Gene therapy Flashcards

1
Q

What is gene therapy?

A

Treatment of a disease by the transfer of genetic

material into a patient’s cells.

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2
Q

What are chromosomal disorders?

A

Excess or loss of chromosomes e.g. down’s syndrome.

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3
Q

What are monogenic disorders (mendelian disorders)?

A

Inherited disorders caused by mutations in a single gene.

Autosomal dominant e.g. Huntington’s disease.

Autosomal recessive e.g. sickle cell anaemia, cystic fibrosis.

X-linked recessive e.g. haemophilia.

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4
Q

What are polygenic disorders?

A

Diseases associated with multiple genes (and environmental factors).

e.g. diabetes, cardiovascular disease, cancer.

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5
Q

What are the consequences of mutations?

A

Mutations within coding regions (exons) could lead to
generation of non-functional protein.

Mutations outside coding regions (introns) can cause
alternations in efficiency of transcription, translation, and splicing.

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6
Q

What are frame-shift mutations?

A

Addition or deletion of a single nucleotide that alters the reading frame.

Could occur due to strand slippage during DNA replication.

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7
Q

What is somatic gene therapy?

A

The ability to introduce genetic material (RNA) into an appropriate cell type or tissue in vivo in such a way that it alters the cell’s pattern of gene expression to produce a therapeutic effect.

Confined to the patient.

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8
Q

What is germ-line gene therapy?

A

When DNA is transferred into the cells that produce reproductive cells, eggs or sperm, in the body.

This type of therapy allows for the correction of disease-causing gene variants that are certain to be passed down from generation to generation.

Permanent transmissible modification.

Widely banned.

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9
Q

When is gene therapy appropriate?

A

Disease must be incurable by other means.

Molecular basis of the disease must be known.

Accessibility of target organ or tissue.

Longevity of targeted cells.

Low expression leading to large effect.

Ethical approval.

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10
Q

What are the obstacles to gene therapy?

A

Limited to somatic cells.

Specificity in targeting cells/tissues.

Duration of expression.

Side effects.

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11
Q

What is cell therapy?

A

Treatment of a disease by the transfer of cells into a patient.

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12
Q

What is in vivo delivery?

A

Genetic material is delivered to target affected cells (cancer cells or other) that remain inside a person’s body.

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13
Q

What is ex vivo delivery?

A

Mutated genes are delivered to a person’s body after the cells have been extracted and exposed to genome or gene editing.

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14
Q

What is somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A

The transfer of nucleus from adult cells to unfertilised enucleated oocyte or fusion of adult cell with an enucleated oocyte.

Oocyte reprograms the differentiated somatic cell.

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15
Q

What is a viral vector?

A

Viral vectors are tools commonly used by molecular biologists to deliver genetic material into cells.

This process can be performed inside a living organism or in cell culture.

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16
Q

What do we need in a viral vector?

A

Toxicity.

Immunogenicity.

Specificity / tropism.

Propagation.

Integration.

Insert size.

17
Q

What is the role of the adenoviral vector?

A

Adenovirus is a doublestranded DNA virus that
can cause the common cold.

Infects dividing and non-dividing cells.

Lack of specificity as attachment receptors are widespread on many cell types.

Enters cells by receptor mediated endocytosis.

Replication occurs without integration.

Transient but high expression of transgene.

Does not cross the extracellular matrix due to its large size.

Can potentially generate competent lytic virus by recombination.

High immunogenicity.

18
Q

What is the role of the adeno-associated vector?

A

Adeno-associated virus is a single-stranded DNA
provirus that requires a helper virus for replication.

Infects dividing and non-dividing cells.

Can transduce many cell types, but each strain has a narrow tropismssociated virus is a single-stranded DNA
provirus that requires a helper virus for replication.

19
Q

What is the role of the retroviral vector?

A

Retroviruses are single-stranded RNA viruses.

Gamma-retroviral vectors - infect only dividing cells.

Lentiviral vectors - infect dividing and non-dividing
cells.

Can be pseudotyped with other viral envelope proteins allowing broad tropism.

Integrates into host genome, preferentially in active genomic regions.

