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Command Study > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps for Nose High Upset Recovery

A

Disengage Autopilot
Disengage Autothrottle
Apply nose down elevator. Apply as much elevator as needed to obtain a nose down pitch rate.
Apply appropriate nose down stabilizer trim.
Reduce thrust.
Roll to obtain a nose down pitch rate.
When approaching the horizon, roll to wings level.
Check airspeed and adjust thrust.
Establish pitch attitude.

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2
Q

What are the steps for Nose Low Upset Recovery

A

Disengage autopilot.
Disengage autothrottle.
Recover from stall, if needed.
Roll in the shortest direction to wings level.
Apply nose up elevator.
Apply nose up trim, if needed.
Adjust thrust and drag, if needed.

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3
Q

What does PRAM stand for?

A

Pre-Recorded Announcement Machine

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4
Q

What are the steps for the Windshear Escape Manoeuvre?

A

Disengage autopilot.
Push either TOGA switch.
Aggressively apply maximum thrust.
Disengage autothrottle.
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees.
Retract speedbrakes.
Follow flight director TOGA guidance (if available).

Do not change flap or gear configuration until windshear is no longer a factor.
Maintain wings level to maximize climb gradient, unless a turn is required for obstacle clearance.
Monitor vertical speed and altitude.
Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor.

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5
Q

What are the steps for the Terrain Escape Manoeuvre?

A

Disengage autopilot.
Disengage autothrottle.
Aggressively apply maximum thrust.
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20 degrees.
Retract speedbrakes.
If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to the PLI’s (if available) or stick shaker or initial buffet.

Do not change gear or flap configuration until terrain separation is assured.
Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation.
When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate.

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6
Q

What does Hydraulic System A control?

A

Autopilot A
No1 Thrust Reverser
Rudder
Ailerons
Elevator and Elevator Feel
Flights Spoilers (2 on each wing)
Ground Spoilers
Normal Nose Wheel Steering
Alternate Brakes
Landing Gear
PTU

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7
Q

What does Hydraulic System B control?

A

Autopilot B
No2 Thrust Reverser
Rudder
Ailerons
Elevator/Elevator Feel
Flight Spoilers (2 on each wing)
Autoslats
Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
Trailing Edge Flaps
Normal Brakes
Alternate Nose Wheel Steering
Yaw Damper
Landing Gear Transfer Unit

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8
Q

What is the minimum fuel for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?

A

760 kgs in the related main tank.

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9
Q

What happens if a leak develops in the System A engine driven pump or related lines?

A

The reservoir remains approx 20% full.
System A pressure is maintained by the electric motor driven pump.

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10
Q

What happens if a leak develops in the System A electric motor-driven pump or related lines (or components common to both pumps)?

A

The quantity steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost.

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11
Q

What happens if a leak develops in either pump, line or component of Hydraulic System B?

A

The quantity decreases until indicating approximately zero and all system B pressure is lost.
Enough fluid remains for PTU operation.

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12
Q

Does a leak in Hydraulic System B affect the standby system?

A

No.

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13
Q

What does the PTU operate?

A

Autoslats.
Leading edge flaps and slats.

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14
Q

What are the criteria for PTU operation?

A

Airborne.
System B engine driven pump pressure drops below limits.
Flaps less than 15 but not up.
(Flaps not up on SFP Aircraft)

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15
Q

What are the criteria for Landing Gear Transfer Unit operation?

A

Airborne.
Engine No1 RPM drops below a limit value.
Landing Gear Lever positioned UP
Either main landing gear not up and locked.

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16
Q

What is controlled by the Standby Hydraulic System?

A

Thrust Reversers
Rudder
Standby Yaw Damper
Leading Edge Flaps and Slats (extend only)

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17
Q

What conditions cause automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System?

A

FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic system ON, and
Loss of system A or B, and
Flaps Extended, and
Airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60kts.

OR

The main PCU fight force monitor trips.

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18
Q

What are the Maximum Zero Fuel weights for the 737NG and MAX?

A

61688
64818

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19
Q

What are the Maximum Landing weights for the 737NG and MAX

A

65317
68175

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20
Q

What are the Max Take Off weights for the 737NG and MAX?

A

74990 (some are 77990)
76200

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21
Q

Describe the AC and DC systems on the 737

A

AC - 115v, 400hz, three-phase
DC - 28v

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22
Q

What are the Max and Min Fuel Temperatures?

A

Min: -43 degrees (or 3 degrees above freezing point*).
Max: +49

*Jet A1 freezing point is -47 degrees

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23
Q

What is the maximum fuel quantity that can be carried?

A

NG - 20896 kg (3915-13066-3915)
MAX - 20728 kg (3869-12990-3869)

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24
Q

What does the Nitrogen Generation System do?

A

Converts bleed air to Nitrogen-enriched air during all phases of flight. The NEA is delivered to the centre fuel tank to reduce flammability of the tank.

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25
Q

Are the fuel pumps AC or DC powered?

A

AC

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26
Q

Which electrical system operates the Fuel Crossfeed valve?

A

DC Motor operated from the Battery Bus

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27
Q

At what quantity does the hydraulic RF indication show?

A

Quantity below 76%
(Valid only on ground with both engines shut down or after landing with flaps up during taxi in)

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28
Q

What is the Minimum/Normal/Maximum hydraulic system pressure?

A

2800/3000/3500 psi

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29
Q

When will a fuel LOW alert be seen?

A

Fuel tank quantity less than 453kg in related main tank. Display remains until fuel tank quantity is increased to 567kg.

(590kg and 737kg on the 8200)

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30
Q

When will a fuel CONFIG alert be seen?

A

Centre fuel tank quantity greater than 726kg.
Either engine running.
Both centre tank fuel pump switches OFF.

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31
Q

When will a fuel IMBAL alert be seen?

A

Main tanks differ by more than 453kg.
Displayed until imbalance is reduced to 91kg.
(Inhibited by fuel LOW indication)

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32
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are there?

A

16 - 6 in each main tank and 4 in the centre tank.

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33
Q

What arrival separation is required between a 737 and a Heavy/Super Heavy aircraft?

A

5nm (or 3 mins non radar)

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34
Q

What arrival separation is required between a 737 and a B757?

A

4nm

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35
Q

What wake turbulence separation is required when departing from the same position on a runway behind an A380/B747/B787/B757?

A

A380 - 3 mins*
B747/B787 - 2 mins*
B757 - no minimum gap

*additional 1 minute applied when departing from an intersection with other aircraft having used full length.

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36
Q

When can controlled rest be taken?

