations
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105
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): In regards to implementation, the employee’s supervisor will be responsible for what three things?

A
  1. Directing the employee to participate in the program
  2. Coordinate adjustments in employee’s duty schedule
  3. Ensure the employee participates in and completes the plan in a timely manner
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106
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Once complete, the supervisor will do what three things and forward it to the Chief?

A
  1. Describe data that identified the employee for entry into the program
  2. Narrate the development and implementation process
  3. Provide any supporting documents
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107
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Who maintains records of an employee’s involvement in PEWS?

A

Chief

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108
Q

Personnel Early Warning System (PEWS): Information about EAP may be obtained from who?

A

HR or an department supervisor

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109
Q

Bike Patrol: Officers must do what to do bike patrol?

A
  1. Be able to ride a bike
  2. Volunteer for the program
  3. Complete a training course
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110
Q

Bike Patrol: Officers must have at least ____ year(s) of service with the department.

A

1 year

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111
Q

Silent Alarms: What phrase shall the dispatcher ask the person answering the phone? What is the proper response?

A

“This is the Cleveland Indians, is our deposit in?”

The date in numerical form (ie, 0407 for July 4th)

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112
Q

Notification of Proper Authority: Reports to the media of serious felony crimes (UCR Part 1 Offenses) should be left for who to review to determine the date, time, place and manner of releasing the information?

A

Chief or his designee

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113
Q

Missing Persons: Who’s responsibility is it to obtain dental records for a juvenile within 30 days of the juvenile being reported missing?

A

Juvenile Intervention Officer

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114
Q

Amber Alert: An Amber Alert shall be declared under what circumstances?

A
  1. 17 yoa or younger; and
  2. child’s safety is at risk; and
  3. the abductor and child are likely to be in the Central Ohio broadcast area; and
  4. there is a likelihood that someone may see the abductor and/or child
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115
Q

Amber Alert: The 3 people who can authorize an Amber Alert are who?

A

Chief, Operations Major, Investigations Major

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116
Q

Amber Alert: Procedures for entering an Amber Alert:

A
  1. dispatch complete and fax form to Crawford Co S.O.
  2. dispatch also call CCSO
  3. officer have parents sign a photo release
  4. CCSO completes a media report and send to Emergency Alert Stations
  5. EAS transmits for 2 hours
  6. MPD keeps CCSO appraised of updates
  7. when recovered, CCSO notifies EAS
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117
Q

Mental Illnesses: Training will be provided when?

A

entry level and every 3 years

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118
Q

Case File Mgmt: Cases submitted should be designated as 1 of what 3 statuses?

A

Active, Inactive, Closed

119
Q

Intelligence Information: Intelligence info shall be limited to what?

A

criminal conduct and activities that present a threat to the community

120
Q

Intelligence Information: The Criminal Intelligence file shall be purged how often?

A

every two years

121
Q

Preliminary Investigation Steps: What are the duties of a responding officer?

A

Assist the victim, protect the crime scene, & apprehend the offender

122
Q

Investigative Task Force: What 5 issues are to be addressed as a member of METRICH/MARMET?

A
  1. ID purpose
  2. Define authority/responsibility
  3. Establish accountability
  4. ID resources
  5. Evaluate results
123
Q

Technical Aids: Polygraphs may be scheduled with the consent of whom?

A

Investigative or Operations Commander, or, in their absence, the shift supervisor

124
Q

Using Informants: What division maintains the CI files? Who will conduct periodic, unannounced inspections of the files? Access of the files is limited to whom?

A

Investigative; Chief; Investigative Commander and Chief

125
Q

Using Informants: The CI file shall contain what?

A
  1. Bio and background info
  2. Criminal history
  3. Code name or number for informant
  4. A record of funds paid and signed receipts
126
Q

Using Informants: Who maintains the records of payments on the confidential ledger?

A

Investigative Commander

127
Q

Using Informants: Codes and informant files shall be what?

