GD (PRELIM) Flashcards

1
Q

What is Group Dynamics?

A

Interpersonal processes that occur within and between groups; also the scientific study of those processes.

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2
Q

What are Groups?

A

Two or more individuals connected by social relationships, varying in size from dyads and triads to large aggregations.

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3
Q

What are the four basic types of groups?

A
  • Primary Groups
  • Social Groups
  • Collectives
  • Social Category
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4
Q

What characterizes Primary Groups?

A

Relatively small personally meaningful groups that are highly unified, such as family and friends.

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5
Q

What characterizes Social Groups?

A

Includes work groups, clubs, and congregations that interact over an extended period.

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6
Q

What characterizes Collectives?

A

Relatively large groups displaying similarities in actions and outlook, like audiences or queues.

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7
Q

What is a Social Category?

A

Groups that share a common attribute influencing social identity and stereotypes.

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8
Q

What distinguishes one group from another?

A
  • Composition
  • Boundaries
  • Size
  • Interdependence
  • Structure
  • Goals
  • Origin
  • Unity
  • Entitativity
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9
Q

What is Group Cohesion?

A

The integrity, solidarity, and unity of the group.

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10
Q

What are the sources of Group Cohesion?

A
  • Social Cohesion
  • Task Cohesion
  • Collective Cohesion
  • Emotional Cohesion
  • Structural Cohesion
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11
Q

What is the first stage of Tuckman’s Five-Stage Model?

A

Orientation (Forming) Stage.

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12
Q

What occurs in the Conflict (Storming) Stage of group development?

A

Disagreement over procedures and expression of dissatisfaction.

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13
Q

What is the key focus in the Performance (Performing) Stage?

A

Goal achievement and high task orientation.

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14
Q

What does the Dissolution (Adjourning) Stage involve?

A

Termination of roles and completion of tasks.

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15
Q

What is the Punctuated Equilibrium Model?

A

Suggests groups move through periods of accelerated change.

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16
Q

What are the positive consequences of cohesion?

A
  • Increased member satisfaction
  • Decreased turnover
  • Decreased stress
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17
Q

What is the relationship between cohesion and performance?

A

Success increases group cohesion, and cohesive groups perform better.

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18
Q

Do initiations increase cohesion?

A

Yes, methods like initiations can increase a group’s level of cohesion.

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19
Q

What does Festinger’s theory of cognitive dissonance suggest?

A

Initiations create dissonance that new members resolve by increasing their commitment to the group.

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20
Q

What is the difference between Individualism and Collectivism?

A
  • Individualism: Emphasis on personal goals
  • Collectivism: Emphasis on group goals
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21
Q

What does Social Identity Theory involve?

A

Development of Collective Identity through categorization and identification.

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22
Q

What is the Minimax Principle?

A

Preference for relationships that provide maximum rewards with minimal costs.

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23
Q

Fill in the blank: The Law of Interaction states that behavior (B) is a function of personal qualities (P) and the _______ (E).

A

social environment

24
Q

True or False: Prolonged isolation is rewarding.

25
Q

What influences why people join groups?

A

Personality, motivations, and expectations.

26
Q

What is the principle of reciprocity?

A

The tendency for liking to be met with liking in return.

27
Q

What are the micro-level factors in group dynamics?

A

Qualities, characteristics, and actions of individual members.

28
Q

What are qualitative studies in group dynamics?

A

Collection of descriptive data about groups.

29
Q

What is the goal of quantitative studies?

A

Enumeration and quantification of the phenomena of interest.

30
Q

What is the primary purpose of using multiple choice questions?

A

To assess knowledge and understanding in a clear format.

31
Q

True or False: Multiple choice questions can only have one correct answer.

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of a multiple choice question?

A

A narrative explanation

33
Q

Fill in the blank: A multiple choice question typically consists of a stem and _____ options.

34
Q

What is the term for the correct answer in a multiple choice question?

35
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiple choice questions?

A

They may encourage guessing.

36
Q

What is a distractor in multiple choice questions?

A

An incorrect answer option.

37
Q

True or False: Multiple choice questions can be used for both formative and summative assessments.

38
Q

Which type of multiple choice question allows for more than one correct answer?

A

Multiple response question

39
Q

What should be avoided when writing the distractors?

A

Using similar wording to the correct answer.

40
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ is the question part of a multiple choice item.

41
Q

In a well-constructed multiple choice question, how many distractors should there typically be?

A

Three to four

42
Q

What is the primary benefit of using multiple choice questions in exams?

A

Efficiency in grading.

43
Q

True or False: All distractors should be plausible to avoid giving away the correct answer.

44
Q

Which of the following is a best practice in designing multiple choice questions?

A

Avoiding negative phrasing in the stem.

45
Q

What is the term for the process of analyzing the effectiveness of multiple choice questions after an assessment?

A

Item analysis

46
Q

Fill in the blank: Multiple choice questions can be used to assess _____ knowledge.

47
Q

Which of the following is an example of a poorly constructed multiple choice question?

A

What color is the sky? a) Blue b) Green c) Large d) Red

48
Q

True or False: Multiple choice questions can assess higher-order thinking skills.

49
Q

What is the recommended approach to writing options for multiple choice questions?

A

Keep them similar in length and complexity.

50
Q

Which of the following strategies can help reduce guessing in multiple choice exams?

A

Providing clear, well-defined options.

51
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ is the part of the question that provides the context or scenario.

52
Q

What is a common mistake when creating multiple choice questions?

A

Including ambiguous terms in the stem.

53
Q

True or False: The order of answer options should be randomized to reduce bias.

54
Q

Which of the following is a key advantage of multiple choice questions?

A

They provide immediate feedback.

55
Q

In which context are multiple choice questions most often used?

A

Standardized testing