A

In the cruise only.
Maximum of 45 mins rest, followed by a minimum 20 minute recovery period.
Rest and recovery must be complete 30 mins before TOD.

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37
Q

Ryanair ensures that no person, other than a flight crew member assigned to a flight, is admitted to, or carried in the flight deck unless that person is:

A

An operating crew member,
A representative of the IAA or an inspecting authority if required to be there in the performance of his duties,
A person authorised by the NPFO.

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38
Q

What are the steps if an engine failure should occur in the cruise?

A

Disengage autothrottle.
Select CON and manually set limit thrust.
Set engine out altitude and airspeed from ENG OUT page on MCP
Slow to ENG OUT speed.
Select LVL CHG.

QRH NNC.

Maintain CON
Accellerate to single engine LRC speed.

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39
Q

What are the RUNAWAY STABILIZER memory items?

A

Control column…Hold Firmly.
Autopilot (if engaged)…Disengage.
Autothrottle (if engaged)… Disengage.
Control column and thrust levers…Control airplane pitch attitude and airspeed.
Main electric stabilizer trim…Reduce control column forces.
If the runaway stops after the autopilot is disengaged:
DO NOT re-engage the autopilot or autothrottle.
If the runaway continues after the autpilot is disengaged:
STAB TRIM CUTOUT switches (both)…CUTOUT.
If the runaway continues:
Stabilizer trim wheel…Grasp and hold.

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40
Q

What are the Loss of Thrust on Both Engines memory items?

A

Engine Start Switches (both)…FLT.
Engine Start Levers (both)…Cutoff.
WHEN egt decreases,
Engine Start Levers (both)…Idle Detent.
IF egt reaches a redline or there is no increase in egt within 30 seconds,
Engine Start Lever (affected engine)…Confirm…Cutoff, then Idle Detent.
IF EGT again reaches a redline or there is no EGT increase within 30 seconds, Repeat as needed.

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41
Q

What are the steps for approach to stall or stall recovery?

A

Hold the control column firmly.
Disengage autopilot and autothrottle.
Smoothly apply nose down elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops. Nose down stabilizer trim may be needed.
Roll in the shortest direction to wings level if needed.
Advance thrust levers as needed.
Retract the speedbrakes.
Do not change gear or flap configuration (except during liftoff, if flaps are up, call for flaps 1)
Check airspeed and adjust thrust as needed.
Establish pitch attitude.
Return to the desired flight path.
Re-engage the autopilot and autothrottle if desired.

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42
Q

What are the Commanders’ responsibilities?

A
  • Safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo from arriving on board to leaving the aircraft.
  • Operation and safety of the aircraft from ready for move for taxi until it comes to rest with the engines shut down.
  • Give all commands and take any appropriate actions for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft/persons/property carried therein.
  • Authority to disembark any person, or part of the cargo that may represent a safety hazard to aircraft or occupants.
  • Not allow a person to be carried in the aircraft who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of aircraft or occupants could be endangered.
  • Right to refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if the carriage increases risk to safety of aircraft or occupants.
  • Ensure all passengers are briefed on location of emergency exits and location/use of safety equipment.
  • Ensure all operational procedures and checklists are complied with as per Ops manual.
  • Not permit any crew member to perform any activity during critical phases except duties required for safe operation.
  • Flight recorders are not disabled or switched off during flight
  • In the event of a reportable incident, nothing intentionally erased.
  • In the event of an accident or serious incident, nothing is intentionally erased, recorders deactivated immediately after flight and precautionary measures taken to preserve recordings.
  • Decide on acceptance of aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with CDL or MEL.
  • Ensure pre-flight inspection carried out.
  • Satisfied with emergency equipment.
  • Record all known or suspected defects in tech log at the end of the flight.
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43
Q

What are the Ryanair KORA’s

A
  • Aircraft Fire
  • Birdstrike
  • CFIT
  • GCOL
  • HIgh energy approach
  • Loss of control in flight
  • Mid-Air Collision
  • Runway excursion
  • Runway incursion
  • Safety of Ground Ops
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44
Q

What are the criteria for hand flying practice?

A
  • In controlled airspace below FL245
  • Not withTS, TCU, known or forecast WS, gale warnings.
  • Not in TMA’s
  • Not during NNC’s with AP available.
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45
Q

In which circumstances can you use V/S with flaps extended?

A
  • AFDS engaged
  • Above MFRA
  • A SID speed restriction prevents further accelleration.
  • Limiting speed has been reached.
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46
Q

What is the takeoff pitch attitude profile?

A

Climb V2-V2+20 - 15 to 18 degrees
MFRA - 8 degrees
Climb at UP speed - 12.5
Accellerate 250kts - 6 degrees
Climb 250kts - 10 degrees

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47
Q

What does the CU course contain?

A

4 days of groundschool
Simulator training
Command Management Line Training - 12 sectors
Command Upgrade Line Training - 48 sectors
Final check - 4 sectors

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48
Q

When does the Landing Gear warning horn sound?

A

Flaps Up thru 10:
- below 800ft, thrust lever between idle and 20 degrees. Can be silenced above 200ft.
Flaps 15 thru 25:
- any altitude, thrust lever between idle and 20 degrees. Cannot be silenced.
Flaps 30/40:
- any altitude, any thrust setting. Cannot be silenced.

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49
Q

What is the holding pattern size for an EOSID?

A

5nm

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50
Q

What are the New Commander restrictions?

A

Less than 100hrs
No Cat B Restricted or Cat C airfields (including alternates)
No ‘New’ Co Pilots
No Visual Approaches (if others available)

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51
Q

When is a Commander/Captain/Co-Pilot ‘New’?

A

Until completing 100hrs + 10 sectors (in 120 days)
Or, 150hrs + 20 sectors

*since first successful line check

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52
Q

Can a ‘New’ Co-Pilot operate with a ‘New’ Captain?

A

No

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53
Q

What are the limitations for an ‘Inexperienced’ Co-Pilot (less than 500hrs)?

A

No Takeoff or Landing when:
X-Wind in excess of 2/3 limiting value
X-Wind in excess of 15kts (landing)
Windshear reported/forecast
Peformance limited runway (Max thrust or AB max)
Runway contaminated
RVR <1000m
Ceiling <100ft from precision minima ( <200ft NPA)
Abnormal procedures required

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54
Q

What is the minimum CC required?

A

4

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55
Q

When can there be single CC operation?

A

Non-revenue flight
10 or less Pax

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56
Q

When are CC members regarded as ‘New’?

