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EP DOC 2025 exam > GCSE PE > Flashcards

GCSE PE Flashcards

1
Q

What is a balanced diet?

A

Eating the right amount for energy expenditure, the right amount for calories, according to how much you are exercising and different food types.

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2
Q

Explain hydration

A

Having enough water to enable normal functioning of the body.

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3
Q

Where are simple carbohydrates found?

A

In foods such as sugar, milk and fruit.

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4
Q

Where are complex carbohydrates found?

A

In foods such bread, pasta, potatoes, rice, pulses.

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5
Q

What is carbo-loading?

A

Eating foods that are high in starch to increase carbohydrate reserves in muscles.

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6
Q

What are minerals?

A

Inorganic substances which assist the body with many of its functions- such as bone formation (calcium)

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7
Q

What is the role of fats?

A

Fats are a source of energy that also help to insulate the body and keep the body temperature at the right level.

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8
Q

What is dehydration?

A

Excessive loss of body water interrupting the function of the body.

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9
Q

What does viscosity mean?

A

The thickening of the blood.

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10
Q

List the different food groups

A

Proteins, fats, carbohydrate, fibre, minerals, vitamins and water

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11
Q

How is unused energy stored in the body?

A

In the form of fat.

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12
Q

What is a somatotype?

A

A method of classifying body type into the three categories of ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph.

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13
Q

Explain the characteristics of a ectomorph

A

Narrow shoulders, narrow hips. Tend to be tall and thin, lightly muscled. Suited for endurance type events.

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14
Q

Explain the characteristics of a mesomorph

A

Muscular appearance with wide shoulders and narrow hips. Mesomorphs tend to have a muscular, athletic build with little body fat and gain muscle relatively easily. Suited to sports requiring speed, strength and power.

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15
Q

Explain the characteristics of a endomorph

A

Pear-shaped body with wide hips and narrow shoulders. Rounded appearance, has trouble loosing weight but can gain muscle. Endomorphs are suited to sports which do not require high levels of speed or mobility

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16
Q

Define obesity

A

A term for people who are overweight, caused by an imbalance of calories consumed to energy expended. A BMI of over 30.

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17
Q

What are the mental and social factors of being obese?

A

Increase chance of depression, loss of confidence, inability to socialise, inability to leave home (extreme)

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18
Q

What are the physical and fitness factors of being obese?

A

Limit stamina, flexibility, agility and speed/power. Increases chances of cancer, increase chances of Heart attacks, Increased chance of diabetes, increase chance of high cholesterol.

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19
Q

<p><strong>What are the Functions of the Skeleton?</strong></p>

A

<p><strong>Support</strong> - Keep us upright and hold the rest of the body in place</p>

<p><strong>Protection </strong>- Protect the bodies organs from external forces e.g. cranium protects the brain</p>

<p><strong>Movement </strong>- provides anchor point of muscles to pull against</p>

<p><strong>Structure shape and points for attachment </strong>- skeleton gives us our general shape such as height and build. Also provides anchor points for muscle attachement</p>

<p><strong>Mineral Storage </strong>- Bones store several mineral including calcium and phosphorous</p>

<p><strong>Blood Cell Production</strong> - inner marrow of the long bones and ribs produce red and white blood cells</p>

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20
Q

<p>What is the definition of Support?</p>

A

<p>Bones keep us upright and hold muscles and organs in place</p>

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21
Q

<p>What does Protection mean?</p>

A

<p>Some bones surrond and protect vital organs from damage</p>

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22
Q

<p>What are long bones?</p>

A

<p>The bones of the legs and arms. Long bones support the weight of the body and help with gross movements</p>

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23
Q

<p>What are articulating bones? Provide an example.</p>

A

<p>Where two or more bones meet to allow movement at a joint. EG- humerus and radius/ulna.</p>

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24
Q

<p>Explain the term flexion</p>

A

<p>Decreasing the angle of the bones at a joint.</p>

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25
Q

<p>Explain the term extension</p>

A

<p>Increasing the angle of bones at a joint.</p>

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26
Q

<p>Explain the term abduction</p>

A

<p>Movement away from the midline of the body</p>

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27
Q

<p>Explain the term adduction</p>

A

<p>Movement towards the midline of the body.</p>

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28
Q

<p>Explain the movement plantar flexion</p>

A

<p>Pointing the toes at the ankle.</p>

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29
Q

<p>What are ligaments?</p>

A

<p>Bands of fibres that are attached to the bones and link the joints together.</p>

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30
Q

<p>What are tendons?</p>

A

<p>Very strong cords that join the muscles to the bone</p>

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31
Q

<p>What is an eccentric contraction?</p>

A

<p>Lengthening of the muscles</p>

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32
Q

<p>What is a concentric contraction</p>

A

<p>Shortening of the muscles</p>

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33
Q

<p>Explain the term agonist</p>

A

<p>Muscle or group of muscles responsible for movement.</p>

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34
Q

<p>Explain the term antagonist</p>

A

<p>Muscles that act to produce the opposite movement to the agonist. They work in antagonistic pairs.</p>

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35
Q

Justify why agility is required by a rugby player

A

Needs to change direction to avoid a tackler or to perform a side-step.

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36
Q

What are the two types of Balance and what is the difference between them?

A

Static Balance (balancing whilst still)Dynamic balance (maintaining balance whilst moving)

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37
Q

Justify why Balance in gymnastics is particularly important when performing a handstand

A

The position of a handstand has to be held whilst maintaining control, e.g. no wobbles.

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38
Q

Cardio-vascular endurance is particularly important for which sports performers?

A

Sports performers who perform long, enduring events and use the aerobic energy system (using oxygen).

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39
Q

Explain why a Javelin thrower does not require cardio-vascular endurance?

A

As an event, javelin lasts only a few seconds and is explosive/powerful. It does not matter if a javelin thrower can supply oxygen to the working muscles for a long period of time.

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40
Q

Give an example of co-ordination being used within sport.

A

Hitting a cricket ball with a bat (hand-eye-co-ordination)Kicking a football (foot-eye coordination)arms and legs when dribbling a basketball (arms-legs co-ordination).