Site of integration can be random.

High efficiency of transduction.

Transgene expression can be long-term/permanent.

Can potentially generate competent lytic virus by recombination.

Can induce immune response.

20
Q

What is the role of the herpes simplex vector?

A

Herpes simplex virus is a double-stranded DNA virus.

Infects dividing and non-dividing cells.

Targets cells of the nervous system.

Replication occurs without integration.

High transduction levels in vivo.

Transient transgene expression, due to immunogenicity and cytotoxicity.

Expression can be long-term in the central nervous system.

Potential to recombine with WT genomes in latently infected cells.

Used as an oncolytic viral vector to target cancerous cells.

21
Q

When can gene augmentation take place?

A

Diseases caused by loss of gene function e.g. inherited monogenic recessive disorders.

Delivery: vector-mediated or cell-mediated.

22
Q

When can generation of a functional gene take place?

A

Disease caused by a non-functional protein because the gene contains a mutation.

Mechanisms:

Homologous recombination (HR).
Using gene editing (exogenous nucleases).
Exon skipping / exclusion.

23
Q

What is an advantage and disadvantage of homologous recombination?

A

Advantage: restores normal expression.

Disadvantage: inefficient process.

24
Q

How would you improve efficiency of gene editing?

A

Provide exogenous nucleases to improve efficiency.

Nuclease fused to DNA-binding domain.

DNA binding domain is specific to target sequence.

Nuclease induces double-strand break in target sequence.

dsDNA break repaired by cellular DNA repair machinery.

By homologous recombination (HR) or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ).

25
Q

What are the different types of sequence-specific nucleases?

A

Zinc-finger nuclease (ZFN):

Each Cys2-His2 zinc finger recognises specific 3 bp DNA sequence.
Fused to Fok1 nuclease which mediates cleavage.

Transcription activator-like effector nuclease (TALEN):

DNA-binding TALE domain recognises single DNA base.
Fok1 nuclease mediates cleavage.

CRISPR/Cas9:

Clustered regularly interspaces short palindromic repeatsassociated nuclease Cas9.
Guide RNA binds complementary sequence in target gene.
Cas9 recognises and cuts target DNA.
Simple to design.
Efficient.
Can multiplex.

26
Q

What is the mechanism of exon skipping?

A

Uses antisense oligonucleotides (ASO).

Short synthetic single-stranded oligonucelotides.

Complementary to target mRNA.

Modified to prevent degradation by nucleases.

Antisense oligonucleotide (ASO) hides splice site so next available splice site is used.

27
Q

When can gene expression be reduced?

A

Dominant disorder e.g. Huntington’s disease.

Autoimmune diseases.

Cancer caused by protein overexpression.

Infections.

28
Q

What is the process of RNA interference (RNAi)?

A

Small interfering RNA (siRNA) disrupt gene expression using thecellular RNAi pathway.

Cellular RNase Dicer cleaves dsRNA into 21-24 bp siRNA fragments.

Fragment loaded onto RISC (RNA induced
silencing complex).

Antisense siRNA binds to complementary
target mRNA.

Endonucleolytic cleavage of target RNA
leading to gene silencing.

29
Q

What is the RNAi pathway?

A

RNAi pathway developed as a defence mechanism against viruses / foreign RNA.

Highly specific.
Highly potent.
Highly effective.

30
Q

What does an antisense oligonucleotide do?

A

Antisense oligonucleotides (AS ONs) are synthetic DNA oligomers that hybridize to a target RNA in a sequence-specific manner.

They have successfully been employed to inhibit gene expression, modulate splicing of a precursor messenger RNA, or inactivate microRNAs.

Increasing gene expression by exon skipping.

Inhibition by:

RNase H-dependent cleavage.
Steric blocking.

31
Q

What is the role of RNase H-dependent oligonucleotides?

A

ASO binds mRNA.

Ribonuclease H recognises dsRNA and initiates degradation.

32
Q

What is the role of antisense oligonucleotides?

A

Inhibition by steric blocking.

ASO binds mRNA and prevents progression of
ribosome.

ASO binds DNA and triple helix prevents RNA
polymerase binding.