A

3 months or 125 flight hours

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57
Q

Describe a Category A aerodrome

A

A straight in 3D instrument approach procedure with GP no more than 3.5 degrees to each runway expected to be used for landing.
At least 1 runway with no performance limited procedure for TO and LDG (eg. Special EOSID)
Night Ops Capability

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58
Q

Describe a Category B aerodrome

A

Does not meet Cat A requirements
Non-standard approach aids/patterns
Unusual local weather
Unusual characteristics or performance limitations (eg. special EOSID)
Other relevant considerations (obstructions, layout, lights etc.)
Training/experience requirements stipulated that do not include SIM or aerodrome visit

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59
Q

Describe a Cat B Restricted aerodrome

A

<1800M
Narrow runway
Circling
Any other identified considerations

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60
Q

Describe a Category C aerodrome

A

Additional considerations
Required training specified (eg. SIM or visiting the aerodrome)

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61
Q

What are the commander’s LVO minimum values?

A

125M for takeoff
CAT II and III Landing*
*100m added to minima for first 100hrs/40 sectors (including line training)

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62
Q

What are the first officers LVO minimum values?

A

550m for takeoff
PF for CAT II and III approaches

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63
Q

What is the validity period of a Dangerous Goods qualification?

A

2 years

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64
Q

What is the validity period of a Security qualification?

A

1 year

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65
Q

What is the validity period of an OPC?

A

6 months (from end of month)

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66
Q

What is the validity period of an IR/TR?

A

End of month plus 1 year (can be revalidated up to 3 months before)
*TR requires OPC, 10 route sectors or 1 sector (or SIM) with an examiner

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67
Q

What consitutes a Pass/Restricted Pass/Fail on a Line Check?

A

Pass - No Fail Item, Less than 5 SOP points
Restricted Pass - No Fail Item, > 5 SOP points
Fail - Breach of a Safety Item

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68
Q

What is the validity of a Line Check Pass/Restricted Pass?

A

Pass - End of month plus 1 year
Restricted Pass - End of month plus 3 months

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69
Q

What are the validity periods of the CU line checks Initial/CMD LCK 2/CMD LCK 3?

A

Initial - 3 months
CMD LCK 2 - 3 months
CMD LCK 3 - annual

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70
Q

What are pilots’ minimum and maximum age requirements?

A

Minimum - 18 years old*
Maximum - less than 65 years old
*21 years old to be a commander

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71
Q

What are the minimum requirements for a RYR commander?

A

21 years old
Class 1 medical
Unfrozen ATPL
3000hrs
Completed 737 TR course
DEC - 800hrs command, 500 on type
Upgrade - 800hrs on type, one winter

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72
Q

How many Types of aircraft can a pilot fly?

A

Max 2 types (separate endorsement required)
*Only 1 type in any FDP, unless 1hr between blocks

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73
Q

What is the minimum experience level for a cabin crew?

A

Minimum of 2 ‘experienced’ CC (not ‘New’)

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74
Q

What are the alcohol limits for crew?

A

No alcohol within 8hrs of duty
Max blood alcohol level 0.2% (0.2g per litre)

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75
Q

What is classed as a ‘Duty Period’?

A

From Report -> End of Post-Flight Duty (30m)

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76
Q

What is classed as a ‘Flight Duty Period’?

A

From Report -> Engines Shutdown (final sector)

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77
Q

What is classed as the WOCL (Window of Circadian Low)?

A

0200-0559L, in acclimatised zone

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78
Q

What is classed as an early start/late finish/night duty?

A

Early Start - 0500-0559L
Late Finish - 2300-0159L
Night Duty - 0200-0459L
*in acclimatised zone

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79
Q

What rest requirements are there after 4 or more early starts/late finishes/night duties in a block?

A

60 consecutive hours

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80
Q

What rest period is required at least twice per month?

A

36hrs including 2 local nights/days

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81
Q

What constitutes the FDP reference time when looking at the Max FDP table?

A

Local time at departure point (within 2hr timezone band of acclimatised time)

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82
Q

Can Max FDP be increased (planned in advance)?

A

Yes, by 1 hour, not more than twice in 7 days, where:
Min pre/post flight rest increased by 2 hrs or post flight rest increased by 4 hrs
Not combined with split duty extensions
Maximum of 5 sectors (Max 4 if WOCL encroached for less than 2 hrs, Max 2 if more)

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83
Q

What are the requirements around Commanders Discretion?

A

Max 2hrs in addition to Max FDP (table 2)
Minimum 10hrs rest after.
CDR required
If more than 1hr30m expected to be used, confirm latest airborne time with OCC

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84
Q

How is FDP calculated if a report is delayed less than 4hrs?

A

MAX FDP based on original report time
FDP counts from NEW report time

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85
Q

How is FDP calculated if a report is delayed more than 4hrs?

A

MAX FDP based on most restrictive report time
FDP counts from NEW report time.

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86
Q

What are the maximum Duty Period limitations?

A

60hrs in 7 days
110hrs in 14 days
190hrs in 28 days

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87
Q

What are the maximum Flight Time limitations?

A

100hrs in 28 days
900hrs in a calendar year
1000hrs in 12 consecutive months

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88
Q

What is the minimum rest period?

A

Length of the previous duty, or
12hrs at home base
10hrs out of base

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89
Q

What are the requirements around a Split Duty?

A

Minimum break of 3 consecutive hrs (excluding pre/post flight duties and travelling)
MAX FDP can be increased by 50% of break, to a maximum of 6hrs.
6hrs or more (or encroaching WOCL) requires accommodation.

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90
Q

What is the maximum SBY period?

A

16hrs

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91
Q

When does FDP start if called off SBY?

A

At the reporting point.

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92
Q

When is MAX FDP reduced when called off SBY?

A

If called after first 6hrs, MAX FDP reduced by time after 6hrs.*/**
Standby+FDP must be <18hrs
**some SBY time is not counted until contacted eg. before 0700 for SBY beginning 2300-0700

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93
Q

When is an overweight landing recommended?

A

Malfunction affecting airworthiness
Conditions where expeditious landing prevents NNC developing into unsafe condition.
Serious illness/medical issue
QRH directs to land at nearest suitable airfield.

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94
Q

Can you perform an overweight autoland?

A

No autoland above MLW.

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95
Q

When would you make the ‘Caution High Winds’ PA?

A

Winds greater than 20kts

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96
Q

What is the maximum diversion distance?

A

737-800 - 427nm*
737-700/MAX - 416nm*
*Limited to 400nm over water (unless liferafts carried)

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97
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

Where departure AD can’t be used
Must be no further than max diversion distance

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98
Q

Under what circumstances is no alternate legally required?

