General Flashcards

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1
Q

What elements must D establish to assert diminished responsibility?

A
  1. Abnormality of mental functioning
  2. Arising from recognised medical condition
  3. Which substantially impairs D’s ability to:
    1. Understand the nature of their conduct;
    2. form rational judgment; or
    3. exercise self-control.
  4. Abnormality must be linked/provide explanation to the killing.
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2
Q

What are the elements of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

This is a kind of involuntary manslaughter.

Unlawful act manslaughter arises when a person kills another while committing a criminal offence that carries an objective risk to the victim.

The requirements are that the act (1) was unlawful, (2) was deliberate, (3) carried the risk of some harm, and (4) caused the death of the victim.

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2
Q

What is the partial defence of loss of control?

A

Loss of control is a partial defence to a murder charge that is available if the defendant can show he acted from a loss of self-control caused by a trigger such as a fear of serious violence or things said or done that would cause the defendant to have a justifiable sense of being wronged and would cause a hypothetical person of the defendant’s age and sex to react in the same way.

Successfully pleading loss of control would reduce the conviction to voluntary manslaughter.

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3
Q

How is indirect/oblique intention established?

A

Where a defendant intended a result where the offence was a virtually certain consequence of his conduct and he realised that it was.

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4
Q

What are the elements of aggravated burglary?

A

A defendant is guilty of aggravated burglary if he commits any burglary and at the time has with him any weapon, imitation firearm, or explosive. An offender must have the weapon when he enters the building; it cannot be something he picks up whilst inside.

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5
Q

What are the elements of robbery?

A

Robbery requires a theft of property accompanied by the defendant’s use of force or threat of the use of force immediately before or at the same time as the theft to facilitate the theft.

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5
Q

What are the elements of burglary?

A

Burglary is committed when a person enters a building or part of a building as a trespasser with intent to commit theft, grievous bodily harm, or criminal damage.

**NOTE - burglary takes place at the time of entry, regardless of whether D has managed to take/cause harm/commit criminal damage

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6
Q

What is the definition of theft?

A

The dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with intention to permanently deprive.

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7
Q

What is the definition of actual bodily harm?

A

Actual bodily harm is an injury that is more than ‘merely transient and trifling’. Although there is no precise definition of actual bodily harm in statute, courts have found that bruising is sufficient

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8
Q

How is joint enterprise liability established?

A

TWO elements:

AR - Did the defendant assist or encourage the commission of the crime?

MR - In this assistance or encouragement, did the defendant act with the requisite mental element of that offence?

Eg. For murder, the mens rea is an intention to kill or cause serious harm. Therefore, a co-Defendant will be liable under joint enterprise only if he intended to assist or encourage in killing or committing serious harm.

Eg. For theft. A defendant encourages the principal to take another person’s bicycle and then return it after use but the principal in fact keeps the bicycle. In this scenario the principal will be guilty of theft but the defendant will only be guilty of the lesser offence of unauthorised taking because he has not encouraged the principal to act with the intent to permanently deprive (the mens rea of theft)

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9
Q

What is the definition of fraud by false representation?

A

A defendant commits fraud by false representation when the defendant makes a false representation dishonestly knowing that the representation was or might be untrue or misleading with intent to make a gain for himself or another, to cause loss to another, or to expose another to risk of loss.

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10
Q

What is the definition of criminal damage?

A

Criminal damage to property arises when a person destroys or damages property belonging to another, either intending or being reckless as to whether that property is destroyed or damaged, and does so without a lawful excuse.

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11
Q

What is the definition of fraud by abuse of position?

A

A defendant commits fraud by abuse of position when she abuses her position in which she is expected to safeguard the financial interests of another.

The Defendant must have intended to use their position by making a gain or causing loss dishonestly.

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12
Q

What is the definition of arson?

A

Arson is committed where the defendant intentionally or recklessly causes damage to another’s property and that damage is caused by fire.

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13
Q

When is rubbish deemed to be abandoned?