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41
Q

Explain why a gymnast requires Flexibility

A

A gymnast usually needs a good range of movement in many of their joints to create the shapes and moves required in a floor routine, e.g. performing the splits.

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42
Q

Explain why rowers require muscular endurance

A

Rowers perform repeated contractions causing their limbs to carry out the strokes required.

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43
Q

Give an example of Power/explosive strength being used within sport

A

to generate power whilst kicking a football - kicking strength, moving at speed.to release a discus with power - releasing with strength, moving the arm at speed.

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44
Q

Explain why reaction time is important to a sprinter.

A

The reaction time in sprinting is the time between the gun going off and the sprinter starting to initiate a response (starting to run). The quicker the reaction time the more advantage the sprinter gains.

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45
Q

What is the definition of Health

A

A state of complete physical,mental and social well being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

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46
Q

What is the definition of Fitness

A

The ability to meet/cope with the demands of the environment.

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47
Q

A person who trains regularly and has a high level of fitness will definitely not catch any illness or disease, True or False?

A

False, they would be less likely to catch some illnesses or diseases.

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48
Q

Define Agility

A

The ability to move and change direction quickly (at speed) whilst maintaining control.

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49
Q

Define Balance

A

Maintaining the centre of mass over the base of support.

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50
Q

Define Cardio-vascular endurance

A

The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles.

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51
Q

Define Co-ordination

A

The ability to use different (two or more) parts of the body together smoothly and efficiently.

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52
Q

Define Flexibility

A

The range of movement possible at a joint.

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53
Q

Define Muscular endurance

A

Ability of a muscle or muscle group to undergo repeated contractions avoiding fatigue.

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54
Q

Define Power/explosive power

A

The product of strength and speed, i.e. strength x speed.

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55
Q

Define Reaction time

A

The time taken to initiate a response to a stimulus.

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56
Q

Define Speed

A

The maximum rate at which an individual is able to perform a movement or cover a distance in a period of time. Distance divided by time.

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57
Q

Define Strength

A

The ability to overcome a resistance.

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58
Q

Define Skill

A

A learned action/behaviour with the intention of bringing about predetermined results with maximum certainity and minimum outlay of time and energy

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59
Q

Define Abilities

A

Inherited from your parents, abilities are stable traits that determine an individual’s potential to learn or acquire skills

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60
Q

Give an example of a sporting skill

A

passing the ball in netball or shooting in football

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61
Q

Give 3 examples of abilities

A

Balance, agility and coordination are abilities that you are born with

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62
Q

Give an example of how abilities can help learners perform skills.

A

Greater inherited balance will help a gymnast learned the skills required on a balance beam.

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63
Q

Name the 4 groups that skill is classified into when learning a skill

A

The basic _________complex continuumThe open __________closed continuumThe self-paced ______externally paced continuumThe gross _________ fine continuum

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64
Q

What are the characteristics of a basic skill?

A

Few decisions to be madeFew decisions actually affect the success of the movementTend to be taught as a beginnerLearned fairly quickly

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65
Q

Give examples of basic skills?

A

Walking, forward roll, jumping

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66
Q

What are the characteristics of a complex skill?

A

Complex decision makingLots of decisions to be made in order to be succesfulTend to be taught after experiencing success in basic skillsCan take considerable time to master

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67
Q

Give examples of complex skills.

A

High Jump - requires coordinated running in an accurate bend, foloowed by a correctly timed jump and an effective body position to clear the bar.A layup in basketball - requires coordinated running whilst dribbling the ball with a correct step pattern as approach the basket plus the ability to release the ball at its highest point at the correct point of the backboard for it to be successful.

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of an Open skill?

A

Unstable environmentThe way you do the skill is affected by people around youYou can change the way you usually do the skill because of the environment eg where your oponents are.The skill is often externally paced.

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69
Q

Give examples of an open skill.

A

A football pass is carried out in a certain way to avoid oncoming opponents. eg chip or pass around them,

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70
Q

What are the characteristics of a closed skill?

A

Stable environmentThe way you do the skill is not affacted by people around you.You will not change how you do the skill, it will be the same each timeThe skill is typically self-paced.

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71
Q

Give examples of closed skills

A

A somersault in gymnastics. You would try and replicate the skill in the same way each timeA Javelin throw is replicated each time, there is nothing to affect the throw

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72
Q

Define Open Skill

A

A skill which is performed in a certain way to deal with a changing or unstable environment. eg to outwit an opponent

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73
Q

Define Closed Skill

A

A skill which is not affected by the environment or perfoers within it. It tends to be done the same way each time.

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74
Q

What is the ‘environment’ in the context of learning a skill?

A

It is the situation in which the skill is being performed. eg who is there, what are they doing?

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75
Q

Define Self Paced Skill

A

The skill is started when the performer decides to start it. The speed, rate or pace of the skill is controlled by the performer.

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76
Q

Define Externally Paced Skill

A

The skill is started because of an external factor. The speed rate or pace of the skill is controlled by external factors. eg an opponent.

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77
Q

What are the characteristics of a Self-paced skill?

A

The start of the movement si controlled by the performerThe speed, pace or rate of the movement is controlled by you

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78
Q

Give examples of Self-paced movements

A

When receiving a badminton shot you only start your return shotafter the oppponent has performed their serve.When marking an opponent in netball, your movement is affected by the movement of your opponent.

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79
Q

What are the characteristics of a Gross skill?

A

Involves big movements of the bodyInvolves the use of large muscle groups. Movements tend not to rely on accuracy and precision,

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80
Q

Give examples of Gross skills

A

kicking a ball, running, throwing a javelin

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81
Q

What are the characteristics of a fine skill?

A

Involves small, precise movementsInvolves the use of small muscle groupsMovements tend to involve precision and accuracy

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82
Q

Give examples of a fine skill

A

Archery, Table tennis block shot, darts

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83
Q

Classify the following and justify your answer.A javelin Throw

A

Javelin Throw - Closed skill - remains the same each time not affected by outside factors, Gross Skill - performer uses large muscle groups to run and throw the javelinSelf paced skill - Performer decides when to start the run up and how fast to runComplex skill - requires coordinated running followed by a correctly timed throw.

