geas 1 Flashcards
How many milliliters of 1.50 M Nitric acid (HNO₃) are required
to completely react with 100.0 g of cuprous oxide (Cu₂O)
according to the balanced equation:
14HNO3 + 3Cu2O → 6Cu NO3 2 + 2NO + 7H2O
A. 2174 mL B. 1250 mL C. 3040 mL D. 1895 mL
A
The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 g. What is the root-
mean-square of molecular chlorine in m/s at 31°C?
A. 104 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 327 m/s D. 193 m/s
C
What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in the mixture of
Argon, Hydrogen and Nitrogen with mass fraction of 0.44,
0.29 and 0.27 respectively in a 3m^3 vessel at 40°C, if the
total mass of the mixture is 3kg? the molecular weight of
nitrogen is 28g/mol, and the universal gas constant is
8.314J/mol.K.?
A. 377.3 kPa B. 297.4 kPa C. 56.4kPa D. 25.1 kPa
D
The temperature in a 60 ft3 tank of gas at 100°F. The
molecular weight is 22 and the tank pressure is 25 psia. How
many moles of an ideal gas are in the tank? The universal
gas constant is 1544 (ft.lbf)/(lbmol.R).
A. 0.32 B. 0.25 C. 0.17 D. 0.36
B
Acetic acid contains only C, H, and O. A 4.24-mg sample of
acetic acid is completely burned. It gives 6.21 mg of carbon
dioxide and 2.54 mg of water. What is the mass percentage
of hydrogen in acetic acid?
A. 39.9% B. 6.7% C. 53.4% D. 78.2%
B
An unknown gas composed of homonuclear diatomic
molecules effuses at a rate that is only 0.355 times that of O2
at the same temperature. What is the identity (molar mass)
of the unknown gas?
A. 25.4 g/mol C. 254 g/mol B. 42.5 g/mol
D. 425 g/mol
C
An element has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁴
. How
many electrons and protons does one atom of this element
have?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
C
Ammonium sulfate has a chemical formula of (NH₄)₂SO₄.
Calculate how many atoms of sulfur are in 350 grams of this
compound.
A. 1.45 × 1024 atoms C. 1.60 × 1024 atoms B. 1.58 × 1024 atoms
D. 1.72 × 1024 atoms
C
What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in the following
mixture in terms of mass fraction (argon: 0.44, hydrogen:
0.29, nitrogen: 0.27) in a 3 m³ vessel at 40 degrees Celsius, if
the total mass of the mixture is 3 kg?
A. 22.75 kPa B. 24.00 kPa
C. 25.09 kPa D. 26.30 kPa
C
You have two containers of equal volume. One is full of
helium gas. The other holds an equal mass of nitrogen gas.
Both gases have the same pressure. How does the
temperature of the helium compare to the temperature of
the nitrogen?
A. Temp. helium > Temp. nitrogen
B. Temp. helium < Temp. nitrogen
C. Temp. helium = Temp. nitrogen
D. Cannot be determined
B
Determine the angle of super elevation for a 200 m highway
curve so that there will be no side thrust at a speed of 90 kph.
A. 14.25 degrees B. 15.80 degrees
C. 17.67 degrees D. 18.10 degrees
C
A ball is kicked such that it leaves the ground at an upwards
angle with an initial velocity of vi. The ball takes 3.1 s to hit the
ground 26 m from where it was kicked. What is the
magnitude of the final velocity of the ball?
A. 13.25 m/s B. 11.25 m/s
C. 17.35 m/s D. 15.35 m/s
C
A marble of mass 0.1 kg falls off a bed with a height of 1.2 m.
What is the impulse on the marble as it hits the ground?
A. 0.49 N·s B. 0.84 N·s C. 2.04 N·s D. 1.74 N·s
A
A box is projected up a long ramp (incline angle with the
horizontal = 37°) with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If the surface
of the ramp is very smooth (essentially frictionless), how high
up the ramp will the box go, and what distance along the
ramp will it slide?
A. h = 8.3 m, d = 5.0 m
C. h = 8.5 m, d = 8.3 m
B. h = 5.0 m, d = 8.3 m
D. h = 5.0 m, d = 8.5 m
B
A car of mass 1000 kg is traveling around a circular track with
a radius of 50 meters at a speed of 20 m/s. What is the
centrifugal force acting on the car?