A

Flight <6hrs
2 separate runways available/usable
Weather +/- 1hr = 5k visibility or more, ceiling 2000ft or above (or circling minima +500)

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99
Q

When are 2 alternates required?

A

Weather +/- 1hr less than planning minima
No MET information available

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100
Q

What are the required planning minima?

A

New:
Type B Approach - +200ft/800M
Type A Approach - +400ft/1500M
Circling - 400ft/1500M

Old:
CAT II and III -> CAT I (RVR)
CAT I -> NPA minima (RVR/Vis/Ceiling)
NPA -> NPA minima plus 200ft/1000m
Circling -> Circling

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101
Q

What is the B737 RFFS category?

A

-800 - 7
-700 - 6
*All flights planned to RFFS 7

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102
Q

What are the RFFS requirements for alternates?

A

2 below the aircraft RFFS

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103
Q

Can the aerodrome RFFS be temporarily downgraded?

A

Yes, 2 below the aircraft RFFS, with a minimum of 4, for a maximum 72hrs.

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104
Q

What restrictions apply to Circling at Night?

A

Max 20kt crosswind (Gust < 40kt)
Ceiling = Minima + 300ft
PAPI/VASI Required
Not allowed for ‘NEW’ Captains

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105
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a Visual Approach?

A

800M

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106
Q

When is Met Vis to RVR conversion NOT used?

A

Not used when RVR available
Not used for calculating Takeoff Minima
Not used for RVR < 800M

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107
Q

What are the Met Vis to RVR conversions?

A

HI Approach and Rwy Lights - 1.5 Day, 2.0 Night
Other Lights - 1.0 Day, 1.5 Night
No Lights - 1.0 Day Only

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108
Q

What RVR increase applies to approaches offset by more than 5 degrees?

A

400M (max 5000M)

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109
Q

What is the minimum planned landing fuel for a RYR revenue flight?

A

1800kg

110
Q

What is the minimum contingency fuel?

A

Basic Fuel Scheme -

Highest of:

5%
5 Mins @ 1500ft above destination (ISA)

Basic Fuel Scheme with Variations -

Highest of:

3% with an ERA
or, 20 mins flying time based on trip fuel.

5 Mins @ 1500ft above destination (ISA)

111
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

30 Mins @ 1500ft above Alternate (ISA) based on estimated mass.

112
Q

What are the standard passenger/baggage weights?

A

84kg, 13kg (assuming non charter flights, 30+ pax, European region)

113
Q

What is the maximum altimeter difference on the ground and in the air?

A

75ft, 200ft

114
Q

What type of events require a tech-log entry?

A

Pan or Mayday requiring tech log entry
QRH used for tech reason
Fire/OVHT warning
Flight Control Issues
Any failure of pressurisation
Any stickshaker event not attributable to environmental conditions
Safety equipment used
Crew Oxygen used
Severe Turbulence
Any exceedance as per FCOM

115
Q

What engineering functions can a Commander complete at an outstation (via maintrol)?

A

Reset a CB
Add INOP placard
Bite Reset (from cockpit only)

116
Q

What constitutes a ‘self reliant’ passenger?

A

Can use the toilet unaided
Can feed themselves unaided
Can administer own medicines unaided

117
Q

Who must non-self reliant pax travel with?

A

Able bodied adult aged 16 or over

118
Q

Are unaccompanied BSVIP pax in the PRM headcount?

A

Yes

119
Q

Are BSVIP pax with a sighted companion in the PRM headcount?

A

No

120
Q

Are DSHIP pax in PRM headcount?

A

Yes, if separate briefing required.

121
Q

How many Guide Dogs can be on any given flight?

A

4

122
Q

Can pregnant pax fly?

A

Fit to fly certificate required after 28 weeks.

123
Q

What is the maximum number of inadmissible pax/deportees?

A

2

124
Q

What is the absolute maximum wind speed for Ground Operations?

A

60kt, including gusts.
No Ops until wind has abated below 60 for at least 30 mins.

125
Q

What are the requirements for potable water?

A

Water empty and no bars loaded - no departure.
Water 1/8 full, no bars - manage on board service to conserve water.
Water > 1/8 full, bars loaded - normal service.

126
Q

How many infants can be carried per row?

A

1

127
Q

What document contains the FAA holdover tables?

A

RA173

128
Q

What colour/thickness are the 4 de-ice fluid types?

A

Type I - Orange, non-thickened (low holdover)
Type II - White, thickened
Type III - Yellow (for aircraft with low rotation speeds)
Type IV - Green, thickened.

129
Q

When does holdover time begin?

A

At the start of the second step.

130
Q

What is the LOUT for deicing fluid?

A

Lowest Operational Use Temperature - gives buffer to freezing point of 10 degrees (Type I) and 7 degrees (other types).

131
Q

Define Light/Moderate/Heavy Icing

A

Light - No change of heading or altitude neccessary.
Moderate - Change of heading and/or altitude desirable.
Heavy - Anti/De-Icing equipment fails to control or reduce the hazard.

132
Q

What are the maximum taxi speeds?

A

Backtracking - 50kts
Taxiway - 30kts
Apron - 15kts
Turning (>45 deg) - 10kts
Contaminated - 5kts

133
Q

What are the actions after an RTO > 80kts?

A

Park on Taxiway or return to stand
Call Maintrol
Do not takeoff until released
Follow brake cooling schedule
File an ASR

134
Q

What is the speed policy below FL100 in class A/B/C airspace?

A

Climb - greater than 250 if released by ATC
Descent - only if instructed (and only until FL60/6000ft)

135
Q

At what speed are diversions flown?

A

LRC speed

136
Q

What are the ICAO standard approach speeds?

A

IAF - 220
Base/FAT - 180
8-4NM - 160

137
Q

When can an orbit be flown?

A

Greater than 10nm from touchdown
VMC conditions
Not below MSA/3000ft (whichever higher)
Max Flap 10/speedbrake (not with gear down)

138
Q

What are the monitored approach criteria?

A

ILS - 1000M or less, 300ft AAL or less
NPA - 3000M or less, 1000ft AAL or less

139
Q

What are the stablilised approach criteria?

A

VREF to VREF+15 target speed
Max Speed VREF+20
Glide Path +- 1 Dot
Centreline +- 1 Dot
Appropriate Thrust Set
Landing Checks complete (to lights)

140
Q

What minimums should be set for a visual approach?

A

500ft AAL

141
Q

What is required for a night landing from
a circling approach?