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84
Q

Why do athletes use Goal setting?

A

For Motivation purposesA target to aspire to.Helps performer perform both mentally and physically.

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85
Q

What is a performance goal?

A

Personal stanards to be achieved. The performer compares thier performance against what they have already done or suggests what they are going to do. There is no comparison with other performers

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86
Q

What is an outcome goal?

A

Focus on end result eg winning

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87
Q

Give a examples of a performance goal for a 100m runner

A

May hope for a better start than the last raceMay aim to time their ‘dip well’ (better than last time) when crossing the line.

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88
Q

Give some examples of outcome goals for a footballer.

A

Wish to win a matchWish to score 2 goals to increase the teams goal difference.

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89
Q

Why should beginners generally avoid outcome goals?

A

Failure can demotiveate them.outcome goals rely on other factors that cannot be controlled. eg other performers

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90
Q

Why do elite athletes set both performance and outcome goals

A

They will set an outcome goal of winning a medal because it motivate them but they will set performance goals to help them achive the outcoem goal.eg Greg Rutherford outcome goal to win a gold medal at 2012 Olympics but set performance goals such as drive hard in sprint and stay tall in the take off.

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91
Q

What is the SMART principle?

A

It is a set of values that is a guide to be followed when setting goals.

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92
Q

What does ‘S’ stand for in the SMART principle used for goal setting? Give an example.

A

Specific - particular to the demands of the sport/muscles used/ movements involved eg in rugby line out jumping increasing the power of the quadriceps to improve the height of the jump.

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93
Q

What does ‘M’ stand for in the SMART principle used for goal setting? Give an example.

A

Measurable - must be possible to measure whether it has been achieved. eg. in 100m sprint timing how long it takes.

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94
Q

What does ‘A’ stand for in the SMART principle used for goal setting? Give an example.

A

Accepted - It must be agreed by the performer and the coach if they have one.eg. the performer will train 3 times aweek.

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95
Q

What does ‘R’ stand for in the SMART principle used for goal setting? Give an example.

A

Realistic - It must actually be possible to complete the goal, that the person is physically capable.eg to improve the peformer 800m time by 0.5 secs in 3 months

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96
Q

What does ‘T’ stand for in the SMART principle used for goal setting? Give an example.

A

Time bound - It must be set over a fixed period of timeeg will be reviewed after 6 months

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97
Q

What performance goals and outcome goals could be set for a complete beginner in badminton?

A

Performance goals: to hit the shuttle more consitently than the last gameOutcome goals: To score a point

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98
Q

What performance goals and outcome goals could be set for an elite level javelin thrower perfroming at the Olympic Games.

A

Performace goals: To beat their personal best throw.Outcome goal: to win Gold

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99
Q

What is information Processing?

A

This is making decisions. It involves gathering data from the display(senses) and prioritising the most important stimuli to make a suitable decision eg chossing a suitable skill.

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100
Q

What is a ‘basic model’ of information

A

This shows the simple processes that a performer carries out in order to decide what skill to use.

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101
Q

Draw the information processing model and give an example at each stage for a sporting skill of your choice.

A

A Smash in BadmintonInput _______Decision making_______Output (seeing the (decide to smash (sends impulseflight of the the shuttle - compare to the musclesshuttle) STM to LTM) to perfom a smash) Feedback ( Recieve feedback about the smash - did it go in, win the point)

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102
Q

What happens at the ‘INPUT’ stage in the information processing model?

A

Performer takes in information form the environment/displayeg what they can here, what they can see, what they can feel.They choose what is the most relevant signal/cue/stimulus piece of information relevant to them at the time.

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103
Q

Give an example of the input stage of a cricketer catching a ball.

A

sight is the most relevant signal, watching the ball fly through the air.

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104
Q

What is selective attention?

A

It is a filtering process whereby the performer picks out the most important parts of the display that rae relevant and discards those that are not. eg cricketer catching a ball will focus on the flight of the ball and filter out the noise of the crowd.

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105
Q

Where does selective attention occur within the information prcessing model.

A

At the Input stage.

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106
Q

What happens at the ‘Decision Making’ stage in the information processing model?

A

The performer selects an appropriate response (movement/skill) from memory: perhaps one they have used before in that situation.

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107
Q

What is the short term memory (STM) ?

A

Working Memory .Information from the display that has been attended to is held in the short-term memory for 30 secs. The information will be lost if you attend to something else.

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108
Q

What is the Long Term memory (LTM)?

A

Holds information that has been that has been rehaersed and stored. If memory or past experience is relevant to what is required at the same time, it is compared to information in the STM so that a suitable decision can be made.

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109
Q

Give an example of decsion making for a cricketer catching a ball.

A

The cricketer will have attended to the sight/flight of the ball in the air. They recall the memory of a previous catch (from LTM) and compares it to what they are currently seeing (STM) so the decsion to catch can take place.

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110
Q

What happens at the ‘Output’ stage in the information processing model?

A

The decision chosen is sent to the appropriate muscles to carry oout a response

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111
Q

Give an example of the output stage for a cricketer catching a ball.

A

Impulse is sent to the arms and hands to startr the appropriate muscular movements for a catch to take place.

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112
Q

What happens at the ‘Feedback’ stage in the information processing model?

A

Informationis received intrinsically (from themselves) and/or from others extrinsically regarding the success(or not) of the action.Feedback may affect how you complete the skill in the future.

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113
Q

Give an example of the feedback stage for a cricketer catching a ball.

A

They can feel the ball in their hands (intrinsic FB) and thay can here theie team mates cheer when they catch it, (extrinsic FB).

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114
Q

What are the 4 types of is Guidance?

A

Guidance is help from an outside source such as your coach. 4 Types are: Visual Guidance; verbal Guidance; Manual Guidnace; Mechanical Guidance.

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115
Q

Why do Beginners and Elite performers need guidance?

A

Beginners- need guidance to allow them to learn and progressElite Performers - need guidance to fine tune performance and stop minor errors

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116
Q

What is Visual Guidance?

A

Guidance that you can see

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117
Q

Who is Visual guidance most useful for?

A

Beginners - so they can start to see and understand what is expected of them. (Elite performers may use it to highlight minor errors)

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118
Q

What are the important points for a good demonstration in visual guidance?