A

stored separately and securely

128
Q

Using Informants: Who may authorize the use of funds for informants?

A

Chief or Investigative Commander

129
Q

Receiving and Processing Complaints: Who shall see that the Intelligence form is formally classified and properly filed?

A

Investigative Commander

130
Q

Receiving and Processing Complaints: How often will records of the Intelligence Form (42.7) be purged?

A

2 years if they have remained inactive

131
Q

Receiving and Processing Complaints: The Investigative Commander forwards a report to the Chief summarizing complaints, investigations, and arrests involving organized crime how often?

A

monthly

132
Q

Juvenile Justice Liaison: In the case of error, update, or suggestion in this part of the policy, the Juvenile Officer will relay the information to whom?

A

Chief

133
Q

Least Coercive Alternative/Notification: Who maintains a list of all community-based social agencies and department programs that provides services to juveniles?

A

JIS

134
Q

Provisions for Taking a Juvenile into Custody: What rules and code cover taking a juvenile into custody?

A

Rule 6 of Juvenile Procedure and ORC 2151.31

135
Q

Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: __ __ ____, the court found that there IS / IS NOT a mandatory requirement that a parent or guardian of a juvenile suspect be present and informed of child’s Miranda Rights prior to interrogation.

A

In Re Watson (1989); IS NOT

136
Q

Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: Facts to be considered in the totality of the circumstances test include what?

A

education level, age, mental condition, past criminal experiences, improper police advice, police threats/coercion, length/frequency of interrogation, physical/mental mistreatment.

137
Q

Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A juvenile may be held up to 6 hours at the county jail if all of the following apply:

A
  1. felony offense
  2. separate room and removed by sight and sound from other adult detainees
  3. supervised at all times
138
Q

Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A juvenile may be held up to 3 hours at the county jail if all of the following apply:

A
  1. misdemeanor
  2. separate room and removed by sight and sound from other adult detainees
  3. supervised at all times
139
Q

Juvenile Custodial Interrogation: A youth MAY / MAY NOT be interviewed after regular hours (8:30am-4:30pm, M-F) without the approval of the attorney or order of the Juvenile Judge.

A

MAY NOT

140
Q

School Liaison Program: Who do the SROs report to?

A

Operations Major

141
Q

The JIS is under the supervision of whom?

A

Support Services Major

142
Q

Voluntary Abandonment of Newborn: A parent has the right to abandon their newborn within who many hours of birth?

A

72 hours

143
Q

Voluntary Abandonment of Newborn: The newborn must be delivered to a whom?

A

EMS, peace officer, or hospital employee.

144
Q

Citizen Survey: This survey will be conducted how often?

A

every 3 years

145
Q

All-Hazard Plan: What are the different functions in the Incident Command System?

A

Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Admin

146
Q

Testing of Department Equipment: At least monthly, what equipment must be tested?

A

radio comms, 9-1-1, generator

147
Q

SRT: What is the minimum number of team members required to deploy the SRT?

A

4

148
Q

SRT: How often is training conducted? How many hours? Proposed monthly training is prepared by whom, how many days prior, and forwarded to whom?

A

monthly; 8 hours; Team Leader, 10 days, Chief

149
Q

SRT: SRT is under the control of whom?

A

Chief

150
Q

SRT: SRT members commit to a minimum of how many years?

A

3 years

151
Q

SRT: SRT members must meet standards developed by OPOTC in what two areas?

A

physical fitness and firearms proficiency

152
Q

SRT: The Chief of Police will ensire that the SRT “Tactical Handbook” is reviewed how often?

A

Annually

153
Q

SRT: The selection process includes what steps?

A
  1. Written notice to Chief of desire
  2. Psych test
  3. SRT training course
154
Q

SRT: Members qualified with specialized weapons will qualify how often?

A

2x/year

155
Q

VIP Security: Who is the supervisor/coordinator for any given VIP security detail?

A

Chief or designee

156
Q

Special Events: What is considered a special event?