A

PAPI/VASI

142
Q

What is required for night landings from a NPA to a RWY < 2000M without PAPI?

A

NPFO approval

143
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a visual approach?

A

800M

144
Q

What constitutes RYR VMC conditions?

A

Ceiling above 1000ft AGL
Visibility above 5000M

145
Q

What are the sidestep approach criteria?

A

Requested by ATC and MA procedure confirmed
Threshold not closer
Day VMC
PAPI in sight
Visual with Landing Runway
F30/40 selected
Commenced by white bar
Performance calculated for most limiting runway.

146
Q

What is the ‘approach ban’?

A

Approach can be commenced regardless of RVR/Vis
Cannot be continued below 1000ft AGL (or into Final Approach Segment where DA/MDA more than 1000ft AAL)
If RVR/VIS falls after 1000ft AGL, can continue to minimums.

147
Q

What are the minimum required RVR values for TDZ/MID/STOP?

A

200/125/75

148
Q

What items require a mandatory go-around?

A

Unstable at landing gate
Engine failure in IMC below 1000ft
Departure from normal approach path below 1000ft and corrective action is not immediately effective.
Malfunction in approach aid or aircraft systems (unless VMC)
ATC instruction
At discretion of Captain
Flap Load Relief after landing gate
“Too Low Gear/Too Low Flap”
“Unstable”, “Caution Taxiway”, “Long Landing”
“Overrun, Go Around”

149
Q

In what scenario can you try a third approach after 2 weather related missed approaches?

A

Weather improves by a factor of 2. (not permitted after 2 windshear go-arounds)

150
Q

What are the required visual references for a Cat III approach?

A

3 consecutive lights, being the centreline of the approach lights, or TDZ lights, or CLL or REDL or a combination of these.
This will include a lateral element of the ground pattern such as an approach light crossbar/landing threshold, or a barrette of the TDZ lights.

151
Q

Between which temperatures is the APU not normally needed for air con?

A

5-25 degrees C

152
Q

What does SAFA, SACA, SANA stand for?

A

Safety Assessment of Foreign/Community/National Aircraft

153
Q

Does the Final Approach Segment of an RNAV arrival need to be cold temperature corrected?

A

No.

154
Q

What equipment is required for RNAV?

A

Dual FMC (loss of 1 FMC after FAF is OK)
1 Flight Director
Use of AP recommended

155
Q

Can FMC be used for RNAV missed approach after a loss of RNP requirements?

A

Yes

156
Q

What are the indicators of a GLS signal being received?

A

G/S and Loc indications (GLS ident shows even if signal is lost).

157
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A

2 Altimeters
Altitude alerting system
Automatic altitude control system
SSR transponder with altitude reporting

158
Q

What is the guidance for en-route thunderstorm avoidance?

A

Make decisions at 40nm
Avoid Yellow/Red/Magenta returns by 20nm (more for cells exceeding 35000ft)
Don’t overfly cells above 25000ft.

159
Q

What is the guidance for dispatching to/approaches to Sandstorms or Duststorms?

A

No dispatch or approach to +SS, +DS or Vis <600M

160
Q

What lighting is required for LVTO <150M (not less than 125M)

A

RCLL spaced 15M or less
REDL spaced 60M or less
Centre Line Markings
Runway End Lights
90M Visual Segment (6 light intervals, 7 lights)
Required RVR for all reporting points.

161
Q

What weather is required for practice Cat III approaches?

A

Ceiling 500ft and Vis 1500M or greater

162
Q

What are the wind limitations for CatII/III autolands?

A

Headwind 25kts
Crosswind 20kts
Tailwind 10kts

163
Q

By which speed would you see THR HLD annunciate?

A

84kts

164
Q

At what wheel speed does RTO autobraking become active?

A

90kts

165
Q

What conditions would trigger a Takeoff Config warning?

A

Flaps not 1 thru 25
TE flaps skew/assymetry or uncommanded motion
LE devices not configured for takeoff or uncommanded motion
Speedbrake lever not down
Spoiler control valve open
Parking brake set
Stab trim not in takeoff range

166
Q

What situations would cause an aborted engine start?

A

No N1 rotation before the start lever is moved to IDLE
No EGT increase within 15 seconds of raising the lever to IDLE
EGT rapidly approaching or exceeding the start limit.
No increase in, or a very slow increase in N1/N2 after EGT indication
No oil pressure indication by the time the engine is stabilized at IDLE.
EEC abnormal start protection activation

new FCI, contact maintrol before trying again

167
Q

When would the CSFF measuring tool be used?

A

To confirm thickness on lower wing surface when automatic CSFF relief can not be taken.

168
Q

What are the criteria for CSFF relief?

A

OAT 4 degrees or more
No precipitation/visible moisture
FUEL TEMP -16 or greater
All control surfaces clear
Upper Wing - within defined area

169
Q

What are the 5 steps of de/anti-icing?

A

Contamination Check
De-Icing and Anti-Icing Procedure
Post Treatment Check
Pre-Takeoff Check
Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check

170
Q

What are the steps to take in a Volcanic Ash encounter?

A

180 degree descending turn in LVL CHG/HDG SEL, autothrottle disengaged
Mayday/7700/Inform ATC
Start Switches FLT
VOLCANIC ASH QRH

171
Q

What are the steps to take when encountering Severe Turbulence?

A

AT Disengage - set TURB N1 from cruise page
N1 - CON
Yaw Damper - On
Start Switches - FLT
Use CWS if required (not ALT HOLD - don’t chase altitude)

172
Q

What are the steps to take when encountering Heavy Rain, Hail or Sleet?

A

Start Switches - CONT
AT Disengage - adjust thrust slowly
Reduce Speed
Consider starting APU

173
Q

When should a static runup be performed?

A

Engine anti-ice required and 3 degrees or below.

174
Q

What are the actions for an engine drain fuel leak on engine start?

A

Allow to stabilise at IDLE.
Shutdown and Restart if leak continues.
Run at IDLE for 5 mins.
If leak stops, no action required.
If leak continues or becomes significant, shut down and contact Maintrol

175
Q

What incidents require the yellow collared CVR CB to be pulled?