A. 9000 N B. 8000 N C. 7000 N D. 6000 N
B
A block of mass m = 0.05 kg oscillates on a spring whose
force constant k = 500 N/m. The amplitude of the oscillations
is 4.0 cm. Calculate the maximum speed of the block.
A. 2 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 5 m/s
C
Starting with zero initial angular velocity, a sphere begins to
spin with constant angular acceleration about an axis
through its center, achieving an angular velocity of 10 rad/s
when its angular displacement is 20 rad. What is the value of
the sphere’s angular acceleration?
A. 1.5 rad/s² B. 2.0 rad/s²
C. 2.5 rad/s² D. 3.0 rad/s²
C
A wire has a length of 10 m and a cross-sectional area of 20
mm². When a 20 kg block of lead is attached to it, it stretches
by 2.5 cm. Find Young’s modulus for the wire.
A. 3.92 × 10⁹ Pa B. 3.75 × 10⁹ Pa
C. 4.10 × 10⁹ Pa D. 4.25 × 10⁹ Pa
A
The total energy of a particle executing SHM of period 2π s is
0.256 J. The displacement of the particle at π/4 s is 8√2 cm.
Calculate the mass of the particle.
A. 18.5 kg B. 20.0 kg C. 21.5 kg D. 23.0 kg
B
A piece of wood 1 ft square and 10 ft long, weighing 40 lb/ft3,
is submerged vertically in a body of water, its upper end
being flush with the water surface. What vertical force is
required to hold it in position?
A. 210 lb B. 250 lb C. 238 lb D. 224 lb
D
Calculate the pressure in the hose whose absolute pressure
is 1.01 x 105 N.m-2 if the speed of the water in the hose
increases from 1.96 m.s-1 to 25.5 m.s-1. Assume that the flow
is frictionless and density 103 kg.m-3.
A. 3.85 × 10^5 N/m^2 B. 4.24 × 10^5 N/m^2
C. 4.68 × 10^5 N/m^2 D. 5.12 × 10^5 N/m^2
B
Consider the charge configuration as shown in the figure.
Calculate the electric field at point A. If an electron is placed
at points A, what is the acceleration experienced by this
electron? (mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg and charge of
electron = −1.6 × 10-19 C)
A.
-3.50 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
B.
-3.80 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
C.
-4.10 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
D.
-3.95 × 10²⁰ ( î + ĵ ) N
D
A tightly wound solenoid has a length of 30 cm, a diameter of
2 cm, and contains a total of 10,000 turns. If it carries a
current of 5 A, what’s the magnitude of the magnetic field
inside the solenoid?
A. 1.8 T B. 3.4 T C. 2.4 T D. 0.2 T
D
A circular table top is located 4 m below and 3 m to the left
of a lamp that emits 1800 lumens. What is the illumination on
the surface of the table? What is the area of the table top if 3
lumens of flux falls on its surface?
A. 3.95 lux, 0.712 m² B. 6.20 lux, 0.475 m²
C. 5.12 lux, 0.589 m² D. 4.58 lux, 0.655 m²
D
What is the energy of light with a wavelength of 600 nm?
A. 2.75 × 10^(-19) J B. 3.31 × 10^(-19) J
C. 4.12 × 10^(-19) J D. 5.28 × 10^(-19) J
B
Which of the following is a series of constant cash flows that
occur at the end of each period indefinitely?
A. Ordinary annuity B. Annuity due
C. Perpetuity D. None of the above
C
A telephone company purchased a microwave radio
equipment for P6M. Freight and installation charges
amounted to 3% of the purchased price. If the equipment
shall be depreciated over a period of 8 years with a salvage
value of 5%, determine the depreciation charge during the
5th year using the Sum of Year Digit Method.
A. P652,333.33 B. P648,750.25
C. P659,200.00 D. P645,999.75
A
To maintain its newly acquired equipment, the company
needs P40,000 per year for the first five years and P60,000
per year for the next five years. In addition, an amount of
P140,000 would also be needed at the end of the fifth and the
eighth years. At 6%, what is the present worth of these costs?
