gene tech Flashcards

1
Q

what is a transgenic organism?

A

organism that contains recombinant DNA/ DNA of a different species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is recombinant dna?

A

DNA of 2 different species which has been combined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why can a gene from one species be transplanted into gene from another species and still get same protein?

A

the genetic code is universal (each triplet code, codes for the same amino acid in ALL organisms) and the transcription and translation mechanisms are universal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 5 steps in making recombinant dna with in vivo gene cloning?

A
  1. Isolation of the gene/DNA fragment for the desired protein
  2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a vector
  3. Transformation – Putting DNA fragment into host cells
  4. Identification of host cells which have taken up the gene
  5. Cloning/growth of these cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe isolation of a dna fragment (step 1) in making recombinant dna

A

i. Conversion of mRNA to complementary DNA (cDNA) using reverse transcriptase: mRNA coding for the desired protein homogenised + centrifuged (e.g. for insulin, the mRNA from pancreatic β cells).
· Free DNA nucleotides are added and bind to single stranded mRNA via complementary base pairing + reverse transcriptase is added which joins adjacent DNA nucleotides together via phosphodiester bonds.
· This forms a single stranded DNA called cDNA + more nucleotides and polymerase added to make it single stranded.
Advantages: introns removed so prokaryotes can use + easy to remove bc outside of nucleus.
ii. Using restriction enzymes: Restriction enzymes hydrolyse the phosphodiester bonds of DNA at specific base sequences called recognition sites. Different restriction enzymes cut DNA at different specific recognition sites because the shape of the recognition site is complementary to the enzymes active site.
The cut made at the recognition site produces sticky ends. If the other organism’s DNA is cut using the same restriction enzyme as they will have complementary sticky ends, so hydrogen bond together.
iii. Using a gene machine: faster bc don’t need to isolate DNA/RNA, very accurate like no errors, any nucleotide sequence, no introns so prokaryotes can use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe insertion of dna into a vector for making recombinant dna (step 2)

A

A vector (i.e. bacterial plasmid or virus) carries the DNA/gene into the host cell.
The donor gene need a promotor + terminator, so gene can be transcribed + stop transcription.
· The isolated DNA fragment is placed into vector DNA by cutting open the vector DNA using the SAME restriction enzyme that was used to isolate the DNA fragment, producing complementary ‘sticky ends’ between the DNA fragment and vector DNA, which join via CBP at their sticky ends.
· DNA ligase is then used to join the phosphodiester bonds of the sticky ends of the DNA fragment to the vector DNA (e.g. plasmid).
· The new combined DNA fragment and vector DNA is referred to as recombinant DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe transformation of dna fragment in making recombinant dna (step 3)

A

recomb DNA now used to transfer target DNA into host cell by:
* Calcium ions OR electric Shock OR heat shock (these make the membrane porous and therefore more permeable)
* Using a virus to inject the plasmid/DNA into the cell
organism with the recombinant dna = trasngenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe identification of host cells which have taken up gene in vivo gene cloning (step 4)

A

Marker genes used: identifies which cells have taken up the gene.
· Antibiotic resistance gene – marker gene codes for a protein which gives resistance to a certain antibiotic. Cells are grown in the presence of this certain antibiotic and therefore only the cells containing the vector with the antibiotic resistance gene will grow. Cell without the vector will not have the antibiotic resistance gene and therefore will die.
· Fluorescence gene – marker gene codes for a fluorescent protein. When UV light is shone on cells, only the cells which have taken up the plasmid and produce the fluorescent protein will glow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe cloning/ growth of host cells which have taken up recombinant dna (step 5)

A

Once the cells containing the recombinant DNA have been identified they can be cultured to express the inserted gene and therefore produce large amounts of the desired protein.
· Gene can be inserted into early embryo or egg cells.
All resulting cells in the organism will produce the protein because the cells divide by mitosis to produce genetically identical cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify (make many copies) of a particular DNA sequence from a small sample- much more rapid + efficient than in vivo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are primers?

A

Primers are short pieces of single stranded DNA with a specific, complementary base sequence to bases at start of DNA fragment you want to copy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe PCR xxxx

A

A reaction mixture is set up containing: the DNA sample to be copied, free DNA nucleotides, 2 different primers (one for each strand which have different base sequences) and thermostable DNA polymerase.
· DNA is heated to 95oC to break hydrogen bonds and separate the two DNA strands. (1)
· Cooled to 55oC so that complementary primers can bind to DNA strands, allowing DNA polymerase to bind and prevent the strands re-joining. (2)
· Heated to 72oC - Thermostable DNA polymerase joins DNA nucleotides together via phosphodiester bonds forming a new complementary strand. (3)
· Two new copies of the DNA fragment are formed
· This cycle can be repeated many times - number of copies of DNA fragments doubles with each cycle leading to an exponential increase. (4)
· No more DNA molecules are produced once the nucleotides or primers have all been used up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how to calculate number of dna molecules produced from PCR

A

2(to the power of)n x number of starting molecules - where n is the number of cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

state 3 differences between in vivo VS in vitro (PCR)

A

in vivo:
1) Can be used to produce protein or mRNA from the inserted DNA as well as the target DNA.
2) Not very sensitive – need large DNA sample to start with.
3) Slower – One DNA replication per cell division
in vitro:
1) Can only be used to copy DNA
2) Very sensitive – only requires a small DNA sample to start with.
3) Quicker –millions of copies of target DNA in hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can gene therapy treat recessive + dominant alleles which cause disease?

