Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pediatric Board Prep > Gen Peds/EM > Flashcards

Gen Peds/EM Flashcards

0
Q

What is the 50% for HC for term infant?

A

35 cm for girls, 36 cm for boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

When is birth weight doubled, tripled, and quadrupled?

A

4 months, 12 months, 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does birth length double, triple?

A

4 years, 13 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define mild v moderate/severe MR:

A

Mild: 50-75

Moderate/severe: <50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percent of kids with mild MR have a chromosomal abnormality?

A

4-8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should fluoride supplementation begin?

A

> 6 months of age, for water with < 0.3 PPM of fluoride.
0.25 mg at 6 months
0.5 mg 3-6 years
1 mg 6-16 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you put a knocked out tooth in:

A

In order or preference: save a tooth solution, cold milk, saliva, physiologic saline, isotonic solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 subQ vaccines:

A

MMR, varicella, IPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The live vaccines:

A

Rotavirus, MMR, varicella, yellow fever, oral typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anaphylactic suspects in vaccines:

A

Egg- flu, yellow fever
Streptomycin, neomycin- IPV
Neomycin- MMR, varicella
Gelatin- MMR, varicella, yellow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long must you wait to place a PPD after receiving MMR vaccine?

A

Place same day as MMR or wait 4-6 weeks to place PPD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the upper age limit after which colic should not be considered?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vaccines should not be given in a pregnant adolescent female?

A

MMR, varicella, intranasal flu, HPV, OPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the tympanograms: A(s), A(d), B, C

A

A(s): shallow, curve in normal position but compliance low, assoc with ossicular fixation or TM scarring.

A(d): disarticulation, curve normally positioned but compliance very high. Assoc with ossicular disarticulation.

B: retracted poorly mobile. Curve shifted left (negative middle ear pressure) but peak is absent, compliance lower than normal. Suggests fluid behind TM.

C*: negative pressure, curve shifted left, clear peak. Suggests Eustachian tube dysfunction and conductive loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of miosis:

A 
COPS
Cholinergics, clonidine
Opiates, organophosphates
Phencyclidine, phenothiazine, pilocarpine
Sedatives (barbs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of mydriasis:

A 
AAAS
Anthicholinergics
Antihistamines
Antidepressants (tca)
Sympathimimetics (inc cocaine, LSD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Activated charcoal is not effective for:

A 
CHEMICAL CamP
Caustics
Hydrocarbons
Electrolytes 
Metals
Iron
Cyanide
Alcohols
Lithium
Camphor
Phosphorous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tylenol rule of 150’s:

A

150mg/kg=toxic dose
150=level at 4 hours->hepatotoxicity
150mg/kg=loading dose of NAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should iron ingestion be evaluated?

A

> 40mg/kg dose, symptoms within 6 hours, > 500 mcg/dL level at 4-6 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should you treat iron I ingestion?

A

Iron level >500 mcg/dL or moderate to severe symptoms. Poor signs are WBC > 15, glucose >150, severe AG acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Things/pills that show up on xray:

A 
CHIPES
Chloral hydrate, Calcium
Heavy metals
Iron
Phenothiazine
Enteric coated tablets
Sustained release tablets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute clinical and lab findings of salicylate ingestion:

A

N/V, hyperpnea, tinnitus

AG metabolic acidosis mixed with reap alkalosis, hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common electrolyte abnormalities with theophylline ingestion:

A

Hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia,
Hypokalemia, low phos
Metabolic acidosis

23
Q

What medication is given in TCA toxicity to prevent dysrhythmias? Treat dysrhythmias?