A

prescheduled occurrence that requires resources beyond what would normally be scheduled

157
Q

Special Events: Who coordinates a special event?

A

A staff commander selected by the Chief

158
Q

Special Events: Who completes an after action report?

A

The coordinator (Staff Commander)

159
Q

HazMat Awareness: Events involving chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear weapons are will be handled as outlined in what manual? Where is it kept?

A

County-Wide Emergency Operations Plan Manual; dispatch and on the servers

160
Q

Bomb Disposal: Who is in charge of the scene of a suspected bomb?

A

Operations Commander

161
Q

Bomb Disposal: What should the dispatcher get from the caller initially?

A

time of detonation or location (and as much info as possible)

162
Q

Bomb Disposal: The decision to disregard a threat, search for a device, and/or evacuate rests with whom?

A

owner, manager, or person in charge of the facility

163
Q

Bomb Disposal: If the person in charge decides to disregard the threat, the person will be requested to do what?

A

sign the report

164
Q

Bomb Disposal: With incidents involving military bombs or ordinances, who will be contacted to dispose of the threat?

A

Allen County S.O.

165
Q

Bomb Disposal: With incidents involving non-military bombs or ordinances, who will be contacted to dispose of the threat?

A

Columbus Fire Department’s Bomb Disposal Team then Franklin County S.O. if CFD is unavailable

166
Q

Bomb Disposal: Radio communication should be kept at a minimum using who as “runners” for communication? Cells and radio should not be used unless absolutely necessary.

A

search team members

167
Q

Records of Complaints: Records of IA investigations shall be kept for how many years?

A

5 years

168
Q

Complaints: If the complaint is of a criminal nature and/or may result in suspension, the supervisor should forward the complaint through the proper chain of command to whom?

A

Chief

169
Q

Complaints: all investigations resulting in recommendations for what level of discipline and greater should be forwarded to the Chief through the proper chain of command?

A

written reprimand and higher

170
Q

Complaints: Who shall investigate minor complaints? Who shall the results be forwarded to? Complaints of a series nature may be investigated by whom?

A

Lts; the LT’s Staff Commander; Staff Commander

171
Q

Complaints: Who will review all complaints?

A

Chief

172
Q

Complaints: Complaints that could result in suspension, termination, or criminal charges will cause who to be notified immediately?

A

Chief

173
Q

Complaints: How many days are allowed to complete an IA investigation for the Blue Unit? Gold Unit?

A

30 days; 45 days

174
Q

Complaints: Is written verification required to complainants for complaints?

A

Yes

175
Q

Complaints: Notice of the outcome of a complaint will result in 1 of 5 designations. What are they?

A
  1. Improper Conduct
  2. Insufficient Evidence
  3. Policy Failure
  4. Proper Conduct
  5. Unfounded Complaint
176
Q

Complaints: Who notifies the member at the conclusion of the investigation?

A

immediate supervisor

177
Q

Complaints: When a member is the subject of an IA, the member will receive what?

A

written statement of allegations and their rights in accordance with Garrity Warnings.

178
Q

Complaints: Shall members be required to submit financial disclosure statements as part of an IA?

A

No

179
Q

Complaints: Can members not excluded by Labor Agreement be given a polygraph?

A

Yes

180
Q

Complaints: Who may place someone on paid Admin Leave?

A

Any Staff Commander

181
Q

Complaints: Within how many days or hours shall the member and Staff Commander be required to report to the Chief’s office, unless otherwise directed by the Chief?

A

24 hours

182
Q

Complaints: A Staff Commander may place a member on Admin Leave if when?

A

If he/she believes that the integrity or best interest of MPD requires a member to be relieved from duty due to the seriousness, particular circumstances, or possible criminal involvement of the member

183
Q

Complaints: Upon hearing the facts of the Admin Leave, the Chief shall do what?

A

make recommendations and may require the member to report to the Safety Director’s office the next business day

184
Q

Complaints: What is the most discipline a LT may conduct?

A

counseling

185
Q

Complaints: Improper Conduct means what?