A

ClearRelatively conciseQuickEasy to understandRealistic to the standard of the player to copy.Backed up with simplistic vertbal guidance.

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119
Q

What is Verbal Guidance?

A

Guidance that is provided by another person speaking to you.

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120
Q

Identify different types of visual guidance?

A

Demonstration of technique by another person. DVD, analysis software, slow motion -to show footage of performancePhotosPosters

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121
Q

Expalin what may be involved in verbal guidance?

A

A coach talking to a performer, highlighting techniqueA coach highlighting a key ‘trigger point’ eg ‘point your toes’ when performing an cartwheel.

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122
Q

Who does verbal guidance work for?

A

Elite performers - verbal guidance can be more complex and longer and can be given without a visual demo because elite performers should know what it looks like.Beginners if the verbal guidance relates to the visual demonstration and it is not too long or complex

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123
Q

What is Manual Guidance?

A

Physically moving the performer eg. coach supporting the movement through physical touch.

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124
Q

What is Mechanical Guidance?

A

Using mechanical aids to assist a perfromer eg. Using a float in swimming.

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125
Q

What does Manual guidance involve?

A

Physically guiding the peformerSupporting the performer for safety, so the required movement takes place.(answer is same for mechanical guidance)

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126
Q

What does Mechanical guidance involve?

A

Physically guiding the peformerSupporting the performer for safety, so the required movement takes place.(answer is same for manual guidance)

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127
Q

Class these sporting examples into mechanical or manual guidance.The use of arm bandsThe use of a trampolining harnessHolding a performers wrist in tennis to guide them through the movement of a forehand shot.Standing behind a golfer at the driving range and holding their hands through a golf swing.

A

The use of arm bands - mechanicalThe use of a trampolining harness - mechanicalHolding a performers wrist in tennis to guide them through the movement of a forehand shot. - ManualStanding behind a golfer at the driving range and holding their hands through a golf swing. -Manual

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128
Q

What type of performer are Mechanical and Manual Guidance mostly used. justify your answer.

A

Beginners - help them feel safe and supported. helps them complete the required movement for a skill helps them understand how a movement should feel (intrinsic feedback)Elite - not usually used.

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129
Q

What is Feedback?

A

Information that a performer receives. I can be recieved befor, during or after a performance. It can come for withnin (intrinsic), form others (extrinsic) from resulst/scores(extrinsic)

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130
Q

What are the different types of feedback?

A

Positive/negative.Knowledge of Results/Knowledge of PerformanceExtrinsic/Intrinsic

131
Q

Define Positive feedback and why is it important?

A

Used to inform the athlete what was correct about the movement. Given extrinsically from a coach, fellow performer. Important as a reference point for future attempts. Essential in motivating athletes.

132
Q

Define Negative Feedback and why is it important?

A

Used to inform the athlete of what was incorrect about their movement. important because negative feedback must include information on the action required by the performer to achieve the correct movement.

133
Q

Why should negative Feedback not be used too often with beginners?

A

It can demotivate them, cause them to stop playing, not persevere.

134
Q

Define Knowledge of Results (KR)

A

Feedback about the outcome

135
Q

Give some example of Knowledge of Results

A

Whether or not you scored from a free throw in basketball.What score you recorded in golfWhether your shot in football went in the gaol or notHow quickly you ran 100m

136
Q

Define Knowledge of Performance

A

Feedback about the quality of performance. eg technique, specific aspect of movement you produced regardless of outcome.

137
Q

GIve some examples of Knowledge of Performance

A

The technique used when performing a free throw - excellent elbow extensionYour swing was excellent in that golf shot - great balance.Excellent power through the laces when shooting at goal in football.Quick out of the blocks in 100m with high knee lift.

138
Q

Define Extrinsic feedback

A

Feedback from an external source (important for beginners)

139
Q

Give 4 examples of where extrinsic feedback can come from.

A

Coach/TeacherSpectatorsFellow performerScore ( 10 in ice skating)

140
Q

Define Intrinsic Feedback

A

Feedback from within (Kinaesthetic feel)eg how something feels, information from senses or muscles.

141
Q

Give 3 examples of intrinsic feedback.

A

An elite golfer will know from the ‘feel’ of their swing if it was a good shot.An elite hockey player will know form the ‘feel’ of their shot at goal if they have struck it well or not.An elite tennis player will know from the ‘feel’ of their serve as to whether they have generated enough spin on the ball.

142
Q

A beginner new to a sport requires feedback on their first attempt at hitting a hockey ball. Should Knowledge of results or knowledge of performance be given? Justify your answer.

A

Knowledge of results - They are unable to understand the performance completely but can interpret the outcome eg. They hit the ball.

143
Q

Define Arousal?

A

Arousal is a physiacl and mental state of alertness/excitement varying from deep sleep to intense excitement.

144
Q

What level of arousal do you have when in deep sleep and intense excitement?

A

Low levels of arousal - deep sleepHigh levels of arousal - intense excitement

145
Q

What are the physical signs of arousal?

A

Rise in Heart ratesweatingnausia

146
Q

What Theory is used to explain Arousal?

A

Inverted U Theory

147
Q

Explain how arousal affecs performance according to the Inverted U theory

A

As arousal increases so does performanceUp to the optimal/perfect levelIf arousal increases further performance will decreaseOptimum arousal levels varies for different sporting skills.

148
Q

What level of arousal is required for movementsthat areFine /precise ______________Gross/large Give some sporting examples

A

Low optimum levels of arousal - Fine /precise, needing accuacy eg archery, darts, snookerHigh optimum levels of arousal - Gross/large muscle movementseg rugby tackle, Sprinting, Weightlifting

149
Q

Name 3 different methods used to control arousal

A

Deep Breathing (Physical/somatic)Mental rehearsal/visualisation/imagery (Mental/cognitive)Positive self talk ( Mental Cognitive

150
Q

Explain deep breathing technique used to control arousal.

A

A Physical somatic technique which involves the performer exaggerating their breaths in and out.The top half of the body should be relaxed and slow,deep breaths should be used to allow the performer to control their arousal/nerves. Focus’ the mind before and during performance.