A

Mayday
Emergency Descent
Runway Incursion
Aural EGPWS Warning after landing gate
Altitude Bust
Take Off Config warning for Flaps or Stab Trim
Engine Failure or Shutdown In Flight
PLOC
EGPWS Pull Up
Aborted takeoff on closed or occupied runway
Takeoff on a closed or occupied runway
Gross failures to achieve predicted performance during TO or climb
Fire and Smoke
Flight Crew Incapacitation
Emergency Oxygen Use by Flight Crew
Multiple malfunctions of one or more systems seriously affecting operation of the aircraft
Fuel Emergency
Takeoff or Landing incidents (undershoot, overshoot, running off the side)
Aircraft structural failures or engine disintegrations not classified as an accident.
Failures of one or more system in a redundancy system mandatory for flight guidance and navigation
System failures, weather, operations outside of approved flight envelope causing control difficulties
Any other instance where CVR data would assist an investigation.
Near collisions requiring avoidance manouevre (not TCAS)
Stick shaker event
Pitch up upsets/false GS capture
EGPWS aural cautions (CAUTION TERRAIN, CAUTION OBSTACLE)

176
Q

What is the 3 Kelvin spread rule?

A

Temp 3 degrees or less
Temp and Dew Point within 3 degrees.
(To do with interaction between high humidity air and surface contamination)

177
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions?

A

10 degrees or less, with visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of 1600m or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) present or ice, snow, slush or standing water present on the ramp, taxiway or runway.

178
Q

What is the definition of freezing conditions?

A

3 degrees or less, with visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of 1600m or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) presence of ice, snow, slush or standing water present on the ramp, taxiway or runway.

179
Q

Under what Winter Ops circumstances is Takeoff or Landing prohibited?

A

Slush/Standing Water/Wet Snow > 13mm
Dry Snow > 100m
RWYCC 0 or 1
Cleared width less than 30M

180
Q

When do Narrow Runway Ops apply?

A

Width less than 40M

181
Q

When is the crosswind limit reduced for Narrow Runway Ops?

A

1kt per metre below 40M, minimum width 30M

182
Q

What checklists/procedures would you use to De-Ice remotely with the engines shutdown?

A

Remote De-Anti Icing Engines Shutdown
De-Anti Icing Prior to Engine Start
Post Treatment Check (Tactile Check)
Transit Before Start Checklist
Engine Start Procedure
Before Taxi Checklist (Freezing Conditions)

183
Q

What conditions could cause Clear Ice to form?

A

Wing Temp below 0 degrees during turnaround
Ambient Temp 15 degrees or lower
High Humidity or Precipitation
Request a tactile check

184
Q

Does the Upper Wing CSFF box allow for frost on the black line?

A

Yes

185
Q

When does the holdover time begin when two-step de-icing?

A

At the start of the second step.

186
Q

When is a tactile check required after De/Anti-Icing?

A

Anytime Clear Ice is suspected.

187
Q

When should the Flaps be checked for travel in Winter Ops Procedures?

A

When the aircraft has been exposed to Freezing Precipitation following a prolonged stop (>45 mins). Does not apply to CSFF or FZFG

188
Q

When is Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check mandatory?

A

When instructed by the holdover charts
When the holdover time has expired
When operating in heavy snow conditions
If a passenger or crew member reports ice, frost or any other contamination on the wing
If there is any other reason to doubt the effectiveness of the anti-icing fluid.

189
Q

What are the static runup procedures for the NG/8200?

A

NG - 40% stabilised, 70% stabilised (no min time, 30 secs recommended
8200 - 40% stabilised, 50% stabilised (min 5 secs)
no engine vibration call removed for 2022

190
Q

Where does the Winter Ops taxi-in flow differ?

A

Flaps retracted to 15 only
Stab Trim 5 units
Engine Anti-Ice and Start Switches left on for taxi
Probe Heat remains on

191
Q

What are the memory items for Engine Fire/Severe Damage/Separation NNC?

A

Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
Thrust Lever (affected engine)…Confirm…Close
Engine Start Lever (affected engine)…Confirm…Cutoff
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine)…Confirm…Pull
IF the engine fire switch or the ENG OVERHEAT light is illuminated,
Engine Fire Switch…Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.

192
Q

What are the memory items for the Engine Fire On The Ground NNC?

A

Thrust Levers (both)…Close
Parking Brake…Set
Advise the Cabin
Engine Start Lever (affected engine)…CUTOFF
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine)…Pull
To manually unlock the engine fire switch, press the override and pull.
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine)…Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.

193
Q

What are the memory items for the Engine Overheat NNC?

A

Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
Thrust Lever (affected engine)…Confirm…Close
IF the ENG OVERHEAT light stays illuminated, go to Engine Fire/Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist.

194
Q

What are the memory items for the APU Fire NNC?

A

APU Fire Switch…Confirm…Pull, rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
APU switch…OFF

195
Q

What are the memory items for the Airspeed Unreliable NNC?

A

Autopilot (if engaged)…Disengage
Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
F/D Switches (both)…OFF
Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps Extended…10 degrees and 80% N1
Flaps Up…4 degrees and 75% N1

196
Q

What are the memory items for the Runaway Stabiliser NNC?

A

Control Column…Hold Firmly
Autopilot (if engaged)…Disengage
Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
Control Column and Thrust Levers…Control airplane pitch attitude and airspeed.
Main Electric Stabiliser Trim…Reduce control column forces,
IF the runaway stops after the autopilot is disengaged, do not reengage the autopilot or autothrottle.
IF the runaway continues after the autopilot is disengaged,
Stab Trim Cutout Switches (both)…Cutout
IF the runaway continues
Stabiliser Trim Wheel…Grasp and Hold

197
Q

What are the memory items for the Engine Limit Surge or Stall NNC?

A

Autothrottle (if engaged)…Disengage
Thrust Lever (affected engine)…Confirm…Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is closed

198
Q

What are the memory items for Cabin Altitude Warning/Rapid Depressurisation?

A

Don Oxygen Masks and set regulators to 100%
Establish crew communications
Pressurisation Mode Selector…MAN
Outflow Valve Switch…Hold in CLOSE until the outflow valve indication shows fully closed
IF cabin altitude is uncontrollable,
Passenger Signs…ON
PASS OXYGEN switch…ON

199
Q

What are the condition statements for Engine Limit or Surge or Stall?

A

One or more of these occur:

-Engine indications are abnormal
-Engine indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits
-Abnormal engine noises are heard, possibly with airframe vibration
-There is no response to thrust lever movement or the response is abnormal
-Flames in the engine inlet or exhaust are reported

200
Q

What do the Engine Start Switch GRD/OFF/CONT/FLT settings do?

A

GRD - opens start valve, closes engine bleed valve. Arms selected igniter on ground, arms both igniters in flight when start lever IDLE.

OFF - ignition normally off. Activated when rapid uncommanded decrease in N2 occurs, N2 between 57-50%, or N2 between idle-5% (in flight)

CONT - ignition to selected igniters when engine operating and start lever IDLE. When N2 below idle in flight, ignition to both igniters.