A

allegation is true and the actions of the member was inconsistent with the MPD Policy

186
Q

Complaints: Insufficient Evidence means what?

A

not sufficient evidence to confirm or refute the allegation

187
Q

Complaints: Policy Failure means what?

A

allegation is true and, although the actions of the member were not inconsistent with policy, the complainant suffered harm

188
Q

Complaints: Proper Conduct means what?

A

allegation is true, but the actions of the member were not inconsistent with policy, the complainant suffered no harm

189
Q

Complaints: Unfounded Complaint means what?

A

allegation is demonstrably false or there is no evidence to support the allegation

190
Q

Complaints: Improper Conduct is resolved in 1 of 6 ways. What are those ways?

A
  1. Counseling (6 mos)
  2. Written Reprimand (1 year)
  3. Suspension (2 years)
  4. Reduction in rank (permanent)
  5. Termination
  6. Progressive discipline
191
Q

Complaints: If Progressive Discipline is implemented, shall disciplinary personnel actions be removed or destroyed?

A

No

192
Q

Complaints: Progressive Discipline shall be in effect for how many years?

A

2 years

193
Q

Complaints: Who can implement Progressive Discipline?

A

Chief or a Staff Commander

194
Q

Line Inspections: How often will line inspections be done and when? Where is this documented?

A

at least once every 30 days, during or right after briefing; OIC Log

195
Q

Public Information Function: Can victim information be released?

A

Yes, the name and address can be released, if requested, if it doesn’t place the victim in any further peril

196
Q

Public Information Function: Can witness information be released?

A

no

197
Q

Public Information Function: Can suspect information be released?

A

Yes and no. Only physical description and characteristics, no names.

198
Q

Public Information Function: The loos of cash shall not be released, except as authorized by whom?

A

Chief

199
Q

News Media Access: The media SHALL / SHALL NOT be allowed to photograph, film, or video pivate property without the owner’s consent.

A

SHALL NOT

200
Q

News Media Access: Who controls access of the news media at a crime scene, natural disasters, major fires, etc?

A

OIC of scene

201
Q

Marion’s Most Wanted: When should a request for publication be made to the Marion Star?

A

Monday

202
Q

Marion’s Most Wanted: MPD must have a picture of the suspect from within how many years?

A

3 years

203
Q

Marion’s Most Wanted: All requests shall be forwarded to whom?

A

Investigative Commander

204
Q

VAWA: An analysis for accessing victims’ needs will be completed how often?

A

at least every 3 years

205
Q

VAWA: When required, who will meet to improve the functions of this program?

A

Admin Commander and the Director of the Victims Assistance Program

206
Q

Selective Traffic Enforcement: The traffic enforcement analysis shall be completed by whom and include what 2 aspects?

A

Traffic Safety Liaison, citations issued, accident location and times

207
Q

Special Persons: If a Consular or Diplomatic Officer or a member of their immediate family or staff become involved in any actions taken by MPD, who shall immediately be notified and furnished with all pertinent information?

A

Governor

208
Q

Special Persons: A Consular or Diplomatic Officer shall not be handcuffed, subjected to any tests, or mistreated in any way? True or False

A

True

209
Q

Special Persons: Diplomats are protected by what type of immunity?

A

unlimited

210
Q

Special Persons: Consulars are protected by what type of immunity?

A

limited

211
Q

Uniform Enforcement Policies: Officers will warn a driver for how many days after the issuance of a new traffic law unless otherwise stated in the law?

A

90 days

212
Q

Speed Measuring Devices: If an operational malfunction occurs, requests for service are made through what Division?

A

Administrative Division

213
Q

Speed Measuring Devices: All records of maintenance and calibrations shall be kept with which Commander?

A

Administrative

214
Q

OVI Details: The responsibility of DUI enforcement details will lay with who? Who will be assigned to form and assign officers?

A

Operations Commander; a patrol LT

215
Q

Accidents: A vehicle in a fatal accident will be held until when?