151
Q

Give an example of an elite athlete who uses breathing techniques to control arousal

A

Ronaldo - will deep breathe in preparation for his free kicks. His pose and stance are repeated before each free kick and deep exaggereated breaths help him to focus on the skill he is about to execute.

152
Q

Explain how Mental rehearsal/imagery/visualisation are used to control arousal levels.

A

A mental technique the performer pictures themselves performing the skill perfrectly before attempting it. This mental/cognitive relaxation technique involves control of mental thoughts and imagining positive outcomes.

153
Q

Give an example of an elite athlete who uses mental rehearsal to control arousal levels.

A

Jonny Wilkinson befroe converting a rugby try would visualise the ball going through the posts, this controlled his arousal and focused his mind.

154
Q

Explain how Self- talk is used to control arousal levels.

A

A mental /cognitive technique whereby the performer talks to themselves in their head to reassure themselves. It is usually positive talk and can reassure performers that they are doing well

155
Q

Give some examples of sports performers using self talk.

A

A golfer reassuring themselves that they acn hole a puttAn athlete in the blocks confirming to themselves that they are good enough to winA netballer quietly encouraging herself to score eg come on you can do this.

156
Q

What are the two types of Aggression?

A

Direct aggression Indirect aggression

157
Q

Define ‘Direct aggression’.

A

When there is actual physical contact between players and the aggressor deliberately inflicts harm on thier opponent.

158
Q

Define ‘Indirect aggression’

A

An aggressive act is carried out on an object to gain an advantage over an opponent. They DO NOT physically harm and the act maybe within the rules.

159
Q

Give examples of Direct aggression

A

High rugby tackle with forceA judo performer throwing their opponent illegally and with excessive forceA boxer ounching their opponent below the belt

160
Q

Give examples of Indirect aggression

A

Smashing a badminton shuttle very hard at an opponent to win a popint harming the confidence fo the opponentIn tennis hitting a volley with power to win a point but lowering an oppents confidence.

161
Q

What are the two common types of personality and how are people classified?

A

Introvert and ExtrovertPeople are classified by:How much arousal they need for optimal performanceWhether they need others around them to stimulate them.

162
Q

Describe the characterstics of an ‘Introvert’

A

Quiet, passive, reserved, shy, thoughtful, solitary- usually associated with individual sport

163
Q

Describe the characterstics of an ‘Extrovert’

A

Sociable, active, talkative, outgoing, lack concnetration, seek exciting situations, prone to boredom when isolated. Tend to play team sports

164
Q

Describe the levels of arousal introverts and extroverts need to perform at their optimum and the types of sports the enjoy most.

A

Introverts - low levels of arousal self motivated - play sports where concentration and precision are required. eg archeryExtroverts - high levels of arousal - play team sport which are fast paced, and gross skills are used. eg Rugby.Extroverts are often leaders within a team.

165
Q

Define Motivation

A

The drive to succeed or the desire to achieve somethihng

166
Q

What the two main types of Motivation?

A

Intrinsic and Extrinsic

167
Q

Define Intrinsic Motivation

A

The drive that comes form within the performer.

168
Q

Define Extrinsic Motivation

A

The drive experienced by a performer when striving to achieve a reward (tangible or intangible) from an outside source.

169
Q

Give some examples of tangible rewards

A

Certificates, trophies, medals

170
Q

Give some examples of intangible rewards

A

Praise or feedback from others, applause from the crowd.

171
Q

Why is intrinsic motivation generally seen as more powerful than extrinsic motivation

A

Intinsic motivation more likely to lead to continued effort because the player that is playing for pride is more likely to keep practising and persisiting.Performers can become too reliant on extrinsic motivation they play for rewardsif too many rewards offered it can cause performers to forget why they are playing in the first place.

172
Q

Define a hinge joint

A

joint that allows flexion and extension

173
Q

Define flexion

A

Movement where angle between bones reduces

174
Q

Define extension

A

Movememt where angle between bones increases

175
Q

Define the vertabrae

A

Bones that form the spine/backbone

176
Q

Define the ball and socket joint

A

A joint that allows many movements- flexion and extension; abudction and adduction; and rotation

177
Q

Define range of movement

A

A measure of the flexibilityof a joint in terms of the different movements allowed

178
Q

Define abduction

A

Movement where limbs are moved away from the body

179
Q

Define adduction

A

Movement where limbs are moved towards the body

180
Q

Define rotation

A

Turning a limb along its long axis

181
Q

Define meniscus

A

The cartilage acting as a shock absorber between the tibia and femur at the knee joint

182
Q

Define Cruciate ligament

A

Attatch tibia to femur in the knee joint

183
Q

Define plantar flexion

A

Movement at the ankle where toes are pointed towards the ground

184
Q

Define dorsi flexion

A

Movement at the ankle where the toes are pulled up towards the knee.

185
Q

What is Quantitative data?

A

Data that can be quantified as a number,e.g.time in seconds, or goals scored. No opinion expressed - it is a fact. (Numerical score)

186
Q

What is Qualitative data?

A

Data which is subjective, involving opinions relating to the quality of a performance rather than a quantity. (Descriptive data)

187
Q

Examples of Quantitative data

A

Any reference to numbers/ quantities/ amounts,E.g. - Fitness tests produce numerical scores.- Heart rate is measured in beats per minute (can be plotted on a graph)- Engagement patterns of different social groups could be shown as numerical amounts or percentages.

188
Q

Examples of Qualitative data

A

Any reference to opinion.E.g.- the opinions expressed about the positive or negative impact of commercialisation on a spectator.- the opinions expressed about the merits of extrinsic motivation.- the opinions expressed by different people about what a diet should contain.

189
Q

How is Quantitative data collected?

A

Following methods1) Questionnaires2) Surveys3) Heart rate monitors (to measure HR)4) Stopwatches (e.g. to gain a time in Illinois Agility test)5) Metre Rule (e.g. to gain a score in the reaction time test)

190
Q

How is Qualitative data collected?

A

Following methods1) interviews2) Observations(E.g you may see from an observation that a performer appears to be over aroused- or you may interview a participant who expresses their delight at their score after a fitness test.)

