GCSE History: Flashcards

1
Q

Under which monarch did Britain become hugely influential and form family connections with most European royal families?

A

Queen Victoria.
(1837-1901)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

By the reign of George V who held the real power in Britain?

A

The elected Parliment and the government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many people and territories did the British Empire rule over by 1914?

A

400 million people in 56 territories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Despite Britain’s wealth what social issue persisted in the early 20th century?

A

Most of the population lived in poverty while wealth was concentrated in a small group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What were the signs of Britain’s declining global status before World War 1?

A

Other nations like the USA and Germany developed industires and grew more powerful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of government did France have before World War 1?

A

A republic governed by an elected president.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How large was the French Empire and where was it mainly located?

A

The French Empire ruled around 60 million people mainly in West and North Africa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What major event in 1870 negatively impacted France national pride?

A

Germany defeated France and took some of its land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What were two key issues France faced befoer World War 1?

A

France falling behind Britain and Germany in trade.
Population was lower than it neighbours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When and how was Germany created as a unified country?

A

In 1871 when several former states joined together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who ruled Germany with absolute power before World War 1?

A

Kaiser William II.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How did the size of the German Empire compare to other European powers’ empires?

A

Much smaller with territories in Africa and the Far East.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What was Kaiser William II’s main ambition for Germany?

A

Build and expand Germany’s empire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What social issue persisted in Germany despite industrial growth?

A

Many workers remained very poor and some formed opposition groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who ruled Russia in the early 1900s and what did most Russians believe about his rule?

A

Tsar Nicholas II ruled Russia.
Most Russians believed he had been chosen to rule by God.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What challenges was Tsar Nicholas II facing in the early 1900s?

A

Tsar was facing increased opposition as his autocratic system was becoming less popular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How large was Russia’s population in the early 1900s?

A

Nearly over 160 million.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What was notable of Russia’s ethnic diversity?

A

Over 200 ethnic groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Did Russia have overseas colonies?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How had Russia expanded it’s territory?

A

Taken control of the neighboring territory during the 19th century.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What percentage of the Russian population lived in the countryside?

A

Around 85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What were the conditions like when the Russian population lived in the countryside?

A

Harsh. Poor harvests could lead to thousands of death. Due to starvation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the role of the elected parliament formed after the 1905 riots in Russia?

A

Tsar Nicholas II often rejected many of the laws it passed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What were the main types of trenches in WW1?

A

. Frontline.
. Support.
. Reserve Trenches.
- Connected by communication trenches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who held ultimate power in Austria-Hungary despite the existence of parliaments in both countries?

A

Emperor Franz-Josef.

Austria Hungary had their own parliments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When was the union between Austria and Hungary formed?

A

1867.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What made the Austria-Hungary Empire ethnically diverse?

A

Many nationallities, cultures and languages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For Austria-Hungary what are some lands calling for?

A

Independance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What tensions existed within the Austria Hungary Empire?

A

Tensions between many of the ethnic groups within the empire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why was the Austria-Hungary Empire seen as being in decline?

A

Unpopular government and an aging emperor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What was the purpose of the Alliance System in Europe before WWI?

A

Increase influence and seccurity by forming alliances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two main alliances before WWI?

A

Triple Alliance and Triple Entente.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What was the main risk of the Alliance System?

A

One small conflict between two nations could drag all alies into a large war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What was the Dual Alliance of 1879?

A

Germany and Austria-Hungary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who was part of the Triple Alliance in 1882?

A

Germay.
Austria-Hungary.
Italy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What did the members of the Triple Alliance agree on?

A

Provide military support if one was attacked by two powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What was the Franco-Russian Alliance?
When?

A

Military alliance.
France and Russia.
1892

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What was the Entente Cordiale?
When?

A

An agreement between Britain and France.
1904

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who formed the Triple Entente?
When?

A

Britain, France and Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why was the Triple Entente formed?

A

Protect against Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What was Great Britain’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 710,000
Battleships: 122
Submarines: 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What was Germany’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 2,200,000
Battleships: 85
Submarines: 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What was Russia’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 1,200,000
Battleships: 26
Submarines: 29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What was Austria-Hungary’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 810,000
Battleships: 24
Submarines: 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What was Italy’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 750,000
Battleships: 36
Submarines: 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What was France’s military strength before WWI?

A

Army: 1,250,000
Battleships: 46
Submarines: 73

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why did France want to take control of Morocco?
Who supported them?

A

For influence.

Britain supported them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How did Germany respond to France’s intrerest in Morocco in 1905?

A

Kaiser visited Tangier and pledged support for Morocco’s independence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What were Germany’s motives in supporting Morocco’s interdependence?

A

Test France’s limits
Challenge the Entente Cordiale
Assert Germany’s role in the world affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What was the Algeciras Conference and why was it held?

A

Prevent a war between France and Germany over Morocco.
A 1906 conference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was the outcome of the Angleciras Conference for Germany?

A

Germany was humilated as most powers backed France’s rights in Morocco.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What triggered the Second Moroccean Crisis in 1911?

A

A rebeillion in Fez led the Sultan to ask France for military aid.
Germany accused France of invading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How did Germany react during the Second Moroccan Crisis?

A

Germany sent a warship.
Britain prepared for war.
But diplomatic meetings prevented conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What were the main consequences of the Moroccan Crises for Germany?

A

Germany was humiliated.
Received territory in Africa.
Was unlikely to back down in future conflicts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How did the Moroccan Crises affect Britain’s stance toward Germany?

A

Britain saw Germany as a threat so they began to build up a navy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How did the Moroccan Crises impact the alliances in Europe?

A

Alliance between Britain and France strengthed.
Italy’s lack of support weakened the Triple Alliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a Navy?

A

A group of ships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does oppression mean?

A

Systematically harmed by others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What significant event involving Kaiser Wilhem II occured in Tangier in 1905?

A

Kaiser visited Tangier in 1905 to support Morocco’s independance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What was the outcome of the Algecrias Conference in 1906 regarding Morocco?

A

France increased it’s influence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why did French forces occupy Fez in 1911?

A

French forces occupied Fez after a rebellion in Morocco.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What action did the Kaiser take in 1911 as a show of strength during the Second Moroccan Crisis?

A

Kaiser sent a warship to a warship to Agadir in 1911.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What was happening to the Ottoman Empire by the early 20th century?

A

The Ottoman Empire was on th verge of collapse with several countries rebelling and gaining independance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How did Austria-Hungary respond to the Ottoman Empire’s weakening?

A

Austria-Hungary took control of Bosnia in 1908 exploiting Turkey’s weakened state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What was Serbia’s reaction to Austria-Hungary’s actions in Bosina?

A

Serbia was angered and requested help from Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What international response followed Austria-Hungary’s annexation of Bosnia?

A

Russia called for an international conference to address the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How did Germany react to Austria-Hungary’s actions in the Balkans?

A

Despite the Kaiser’s unhappiness Germany agreed to support Austria-Hungary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What was the outcome of Russia’s stance during the Balkan Crisis?

A

Russia backed down to avoid war reinforcing Austria-Hungary’s confidence in German support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What was the reaction of Bosnians to the annexation by Austria-Hungary?

A

Many Bosnians were angry leading to the formation of secret opposition groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What led to the formation of the Balkan League?

A

Turkey’s weakness and defeat by Italy in 1911 prompted Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro to unite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How did Russia view the Balkan League?

A

Russia supported it as an ally against Austria-Hungary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How long did the First Balkan War last and who thought in it?

A

Lasted 50 days.
Balkan League and Turkey.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What was the outcome of the First Balkan War?

A

Turkey was defeated and withdrew from Europe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What triggered the Second Balkan War?

A

Territorial disputes led Bulgaria to attack Serbia and Greece.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which countries joined the Second Balkan War against Bulgaria?

A

Turkey and Romania joined against Bulgaria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What was the result for Bulgaria in the Second Balkan War?

A

Bulgaria lost most of its territory from the First Balkan War.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How did the Balkan Wars affect Serbia?

A

Serbia nearly doughted in size and became the strongest Balkan nation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What did Serbia aim to achieve after the Balkan Wars?

A

Serbia wanted to increase its influence.
Mostly Salvic people in Austria-Hungary’s territories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How did some Serbs in Bosnia feel after the Balkan Wars?

A

Many Serbs in Bosnia wanted Bosnia to join Serbia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How was Bulgaria affected by the Balkan Wars?

A

Bulgaria was weakened and sought revenge on Serbia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Why did Austria-Hungary see Serbia as a threat?

A

Serbias:
. Growth.
. Alliance with Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which countries were the major powers at the start of the 20th century?

A

Britain, France, Russia, Germany and Austria-Hungary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What were the two main alliances in Europe?

A

The Triple Alliance and Triple Entente.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What did the Moroccan Crisis reveal?

A

It tested the alliance system and showed Germany’s ambitions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What caused unrest in the Balkans in the early 20th century?

A

Collapse of Ottoman Empire and countries trying to increase their influence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What was Britain’s Splendid Isolation?

A

Britain being independent and not relying on other ecomonic allies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What was the Two-Power Standard?

A

British law stating the British navy had to be equal in size to the next two largest navies combined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why did Britain end Splendid Isolation?

A

. Germany’s rising anger.
. Alliances in Europe.
. German support for the Boers and naval expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What factors led to the end of Splendid Isolation?

A

. Growing cooperation with France.
. German naval expansion.
. Formation of the Dual and Triple Alliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What marked the end of Britain’s Splendid Isolation?

A

1902 alliance with Japan and 1904 Entente Cordiale with France.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What were Kaiser Wilhelm II’s aims?

A

. Build Germany’s military strength.
. Establish a global empire.
. Rival Britain and France through Weltpolitik.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Why did Kaiser Wilhelm II want a large navy?

A

Help build an empire and rival Britain’s naval power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What were the consequences of the Kaiser’s policies?

A

. Increased tensions in Europe.
. Other nations concerned about German’s ambitions.
. Responding by building up their own navies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What was the arms race in Europe before WW1?

A

By 1914 major European powers spent nearly £400 million on their armies and navies with most introducing conscrription (except Britain).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How did European powers prepare for war?

A

. £400 million on armies and navies.
. Introduced/increased conscription.
. Developed military plans for quick mobilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What was Germany’s military plan (Schilieffen Plan)?

A

Defeat France quickly before Russia could organise its troops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is an Arms Race?

A

Two or more countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Why did the Naval Race begin?

A

Kaiser wanted to rival Britain’s powerful navy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What were the German Navy Laws?

A

Laws to increase the German Navy’s size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How did Britain respond to Germany’s naval expansion?

A

By building Dreadnoughtd the most powerful battleships of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What were “Super Dreadnoughts”?

A

More advanced battleships built by Britain after Germany created its own Dreadnoughts/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What was Britain’s initial approach to foreign policy before the 20th century?

A

“Splendid Isolation” of avoiding alliances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Why did Britain end its policy of Splendid Isoloation?

A

. Changes in Europe.
. Germany’s naval expansion.
-Then Britain formed alliances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What was the Kaiser goals for Germany?

A

Incerase power and influence of Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What was the aim of Serbian nationalists in the late 1800’s?

A

Unite all Serb areas in the Balkans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How did A-H (Austria-Hungary) anger Serbian nationalists in 1908?

A

Taking over Bosnia which had a large Serb population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Who were the Black Hand?

A

A secret Serbian group opposing Austarian control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Why did A-H send Franz Ferdinand to Sarajevo in 1914?

A

Show power on Serbia’s national day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How did the Black Hand prepare for the assassination?

A

Trained 7 students to attack him.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What happened during the first assassination attempt?

A

A bomb was thrown but missed Franz Ferdinand’s car.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How did Gavrilo Princip assassinate Franz Ferdinand?

A

Shot him after the car stopped near him by mistake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What was the impact of Franz Ferdinad’s assassination?

A

Shocked Europe, escalated tensions this led to WW1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What did A-H demand from Serbia after the assassination of Franz Ferdinand?

A

A-H demanded from Serbia-
. Take responsibility.
. Remove Anti-Austarian groups under A-H police supervision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How did Serbia respond to A-H demands?

A

Serbia agreed to all demands except allowing A-H police in Serbia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What action did A-H take on July 28 1914?

A

A-H declared war on Serbia and began bombing Belgrade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What happened on July 29 1914 in response to A-H declaration of war?

A

Russia prepared its troops to support Serbia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How did Germany respond to Russia’s troop mobilization on July 30 1914?

A

Germany called on Russia to stop mobilizing triggering their alliance with A-H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What happened on August 1 1914 when Russia refused to halt mobilization?

A

Germany declared was on Russia. France prepared to support Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Why did Germany invade Belgium on August 3 1914?

A

Germany invaded Belguim as part of the Schlieffen Plan to reach France.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How did Britain respond to Germany’s invasion of Belguim?

A

Britain bound by a treaty to protect Belguim declared war on Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which countries declared war by August 6 1914?

A

Germany and A-H .VS. Russia, France, Britain and Serbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What was the goal of Germany’s Schlieffen Plan?

A

Avoid a two-front by quickly defeating France then focusing on Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How did Germany plan to outflank France in the Schlieffen Plan?

A

Sending troops through Belguim, Luxembourg and Netherlands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What changes did General von Moltke make to the Schlieffen Plan in 1906?

A

Reduced troops and excluded advancing through the Netherlands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How did Belguim and Britain impact the Schlieffen Plan?

A

Belguim resisted and Britain sent the British Expeditionary Force (BEF) delaying Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Why did the Schlieffen Plan ultimately fail?

A

Belguim’s resistance, British intervention, supply delays and Russia’s fast mobilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What happened at the Battle of the Marne in September 1914?

A

British and French forced the Germans to retreat leading to trench warfare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What was the “Race to the Sea”?

A

Both sides moved towards the English Channel establishing trenches and a stalemate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How did the Western Front develop?

A

After the Battle of the Marne both sides dug trenches from the English Channel to Switzerland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What was something different form the Eastern Front from the Western Front?

A

Eastern Front was more mobile streching from Riga to the Black Sea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What setbacks did A-H face on the Eastern Front?

A

Heavy losses and retreat against nearly half a million Russian troops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What was “No Man’s Land”?

A

Area between the two-front lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Why were trenches built in a zigzag pattern?

A

. Conatain blasts.
. Enemy gunfire to 1 section of the trench.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How did German and British trenches differ?

A

German trenches were deeper and beter built anticipating a long conflict while British trenches were more temporary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What was a soldier’s typical rountine in the trenches?

A

. Guarding and repairs.
. Monthly rotation.
. 4 days front line.
. 4 days support.
. 8 days reserve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What conditions did soldiers face regarding hygiene in the trenches?

A

. Trench foot.
. Poor hygiene.
. Lice.
. Rat infestions.
. Diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What was “shell shock”?

A

Mental health condition suffered by soldiers due to constant combat stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How were soldiers’ letters home handled?

A

Letters were sent and received weekly but were censored to prevent valuable information reaching the enemy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Describe the food soldiers had in the trenches:

A

. Basic meals= Stew, bread and hard biscuits.
. Treats= Bacon, cheese and rum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What was artillery used for in WW1?

A

Weaken enemy lines before an attack. Caused about 60% of all wounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What was the purpose and imapct of machine guns in WW1?

A

. Could fire up to 10 bullets per second.
. Requires 2-4 men.
. Caused 40% of British casualties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

When and by whom was poisonous gas first used in WW1?

A

April 1915.
Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

How were tanks initally used and how did they envolve?

A

Britain.
1916.
Envolved by over the war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What standard weapons did WW1 soldiers carry?

A

Rifles with bayonets, grenades and some flamethrowers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What was a typical WW1 attack plan on enemy trenches?

A

Artillery weakened trenches soldiers advanced “over the top” then fought survivors in trenches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Why was the WW1 known as a war of attrition?

A

Both sides aimed to wear each other down with gains being short-lived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What was the aim of the German offensive at the Battle of Verdun (Feb-Dec 1916)?

A

“Bleed France White”
-Forcing them to defend Verdun causing high French casualties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Who led the defence at Verdun and how did he respond?

A

General Pétain.
Ordered all available French troops to Verdun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What was the outcome of the Battle of Verdun?

A

. 23 million shells fired.
. Around 315,000 French and 280,000 German casualties.
NO SIGNIFIACANT GAINS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What was the goal of the Battle of the Somme (July-Nov 1916)?

A

British and French offensive to relieve pressure on Verdun by attacking German lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What happened on the first day of the Batte of the Somme?

A

. 60,000 British casualties.
. 20,000 of them dead.
-By German preparedness and strong defence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What was the result of the Battle of the Somme?

A

. 620,000 British casualties.
. 500,000 German casualties.
. 25km by 6km gained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What was the aim of the Battle of Passchendaele (July-Nov 1917)?

A

British forces aimed to capture hills around Ypres for strategic advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How did the weather affect the Battle of Passchendaele?

A

. 40,000 British Empire troops.
. 300,000 Germans killed.
. 8km gained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Why did Turkey and Russia clash in the Caucasus Mountains early in WW1?

A

Turkey joined Germany’s side leading to conflict with Russia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Why did Britain and France want control of the Dardanelles?

A

. Send supplies to Russia.
. Distract Germany by forcing it to aid Turkey.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What was Phase 1 of the Gallipoli Campaign?

A

19 February 1915
British and French ships attacked Turkish forts at the Dardanelles’ entrance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Who created the Gallipoli invasion plan and what was the goal?

A

Winston Churchill.
Quick victory over to Turkey to isolate Germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What happened during Phase 2 of the Gallipoli Campaign on 18 March 1915?

A

Allied ships met strong resistance in the Dardanelles and retreated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Why was a land invasion at Galipoli launched on 25 April 1915?

A

Naval attacks failed; Lord Kitchener sent 70,000 troops instead of 150,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Who were the main Allied forces in the Gallipoli land invasion?

A

ANZAC troops, British too, empire forces and some French.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What happened at Anzac Cove during the Gallipoli Campaign?

A

Thousands of Allied troops were killed by Turkish machine guns as they left their boats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What were trench conditions like in Gallipoli?

A

. Harsh.
. Contamidated food and water.
. 80% contracting dysentry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What was the outcome of the Gallipoli Campaign by December 1915?

A

. 80,000 Allied troops evacuated.
. 200,000 casualties.
. Inavasion was abandoned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What were the effects of the failed Gallipoli Campaign?

A

. Turkey stayed in the war.
. Supplies couldn’t reach Russia.
. Bulgaria joined Germany’s side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Did the Gallipoli Campaign have any positive impact?

A

Som e damage to Turkey hindered its ability to support German fully.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Why was control of the sea important in WW1?

A

To ensure supplies could reach civilians at home and soldiers abroad.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Why were both sides reluctant to engage their naives?

A

The risk of damage and becoming vulnerable to attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What was the purpose of Britain’s blockade of Germany in November 1914?

A

Prevent vital supplies from reaching Germany by declaring the North Sea a war zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What were the effects of the British blockade on Germany?

A

. Damaged industry by lack of coal, oil and steel.
. Food shortages.
. 420,000 Germans starved during the war.
. Shortage of medicines led to untreated soliders and civilians.
. Decreased German support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What was the German plan for theBattle of Jutland in May 1916?

A

Lure the British Navy into the open sea and trap them using the rest of the German fleet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How did the British prepare for the Battle of Jutland?

A

They decoded German messages and knew what to expect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What were the results of the Battle of Jutland?

A

Stalemate:

Germany- Victory. Number of ships destroyed and casulaties inflicted.

Britain-Victory. Germany fled, needed repairs and remained in harbour for the rest of the war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What were German U-boats used for?

A

Targeting poorly defended British cargo ships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How did Britain counter U-boat attacks?

A

. Laid mines and used disguised warships (Q-ships).
. Introduced convey systems with warships and aircraft for protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What was the effect of the British convoy system?

A

Reduced the number of succsessful U-boat attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Why was the sinking of the Lusitania significant?

A

Helped bring the USA into the war.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What were planes initially used for during the war?

A

Observe enemy troop movements and spot artillery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

How did planes help save lives in the war?

A

By providing intelligence that allowed troops to avoid danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What were dogfights in World War 1?

A

Aerial battles between fighter planes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What was the significance of pilots known as “aces”?

A

Skilled pilots who shot down many enemy planes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

How were bomb intially dropped from planes?

A

Small bombs were dropped manually over the side by pilots.

183
Q

How did bomber planes improve by the end of the war?

A

Fly further and drop larger bombs.

184
Q

What were Zeppelins and how were they used?

A

German airships.
Used to attack British, French and Belguin cities.

185
Q

How many Zeppelin raids occured in Britain in 1915 ans what were the consequences?

A

20 raids
188 deaths

186
Q

When did Italy join the war and on which side?

A

Italy joined the war in 1915.
Side on the Allies.

187
Q

How many battles did Italy fight against Austria-Hungary and what was the result?

A

Italy fought 11 battles between 1915-17
Advancing no more than 10 miles.

188
Q

What happened at the Battle of Corpetto in 1917?

A

German defeated Italy nearly knocking them out of the war.

189
Q

Why was Italy able to continue fighting after 1917?

A

Due to support from Britain and France.

190
Q

Which country joined Germany and A-H in October 1915 and what did they do?

A

Bulgaria joined and attacked Serbia.

191
Q

Where did Allied troops land to help Serbia and what was the outcome?

A

Landed in Salonika, Greece but were unable to advance leading to stalemate.

192
Q

Where did British and Indian troops fight the Turks and what was the result?

A

Mesopotamia.
RESULT- Turks back to their border after inital Turkish victories.

193
Q

How did Arabs contribute to the fight against Turkish troops?

A

Arabs used “hit and run” tactics supported by T.E Lawrence.

194
Q

Which battles led to the final defeat of the Turks?

A

Battles of Beersheba and Megiddo.

195
Q

Which German colony was captured by the British and French in the first month of the war?

196
Q

When was Cameroon fully captured by the Allies?

A

February 1916.

197
Q

Who captured German South West Africa and when?
(Battle of Jutland)

A

South Africans fighting for Britain captured it.
May 1916.

198
Q

How long did German East Africa resist Allied attacks and with how many troops?

A

It resisted until the end of the war with 12,000 German and African troops.

199
Q

What did Japan capture in August 1914?

A

German colonies in the Pacific Ocean and German-controlled territory in China.

200
Q

What territories did ANZACs capture?

A

German colonies in Samoa and New Guinea.

201
Q

Name 2 dramatic developments in the warfare during WW1?

A

Use of areoplanes and naval blockades.

202
Q

Where else was the WW1 fought beside Europe?

A

In Africa, Asia and the Pacific.

203
Q

What were the effects of the war on Russia?

A

. Poor leadership.
. Lack of equipment.
. Heavy defeats.
. Food shortages.
. Over a million deaths by 1916.

204
Q

What action did Tsar Nicholas II take to improve Russia’s military situation?

A

He placed himself in direct control of the military but his lack of experience worsened the situation.

205
Q

What was the impact of Russia’s war efforts on civillains?

A

Suffered by food shortages and starvation by loss of workers to the army and poor infrastructure.

206
Q

What happened in Russia in 1917?

A

. Riots
. Strikes
. Mutinies occured
. Leading to the Tsar’s abdication on 15 March and the establishment of a provisonal government.

207
Q

What role did the Bolsheviks play in the Russian Revolution?

A

Led by Lenin, the Bolsheviks overthrew the provisonal government in October 1917 promising to end the war quickly.

208
Q

What was the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk?

A

A peace treaty.
In 1918.
Russia to withdraw war by giving large territories to Germany.

209
Q

What was the impact of Russia’s withdrawal from the war?

A

Britain and France were angry Germany moved troops to Western Front and the land/resources gained eased problems caused by British blockades.

210
Q

Why did the USA remain neutral at the start of the war?

A

. Refused to take sides.
. American banks lending $2 billion to the Allies and selling goods.

211
Q

What led to the USA joining the war in 1917?

A

. Germany’s attacks on USA ships
. Secret talks with Mexico
. Pushed USA into war in 1917

212
Q

What was the impact of USA involvement in the war?

A

USA’s entry was a hug boost for Brit and France.
A blow to Germany

213
Q

What happened to Russia in the war?

A

Russia suffered greatly experienced 2 revolution and withdrew from the war after signing the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk in March 1918.

214
Q

How did the Russian withdrawal affect Germany?

A

Geramny had a significant advantage as they could focus on the Western Front not worrying about Eastern Front.

215
Q

When did the USA enter the war?

A

April 1917

216
Q

What 4 key measures did the British develop to counter German U-Boat attacks?

A

. Mines
. Depth charges
. Q-Ships
. Convey system

217
Q

Name 2 technological advancements in sea warefare by 1918:

A

. Hydrophones (detect U-Boats)
. Floatplanes

218
Q

What was the main impact of sea warefare technology:

A

Reduced the effectiveness of German U-Boats.

219
Q

What improvements made planes more effective during WW1?

A

. Stronger materials
. Larger fuel
. Tanks
. Machine gun synchronization
. Radio Communication

220
Q

What roles could planes perform by 1918?

A

. Reconnaissance
. Ground troop support
. Attacks on enemy territory or ships

221
Q

What was the major impact of air warfare advancements?

A

Allowed warfare to extend to the air, revolutionzing military strategy.

222
Q

When were tanks first used and what was their initial limitation?

A

Used at the Battle of the Somme in 1916.
Slow and unreliable.

223
Q

What was the impact of the tanks at the Battle of Cambrai in 1917?

A

Over 400 tanks crossed Geraman lines. Gaining 8km of land with fewer losses.

224
Q

How did German leaders respond to tank development?

A

Countermeasures but underestimated tanks’ potential falling behind the Allies.

225
Q

What advancements were made in artillery during WW1?

A

. Special shells
. Creeping barrage tactic
. Larger guns
. Mine warfare

226
Q

What was the range of German artillery by March 1918?

A

130km
Reaching Paris from the front line.

227
Q

How did improved artillery impact the war?

A

Enabled significant damage to enemy lines before and during attacks.

228
Q

What territory did the Germans gain during the Spring Offensive?

A

Pushed 60km into British territory taking control of the area around the River Somme.

229
Q

What was the purpose of infilitartion tactics?

A

Stealthily destroy enemy machine gun posts ahead of a main attack.

230
Q

How did infilitarion tactics affect casualties?

A

Reduced casualites, though they still remained high.

231
Q

Who was appointed as the commander of Allied troops in March 1918?

A

Ferdinand Foch.
Experienced French General

232
Q

What was the imapct of a unified Allied command?

A

Allowed quick action to halt the German Spring Offensive and launch counter-attacks.

233
Q

Why did Ludendorff plan the Spring Offensive in late 1917?

A

Russia was out of the war and American troops had not yet arrived.

234
Q

What was Ludendorff’s main strategy for the Spring Offensive?

A

Attack Fremch and British lines with a 5-hour ‘Hurricane Bombardment’ followed by stromtrooper ground attacks.

235
Q

When did the Spring Offensive begin and what it involve?

A

21st March 1918.
5-hour artillery bombardment followed by mustard gas and stormtrooper attacks.

236
Q

What were the British losses on the first day of the Spring Offensive?

A

21,000 dead
35,000 wounded
21,000 taken prisoner

237
Q

What problems did the Germans face despite their initial success?

A

220,000 German soldiers were killed and supply lines couldn’t keep up with the advancing troops.

238
Q

How did the Allies respond to the Spring Offensive?

A

British and French troops united under General Foch and attacked German salients from 3 sides.

239
Q

What was the impact of American involvement by June 1918?

A

50,000 American soldiers were arriving each week.

240
Q

What happened during the Allied counter-attack in July 1918?

A

Germans were pushed back to the River Marne after their final attack failed.

241
Q

What marked the start of the Allied Hundred Days Offensive?

A

8th August 1918
Allies launched attacks at Amiens advancing deep into German territory.

242
Q

What was Ludendorff’s reaction to the Allied attack at Amiens>

A

By him calling it-
‘Black day of the German Army’

243
Q

What progress did the Allies make during the Second Battle of the Somme?

A

Captured cities like Albert, Noyon and Bapaume.

244
Q

What was the state of the German forces by September 1918?

A

Pushed back to the Hindenburg Line and began retreating.

245
Q

How did the Allies finally break through the German lines?

A

Meuse-Argonne Offensive and attacks near Ypres forced a full German retreat.

246
Q

Why did countries increase production during the war?

A

Meet demand for weapons and equipment. Governments took control of industries:
Mines
Railways
Factories

247
Q

What roles did women take on during the war?

A

Agriculture, police, ambulance services and replacong men who are fighting.

248
Q

How did food shortages affect Germany?

A

British blockade led to maximum price controls, ‘meatless’ days and rationing.

249
Q

How did Britain respnd to food shortages?

A

Rationing was intoduced to ensure fair distribution of food.

250
Q

What caused civillian anger in Germany?

A

Suffering from short shortages and the blockade led to protests, including demands for an end to the war.

251
Q

How were governments overthrown during the war?

A

Russia (1917) and Germany (1918) uprisings removed old systems of government.

252
Q

How was the landscapeaffected in France and Belguim?

A

Fighting destroyed:
75,000 houses
20,000 factories
48,000 km of roads in France

253
Q

How did civillians experience direct enemy attacks?

A

Airships and planes carried out attacks on civillians in Germany, France, Britain and Belguim.

254
Q

What state was Germany in by September 1918?

A

Close to collapse
Food shortages
Flue epidemic killing thousands
Army near defeat

255
Q

How did the Kaiser try to address growing unrest in Germany?

A

He reluctantly transferred some powers to the German parliament.

256
Q

What happened in Kiel on 28th October 1918?

A

German sailors mutined and refused to attack British ships.

257
Q

How did the mutiny in Kiel escalate?

A

It spread to other areas and soldiers sent to stop it joined in.

258
Q

When did Kaiser Wilhelm II abdicate and what happened afterward?

A

9th November 1918 and fled Germany.
Friedrich Ebert formed a temporary government and ended the war.

259
Q

What did the armistice terms require Germany to do?

A

. Cease fighting within 6 hours.
. Surrender occupied land in Belguim, Luxembourg and France.
. Allies occupied land west of the River Rhine.
. Return submarines, battleships and other equipment.
. Accept the naval blockade and agree to pay for war damages.

260
Q

Why was Germany defeated in WW1?

A

Naval blockade- Starved Germany of supplies.
USA Entry- Boosted allies which weakened Germany.
Spring Offensive- Weakened Germany after gains.
Russian Revolution- Inspired unrest in Germany.
Tanks- Allies an advantage.
Defeat of Allies- Left Germany isolated.
German Revolution- Riots and mutinies led to surrender

261
Q

What caused Germany to surrender?

A

Naval blockade
US involvement
Loss of Allies
Internal unrest
Inability to sustain the war effort.

262
Q

What hardships affected people on the home fronts during WWI?

A

Food shortages- (caused by) Enemy blockades
U-Boat attacks

263
Q

What were the key reasons for Germany’s defeat?

A

Naval Blockade
US entry
Spring Offensive Failure
German Revolution
Tank advancements

264
Q

What are the two types of government in the USA?

A

Central Federal Government
State Government.

265
Q

Where is the Central Federal Government based and what does it oversee?

A

Washington DC:
Foreign affairs, army and postal service.

266
Q

Who runs the Central Federal Government?

A

The President
Cabinet of advisors
Congress

267
Q

What is the role of State Governments?

A

They make their own laws, have their own police and courts and are led by a governor.

268
Q

What is the Republican Party’s stance on government and taxes?

A

They prefer laissez-faire policies and oppose high taxes.

269
Q

Where did the Republican Party have the most support?

A

In the industrial, richer North.

270
Q

What is the Democratic Party’s focus?

A

Helping the poor and intervening in everyday life when necessary.

271
Q

Where did the Democratic Party have most support?

A

Poorer Southern States.

272
Q

What is the Bill of Rights?

A

Part of the constitution that guarantees freedoms. Right to vote and freedom of belief.

273
Q

By 1919 which groups were denied the right to vote in some states?

A

Women, African Americans and American Indians.

274
Q

Why is America described as a “melting pot”?

A

Diverse population with over 100 nationalities by the early 1900s.

275
Q

How did the First Americans lose much of their land?

A

White settlers took it forcing them into reservations.

276
Q

Who were WASPS?

A

White Anglo-Saxon Protestants.

277
Q

What was the WASPS influence in America?

A

Held the most wealth, jobs and political power.

278
Q

Where did new immigrants mainly come from after 1850?

A

Eastern and southern Europe Ireland, China, Japan and South America.

279
Q

What challengers did new immigrants face?

A

Poverty, litteracy and discimination from WASPs.

280
Q

When did slavery end in the USA?

281
Q

By the 1920s what were common challenges faced by African Americans?

A

Poverty, lack of voting rights, housing and education.

282
Q

Where were most African Americans located by 1920?

A

Southern states.

283
Q

What is an economic boom?

A

A period when businesses do well, sales are high, wages increase and unemployment is low.

284
Q

How did WW1 contribute to America’s economic boom?

A

. USA loaned money to Allies
. Sold food and equipment
. Leading producer of goods like medicines and dyes.

285
Q

Why was the USA in a strong economic position after WW1?

A

It had no wartime debts and its resources were exploited by skilled inventors and businesses.

286
Q

What was the Fordney-McCumber Tariff?

A

High tax on imports, making foreign goods exspensive and encouraging Americans to buy US products.

287
Q

How did the Republican government support businesses?

A

. By cutting taxes
. Promoting Laissez-faire policies
. Introducing tariffs on imports

288
Q

How did electricty contribute to the consumer society?

A

It powered modern gadgets like vacuum cleaners, radios and refrigerators boosting factory jobs.

289
Q

What is a gramophone?

A

Record players.

290
Q

How did the motor industry impact the economy?

A

It used large amounts of US steel, leather and rubber creating jobs in these industries.

291
Q

What is mass production and how did it help the economy?

A

It allowed goods to be made cheaply and quickly. Products being more affordable.

292
Q

What were new ways to buy goods in the 1920’s?

A

. Billboards
. Catalogues
. High purchase plans this let people pay in installments.

293
Q

What is the ‘Cycle of Prosperity’?

A

Mass Production > Jobs > Spending > Goods bought > Jobs opportunities

294
Q

What were the key features of the 1920’s consumer society?

A

. Modern gadgets
. Advertising
. Catalogues
. High purchase plans boosted sales and jobs.

295
Q

When and where was the first Ford factory built?

A

1903 in Detroit, Michigan.

296
Q

What production method did Ford intorduce in 1913?

A

The assembly line.

297
Q

How did the assembly line impact car production?

A

Cars were made quicker and cheaper.

298
Q

How much did the Model T cost in 1911 and 1928?

A

$800 in 1911
$295 in 1928

299
Q

How many Model Ts were sold between 1911 and 1928?

A

15 million

300
Q

What industries benefited from the motor boom?

A

. Steel
. Rubber
. Glass
. Roads
. Petrol stations
. Roadsides services

301
Q

Name one positive and one negative social change from the motor industrial boom:

A

P= Freedom to live father from work
N=Traffic jams, accidents, pollution

302
Q

Why was the Ford Model T popular?

A

. Affordable
. Reliable
. Easy-to-change parts

303
Q

How many cars were on American roads by 1926?

A

Nearly 20 million
1 in 2 was a Ford.

304
Q

How do shareholders make money?

A

Through dividends and selling shares at higher prices.

305
Q

What is ‘buying on the margin’?

A

Burrowing money to buy shares with a 10% deposit, paying the rest from profits.

306
Q

How many Americans owned shares in 1920 compared to 1929?

A

4 million in 1920
20 million in 1929

307
Q

How was wealth distributed in 1920s America?

A

Unequally richest 5% earned 33% of all mony while 42% of families earned less than $1000 a year.

308
Q

How did large industrial firms maintain high profits?

A

By paying low wages to unskiled workers.

309
Q

Why did farmers struggle in the 1920s?

A

. Less demand from Europe
. High-tech farming
. Overproduction

310
Q

How many farmers lost their farms in 1924?

A

Around 600,000.

311
Q

Why did coal miners suffer in the 1920s?

A

. Oil
. Gas
. Electricity
- Replaced coal for heating and cooking.

312
Q

Why did cotton and wool workers suffer?

A

. New synthetic fibres.
. Shorter dresses reduced demand for their products.

313
Q

How were African-Americans affected by economic problems?

A

Many were poor farm labourers or sharecroppers. Declined farming hit them the hardest.

314
Q

What happened when African-Americans moved to cities?

A

Find low paid jobs.

315
Q

Why were American Indians living in poverty?

A

Land seized by:
. Mining companies
. Reservations had poor soil
. Lower life expectancy
. Poor education

316
Q

What contributed to the 1920s economic boom?

A

Motor industry
Stock market growth

317
Q

Did all Americans benefit from the boom?

A

No:
Millions in rural areas + Traditional industries remained poor.

318
Q

Why is the 1920s called the “Roaring Twenties”?

A

Decade of:
. Social and cultural change
. Loud music
. New entertainment

319
Q

Why is the 1920s sometimes called the ‘Jazz Age”?

A

Popular by spreading from southern states to big northern cities.

320
Q

What are the keyfeatures of jazz music?

A

. Improvisation
. Fast tempos
. Lively rhythm

321
Q

Why did jazz appeal to young people?

A

It was:
. Loud
. Lively
. Popular in dancehalls, bars and nightclubs.

322
Q

Name 3 famous jazz musicians of the 1920s:

A

Louis Armstrong
Duke Elington
Bessie Smith

323
Q

What were some popular dances of the 1920s?

A

The Charleston
One Step
Tango

324
Q

Why did some older people criticize jazz?

A

Believed it encouraged drunkness and sexualised dancing.

325
Q

Where did the US film industry grow rapidly in the 1920s?

A

Hollywood, California

326
Q

How much did weekly movie audiences grow between 1919 and 1930?

A

From 35 million to 100 million.

327
Q

What was the “star system”?

A

Studios promoted actors through media exposure to boost their popularity.

328
Q

Name 3 famous actors of the 1920s:

A

Charlie Chaplin
Rudolph Valentino
Clara Bow

329
Q

How many films did Hollywood studios produce per year by 1929?

330
Q

What was the first feature-length “talkie” film? When released?

A

The Jazz Singer in 1927

331
Q

Why did some people criticize Hollywood films?

A

Sexual content influencing young people.

332
Q

What was the Hays Code?

A

Strict rules banning nudity and other controversial content in films.

333
Q

Why was the 1920s called the “golden age” of American sports?

A

Sports stars became celebrities and major events gained mass audiences.

334
Q

Name 2 famous sports of the 1920s:

A

Babe Ruth (baseball)
Bobby Jones (golf)

335
Q

How did sports reach a larger audience?

A

Through radio broadcasts, newspaper and magazines.

336
Q

What were some popular crazes of the 1920s?

A

. Mahjong
. Pole sitting
. Marathon dancing

337
Q

How did life change for some American women in the 1920s?

A

. More women lived independently.
. Less likely to stay in unhappy marriages.
. Dressed more freely.
. Smoked.
. Drank in public.

338
Q

What was the status of women before World War 1?

A

. Women couldn’t vote.
. Restricted lives.
. Expected to behave modest.
. Limited job opportunities.
. Worked in low-paid roles.

339
Q

How did World War 1 impact women’s roles?

A

. Women took over men’s jobs.
. Gained independence.
. Their war efforts contributed to getting the vote in 1920.
. By 1920, 10.5 million women had jobs.

340
Q

Who were flappers?

A

Young, independent women from middle and upper classes in northen states.
Challenged traditional valuesand wore daring clothes.

341
Q

Why did some people oppose flappers?

A

Traditionalists saw them as a threat to;
. Family life
. Religion
. Values

342
Q

Did all women experience change in the 1920’s and why?

A

NO
-Women in rural and southern areas saw little chnage. Continued working low paid jobs and remained unequal to men.

343
Q

What was Prohibtion?

A

Nationwide ban on the production, importation, transportation of alcohol in the USA from 1920 to 1933.

344
Q

Why was Prohibtion introduced?

A

It was introduced due to concerns over morality rural America’s fears of alcohol-fueled crime, religious, opposition and patriotism against German-brewed beer.

345
Q

How did morality influence Prohibition?

A

Some politicians believed alcohol contributed to declining moral values and that banning alcohol would make America healthier and better.

346
Q

Why did rural Americans support Prohibition?

A

They saw cities as places of alcohol-fueled violence and crime and supported pressuer groups like the Anti-Saloon League.

347
Q

How did religious organizations contribute to Prohibition?

A

Many churches opposed:
. Alcohol
. Blamed social issues like violence and poverty addiction and death.

348
Q

How did patriotism play a role in Prohibition?

A

Many American beers were German-made and during WW1, drinking them was seen as unpatriotic.

349
Q

How was Prohibition enforced?

A

1500 agents tried to locate and shut down places that sold alcohol. Arresting offenders and confiscating alcohol.

350
Q

Why was enforcing Prohibition difficult?

A

USA had 18,600 miles of coatline and borders making it easy for smugglers to bring in alcohol from Mexico and Canada.

351
Q

How did criminal gangs contribute to Prohibtion’s failure?

A

. Speakeasies.
. Bootlegged alcohol.
. Made moonshine while bribing police
. Prohibition agents
. Border guards
. Judges

352
Q

What were Speakeasies?

A

illegal bars that sold bootleg alcohol often hidden in cellars or private hotel rooms.

353
Q

What was moonshine?

A

Homemade, illegal spirit sold in speakeasies.

354
Q

How did organised crime grow due to Prohibition?

A

Gangs expanded into;
. illegal alcohol
. Gambling
. Prostitution
. Racketeering
. Leading to widespread police corruption

355
Q

Who were some well-known gangsters during Prohibition?

A

AL Capone and ‘Lucky’ Luciano.

356
Q

How much money did AL Capone make from organised crime?

A

He made $2 million a week at the height of his power.

357
Q

Why were gang leaders rarely arrested?

A

. Bribed police and officials
. Witnesses were too scared to testify against them.

358
Q

What was the impact of Prohibtion on American soceity?

A

Led more speakeasies, organised crime and police corruption instead of reducing crime and immorality.

359
Q

How many speakeasies existed by 1933?

A

Around 200,000 across the USA, with more in New York than legal bars before Prohibition.

360
Q

Why did the Association Against the Prohibition Amendment (AAPA) oppose Prohibition?

A

Argued it violated personal freedom and made people lose respect for the law.

361
Q

What economic argument was made against Prohibition?

A

Repealing it would create jobs in brewing and allow the government to tax alcohol instead of criminals profiting.

362
Q

How did Franklin D.Roosevelt contribute to the repeal of Prohibition?

A

He opposed Prohibition during his 1932 presidential campaign, won the election and repealed it in early 1933.

363
Q

Why did many people emigrate to America between 1850 and 1914?

A

. European cities were overcrowded
. Land was expensive
. Poverty was widespread
America offered;
. Better wages
. Cheap land
. Religious and political freedom
. The American Dream

364
Q

Where did many new immigarnts to America come from in the late 1800s and early 1900s?

A

Many came from southern and eastern Europe.

365
Q

How did large ethnic communities form in American cities?

A

Immigrants settled in groups, forming communities like Little Italy in New York.

366
Q

Why some immigrants resented in American cities?

A

. Many were poor
. Spoke little English
. Unfamiliar religious and cultural traditions
. Often being Jewish/Catholic in a mostly Protestant country

367
Q

Why did WW1 increase American suspicion of immigrants?

A

The war heightened fears of ‘foreigners’ and after the 1917 Russian Revolution, some Americans worried Russian immigrants might attempt a similar uprising.

368
Q

What was life like for many immigrants in America?

A

Some achieved success, but many lived in poor conditions, worked for low wages and faced discrimination.

369
Q

Why did some Americans believe immigrants were taking jobs?

A

Immigrants often worked for very low wages leading to resentment from American workers.

370
Q

What was the 1917 Immigration Law (Literacy Act)?

A

It banned immigrants over 16 who could’nt read a 40-word sentence.

371
Q

What was the 1921 Immigration Quota Law?

A

It limited immigration to 350,000 people per year.

372
Q

What was the 1924 National Orignins Act?

A

It furthered reduced immigartion to 150,000 people per year.

373
Q

When was slavery abolished in the USA?

374
Q

What were Jim Crow Laws?

A

Laws that enforced segregation, preventing African-Americans from using the same facilities as white people and reestricting their voting rights.

375
Q

How were African-American treated under Jim Crow Laws?

A

. Segregated in public places.
. The military.
. Some states banned mixed race marriages.

376
Q

Why did many African-Americans move North?

A

. Better job opportunites.
. Higher wages.
. Black population in cities ex; Chicago and New York.

377
Q

What challenges did African-Americans face in Northern cities?

A

. Last to be hired.
. First to be fired.
. Lived in poor housing.
. Faced discrimination in employment.

378
Q

What was the cause of the 1919 Chicago race riot?

A

Black youth accidentally entered a “whites-only” beach, sparking violence.

379
Q

What was the Black Renaissance?

A

Cultural movement in Harlem where black poets, artists flourished. Promoting black pride.

380
Q

What was the NAACP?

A

The National Association Advancement Coloured People. Set up by WEB Du Bois to fight for African-American rights.

381
Q

When was the Ku Klux Klan (KKK) founded and why?

A

In 1860s.
To terroize African-American and prevent them to vote.

382
Q

Why did the KKK regain popularity in 1915?

A

“The Birth of a Nation” ~A film
Made the Klan as protectors.

383
Q

Who were the main members of the revived KKK?

A

Poor white Protestants from rural Southern and Western states who blamed:
. Black people.
. Immigrants.
. Jews.
. Catholics.

384
Q

What methods did the KKK use to intimidate people?

A

. Whipping
. Lynching (hanging people)
. Kidnapping
. Castration

385
Q

What led to the decline of the KKK in 1925?

A

Klan leader was convicted of rape and murder, exposing the Klan’s secrets leading the membership to drop 5 million to 300,000.

386
Q

Why did some Americans fear immigrants?

A

Bringing ‘un-American’ ideas. Mostly communism which was feared after the Russian Revolution in 1917.

387
Q

Why was communism feared in the USA?

A

Americans worried that a communist revolution could happen in the USA. Nearly 1.5 million Russians had immigrated.

388
Q

What was the ‘Red Scare’?

A

Period of fear in the USA, driven by concerns about communism, anarchism and radical political movements.

389
Q

Who were anarchists and whuy were they feared?

A

Opposed organised governments, believing in voluntary cooperation. They were feared because anarchist had assassinated President McKinley in 1901.

390
Q

What were the ‘Palmer Raids’?

A

Series of arrests in 33 cities where around 6000 suspected communists were detained. But, there was little evidence of a communist plot was found.

391
Q

What triggered the ‘Palmer Raids’?

A

A bomb destroyed the home of Alexander Mitchell and another bomb killed 30 people in New York.

392
Q

What do communists believe?

A

Workers should unite, overthrow ruling classes and share wealth equally among all citizens.

393
Q

Who were Sacco and Vanzetti?

A

Two Italian-born immigrant anarchists accused of robbing a shoe factory and murdering two staff in 1920.

394
Q

Why was Sacco and Vanzetti trial controversial?

A

. Evidence was weak.
. Judge was biased.
. Many believed of their race and polotical beliefs.

395
Q

What was the outcome of the Sacco and Vanzetti trial?

A

Found guilty and exucted by electric chair on 23 August 1927 despite golbal protests.

396
Q

What did the Sacco and Vanzetti case reveal about 1920s America?

A

Widespread intolerance towards immigrants and political radicals.

397
Q

What was Prohibition?

A

Nationwide ban on alcohol production, importation, transportation and sale from 1920-1933.

398
Q

What were the effects of Prohibition?

A

Widely ignored, diffucult to enforce and led to a rise in organized crime.

399
Q

Why were immigrants resnted in some cities?

A

. Poverty.
. Speech issues with English.
. Unfamiliar traditions and religions.

400
Q

How were African Americans treated in the South?

A

. Segregated.
. Faced discrimination and violence especially from the KKK.

401
Q

Why did many Afrian Americans move north?

A

. Better pay wages.
. Job opportunites.
. New industries.

402
Q

Why was playing the stock market popular in the 1920s?

A

Share prices constantly rose, allowing investors to buy and sell shares for quick profits.

403
Q

Why did banks lend money to stock market investors?

A

They expected to get their money back quickly with intrest.

404
Q

What caused the Wall Street Crash?

A

. Falling profits.
. Overproduction.
. Lack of confidence.
. Panic selling of shares.

405
Q

Why did inequalities of wealth contribute to the crash?

A

. Americans not affording goods.
. Factories were overproducing.

406
Q

Why did US companies struggle to sell goods abroad?

A

Foreign governments imposed tariffs (tax) on American goods.

407
Q

Why did shareholders begin to lose confidence in 1929?

A

Doubted companies woild keep making large profits.

408
Q

What happened when people started to panic?

A

More people sold shares (small part ownership in a company) lowering prices as they tried to attract buyers.

409
Q

What was ‘Black Thursday’?

A

October 24th 1929
13 million shares were sold, which dropped.

410
Q

What happened after Black Thursday?

A

Panic selling continued. On 29th October 16 milliom shares were sold.

411
Q

How much money did shareholders lose in the crash?

A

$8 billion.

412
Q

Why did banks go bankrupt after the crash?

A

Borrowers couldn’t repay loans causing 659 banks to go bust in 1929.

413
Q

How did ordinary people lose their savings?

A

When banks went bankrupt, some lost all their money.

414
Q

What did the term ‘Great Depression’ describe by 1930?

A

Effects of the Wall Street Crash- Factory closures, bank failures and record unemployment.

415
Q

How were ordinary shareholders affected by the Depression?

A

Millions lost their fortunes, sold valuables to repay loans and struggled with rent and homelessness.

416
Q

How were the very rich affected by the Depression?

A

Some lost part of their wealth from shares or factories but many with property and land were mostly unaffected.

417
Q

How were businessmen and their workers affected by the Depression?

A

. Factory owners cut production.
. Wages and jobs.
. Fewer goods were sold.
. Local businesses like restaurants also closed.

418
Q

What happened to farmers during the Great Depression?

A

Many couldn’t repay debts and lost their farms; drought and poor methods caused Dust Bowls that ruined farmland.

419
Q

What was the impact on bank managers during the Depression?

A

Lost their jobs as banks went bust.

420
Q

What were the overall unemployment effects by 1932?

A

. 12,000 people lost jobs daily.
. 20,000 companies closed.
. 13 million unemployed.
. 25% of the labour force.

421
Q

What were Hobos and Hoovervilles?

A

Hobos= Jobless workers travelling for work illegally.
Hoovervilles= Shanty towns made of scrap by the homeless.

422
Q

What was President Hoover’s belief about recovery?

A

‘Rugged individualism’
People should overcome their problems through hard work. Not government help.

423
Q

What actions did Hoover take during the Depression?

A

Set up Reconstruction Finance Corporation, funded job schemes and offered state aid but little money was accepted.

424
Q

What was the Hawley-Smoot Tariff and its effect?

A

. A tax on foreign goods to help U.S sales.
. Led other countries to tax US goods
. Hurting exports and businesses.

425
Q

How did violence and protest appear during the Depression?

A

Farmers in lowa resisted eviction; 25,000 ex-soldiers (Bonus Army) were forced out of D.C by the army in 1932.

426
Q

Who were the two main canidates in the 1932 presidential election?

A

Herbert Hoover (Republican) and Franklin Delano Roosevelt (Democrat).

427
Q

What was Herbert Hoover’s background?

A

. Orphaned at 8.
. A multimillionaire through mining.
. Then entered politics.

428
Q

What were Hoover’s political beliefs?

A

. Republican
. Believed in ‘laissez-faire’ and ‘rugged individualism’.

429
Q

How did Hoover respond to the Depression?

A

At first did little. Later lent money to businesses and states. Began construction projects but was unpopular and a poor speaker.

430
Q

What was Franklin Roosevelt’s background?

A

. Privately educated.
. From a rich family.
. Paralysed by polio in 1921.

431
Q

What political party did FDR belong to and why?

A

Democrat.
Possibly influenced by his wife Eleanor. But, his family were mostly Republicans.

432
Q

What was FDR’s political experience?

A

. Helped organise the navy in WW1.
. Governor of New York from 1928.

433
Q

What did FDR do to help during the Depression in New York?

A

Spent $20 million of tax money helping the unemployed.

434
Q

What were the ‘3Rs’ promised by FDR?

A

Relief- For those in need
Recovery- Government job schemes
Reform- Prevent future depressions

435
Q

What was the ‘New Deal’?

A

FDR’s promise of relief, recovery and reform to help Americans during the Depression.

436
Q

Why was FDR popular with voters?

A

. Great public speaker.
. Toured the country.
. Overcome disability.
. Offered hope with the ‘New Deal’.

437
Q

What was the outcome of the 1932 election?

A

FDR won by a landslide one of the biggest election victories in US history.

438
Q

What caused the Great Depression?

A

The 1929 Wall Street Crash which caused banks to fail and millions to lose money.

439
Q

Why did banks go bankrupt after the Crash?

A

People couldn’t repay loans used to buy shares.

440
Q

What was the impact of the Great Depression?

A

Economic collapse and hardship across America.

441
Q

How effective was Hoover’s response to the Depression?

A

Too little, too late. Made him unpopular.

442
Q

What was FDR’s promise to the American people in 1932?

A

A ‘New Deal’ to help them recover from the Depression.

443
Q

What marked the first 100 days of FDR’s presidency?

A

More action to end the Depression than had been seen since it began; ‘laissez-faire’ ended.

444
Q

What was the Emergency Banking Act?

A

All banks closed and inspected. Only honest well-run ones reopened and got loans to help businesses grow and create jobs.

445
Q

What was the Economy Act?

A

Cut government employees’ pay by 15% saving nearly $1 billion.

446
Q

What was the Beer Act?

A

Ended Prohibition and allowed the government to raise money by taxing alcohol.

447
Q

What were the ‘Alphabet Agencies’?

A

New organisations to tackle US problems named by initials. To create more jobs to restart the economy ‘priming the pump’.

448
Q

What did the AAA (Agricultural Adjustment Agency) do?

A

. Paid farmers to produce less.
. Food prices rose and incomes increased but criticized for drestroying food while people went hungry.

449
Q

What did TVA (Tennessee Valley Authority) do?

A

Provided work building dams and power stations in a poor area of America.

450
Q

What did the CCC (Civilian Conservation Corps) do?

A

Gave jobs to jobless 18-250year-olds creating 2.5 million jobs.

451
Q

Who opposed the New Deal and why?

A

The Rich- Angry over higher taxes.
Business People- Disliked interference and worker rights.
Supreme Court- Declared AAA and NRA illegal. By helping farmers was a state issue.
Republicans- Thought Roosevelt made government too powerful and acted like a dicator.

452
Q

What alternative idea did Francis Townsend suggest?

A

Everyone should retire at 60 to open jobs for younger people.