A

fully examined and photographed

216
Q

Escort Services: Escorts for non-government functions will be scheduled through whom?

A

Operations Commander

217
Q

Escort Services: Emergency escorts for public officials or dignitaries will be handled by whom?

A

OIC at that time

218
Q

Escort Services: Emergency escort services will not be provided for who?

A

non-government functions or other emergency vehicles or civilian vehicles in medical emergencies

219
Q

Prisoner Escapes: Who will be notified?

A

dispatch, shift OIC, agency or agencies of jurisdiction

220
Q

Transporting Sick, Injured or Disabled Persons: If the prisoner is transported by squad, an officer will accompany the prisoner in the squad if the prisoner when?

A

If charged with a felony, escape risk, or combative

221
Q

BAC/Interview Rooms: Officer will be trained how often on the proper use of the breathalyzer area and interview rooms?

A

initially and every 3 years

222
Q

BAC/Interview Rooms: Who is primarily in charge of the care of these areas? Who reviews the area at least every 3 years and forwards it to the Chief?

A

a LT; Admin Major

223
Q

Warrants: Misdemeanor warrants will be entered as a pursuit 4 unless for OVI, DV, or Escape Prior to Confinement. In such cases, the pickup radius will be what?

A

Pursuit 2

224
Q

Warrants: Who may authorize a larger pickup radius for a warrant?

A

Staff Commander

225
Q

Warrants: Felonies will be entered as what pursuit?

A

Pursuit 1, unless specified otherwise

226
Q

Warrants: Confirmation by teletype to the ORI shall be filed in which teletype file?

A

“outgoing”

227
Q

Warrants: When a warrant is cancelled, the warrant file card is completed with the cancellation information and forwarded to who?

A

LEADS/NCIC Supervisor

228
Q

Warrants: When a warrant is served, the required information is noted on the warrant file card and forwarded where?

A

LEADS/Institutional Rights - Compliance Files

229
Q

Civil Writs: Officers will not normally be required to serve civil process, except for what two exceptions?

A

Ex Parte Order or Order of Detention from Juvenile Court

230
Q

Security Measures: In the event the smoke/fire alarm is triggered, who shall be immediately notified?

A

MCFD by Comm 2, and OIC by any dispatcher

231
Q

Security Measures: Who should also be notified of an alarm at City Hall? If he is not available, then whom?

A

Maintenance Man; City Electrician with approval of OIC

232
Q

Records: Who is authorized to access documents in the Records Division?

A

records clerk, supervisors, property officers

233
Q

Records: Who can authorize the removal of original reports from Records?

A

Staff Commander or Chief

234
Q

Records: If an original report is authorized to be removed, the receiving officer shall do what?

A

copy, then sign and date the copy to be replaced in Records

235
Q

Juvenile Records: Juvenile information containing arrest or suspect information will be marked on the front page with what?

A

a red stamp denoting that juvenile information is contained within

236
Q

Juvenile Records: Who can authorize the release of juvenile suspect or arrest information?

A

Staff Commander or Chief

237
Q

Juvenile Records: For cases NOT involving Category 1 or 2 offenses, fingerprints or photographs shall only be released to whom? Whose responsibility is it to follow through with retention and dissemination of fingerprints and photographs?

A

LEO (provided to court), a court of jurisdiction; Juvenile Court Liaison

238
Q

Records Retention Schedule: What ORC section establishes Records Retention laws?

A

149

239
Q

Records Retention Schedule: Where is the Records Retention Schedule to be placed?

A

Records Division window and other major components within the department

240
Q

Central Computer Backup: The central records computer will be backed up how often?

A

weekly

241
Q

Central Computer Backup: A password audit is completed at least how often?

A

annualy

242
Q

Central Computer Backup: The back up tapes are to be kept where?

A

Off site in the computer systems office

243
Q

Computer Security Protocol: Who is responsible for the LEADS terminal?

A

TAC officer

244
Q

Computer Security Protocol: Copies of CCH printouts shall be given or kept where?