A. P689,214 B. P512,453
C. P549,812 D. P586,425
C
What is an example of a decision made under certainty?
A. Man stealing money from a store
B. Consumer buying goods with uncertain outcomes
C. Farmers deciding on crop growing time periods
D. Manager predicting future market trends
C
The decision matrix shown consists of cost elements.
Determine the alternative to be chosen using the Hurwicz
Principle with α = 0.3.
A. Alternative 1
B. Alternative 2
C. Alternative 3
D. Alternative 4
B
A company is uncertain how many units of a new product
can be sold each year. To determine its sensitivity to varying
annual sales volumes, cost estimates for manufacturing the
product were found to be as follows:
Direct materials: Php 5.00 per unit
Direct labor: Php 11.00 per unit
Overhead: Php 25,000 + Php 3.50 per unit
In addition, new equipment costing Php 160,000 will be
needed. It is expected that it would be used for 10 years with
a salvage value of Php 30,000 at the end of that time. A
market study indicates that the product will sell for Php 28.00
per unit. Money is worth 12% to the company before taxes. If
there is uncertainty as to the economic life of the equipment,
determine the rate of return if the economic life is 6 years.
A. 12.00% B. 8.75% C. 5.38% D. 3.92%
C
What theory promotes the idea that management is an
interrelated component of an organization?
A. Quantitative Theory
B. Management Relations Theory
C. Modern Management Theories
D. Systems Theory
D
Match the items of List-II with List-I and choose the correct
code:
A. (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
B. (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
C. (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
D. (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
A
Refers to the management function that involves
anticipating future trends and determining the best
strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
B
Mark was running a media company. He observed that the
performance of the employee was not up to the mark. So, he
performed a function of management which reviews the
operations in a business unit:
A. Planning
B. Organising
C. Directing
D. Controlling
D
In a manufacturing concern, division of work into key
functions will include production, purchase, marketing,
accounts, and personnel. These departments may be further
divided into sections. Which type of structure is highlighted
here?
A. Divisional structure C. Rational structure B. Functional structure
D. More than one of the above
B
Refers to the process of determining the contributions that
subunits can make with allocated resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic Planning
D. Secondary Planning
B
Which of the following best differentiates quality control in
product operations from service operations?
A. Product quality is judged by customer perception, while
service quality is based on defect rates.
B. Product quality follows set standards, service quality
depends more on customer experience.
C. Both product and service quality are measured using the
same objective criteria.
D. Service quality is easier to control than product quality due
to real-time adjustments.
B
Which one of the following is related to the control function of
the financial manager?
A. To negotiate with bankers for a loan.
B. To analyse variance between standard costs and actual
costs.
C. To estimate the future cash flows from a proposed project
to be done.
D. To advertise the public issue of the firm.
B
Financial Management indicates
.
__________
A. Aspects of anticipating, acquiring, and allocating financial
resources
B. Arranging short-term funding while overlooking long-term
capital requirements
C. Managing operational expenses without considering
financial growth strategies
D. Focusing solely on maximizing immediate profits without
financial planning
A
Customer value proposition ___________
.
A. Determines what each customer is worth
B. Relates to the benefits customers receive
C. Is unimportant in marketing
D. Is only important in the long run
B
Which form of business ownership provides limited liability to
its owners and has a separate legal identity from them?
A. Sole Proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Joint Venture
C
Rapid integration or inter-connection among countries is
known as:
A. Communism
B. Liberalisation
C. Socialisation
D. Globalisation
D
Positive external factors the company can exploit to
accomplish its mission, goals, and objectives.
A. strengths B. opportunities
C. threats D. weaknesses
B
The most important advantage of having core
competencies is having this.
A. Choosing the product or service
B. Core competency trunk
C. No correct answer
D. Long-term competitive advantage
D
Can be applied to both traditional brick-and-mortar stores
and e-commerce businesses alike. Essentially, the customer
makes a recurring payment for ongoing access to a service
or product. A company may directly ship its product in the
mail, or you may pay a fee to use its services.
A. Fee-for-service B. Subscription
C. Manufacturing D. Retail
B
Which among the following is NOT a correct statement
regarding patents?
A. A patent is a legal protection granted for an invention that
is new, non-obvious, and useful.