A

Rubbish that has been thrown away continues to belong to the original owner until it is collected by the rubbish collection company, at which point it belongs to the rubbish collection company.

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14
Q

What is the definition of s18 offence?

A

AR: To wound or cause grievous bodily harm. A wound requires that both layers of the skin are broken.

MR: Intention to cause GBH

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15
Q

What is the definition of conspiracy?

A

AR: To make an agreement between two or more parties to do something that is criminal.

MR: To intend to form the agreement. Intend or know that all parts of the criminal act will be completed.

For a person to be guilty of a conspiracy, she must have entered an agreement to commit a crime and intend for all parts of that crime to be completed.

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16
Q

What is the offence of assisting?

A

Assisting an offence occurs where the defendant does an act capable of assisting another to commit an offence and wanting that offence to be committed.

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17
Q

What is the test for gross negligence manslaughter?

A

There must be a breach of a duty of care that caused the victim’s death, with the breach carrying a serious and obvious risk of death and being so bad as to be criminally culpable.

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18
Q

What is the doctrine of transferred malice?

A

Under the doctrine of transferred malice, when a defendant intends to commit an offence but inadvertently commits it against a different victim, the mens rea can be transferred from the intended victim to the actual victim (as long as the offence committed is of the same type as the one intended)

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19
Q

What is the evidential burden?

A

To rely on certain evidence/raise a defence, the Defence must produce evidence to raise the defence before the court. That is called the evidential burden. D must raise the evidential burden on the balance of probabilities.

Once this has been raised, the P has burden of disproving it beyond reasnbl doubt

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20
Q

What is concurrence?

A

The co-existence of the elements of the offence at the same time.

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21
Q

In what 5 circumstances can D be liable for an omission?

A
  1. When there is a special relationship between the defendant and victim.
  2. When the defendant has voluntarily assumed a duty of care.
  3. When the defendant owes a contractual duty.
  4. When the defendant creates a dangerous situation
  5. When a statute so provides.
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22
Q

What is legal causation?

A

For D’s action to be a legal cause it must be substantial (more than minimal, slight or trifling) and operative (i.e. no intervening acts)

23
Q

|n what circumstances can a natural event break the chain of causation?

A

If a defendant and a reasonable person would not have foreseen the natural event.

24
Q

In what circumstances would a victims intervention break the chain of causation?

A

If the D and a reasonable person would not have foreseen the act, and the act is voluntary.

Usually, V’s acts must be “so dast as to be unforeseeable”

BUT REMEMBER - Thin skull principle. Must take V as you find them.

25
Q

In what circumstances can a third party’s intervention break the chain of causation?

A

If the intervention is free, deliberate and informed.

NB - Medical treatment v unlikely to break the chain.

26
Q

When does poor medical treatment break the chain of causation?

A

When it is so poor, that the original wound becomes the mere background.

27
Q

List 8 specific intent offences

A

the 2 REAL BAD ONES + the dishonesty offences - theft etc + fraud + inchoate

  1. murder
  2. s18 GBH
  3. theft
  4. burglary (s9(1)(a))
  5. robbery (as to intention to deprive but basic intent re force)
  6. fraud by false misrep
  7. attempt
  8. encourage/assist
28
Q

What is the definition of recklessness?

A

The defendant foresees the risk, and it is an unreasonable risk to take in the
circumstances known to the defendant.

29
Q

What are the elements of murder?

A

To cause the death of another human being unlawfully with the intention to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

30
Q

What is the definition of assualt?

A
  • *Intentionally or recklessly causing** another to apprehend the immediate application of
  • *unlawful force.**
31
Q

Define battery

A

Intentionally or recklessly applying unlawful force upon another person.

32
Q

What is the MR for s20 offence?

A

Intention to cause some harm or recklessness regarding the risk of causing some harm.

33
Q

Give examples of actual bodily harm

A

Bruises, scratches, and psychiatric injuries

34
Q

Give examples of GBH

A

broken bones, long periods of unconsciousness, or wounds that break both
layers of skin

35
Q

What is the MR of s18 offence?