A

Prosecutor’s office and with the case file in records

245
Q

Field Reporting System: Reports are completed when a victim or witness requests AND what?

A

elements of a crime exist, an arrest is made, and any time a the officer desires to make a lengthy report of a case that may be investigated later or has intricate details

246
Q

Field Reporting System: How long do officers have to submit a crash report per 5502.11?

A

5 calendar days

247
Q

Reports Received by Telephone: Minor thefts of how much can be handled over the phone?

A

less than $150

248
Q

Receiving Property: Caustic or flammable property shall be placed where? The Property Caretaker will be notified and a copy of the report placed in their mailbox.

A

explosives container in the storage shed

249
Q

Storage in Secure Area: Who are the only people with access to the secured area of the property room?

A

Staff Commander assigned to oversee, primary and alternate Property Caretakers

250
Q

Inspection of Property Room: How often shall the Commander in charge of the property room do an inspection for compliance to policy?

A

At least semi-annually

251
Q

Inspection of Property Room: The annual audit of the property held by the police department shall be conducted by whom?

A

Staff Commander not directly connected to the property control function on a regular basis

252
Q

Inspection of Property Room: Unannounced inspections of property storage areas while occur how often at the direction of the Chief of Police?

A

at least once a year

253
Q

Property: All property acquired through civil orders will be accounted for how?

A

though Auditor’s asset requirements

254
Q

Search and Seizure: Mincey v Arizona (1978) held that there is no ___ ___ exception to the warrant requirement.

A

murder scene

255
Q

The primary objective of serving the public should be done ____ and ____.

A

efficiently and effectively

256
Q

Officers shall conduct their public and private lives so that the citizens will regard them as examples of ____, ____, and ____.

A

honesty, integrity, and morality

257
Q

The Division of Police in the Department of Public Safety was established by Ordinance ___, dated April 16, 1879.

A

134

258
Q

Alternatives to arrest shall not be used in cases of what?

A
  1. violent felonies
  2. domestic violence
  3. domestic violence if protection order has been filed
  4. appears the violator will not comply or will continue their course of action if not arrested
259
Q

Juveniles can be released to a responsible adult if the parent/guardian cannot be contacted and with the permission of who?

A

Children Services

260
Q

Strip searches require what two things?

A
  1. court order

2. done by appropriate medical personnel

261
Q

What is the Continuum of Arrest?

A

Control—Handcuff—Search—Evaluate—Transport

262
Q

What are the authorized defensive instruments?

A

straight baton, sap, pepper mace, or Taser X26

263
Q

The Taser X26 may be used to detain or arrest a subject when the officer has reason to believe that the person has committed a criminal offense and what?

A

displaying active resistance, active aggression, or aggravated active aggression

264
Q

The Taser X26 will not normally be used on a suspect how merely flees or runs from an officer, unless what?

A

committed a felony or is a danger to the community

265
Q

The use of the Taser X26 will be what?

A

reasonable and based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer

266
Q

The Taser X26 will not be deployed at or from a moving vehicle except in the case of what?

A

it can be justified in defense of one’s life of that of another

267
Q

The maximum range for the Taser X26 is ___ feet. The minimum effective range is ___ feet. The optimum range is ___ to ___ feet.

A

21 feet; 3 feet; 7 to 15 feet

268
Q

Who maintains the official geographical boundary records?

A

The Marion County Recorder’s Office

269
Q

In January of each year, the department will prepare an _____ _____ which wills serve as a guide for the frequency of the other reports necessitated by policy.

A

Activities Agenda…serves as guide for frequency of other reports required

270
Q

What members are not governed by a labor agreement?

A

Chief, Property Officer, Juvenile Intervention Officer

271
Q

Training recommendations will be made by supervisory personnel no later than when of each year?

A

December 31

272
Q

Training requests are forwarded to who to ensure accountability, tracking, and appropriate record keeping?

A

Training Unit

273
Q

Who is responsible for planning roll-call training? Roll-call training is the responsibility of who?

A

Training Unit, in cooperation with the Training Committee, the Command Staff, and the Chief; immediate supervisors

274
Q

The Career Development Officer will be a successful graduate of _____ or equivalent program.

A

PELC

275
Q

Evaluations may act as a management resource for employee ____, ____ ____, and ____.

A

advancement, career development, and promotion

276
Q

DV: The purpose of on-scene investigation is to establish probable cause by doing what four things?

A
  1. interviewing all parties
  2. record statements
  3. preserve crime scene
  4. collection of evidence
277
Q

Security of Ill / Injured Persons: The supervisor will decide whether to guard a prisoner at a medical facility or charge and release based on what 3 factors?

A
  1. seriousness of offense
  2. potential threat to community
  3. probability the prisoner will appear in court
278
Q

Administrative Reporting System: Monthly OIBRS reports are completed by who and forwarded to whom?

A

Computer Operations, Chief

279
Q

Written Directives: Special Orders can be issued by whom?

A

Any Staff Commander, except when it supercedes a General Order, then must be only issued by the Chief

280
Q

Distribution of Directives: The Written Directive Log will be forwarded to the Training Clerk by what date each year?

A

January 10th

281
Q

Planning and Research: What are 5 components of this function?

A
  1. formulate goals and objectives (Chief/Safety Director)
  2. formulate budget (reviewed by Chief, final submitted to Safety Director)
  3. compile case and arrest stats (by Computer Operations)
  4. compile traffic stats (in conjunction w/ City Engineer)
  5. compile/analyze info for federal grants (forwarded to Chief, then Safety Director)
282
Q

Multi-Year Plan: As done by the Planning and Research Officer (Chief), this shall include what 5 components?

A
  1. long term goals/objectives
  2. anticipated workloads/population trends
  3. anticipated personnel levels
  4. anticipated capital improvements/equipment needs
  5. provisions for review and revision as needed
283
Q

Multi-Year Plan: What is the forecast plan for this?

A

2-4 years as determined by the Chief

284
Q

Crime Analysis: What are factors to be considered in crime analysis?

A
  1. frequency of types of crimes
  2. distribution of locations of crimes
  3. times of crimes
  4. persons/businesses targeted
  5. suspect info/vehicle info
  6. M.O.
  7. physical evidence
285
Q

Distribution of Personnel: Who reassess workloads annually to allocate personnel accordingly?

A

Chief

286
Q

Budget Process: Who prepares the budget for Dispatch and Records?

A

Support Services Commander

287
Q

Line Item Accounting: Expenditures from personal benefits line items and insurance and retirement benefits are handled by who?

A

Auditor’s Office

288
Q

Grievance Procedures: The member receiving the grievance shall make a copy and forward it to the Grievance Coordinator within how many hours?

A

72 hours

289
Q

Positive rewards Program: Letters of Commedation are issued by whom? Letters of Recognition are issued by whom?

A

Chief; immediate supervisor

290
Q

Sexual Harassment: Sexual harassment includes what two components?

A
  1. basis for employement decisions
  2. environment - conditions that interfere withjob performance or create a hostile, intimidating, or offensive work enviroment
291
Q

Sexual Harassment: Whose responisibility is it to provide overall enforcement of this policy? What do their responsibilities include?

A

HR Director;

  1. disseminate policy, training, and formal investigation of complaints
  2. written investigation report and finding to the Mayor for each formal complaint
  3. monitor or appropriate action to remedy any situation that violated this policy
  4. compile states on complaints.
292
Q

What is a tool to reinforce, retain, and refine a member’s knowledge, skills, and abilities in keeping with the goals and objectives of MPD?

A

remedial training

293
Q

Remedial Training: Who shall conduct remedial training?

A

Supervisors who are OPOTA certified and designated as training officers

294
Q

Remedial Training: How are needs for remedial training normally identified?

A

by immediate supervisors through evaluations

Policy (4 decks)

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