191
Q

How can data be presented?

A

Different formats1) Plotting a basic line chart2) Plotting a basic bar chart3) Labelling the x and y axis correctly on a chart

192
Q

What is a Line chart?

A

The use of plotted points (markers) to show data, which are joined together by a line.

193
Q

What is a Bar chart?

A

The use of rectangular bars which show the data quantities.

194
Q

What is the X axis?

A

Shows the independant variable. Remember X (a cross)(the bottom horizontal one)

195
Q

What is the Y axis?

A

Shows the dependant variable ( the thing you are measuring e.g. heart rate)Remember Y (to the sky!)( the left side vertical one)

196
Q

How do you anayse data?

A

Analyse means break things down into smaller parts or identify smaller parts.

197
Q

How do you evaluate data?

A

Evaluate involves deciding upon the worth of or reasons for something.

198
Q

What does Validity mean?

A

Validity means that the test actually tests what it states it will test.A valid test is one which is appropriate for the sport.

199
Q

What does Reliability mean?

A

Reliability means that if the testis repeated, similar results can be gained.

200
Q

What does Protocol mean?

A

Protocol means what you actually do to carry out the test?Remember to use the correct units when describing a test e.g. one rep max in kilograms (kg)

201
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton

A

1) support2) protection3) movement4) structural shape and points for attatchment 5) mineral storage6) blood cell production

202
Q

Define support

A

Bones keep us upright and hold muscles and organs in place

203
Q

Define protection

A

Some bones surround and protect vital organs from damage

204
Q

Define Long Bones

A

The bones of the legs and arms. Long bones support the weight of the body and help with gross movements

205
Q

Define movement

A

Muscles contract to pull the bones of the skeleton

206
Q

What is the function of Red Blood Cells (RBC)

A

carrying oxygen to the muscles

207
Q

What is the function of White Blood Cells (WBC)

A

Fighting infections

208
Q

Define a joint

A

The place where two or more bones meet

209
Q

Define a synovial joint

A

Type of joint. Commonly found in the limbs; contains a synovial membrane that produces synovial fluid

210
Q

Define cartilage

A

Covers ends of bones providing a smooth, friction free surface

211
Q

Define synovial fluid

A

Produced by the synovial membrane to lubricate the joint

212
Q

Define the capsule

A

Tough fibrous tissue- surrounds synovial joints; usually supported by ligaments

213
Q

Define ligaments

A

Join bone to bone

214
Q

Define dislocation

A

When the bones of a joint separate from there normal position

215
Q

Define the bursae

A

Fluid-filled bag that helps reduce friction in a joint

216
Q

Define a tendon

A

Attatches muscle to bone

217
Q

<p>Which class of lever is the Diagram?</p>

A

<p>1st Class</p>

<p>Fulcrum is in the middle</p>

218
Q

<p>During Plantarflexion of the ankle, what class of lever is being used?</p>

A

<p>2nd Class</p>

<p>Resistance is in the middle</p>

219
Q

<p>How do you work out mechanical advantage?</p>

A

<p>Effort arm / resistance arm</p>

<p></p>

220
Q

<p>What is the benefit of a lever system of having a short effort arm?</p>

A

<p>Gives rapid movements over a large range of movement</p>

221
Q

<p>What is the benefit of a lever system of having a short resistance arm?</p>

A

<p>Able to move a heavy weight</p>

222
Q

<p>Complete this:</p>

<p>1 F T/Neck</p>

<p>2 _ G</p>

<p>_ E _</p>

A

<p></p>

<p>1 F TRICEP/NECK</p>

<p>2L GASTROCNEIMUS</p>

<p>3 EBICEP/ANY OTHER MUSCLE</p>

223
Q

<p>What do you understand by the term 'Antagonistic muscle action'</p>

A

<p>As one muscle contracts the second relaxes</p>

224
Q

<p>Define Isotonic muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Muscle action where the muscle changes length - causing movement</p>

225
Q

<p>Define Isometric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Muscle action where the muscle stays the same length - used in balances e.g. the plank/headstand</p>

226
Q

<p>Define concentric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Isotonic muscle contraction where the muscle shortens</p>

227
Q

<p>Define eccentric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Isotonic contraction where the muscle lengthens - used to control downward movements</p>

228
Q

<p>Which plane is this?</p>

A

<p>Sagittal</p>

229
Q

<p>What does the Transverse plane divide the body into?</p>

A

<p>Top and Bottom</p>

230
Q

<p>Which plane is this?</p>

A

<p>Frontal</p>

231
Q

<p>What action does the Deltoid cause at the shoulder?</p>

A

<p>Flexion</p>

232
Q

<p>If the Shoulder is flexing what is the antagoinistic muscle?</p>

A

<p>Latissimus Dorsi</p>

233
Q

<p>What movements are occuring at the elbow and knee, and which muscles cause them?</p>

A

<p>Elbow - Flexion - Biceps</p>

<p>Elbow - Extension - Triceps</p>

<p>Knee - Extension - Quadriceps</p>

<p>Knee - Flexion - Hamstrings</p>

234
Q

<p>What is the definition of flexion?</p>

A

<p>Decreasing the angle of the joint</p>

235
Q

<p>Which plane and axis does abduction at the shoulder take place in?</p>

A

<p>Frontal Plane</p>

<p>&amp;</p>

<p>Sagittal Axis</p>

236
Q

<p>What movement does the Latissimus Dorsi cause?</p>

A

<p>Adduction of the Shoulder</p>

237
Q

<p>Which Muscle causes Dorsiflexion of the ankle?</p>

A

<p>Anterior Tibialis</p>

238
Q

<p>Which muscle causes rotation of the shoulder?</p>

A

<p>Rotator cuff</p>

239
Q

<p>Name the main agoinst and antagoinst at the elbow joint as movement occurs from A to B</p>

A

<p>Agonist - Tricep</p>

<p>Antagoinst - Bicep</p>

240
Q

<p>What is the antagoinst pair about the hip?</p>

A

<p>Hip Flexors - cause hip flexion</p>

<p>Gluteals - Cause hip extension</p>

241
Q

State 3 reasons for carrying out fitness tests

A
  1. To identify strengths or weaknesses.2. To inform your training requirements.3. To show starting level of fitness.4. To monitor improvement.5.To compare norms of the group/national averages.6. To motivate/set goals.
242
Q

What test would you carry out for Agility?

A

Illinois agility test

243
Q

How do you carry out the Illinois agility test?

A
  1. Equipment : 8 cones, a measuring tape and a stopwatch.2. the cones should be arranged in a 10mx5m rectangle with 4 cones down the middle.3. performer starts face down on the floor.4.Test involves running around the cones as fast as possible.5. It is timed in seconds and compared to test ratings.
244
Q

The multi stage fitness test measures which component of fitness?

A

Cardio-vascular endurance

245
Q

The Anderson Wall toss test measures which component of fitness?

A

Co-ordination

246
Q

What test would you carry out for Flexibility?

A

Sit and reach test

247
Q

What test would you carry out for Muscular endurance?

A

Abdominal curl conditioning test

248
Q

The one rep max test measures which component of fitness?

A

Maximal Strength

249
Q

State 2 limitations of fitness testing.

A
  1. Tests are often not sports specific2. They do not replicate movements of activities.3. They do not replicate competitive conditions required in sports.4. Many of the sports have questionable reliability5. The tests must be carried out with the correct procedures and protocols, otherwise scores will not be accurate or valid
250
Q

Why would the Vertical jump test be appropriate for a Basketball player?

A

Basketball players need to jump using leg power.

251
Q

Why would the Illinois agility test be inappropriate for a 100m runner?

A

They will not need to change direction, therefore do not need to be tested on this component.

252
Q

Why would the Anderson wall toss test be inappropriate for a rower?

A

Rowers need to co-ordinate their arms and legs but do not need to catch, so the test is less appropriate for them.

253
Q

What does SPORT stand for?

A

Specificity, Progressive Overload, Reversibility, Tedium

254
Q

Define Specificity

A

Training should be relevant/specific to the needs of an individual and the demands of the sport that they take part in.

255
Q

Define Progressive Overload

A

Working harder than normal whilst gradually and sensibly increasing the intensity of training.

256
Q

What are the 4 basic principles of overload that are particularly important for exercise at a low to medium intensity?

A

FrequencyIntensityTimeType

257
Q

Define Frequency

A

How often someone trains. Normally training should take place 3 or more times a week.

258
Q

Define Intensity

A

How hard you train. How fast you run how heavy the weight is that you are lifting.

259
Q

Define Time

A

How long you train for.

260
Q

Define Type

A

The type of training used, e.g. continuous training.

261
Q

Define Reversibility

A

When an individual stops or decreases their training level, then fitness and performance are likely to drop.

262
Q

Define Tedium

A

Tedium refers to Boredom. Training should be altered and varied to prevent an individual from suffering from this.

263
Q

Define Circuit Training

A

A series of exercises performed one after the other with a rest in between.

264
Q

State 2 advantages of circuit training

A
  1. Exercises chosen can be simple or complex.2. The circuit can be manipulated to train different things, e.g. repeated contraction of a muscle/muscle group to train muscular endurance.3. It can be varied to suit fitness level/age, etc.4. easy to monitor and alter. Progressive overload can be applied.
265
Q

What component of fitness does Continuous training improve?

A

Cardio-vascular endurance

266
Q

State 2 disadvantages of Continuous training

A
  1. It can be boring/tedious.2. It can cause injury due to repetitive contractions.3. It can be time consuming.4. It does not always match the demands of the sport, e.g. in basketball players do not run at one speed continuously.
267
Q

Calculate the aerobic training zone of a 16yr old.

A

Maximal heart rate 220- 16(age) = 20460-80 per cent of 204 = 122-163bpmThus when training continuously, the heart rate should remain between 122 and 163 beats per minute.

268
Q

What is fartlek training?

A

Speed Play. Altering the intensity/speed/terrain to improve cardio vascular endurance. Can improve aerobic and anaerobic systems.

269
Q

Define Interval training

A

Training method that incorporates periods of work followed by periods of rest, e.g. work, rest, work, rest.

270
Q

State 2 disadvantages of interval training

A
  1. Extreme work can lead to injury.2. High levels of motivation are needed to complete the work.3. It can lead to dizziness and feelings of nausea.
271
Q

What component of fitness does Plyometrics improve?

A

It is used to increase power (strength x speed).

272
Q

Define Static stretching

A

Stretching to the limit and holding the stretch isometrically.

273
Q

What safety guidelines should be followed when weight training?

A
  1. The exercise should be completed using the correct technique.2. If free weights are being used, a spotter can be used to help in the initial lift, putting the weight down or to assist if the individual starts to struggle to lift the weight.3. children should not lift heavy weights as they can damage growing bones.4. a thorough warm up should be completed.5. A period of rest should follow every set.
274
Q

Give an example of a sport that would benefit from high altitude training.

A

Marathon runner. High altitude training is a form of aerobic training, i.e. it trains the aerobic energy system and can improve a person’s cardio-vascular endurance.

275
Q

Name the 3 training seasons

A
  1. Pre-season.2. Competition.3. Post-season.
276
Q

What are the 4 stages of a warm-up?

A
  1. gradual pulse raising activity2. stretching3.skill based practices4.mental preparation
277
Q

Describe what a performer would do as a gradual pulse raiser.

A

Fast walk, jog, light swim to increase the amount of oxygen to the working muscles.

278
Q

What is involved in the mental preparation phase of a warm-up?

A

Starting to get focused, using techniques to control arousal, e.g. arousal.

279
Q

Identify the benefits of a warm up

A
  1. Body temperature will increase ready for exercise.2. Stretching will increase the range of movement possible.3. There will be gradual increase in effort towards competition pace.4. You will be focused and psychologically prepared.5. Movement skills that will be used have been practised before starting the game/match/event.6. Less chance of injury.7. There will be an increase in the amount of oxygen being carried to the working muscles.
280
Q

Describe what an effective cool down should include.