B. The patent grants the patent holder the exclusive right to
make, use, or sell the patented product or process.
C. The exclusive purpose of the patent system is to benefit
the patent holder.
D. Patents have a limited duration and expire after a certain
period.
C
The company’s business model and basis for competitive
edge.
A. Business and Industry Profile B. Marketing Strategy
C. Executive Summary D. Business Strategy
C
To show how successfully your business performed during a
period of time, you would report its revenues and expenses in
the:
A. Balance sheet C. Statement of cash flows B. Income statement
D. Retained earnings statement
B
Copyrights, Patents, and Trademarks are examples of:
A. Current assets B. Fixed assets
C. Intangible assets D. Investments
C
A carnot engine receives 100 kJ from a hot reservoir at 370oC
and rejects 37kJ of heat. Determine the temperature of the
cold reservoir.
A.
-35C B. 100C C. 130C D. 230C
A
In a nuclear chain reaction, what triggers the continuous
fission process?
A. The release of neutrons that cause further fission reactions
B. The emission of gamma rays
C. The movement of electrons in the atom
D. The absorption of protons
A
Copper has a free electron density of 8.5×1028 electrons per
cubic meter. Calculate the Fermi energy of copper.
A. 7.05 eV
B. 6.50 eV
C. 8.20 eV
D. 5.75 eV
A
A wire with a length of 2.01 m and a diameter of 304 cm is
stretched across a room where the ambient temperature is
15.07°C. The surface temperature of the wire is measured to
be 152°C. The voltage drop across the wire is 60.02 V, and the
current flowing through it is 1.506 A. Calculate the convection
heat transfer coefficient between the outer surface of the
wire and the surrounding air.
A. 34.9 W/m²·°C C. 42.5 W/m²·°C B. 25.7 W/m²·°C
D. 30.2 W/m²·°C
A
In a particular circuit, a battery with an emf of 12 V is
connected to a 40 Ω resistor and a 5 mH inductor in series.
How much energy is stored in the inductor’s magnetic field
when the current reaches its maximum steady-state value?
A. 2.3 × 10⁻³ J B. 2.3 × 10⁻⁴ J
C. 2.3 × 10⁻⁵ J D. 2.3 × 10⁻⁶ J
B
If charges q1 = 4 × 10–9 C and q2 = –6 × 10–9 C are stationary,
calculate the potential at Point B in the figure below:
A. -900 V
B. -450 V
C. -500 V
D. -750 V
A
A conductor moves with a velocity of 15 m/s at an angle of
60o to a magnetic field produced between two square-faced
poles of side length 2 cm. If the flux leaving a pole face is 5
μWb, find the magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in each case.
A. 2.75 mV B. 3.00 mV C. 3.25 mV D. 3.50 mV
C
What current must flow if 0.24 Coulombs is to be transferred
in 15 ms?
A. 12 A B. 14 A C. 16 A D. 18 A
C
A parallel-plate capacitor has a separation distance of 0.2
mm and an area of 10cm^2 on each plate. A polystyrene
dielectric is placed between the plates with a dielectric
strength of 2.6. Determine the capacitance of the parallel
plate capacitor.
A. 0.22x10-6 F C. 0.11x10-6 F B. 0.15x10-9 F
D. 0.12x10-9 F
D
What is the frequency of light if its energy is 5 × 10^(-19) J?
A. 6.12 × 10^14 Hz B. 7.55 × 10^14 Hz
C. 8.32 × 10^14 Hz D. 9.21 × 10^14 Hz
B
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
A. The attraction of neutral metal atoms.
B. The attraction between positive metal ions and
interlocking electrons.
C. The attraction between protons and neutrons.
D. The attraction between positive metal ions and free-
floating electrons.
D
The unit cell of a certain type of crystal is defined by three
vectors a, b, and c. The vectors are mutually perpendicular,
but a ≠ b ≠ c. The crystal structure is:
A. More than one of the choices B. Tetragonal
C. Orthorhombic D. Triclinic
C
Given a stress-strain diagram below, what is Point C?
A. Proportional Limit
B. Minimum Point
C. Elastic Limit
D. Yield Point
D
The presence of extra atoms between the regular atoms of
the crystal as an interstitial in a semiconductor is known as
a/an ___________
defect.