A

Intention to cause grievous bodily harm or foresee the risk of harm and intend to
resist lawful arrest.

35
Q

What is the test for dishonesty for the purposes of theft?

A

Whether the defendant’s behaviour is dishonest by the standards of reasonable and honest people.

36
Q

In what three circumstances is the appropriation of property not deemed to be dishonest?

A
  1. The defendant has an honest belief that they have a right in law to the property.
  2. The defendant has an honest belief they would have the owner’s consent.
  3. The owner cannot be found by taking reasonable step
37
Q

How can force element in robbery be satisfied?

A
  1. Infliction of force.
  2. Causing apprehension of force.
  3. Seeking to cause an apprehension of fore, such as through threats.
38
Q

Define the offence of burglary by trespass with intent

A

Under s9(1)(a)

D enters the building with intent to steal, inflict GBH, or cause criminal damage.

Crime is committed at time of entry. Doesn’t matter whether D actually committed the offence intended.

39
Q

Define the offence of burglary following trespassory entry

A

Under s9(1)((b)

After D entered the building, D actually (or attempted) to steal or inflict GBH.

*NO criminal damage.

40
Q

What is the AR of fraud by false representation

A
  • Dishonestly making a false representation as to a fact.
  • Dishonestly making a false representation as to state of mind (for example, “I promise I intend to. . . ”).
  • Dishonestly making a false representation as to law.
41
Q

Define damage for the purposes of criminal damage

A
  • Damage will impair the usefulness or value of the item or will involve effort or expense to repair.
  • includes slight damage and damage that can easily be repaired.
42
Q

Define ‘property belonging to another’ for the purpose of criminal damage

A

Must be physical - excludes intangible property like copyrights and bank accounts.

Must belong to another but CAN be co-owned

Cannot be wild plants and funghi

43
Q

What is aggravated criminal damage?

A

Aggravated criminal damage requires that the defendant intended to endanger life by
the damage to the property (or was reckless as to the danger)

44
Q

Define “abet”

A

Encouraging or inciting an offence

45
Q

Define ‘aid’

A

Assisting or helping the commission of an offence

46
Q

Define “counsel”

A

Advising or soliciting an offence

47
Q

Define “procure”

A

Producing by endeavour.

48
Q

Define the offence of ‘attempt’

A

AR: D does not complete the crime but does something more than merely preparatory.

MR: Intention to complete the full offence.

49
Q

What is legal impossibility in relation to the offence of attempt?

A

Where the relevant act attempted would not constitute a crime - cannot be found guilty of attempt.

cf. factual impossibility - where it is impossible to complete the act (eg because person is already dead) can stll be found guilty of attempt.

50
Q

Who cannot co-conspire?

A
  1. The victim of the conspiracy.
  2. A child or other person who lacks capacity.
  3. The person’s spouse.
51
Q

What is a hub and spoke conspiracy?

A

Not all participants are party to the same conspiracy. it is a situation in which a central person conspires with others separately as
part of a large scheme.

52
Q

In what three circumstances can intoxication negate mens rea?

A
  • The intoxication is involuntary.
  • The voluntary intoxication is with a nondangerous substance.
  • The defendant was voluntarily intoxicated, and the offence charged is one of specific intent.

BUT drunken intent is still intent!

53
Q

What can D be acting to protect to raise self defence?

A

To protect themselves, another, or property, or to prevent crime, or to effect a lawful arrest.

54
Q

What is the test for the reasonableness of force - self defence?

A

The level of force used was objectively reasonable/proportionate in the circumstances as the defendant believed them to be.

55
Q

What is the MR for the defence of self defence?

A

D must have subjective belief that force was immediately required.

56
Q

What are loss of control and diminished responsibility partial defences for?

A

Murder only - not applicable for attempted murder or any other offence.

Reduce murder to voluntary manslaughter.