A
  • If the disease is caused by a recessive allele then a dominant allele can be introduced – which will be expressed instead of the recessive allele.
  • If the disease is caused by a dominant allele then the functional gene can be inserted into the middle of the mutated allele, disrupting it, so the functional protein is produced instead.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a liposome?

A

A liposome is a vesicle made of phospholipid bilayer containing the functional gene. The liposome fuses with the cell surface membrane releasing the DNA into the cell.

17
Q

problems with gene therapy

A

· Viruses used to insert DNA into cell may cause immune responses and side effects.
· Multiple treatments required as cells die or some cells will still have the mutated gene (somatic cell only). So short term
* The DNA may insert into middle of another gene (disrupts gene) forming a non-functional protein (if this occurs in a tumour suppressor gene it can cause cancer).

18
Q

2 types of gene therapy

A

Somatic cell therapy
* Functional gene is inserted into somatic cells (body cells), which express the mutated gene.
* Gametes not affected so offspring could still inherit the disease
Germ line therapy
* Functional gene is added to sperm or egg cells.
* Every cell of the body will contain the functional gene, following mitosis. As DNA is replicated before mitosis.
* The functional gene will be passed onto offspring, so genetic disease is not passed on.
* Currently illegal to do this in Europe

19
Q

how is gel electrophoresis carried out on dna fragments?

A

fragments separated by length + charge
DNA sample is hydrolysed into fragments using restriction enzymes + placed within the well at one end of a gel.
A voltage is applied across the gel and as DNA is negatively charged (due to the phosphate group), the DNA fragments are attracted towards the positively charged end of the gel. Shorter fragemnts move quicker.
Proteins can also be separated by mass + charge.

20
Q

what is a dna probe?

A

A DNA probe is a single stranded DNA molecule with a complementary base sequence to DNA fragment to be located, which it therefore binds to. It has a radioactive or fluorescent label for detection.

21
Q

how do dna probes identify alleles?

A
  1. The DNA is extracted from cells + amplified using PCR to make many copies
  2. The DNA is cut into fragments using restriction enzymes
  3. The DNA fragments are separated out by length using gel electrophoresis.
  4. Alkali is added to break the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, making the DNA on the gel single stranded.
  5. Southern blotting. (This is done as the gel can tear easily causing results to be lost. The nylon membrane is stronger.)
  6. DNA probe with a complementary base sequence to the allele of interest is added and binds to the allele if present. This is called DNA hybridisation
  7. The membrane is washed to remove any unbound to remove fasle positive result.
  8. Using autoradiography, the nylon membrane is exposed to x ray film to detect the fluorescing/radioactive probe, showing the allele is present. If no band is present then the probe has not bound and the allele is not present in the original DNA sample.
22
Q

what is genetic screening?

A

Determines if someone has a genetic disease, using a DNA probe which is complementary and binds to the mutated allele
Genetic screening can determine the probability of individuals having offspring with the genetic disorder + they can get advice from genetic counsellors about what to do.
Another important application of genetic screening is screening individuals for the presence of mutated oncogenes. For example, if the tumour suppressor gene is mutated then division of abnormal cells is no longer inhibited and cancer can develop.
Individuals can then obtain advice and make informed decisions about their lifestyle choices e.g. stopping smoking

23
Q

describe automated chain termination sequencing

A

uses special nucleotides called terminator nucleotides which are missing an -OH group so they cannot form a phosphodiester bond with the next nucleotide in the chain.
fragments of dna separated by gel electrophoresis, smaller fragments move fastest

24
Q

what is a VNTR?

A

Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) are repeating DNA base sequences found between genes

25
Q

how is genetic fingerprinting carried out on small sample of dna?

A
  1. VNTRs are amplified using PCR + restriction enzymes cut the DNA into fragments either side of the VNTRs
  2. Separation of the DNA fragments by length using the process of gel electrophoresis
  3. An alkali is added to separate the double stranded DNA into single strands
  4. A nylon membrane is added to transfer the DNA onto the membrane in a Southern blot
  5. A mixture of DNA probes are added with complementary base sequences to a variety of different VNTRs which bind to the single stranded VNTRs
  6. Autoradiography is used to expose the radioactivity of the probe to visualise the VNTRs
    Note: Each person has two copies of each VNTR, one on each homologous chromosome. So 2 bands on the gel for each VNTR.
26
Q

Uses of genetic fingerprinting?

A

Paternity tests: All the bands in a child’s genetic fingerprint that don’t match the mother must match the father.
Genetic diversity in a population: The more the number of repeats varies at different places, the greater the genetic variability.
Medical diagnosis: Certain tumours are known to have certain fingerprints, which can be compared to a patient’s tumour genetic fingerprint.
Forensic science: If the DNA of a suspect matches all the bands on the genetic fingerprint from the sample found at the crime scene, it means they were present at the crime scene
Animal + plant breeding: Can be used to select the least closely related organisms, those who have the most different bands on their genetic fingerprint, to breed together to reduce the chances of genetic disorders and increase genetic diversity.

27
Q
A