A. Frenkel B. Avalanche C. Tunnel D. Schottky
A
Consider the following statements for a composite material:
1. It is considered to be any multiple materials that exhibit a
significant proportion of the properties of both constituents.
2. Constituent phases in a composite must be chemically
similar.
3. A matrix combined with a reinforcing material is used in
the composite.
4. Thermosetting epoxy resin is used as the matrix for some
kinds of composition.
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4
C
Given the statements, choose the correct option:
Statement (I): Metals are extremely good conductors of
electricity and heat and are not transparent to visible light.
Statement (II): Ceramics are compounds between metallic
and non-metallic elements.
A. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true
and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).
B. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true,
but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement
(I).
C. Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
D. Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
B
With the rise of temperature, the conductivity of a
semiconductor:
A. Remains unchanged B. Decreases
C. Increases D. Nothing is certain
C
Which of the following is correct related to the properties of a
good insulating material?
A. Having high dielectric strength, very low dissipation factor,
and high operating temperature limit
B. Having low dielectric strength, very low dissipation factor,
and high operating temperature limit
C. Having high dielectric strength, very high dissipation
factor, and low operating temperature limit
D. Having low dielectric strength, very high dissipation factor,
and low operating temperature limit
A
What is the role of abstraction in OOP?
A. To hide unnecessary details and model classes based on
essential properties.
B. To increase the complexity of code.
C. To enforce strict typing in programming languages.
D. To allow multiple classes to have the same method
names.
A
The
________
is a graphical modeling language that provides
us with syntax for describing the major elements of software
systems.
A. Universal Modeling Lexicon
B. Unified Mapping Language
C. Universal Markup Language
D. Unified Modeling Language
D
It represents the subsystem that enables software to achieve
user requirements and implement technical frameworks that
meet user needs.
A. Subsystem Layer C. Message Layer B. Class and Object Layer
D. Responsibilities Layer
A
What is that concept in type theory in which a single name
may denote objects of many different classes that are
related by some common super class referred to
.
______
A. Inheritance B. Type Checking
C. Polymorphism D. Generalization
C
If A = 1, B = 1, and N = 5, what will be the final sum?
INPUT A, B, N
F1 = A
F2 = B
S = A + B
FOR K = 3 TO N
F3 = F1 + F2
S = S + (F3 * K)
F1 = F2
F2 = F3
NEXT K
PRINT “Final Sum:”, S
If A = 1, B = 1, and N = 5, what will be the final sum?
A. 30 B. 45 C. 50 D. 60
B
If the input value is N = 1234, what is the output?
INPUT N
REV = 0
WHILE N > 0
DIGIT = N MOD 10
REV = REV * 10 + DIGIT
N = N DIV 10
ENDWHILE
PRINT REV
A. 4321 B. 3412 C. 1243 D. 4231
A
If the input value is N = 7, what is the last printed line?
INPUT N
FOR I = 1 TO 5
PRINT N, “
x “, I, “
= “, N * I
NEXT I
A. 7 x 5 = 35 B. 7 x 4 = 28 C. 7 x 3 = 21 D. 7 x 6 = 42
A
Given the pseudocode below which exception type correctly
handles the error in the pseudocode?
BEGIN
TRY
OPEN file “data.txt” FOR READING
READ value FROM file
PRINT “Value:
“ + value
CATCH
(1) FileNotFoundException
(2) DivisionByZeroException
(3) IndexOutOfBoundsException
(4) NullPointerException
PRINT “An error occurred while reading the file.
“
END TRY
END
A. FileNotFoundException B. DivisionByZeroException
C. IndexOutOfBoundsException D. NullPointerException
A
Which of the following GUI components is used to allow users
to select one option from multiple choices?
A. Checkbox B. Radio Button C. Text Field D. Slider
B
What is the main advantage of using a Graphical User
Interface (GUI) over a Command-Line Interface (CLI)?
A. It requires less memory usage
B. It provides a more user-friendly interaction
C. It can only be used on Windows operating systems
D. It eliminates the need for programming
B
A geographic area where plants, animals, and other
organisms, as well as weather and landscape, work together
to form a bubble of life.