A
  1. An activity to maintain an elevated breathing and heart rate, e.g. walk, jog.2. a gradual reduction in intensity, e.g. jog to light jog to walk.3. Stretching of all main muscles used in the activity.
281
Q

Identify the benefits of cooling down,

A
  1. It allows the body to start to recover after exercising.2. It helps with the removal of lactic acid, carbon dioxide and waste products.3. It can help to prevent the delayed onset of muscle soreness, sometimes referred to as DOMS.
282
Q

What safety principles should be considered when training?

A
  1. Stretches should be completed as part of a thorough warm up.2. Appropriate intensity should be used.3. Footwear and clothing should be appropriate to allow support/movement.4. Exercise and rest. Allow appropriate rest in between exercise sessions.5. Hydration should be maintained
283
Q

<p>Which class of lever is the Diagram?</p>

A

<p>1st Class</p>

<p>Fulcrum is in the middle</p>

284
Q

<p>During Plantarflexion of the ankle, what class of lever is being used?</p>

A

<p>2nd Class</p>

<p>Resistance is in the middle</p>

285
Q

<p>How do you work out mechanical advantage?</p>

A

<p>Effort arm / resistance arm</p>

<p></p>

286
Q

<p>What is the benefit of a lever system of having a short effort arm?</p>

A

<p>Gives rapid movements over a large range of movement</p>

287
Q

<p>What is the benefit of a lever system of having a short resistance arm?</p>

A

<p>Able to move a heavy weight</p>

288
Q

<p>Complete this:</p>

<p>1 F T/Neck</p>

<p>2 _ G</p>

<p>_ E _</p>

A

<p></p>

<p>1 F TRICEP/NECK</p>

<p>2L GASTROCNEIMUS</p>

<p>3 EBICEP/ANY OTHER MUSCLE</p>

289
Q

<p>What do you understand by the term 'Antagonistic muscle action'</p>

A

<p>As one muscle contracts the second relaxes</p>

290
Q

<p>Define Isotonic muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Muscle action where the muscle changes length - causing movement</p>

291
Q

<p>Define Isometric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Muscle action where the muscle stays the same length - used in balances e.g. the plank/headstand</p>

292
Q

<p>Define concentric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Isotonic muscle contraction where the muscle shortens</p>

293
Q

<p>Define eccentric muscle contraction</p>

A

<p>Isotonic contraction where the muscle lengthens - used to control downward movements</p>

294
Q

<p>Which plane is this?</p>

A

<p>Sagittal</p>

295
Q

<p>What does the Transverse plane divide the body into?</p>

A

<p>Top and Bottom</p>

296
Q

<p>Which plane is this?</p>

A

<p>Frontal</p>

297
Q

Name the structures that air moves through as it passes from mouth to alveoli

A

MOUTH, Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, ALVEOLI

298
Q

What is the function of the cilia?

A

Trap dirt and dust

299
Q

What is the function of the alveoli?

A

Provide a surface for diffusion of gases/ gas exchange

300
Q

Describe the process of diffusion that occurs in the lungs

A

Gases move from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration. Oxygen out of the alveloi. carbondioxide into alveoli

301
Q

Explain why oxygen diffuses into the blood?

A

Because the concentration of oxygen is higher in alveoli than blood in the capillaries.

302
Q

Name 4 factors that assist gaseous exchange

A

Thin cell wallShort distance between membraneslarge surface arealayer of moistureSurrounded by dense capillary network

303
Q

What is the function of Haemoglobin?

A

To transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin. It also transports carbondioxide.

304
Q

Name the muscles used during inspiration at rest and explain the process that occurs in expiration at rest

A

inspiration at rest -Diaphragm and intercostal musclesExpiration - The diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and chest cavity returns to normal size.

305
Q

Name the Name the muscles used during inspiration and expiration during exercise.

A

inspiration during exercise - Pectorals, sternocleidomastoid.expiration during exercise - Adominals

306
Q

Describe the mechanic of inhalation at rest

A

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, ribs move up and out, chest cavity increase in size. air moves form area of higher concentration into the lungs which has a lower concentration.

307
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

Volume of air breathed ina dn out at rest.

308
Q

Which lung volume is used to increase the amount of air breathed in?

A

Inspiratory reserve volumes

309
Q

What is the name of the amount of air left in the lungs after a full expiration

A

Residual volume

310
Q

Distinguish between Aerobic and Anaerobic exercise

A

Aerobic - producing energy when using oxygen Glucose + Oxygen = Carbondioxide + Water + EnergyAnaerobic - Producing energy without oxygen Glucose = Lactic acid + energy

311
Q

What is Lactic acid

A

Waste product of anaerobic exercise which causes fatigue

312
Q

What does EPOC stand for and what is it’s function?

A

Excess Post Oxygen Consumption. Function is to remove lactic acid

313
Q

What is EPOC?

A

Extra oxygen that is required after exercise to keep the HR, breathing rate and temperature elevated in order to remove CO2 and break down the lactic acid to CO2 and H2O.

314
Q

What are the immediate effects of exercise on the body?

A

Heart Rate IncreasesStroke volume increasesBreathing rate increasesYour Body Temperature increasesYou start to sweatYou go red

315
Q

Explain the causes of Fatigue?

A

Build up of lactic acid, excess fluids

316
Q

Explain the cause of DOMS and what it is?

A

TIny tears in muscle causing release in fluids which causes you to have sore/painful muscles.

317
Q

What are the short term effects of exercise?

A

Tiredness/FatigueMuscle soreness, DOMSNausea/light headednessCramp.

318
Q

What should be included in a rehydration drink?

A

Water, minerals, carbohydrates

319
Q

How do Ice baths help to prevent DOMS?

A

Flush out waste/lactic acid, reduce swelling

320
Q

What are the benefits of a cool down?

A

Slowly reduce heart rate and breathing rate, relaxes muscles, removes lactic acid

321
Q

Identify two parts of an effective cooldown?

A

Jogging/walking/easy movementsStatic stretching

322
Q

Name four fitness components improved by Long term exercise?

A

StaminaMuscular EnduranceSpeedFlexibility

323
Q

Suggest some long term effects of exercise.

A

Change in body ShapeIncreased stroke volumeHypertrophyReduced Resting Heart rateBradycardia

EP DOC 2025 exam (1 decks)

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