FLT - ignition to both igniters when start lever IDLE.

201
Q

How does the output volume of the Engine Driven Hydraulic pumps compare to the Electric Motor Driven pumps?

A

Around 6 times more, 145L v 23L per minute.

202
Q

What are the features of SFP aircraft?

A

Flight spoiler deflection on touchdown/rto increased to 65/56 degrees inboard/outboard (from 38/33).
Leading edge slats in sealed (extend) position for all takeoff settings, to reduce drag and give lower takeoff speeds.
Leading edge devices only move to fully extend (gapped) with Flaps 30 and 40.
Idle thrust delay reduced from 5 seconds to 2 seconds.

203
Q

What general conditions are applicable to the Failed/downgraded equipment tables?

A

Multiple failures of runway lights (other than in the table) are not acceptable.
Failures of approach and FATO lights are acceptable at the same time - most demanding criteria applied.
For CATII and CATIII operations, a combination of deficiencies in runway lights and RVR assessment equipment are not permitted.
Failures other than ILS/GLS/MLS affect RVR only and not DH.

204
Q

What effect does having no Outer Marker have on a Cat II/III approach?

A

No effect if replaced by other height v glide path check eg. At DME fix

205
Q

What effect does having an RVR assessment system down have on a CAT II/III approach?

A

On runways equipped with 2 or more RVR assessment units, one may be inoperative.

206
Q

What effect do failed/downgraded approach lights have on CATII/CATIII approaches?

A

CAT II - not allowed
CAT IIIA - Not allowed for operations with DH > 50ft

207
Q

What effect does a failed or downgraded approach light system, except the last 210M, have on CATII/CATIII approaches?

A

CAT II - Not allowed
CAT III - No effect

208
Q

What effect do downgraded Runway Edge Light, Threshold lights or Runway End lights have on CATII/CATIII approaches?

A

Day - No effect (both)
Night - CATIII RVR 550m, CATII not allowed.

209
Q

What effect do downgraded Centreline lights have on CATII/CATIII approaches?

A

CATII - Day RVR 350m, Night RVR 400m
CATIII - Day RVR 300m, Night RVR 400m

210
Q

What effect is there on CATII/CATIII approaches if runway centre line lights are temporarily spaced 30m apart?

A

No effect

211
Q

What effect do failed/downgraded Touchdown Zone lights have on CATII/CATIII approaches?

A

Day - RVR 300m (both)
Night - RVR 350m (both)

212
Q

What restrictions are there if the airfield annemometer is failed or downgraded?

A

Captain only landing at night.

213
Q

What conditions must be fulfilled to maintain the 33kt x-wind limit on a Wet (Good) runway?

A

Flaps 5 or greater
CG => 25%
Runway Width => 45m
RWYCC 5

214
Q

What is the maximum contaminant depth for takeoff/landing?

A

13mm Slush, Standing Water, Wet Snow
100mm Dry Snow

215
Q

What is the definition of a contaminated runway?

A

More than 25% of one third of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by one or more contaminants.

216
Q

What restrictions/considerations apply to Narrow Runway Ops?

A

Captains only takeoff and landing (unless permitted in afb)
Both thrust reversers must be operative
Anti-skid must be operative (diversion recommended if it becomes inop in flight)
Autoland not permitted
Increase V1(MCG) by 5kt for takeoff
Maximise use of derates and ATRT

217
Q

When should Medium-Poor (2) be used for performance (during rainfall)?

A

Moderate or Heavy Rain on Ungrooved RWY
Heavy Rain on Grooved RWY

218
Q

When can the RWYCC for the last third of a runway be discounted?

A

If a full stop can be assured in the first two thirds of the Runway.

219
Q

How is TODR (Takeoff Distance Required) calculated?

A

Greater of:
ASDA
Distance required to takeoff and climb to 35ft (dry) or 15ft (wet) with an engine failure at Vef (failure recognised 1 second before V1), or 115% of distance to takeoff and climb to 35ft with all engines operating.

220
Q

What angles of bank are assumed for a Special EOSID?

A

15 degrees up to V2+20
25 degrees at or above the UP speed

221
Q

When can you not take reverser performance credit?

A

On a non-dry runway with crosswind component above 15kts.

222
Q

What is the minimum LDA for a non-normal condition?

A

1900M

223
Q

What factor is applied to OPT NNC landing distances?

A

Multiply by 1.3*
*unless uncontained fire/security threat, no alternatives and delay may compromise safety.

224
Q

When should Engine + Wing Anti-Ice be selected in the OPT?

A

When Wing Anti-Ice is expected to be used after takeoff, and below the MSA.

225
Q

When can ATRT NOT be used?

A

When prohibited by the airfield brief
If the aircraft has been de-iced (min 24k/TO1)
Crosswind >10kts
Potential Windshear conditions
Snow, Slush, Ice or Standing Water on Runway
Anti-skid or Thrust Reverser inop
EEC in Alternate Mode
Bleeds Off Takeoff
Landing Gear Extended Flights

226
Q

What are the requirements for single engine taxi?

A

> 3 mins
Weight <= 63T
After landing taxi procedure complete
No contamination
No HIL/MEL etc. affecting brakes/steering
No slopes/FOD hazards on taxiway
No AFB or WIP restrictions

227
Q

What is the maximum LMC on a paper loadsheet?

A

500kg
(No limit on LID)

228
Q

What is the ICAO circling area and speed for Cat C?

A

4.2 NM / 180Kts

229
Q

What is a ‘just culture’?

A

Individuals not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience and training, but gross negligence, willful violations and destructive acts and not tolerated.

230
Q

What are snow grains/snow pellets?

A

Snow Grains - white and opaque particles of ice < 1mm
Snow Pellets - white and opaque particles of ice 2-5mm

231
Q

Can you take off in MODERATE or HEAVY freezing rain?

A

No, there are no holdover times for this.

232
Q

Are there holdover times for Ice Pellets/Hail/Small Hail?

A

No there are no holdover times assessed for these.

233
Q

When must the second step of two step de/anti-icing begin?

A

Within approximately 3 minutes of the first step.

234
Q

What checklists form the Winter Ops Checklist?

A

De/Anti Icing Prior to Engine Start
Remote De/Anti Icing Engines Shutdown
Remote De/Anti Icing Engines Running
Before Taxi Checklist Freezing Conditions
Shutdown Checklist Freezing Conditions

235
Q

What is the company policy following physical contact by a proximity sensor or any other part of a de-ice vehicle?

A

The aircraft must be inspected by an engineer.

236
Q

What is Active Frost?

A

A condition where frost is forming. It occurs when the aircraft surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees and at or below the dew point.

237
Q

What conditions apply to Heavy Snow operations?

A

There is no HOT for Heavy Snow. Takeoff may be safely conducted, but the following conditions apply:

Must be anti-iced with 100% Type II or IV
Surfaces free of contaminants (or properly deiced before anti-iced)
Pre-takeoff check from OUTSIDE within 5 MINS of takeoff

238
Q

Whats are the steps for an Engine Run-Up on the NG/MAX

A

Timing
Set 40% N1
“Stabilised”
Set 70% N1 (no time specified) / 50% N1 (min 5 sec)
If no excessive vibration or engine indications, “Stabilised”
Smoothly release brakes
Push TOGA

239
Q

When should cold temp correction be applied?

A

OAT 0 degrees or colder.

Correct all SID/STAR stop altitudes and DA/MDA below the corrected MSA.
Advise ATC.
Do not correct FAF onwards for RNAV.

240
Q

How much bigger is the fan on the Leap1B?

A

8 inches (69 inches v 61 inches)

241
Q

How much longer is the 8200 nose gear strut?

A

8 inches (to accommodate the 8 inch larger fan)

242
Q

What is the wing tip ground clearance of the 8200 v the NG?

A

3.1m v 3.9m, due to the split scimitar winglets

243
Q

What is the bypass ratio on the Leap1B v the 56-7B?

A

9 v 5.1

244
Q

How many seats does the 8200 have?

A

197

245
Q

What is EOS on the 8200?

A

Electronic Overspeed - prevents rotor overspeed from exceeding the structural limits by shutting down the engine on ground or in flight.

246
Q

What is TCMA on the 8200?

A

Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation - if engine thrust levers are reduced to idle on the ground and the engine does not respond, the EEC will shut it down.

247
Q

What is BRM on the 8200?

A

Bowed rotor motoring - to straighten the rotor shaft during engine start. Occurs between approx 18-24% N2.

248
Q

When does the starter cut out on the Leap1B?

A

Approx 63% N2.

249
Q

What are the approximate stabilised engine conditions for the Leap1B?

A

N1 - 20%
EGT - 500 deg
N2 - 70%
Fuel Flow - 0.3

250
Q

What is MLA on the 8200?

A

Manouevre Load Alleviation - automatic partial retraction of the speedbrakes at high load factors (above 1.3g, below 0.3g)

251
Q

What are the LAM functions on the 8200?

A

Landing Attitude Modifier

  • uses flight spoilers at Flap 30/40 to maintain nose gear contact margins similar to that of the -800
  • deploys flight spoilers at low thrust and Flap 15 through 30 to add drag and capture and maintain glide like the -800
252
Q

What is the Flap 40 placard speed on the 8200?

A

166kts

253
Q

When will MCAS activate?

A

Autopilot not engaged
Flaps UP
AOA above a threshold
Mach below 0.84
10 seconds after takeoff

254
Q

What are the memory items for Engine Fire on the Ground?

A

Thrust Levers (both)…Close
Parking Brake…Set
Advise the Cabin
Engine Start Lever (affected engine)…CUTOFF
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine)…Pull
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine)…Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second

255
Q

What do green amber and red terrain displays signify?

A

Green - more than 500ft below aircraft
Amber - between 500ft below and 2000 above the aircraft
Red - more than 2000ft above the aircraft

256
Q

What is the Predictive Windshear alert area?

A

On Ground -
Warning - 0.5nm width out to 3nm
Caution - 25 degrees out to 3nm

Airborne - 0.5nm width out to 1.5nm
Warning - 25 degrees out to 3nm

257
Q

When are Predictive Windshear alerts enabled/issued/inhibited?

A

Enabled below 2300ft or 1800ft (depending on wx radar), or thrust levers set for takeoff.

Issued below 1200ft RA

Warnings Inhibited between 100kts and 50ft
Cautions inhibited between 80kts and 400ft

258
Q

What are the considerations when intercepting the glide slope from above?

A

Capture LOC before arming AP
Set MCP no lower than 1000ft AGL
Flap 5 manoeuvre speed (max +10)
Validate GS and arm within 1 dot
Capture by 4/5nm ring

259
Q

What is Improved Climb?

A

Excess runway used to generate higher TO speed and improve climb gradient, if climb limited.

260
Q

What is the definition of V1?

A

Maximum speed at which the pilot must take the first action to stop the aircraft.
Minimum speed, following failure of an engine, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height within the distance.

(FAA/FCTM)

261
Q

Which document shows the Birdstrike Inspection procedure?

A

RA210

262
Q

What are the 5 areas of the Ryanair safety strategy?

A

Risk Assessment
KORA’s
SMS Review
Security Management System
Dynamic Flight Planning

263
Q

What are the EGT limits for the 737NG

A

Start - 725 degrees
Max continuous - 925 degrees
Takeoff - 950 degrees (max 5 mins)

264
Q

What is the PSEU and what does it monitor?

A

Proximity Switch Electronic Unit

Monitors:
Takeoff config warnings
Landing config warnings
Landing Gear
Air/ground sensing

265
Q

What situations warrant declaration of Emergency?

A

Unsafe gear, wheel or tyre damage
Suspected complete brake failure
Fire or smoke indications
Flight control degradation
Complete electrical generator failure
Insufficient instrument/nav capability for approach

266
Q

What are examples of a precautionary landing?

A

Single engine landing
Hydraulic failure (but with standby brakes)
Gear unsafe light on but showing locked down
Flapless Landing
Fire warning but not other indications of fire

267
Q

What is the call for medical emergency?

A

PAN PAN PAN, request MEDICAL SERVICES

(may then be assigned a discrete frequency)

268
Q

What is the route to LTC after the interview?

A
  • Assessment Flight
  • 3 Days Ground School
  • 2 Days SIM
  • 4 Observation Sectors (min 2)
  • Min 2 Training Sectors Under Supervision
  • 12 Training Sectors w/o Supervision
  • LTC Instructor Proficiency Check
269
Q

What is the recommended wind additive for approach (non-autothrottle)?

A

VREF + half steady headwind + full gust.
Minimum VREF+5, Maximum VREF+15 or flap placard speed -5.

270
Q

What is the recommended wind additive for approach (non-autothrottle)?

A

VREF + half steady headwind + full gust.
Minimum VREF+5, Maximum VREF+15 or flap placard speed -5.

Command Study (1 decks)

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