A. Biomass B. Biome C. Ecosystem D. Habitat
C
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
A. Methane B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Ozone D. Nitrogen
D
Which group consists of non-renewable organic resources?
A. Water, air, and minerals
B. Natural gas, oil, and coal
C. Wood, water, and natural pastures
D. Sand, air, and clay
B
_______
occurs when livestock, such as cattle or sheep,
consume vegetation in an area faster than it can regenerate.
This leads to the removal of the protective cover of
vegetation from the soil, exposing it to erosion by wind and
water.
A. Salinization B. Deforestation
C. Eutrophication D. Overgrazing
D
Which of the following pollutants causes aggravation of
respiratory disease, and atmospheric discoloration?
A. Carbon monoxide B. Lead
C. Nitrogen dioxide D. Ozone
C
Which of the following statements about the effects of noise
pollution are correct?
A. Noise pollution can lead to hearing loss over time.
B. It can disturb wildlife and change animal behaviors.
C. It contributes to global warming.
D. Noise pollution can increase stress and anxiety levels.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
A. Only B and C B. Only A, C, and D
C. Only A, B, and D D. Only A, B, C, and D
C
Is the process by which the anticipated effects on the
environment of a proposed development or project are
measured
A. Environmental impact assessment
B. Sustainable waste impact
C. Ecological and social assessment
D. Comprehensive environmental analysis
A
Prepareing of an EIA report for decision making and submit
to the local management authority:
A. Screening B. Scoping
C. Screening D. Reporting
D
Which one of the above is/is not a sustainable growth
goal(s)?
A. Maintain the family planning program’s implementation.
B. Maintain dynamic stability of arable land of at least 123
million hectares, as well as an agricultural development
strategy.
C. Preserve a dynamic water resource balance by lowering
water usage per unit of gross domestic product (GDP and
agricultural additional value).
D. To lead about such a substantial, though not always
disastrous, change in the environment.
D
What is the total number of the Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) set by UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development?
A. 12 B. 17 C. 15 D. 19
B
What is the Section 11 of RA 9292?
A. Removal of Board Members
B. Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support
Services
C. Compensation and Allowances of the Board
D. Term of Office
A
A fire detection and alarm system component that can be
individually identified by its status or used to individually
control other functions.
A. Conventional Device B. Annunciator
C. Semi-addressable Device D. Addressable Device
D
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Fire Detection
and Alarm System (FDAS)?
A. Automatic detection and manual fire alarm signal
initiation
B. Activation of fire alarm notification appliances
C. Monitoring of weather conditions
D. Transmission of alarm signal to an off-premises Central
Station
C
What is the Section 22 of RA 9292?
A. Term of Office B. Professional Oath
C. Practice of the Profession D. Foreign Reciprocity
B
This type of riser usually extends from the ground to the roof
top of the building with no floor separation similar to a
ventilating shaft.
A. Open Riser C. Top Riser B. Closed Riser
D. Bottom Riser
A
Based on PEC 1, which of the following is NOT a type of
telecommunication pathway?
A. Backbone Pathway
B. Horizontal Pathway
C. Building Pathway
D. Data Decoder Pathway
D
It is a type of DAS design in which it uses purely passive
components and no line amplifier used on the system
components.
A. Semi Passive DAS Solution C. Pure Active DAS Solution B. Pure Yielding DAS Solution
D. Passive DAS Solution
D
Which type of antenna is installed on building corners, long
hallways, and places to help fill the shadow area that the
Omni antenna failed to cover?
A. Yagi Antenna C. Dipole Antenna B. Panel Directional Antenna
D. Parabolic Dish Antenna
B
What is the Article 7 of RA 9292?
A. Qualifications of Board Members
B. Powers and Functions of the Board
C. Removal of Board Members
D. Transitory Provisions
D
The Philippine Electronics Code Book 2 is
A. Cable Television System
B. Telecommunications Facilities Distribution System
C. Distributed Antenna System
D. Fire Detection and Alarm System
D
AutoCAD commands can be accessed in,
A. Drawing area B. Status bar
C. Tool bars D. Command window
D
The end point osnap shortcut is END and is indicated by a:
A. Small triangle B. Small square
C. Small circle D. None of these
B