A

Prevent- sodium bicarbonate

Treat- lidocaine treats many

24
Name some alkaline caustics and their effects:
Bleach, ammonia, oven/drain cleaners, dishwasher detergent, lye. -> deep liquefaction necrosis -> stricture
25
Name some acidic caustics and their effects:
Toilet bowl cleaner, grout cleaner, pool cleaner, rust remover, battery liquid, gun bluing. Eschar, severe gastritis, metabolic acidosis, ARF.
26
Things that increase is osmolar gap:
Ethanol, ethylene glycol Glycine, mannitol Isopropyl alcohol Methanol, uremia
27
Clinical and lab findings with the following ingestions: ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol
Ethanol- hypoglycemia, ataxia etc Methanol-blurry vision, photophobia, optic n damage, metabolic acidosis, abd pain Ethylene glycol-hypocalcemia, AG metabolic acidosis, oxalic acid crystals. CNS, ARDS, ARF
28
Symptoms of organophosphate ingestion:
``` Diarrhea Urination Miosis Bronchospasm Emesis Lacrimation Salivation *decreased RBC cholinesterase activity Tmt atropine and 2-PAM ```
29
What is the rule of nines, rule of Palm?
9%: head/neck, UE 18%: front of thorax/abdomen, back, LE For <10 years of age- palm =0.5-1% of BSA
30
How do you provide IV hydration to a burn victim?
With the parkland formula. Lactated ringers 4ml/kg/percent of total burn surface area given over 24 hrs, half in the first 8 half in the next 16 hours
31
Explain the salter harris classification:
``` SALT I Slip II Above III beLow IV Through V crushed ``` III and IV have risk of growth impairment. V poor prognosis
32
Hyphema treatment, at risk for rebleeding:
Topical steroid, protective shield, elevate HOB, monitor IOP. Avoid NSAIDs and ketamine. Risk of rebleeding in SCD, bleeding diastheses, large hyphema.
33
What is the RDA of calcium, phos and vitD for teens?
Calcium 1300 mg Phos 1300 mg VitD 400-1000
34
What are the diagnostic criteria in anorexia nervosa?
1. Fear of becoming obese 2. Disturbed view of body weight, size 3. 15% below norms for weight and height 4. Absence of 3 consecutive menses
35
Lab and cardiac findings in AN:
Hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, transamanemia, elevated BUN and cholesterol. Hypophosphatemia, hypomag. MVP, QT prolongation, ST segment depression on exertion, heart failure
36
Anosmia + amenorrhea
Kallman syndrome
37
Lab findings to support PCOS:
LH:FSH > 2.5:1, elevated free testosterone, adrostenedione, DHEAS
38
Tmt for PCOS
Menstrual irregularities: ocp Hirsutism: spironolactone Insulin resistance: metformin
39
What are absolute contraindications to OCP:
``` Abnormal vaginal bleeding of unknown cause Estrogen dependent tumor Liver disease Thromboembolic dz CVA Migraine with aura +/- tobacco use, vascular HA, sz ```
40
How do you diagnose syphillis?
1) nontreponemal test (RPR or VDRL), correlate with dz activity 2) treponema Test (FTA-ABS) is positive for life
41
Signs of neurosyphillis:
Meningitis, CN palsies, 8th nerve deafness, uveitis
42
Treatment neurosyphillis:
Aqueous crystalline PCN G 3-4 million units IV q4h for 10-14 days
43
Congenital syphilis tmt:
Aqueous crystalline PCN G 50,000 units/kg/dose q12h for 7 days then q8h to complete 10 days
44
What organism causes lymphogranuloma venereum?
Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, L3 (the L's go with lymphogranuloma)
45
Chlamydia tmt:
Azithromycin 1 gram once | Doxy 100 mg BID x 7 days
46
Gonorrhea tmt:
Rocephin 250 mg IM + chalmydial cov OR Azithro 2 grams x1
47
pH in BV
>4.5
48
Name some PID treatments:
IV- cefotetan 2g q12 + doxy 100 q12 OR clinda + gent PO- rocephin 250 x 1 then doxy 100 BID x14 days +/- flagyl 500 BID
49
HPV that causes warts? Cancer?
Warts - 6, 11 | Cancer- 16,18,31,33,35
50
stages of pubertal development for males and females
males: testicular growth (age 10-11)--> pubarche --> penile growth --> peak height velocity (SMR 4)-->axillary hair females: thelarache (>8, usually 10-11)--> pubarche-->peak height velocity (SMR 3-4) --> menarche (2 yrs after start puberty, age 12-13)
51
most prevalent sti
hpv - initial management of genital warts is observation, high spontaneous resolution rate, chlamydia most common bacterial
52
age to switch from DTap to Tdap
7
54
``` converting from Celsius 36 37 39 40 ```
``` 36=96.8 37=98.6 38=100.4 39=102 40=104 ```
55
most common palpated mass in infants
hydronephrosis and multicystic dysplastic kidneys
56
mgmt. ovarian cysts
6 cm or causing significant symptoms: lap cyst aspiration
57
ETT size calculation | meds that can be given via ET
age + 16/4 | LANE (lidocaine, atropine, narcane, epi)

Pediatric Board Prep (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions